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258 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Most common clinical manifestation of infectious pneumonia in children <6 months old
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tachypnea
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Most common pneumonia-causing bacteria from birth to 1 month
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Group B streptococci
|
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Most common pneumonia-causing bacteria from 1 month to 6 months
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Streptococcus pneumoniae - Group A
|
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Most common pneumonia-causing viruses (2) from birth to 1 month
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Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV) |
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Most common pneumonia-causing virus from 1 month to 6 months
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RSV
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Most common ATYPICAL pneumonia-causing bacteria from 1 month to 6 months
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Chlamydia trachomatis
|
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The three common atypical agents causing pneumonia in kids
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Bordatella pertussis
Chlamydia trachomatis Mycoplasma pneumoniae |
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Before its vaccine was made, it was the leading cause of death by communicable dz in kids <14 yo
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Bordatella pertusis
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What's so dangerous about pertussis in very young infants?
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infants <3 months old may present with APNEA or gasping cough & choking, rather than the characteristic 'whoop' you'd expect from pertussis infection
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Which age group doesn't present with the characteristic 'whoop' if infected with B. pertussis?
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infants <3 months old
adolescents/adults |
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An afebrile child presents with facial petechiae, scleral hemorrhages and vomiting after coughing
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Pertussis
|
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What is the major lab finding in pertussis?
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lymphocytosis (>20,000 WBC)
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When and how does an infant get chlamydia trachomatis pneumonia?
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-acquired prenatally but presents after 1 month of age (usually around 2-3 months)
-passed by monthers with untreated vaginal infection to C. trachomatis |
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What are the 4 clinical manifestations of chlamydia trachomatic pneumonia
|
Afebrile
conjunctivitis staccato cough (shallow) eosinophilia |
|
In infants, bronchopneumonia is mostly caused by
|
mycoplasma pneumnoniae
|
|
Most common cause of pneumonia in children
|
VIRUSES: RSV & Influenza
|
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two infections that can cause apnea in infants
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pertussis
influenza |
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Infant presents with sepsis-like illness with apnea
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influenza
|
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Who can get the flu vaccine?
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children 6 months or older
|
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If a child presents with pneumonia and CXR shows pleural effusions, what do you think of?
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S. aureus ...especially MRSA!
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Are sputum samples helpful in children with pneumnonia?
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not really..easily contaminated
|
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FOR ANY PNEUMONIA......
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REMEMBER OMT!
|
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If a child presents with TB..what do you ask about?
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TRAVEL!
|
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If a child is found at risk for TB by HISTORY..what do you do next?
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PPD
|
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In children, what's better for TB, a PPD test or sputum sample?
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PPD! (sputum is unreliable in children..easily contaminated!)
|
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2 most common clinical manifestations of TB in kids (similar to adults..)
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Weight Loss
Fever |
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5 listed Extrapulmonary Diseases in children. What age children are most at risk for extrapulmonary dz?
|
risk greatest in children < 4 yo who have TB!!
-SCROFULA (check for CERVICAL LYMPHADENITIS!!!) -ileitis -skin/joint involvement -Pott's dz (TB of spine) -skeletal dz involving vertebrae |
|
Risk factors for early childhood persistent asthma
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Parental asthma
Allergy (food, rhinitis, dermatitis, etc) Severe LRTI Wheezing Male gender Low birth weight Environmental tobacco smoke |
|
In older children, what are the two clinical manifestations of asthma?
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SOB
Chest tightness |
|
In younger children, what is the clinical manifestation of asthma?
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intermittent, non-focal chest "pain" (not heart related)
|
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What are the 4 main triggers of asthma?
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physical exertion
hyperventilation (laughing) Cold or dry air Airway irritants |
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In kids, asthma symptoms tend to worsen with __________ infections and ________ allergens
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viral
inhaled |
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Three main DDx for a pt presenting with S&S of asthma
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Allergic rhinitis
Chronic sinusitis GER - gastroesophageal reflux |
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The normals for PFT testing in kids is based upon what three factors?
|
height
gender ethnicity |
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What's the earliest age the kid can be to do a PFT?
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7 yo or older
|
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Kid comes in with purulent, foul smelling discharge from his R nostril...Ddx?
|
foreign body
|
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Cobble stoning of posterior pharynx is a sign of what?
|
allergic rhinitis
|
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In a person with allergic rhinitis, their smear of nasal secretions may reveal ________
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eosinophilia
|
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What is the dx and tx for common cold?
|
dx - clinical
tx- symptomatic |
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What is the natural course of a common cold?
|
7-10 days
|
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Infant is born with these two sinuses.
One of these doesn't pneumonize until _____ yo. Sphenoid sinuses present by ___ yo Frontal sinuses begin forming at _____ yo |
ethmoidal & maxillary
maxillary not pneumonized until 4 yo sphenoids = 5 yo Frontals = 7-8 yo |
|
Most common cause of sinusitis in peds?
|
Strep. pneumo is the most common
also the H. influenza (nontypable) & Moraxella catarrhalis |
|
What are the predisposing conditions that may lead to sinusitis?
|
Viral URTI
Allergic rhinitis Cigarette smoke exposure |
|
What two symptoms of sinusitis are usually present in adults but absent in children?
|
headaches
facial pain due to late sinus development!! |
|
Dx of sinusitis is based on what?
What are the 2 main criteria? |
history
1) persistent URTI for 10-14 days w/o improvement 2) severe resp sx including temp (>101F) and purulent nasal discharge for 3-4 days |
|
What is the most accurate method of dx sinusitis..but it's also not very practical?
|
sinus aspirate (because kids hate it)
|
|
When would you use a CT for sinusitis?
|
not indicated unless planned surgery
most correlate findings with hx it's not dx! |
|
periorbital cellulitis, osteomyelitis of frontal bone (Pott puffy tumor) and meningitis are all complications of what?
|
sinusitis
|
|
What is the peak incidence and prevalence for Otitis Media?
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6-20 months of age
|
|
Most common bacterial cause of AOM?
|
Strep pneumoniae (but can be caused by viruses as well..or both!)
|
|
Do all kids with AOM present with symptoms?
|
NO...may kids don't have any sx at all!
|
|
You see a kid who comes in to your office and is holding his ear, he has fever and is very agitated...DDx?
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AOM
|
|
Dx of OM is based on what?
|
mainly on physical findings
|
|
If a kid presents with sx of OM, what can you use to get objective evidence of middle ear effusion?
|
tympanometry
|
|
A kid has OME...you should consider Myringotomy w/ tympanostomy tubes if he's had unilateral OME continuously for __________ months or bilateral OME continuously for _______ months, OR he has evidence of ________
|
9-18 months
6-12 months hearing loss |
|
All cases of AOM are techanically accompanied by _________.....and if you suspect this, you must obtain a ____
|
mastoiditis
CT scan |
|
What's the Tx for acute mastoiditis?
|
IV ABX or surgery
|
|
Most common pathogen causing Otitis Externa
|
P. aeruginosa
|
|
When would you consider oral or parentral ABX for otitis externa?
|
severe infections with fever and lymphadenitis!
|
|
Sore throat in kids is 90% _______
|
VIRAL!
|
|
Infectious mononucleosis in kids is due to what bug?
|
Epstein-Barr Virus
|
|
Infectious Mononucleosis is rare in children < ____ yo and adults > ___ yo
|
4 yo
40 yo |
|
What's the dz that presents with exudative tonsillitis
generlized cervical adenitis Fever/fatigue splenomegaly |
Infectious mononucleosis
|
|
Dx of infectious mononucleosis is based on what?
|
presentation & labs
-lymphocytes, Ab, EBV titers |
|
How do you tx infectious mononucleosis?
|
supportive
limit activity if splenomegaly! |
|
Herpangina is due to what bug?
What does it present with? |
Enteroviral infections
vesicular and ulcerative lesions on the POSTERIOR buccal mucosa, pharyngeal wall, soft palate & uvula |
|
Stomatitis is caused by what bug?
How does it present? |
Herpes simplex virus
ulcerative lesions..mainly in the ANTERIOR portion of the mouth |
|
Hand, Foot and Mouth Dz is caused by what bug?
How does it present? |
Enteroviral infection (Coxsackie A)
vesicles/ulcers in the mouth & lesions on hands, feet & butt |
|
Pharyngoconjuncunctival fever is caused by what bug?
How does it present? Can you swab for this bug? |
adenovirus
conjunctivitis exudative pharyngitis fever GI sx Yes..can do a viral swab for adenovirus |
|
Acute Bacteria Pharyngitis AKA STREP is caused by what bug?
How does strep infection present in kids? |
Group A beta-hemolytic strep (GABHS)
SORE THROAT FEVER ***ABDOMINAL PAIN tonsillar exudate strawberry tongue = scarlet fever |
|
If a kid comes in with continuous strep infections..what's the criteria to remove his tonsils?
|
tonsillectomy is indicated for recurrent GABHS infections of 5 infections or more a year!
|
|
A kid presents with sudden onset of violent coughing w/o any other signs
|
Aspiration/non-infectious pneumonia
|
|
When should you admit a kid with pertussis to the hospital?
|
if he's < 3 mo old...apnea!
|
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Which child pneumonia causing bug can be the cause of an URTI that progresses to a LRTI?
|
mycoplasma pneumonia
|
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The two childhood infections that can lead to apnea
|
influenza
pertussis |
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How old does an infant have to be to get a PPD?
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at least 3 mo old
|
|
A kid often gets ear infections..what are two important outside factors that you need to know?
|
whether the kid goes to daycare
whether the parents smoke |
|
Three bacteria that most commonly cause AOM
|
H. influenza (most common)
S. pneumoniae Moraxella catarrhalis |
|
What's the mnemonic for virulence factors for Moraxella catarrhalis?
|
LEPP
lactoferrin endotoxin pili protein w/ resistance to MAC |
|
If someone presents with sinusitis, what is the strongest reason to Tx with ABX?
|
length of sx! (min of 2 weeks)
|
|
What are the four true systemic fungal pathogens that infect the resp tract?
|
-histoplasma capsulatum (histoplasmosis)
-coccidioides immitis (coccidioidomycosis, San Joaquin Valley Fever, Valley Fever, desert rheumatism) -Blastomycoses dermatitidis (blastomycosis) -paracoccidioides brasiliensis (paracoccidioidomycosis) |
|
Which fungal dz can cause granuloma/calcification formations in the lungs?
|
histoplasma capsulatum
|
|
Fungi common in the Ohio-Mississippi
|
Histoplasma capsulatum
blastomyces dermatitidis |
|
Which fungus turns to arthrospores and gets picked up by dust storms?
|
Coccidioides immitis
|
|
Which fungus turns to yeast in the body, then spherules which divide and produce endospores?
|
Coccidioides immitis
|
|
Which fungus lives in dry soiled areas?
|
Coccidioides immitis
|
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Which of these two can dissiminate to other organs, and which one can't? (histoplasmosis & coccidioidomycosis)
|
histoplasmosis = can diss to spleen, liver, adrenals
coccidioidomycosis = RARE |
|
A pt comes in with flu-like sx, you do a sputum sample and find a lot of SPHERULES. Dx?
|
coccidioidomycosis
cocci = circle/round; spherules = circle/round... |
|
Fungus passed to humans through dogs?
|
blastomyces dermatitidis (blastomycosis)
|
|
Fungal infection by inhalation of spores, but commonly presents only as cutaneous lesions
|
blastomyces dermatitidis (blastomycosis)
|
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Blastomycosis follows the same pattern as __________ and thus can get _________ & _________ in the lungs
|
histoplasmosis
granulomas & calcifications |
|
AOM requires the presence of middle ear effusion and most of the follow: (4 things)
|
otalgia
ottorhea fever bulging red/yellow TM |
|
Blastomycosis is commonly found in which geographic locations?
|
similar to histoplasmosis (Ohio-Mississippi Valley)
|
|
Which fungus is present in tropical/subtropical areas of central & south america & can cause cutaneous & mucocutaneous ulcers?
|
paracoccidioides brasiliensis (paracoccidioidomycosis)
|
|
What are the three pathogenic mechanisms of aspergillus fumigatus?
|
Allergic
Colonizing (aspergilloma) Invasive |
|
Identification of hyphae in sputum is dx for what?
|
aspergillus fumigatus
|
|
What four fungi can cause Zygomycosis?
|
RHIZOPHUS
Mucor Absidia A. Fusarium |
|
In whom do Zygomycosis infections (Rhizopus) commonly present in?
|
immunocompromised & those with DIABETIC KETOACIDOSIS!!
|
|
What's the virulence factor of Stachybotrys chartrum? What does this virulence factor do?
|
mycotoxins which produce TRICHOTHECENES
inhibits DNA/RNA |
|
Cauliflower ear deformity is usually due to _____
|
trauma (damaged ear cartilage)
|
|
Destructive and expanding growth consisting of keratinizing squamous epithelium in the middle ear
|
cholesteatoma
|
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When debriding a cerumen filled ear, what nerve branch could cause coughing if stimulated?
|
Arnold's Branch of CN X (Vagus N)
|
|
List the 5 things that could cause Sensorineural Hearing loss
|
Noise exposure
Presbycusis Viral infection Meniere's Syndrome Ototoxic medication |
|
What is the triad in Meniere's Syndrome?
|
vertigo
high-pitched tinitus low-frequency hearing loss |
|
Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo is due to disorders of the ______________
|
semicircular canals
|
|
What are some non-otologic etiologies of vertigo?
|
CNS tumors
MS Vertebral & Carotid artery dz |
|
For which type of epistaxis might you do endoscopic cauterization & arterial ligation procedures?
|
POSTERIOR epistaxis
|
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In Atropic Rhinitis, rhinorrhea is most commonly associated with _______ and ___________
|
eating
exertion/exercise |
|
Rhinitis medicamentosa is associated with using what?
|
OTC decongestant sprays (Afrin)
|
|
A "saddle nose deformity" can be caused by what 4 things?
|
trauma
chemical exposure granulomatous dz infectious dz |
|
Hyperplasia of nasal tissue
|
Rhinophyma (result of a common face rash of adults called Rosacea)
|
|
If a pt can't breath through their nose, & no infectious process is found..what is the MAIN etiology?
Tx for this? |
deviated nasal septum
surgery! |
|
Which process, usually exclusive to children, can cause difficulty breathing through the nose?
|
adenoid hypertrophy
|
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Vasomotor rhinitis is _______ and usually due to a _________ issue. commonly occurs when ___________________
|
intermittent
neurologic issue (so non-allergic) exercising/eating |
|
Recurrent Acute Sinusitis
|
4 or more episodes per year w/ resolution between attacks
|
|
Does bacteria or viral caused Acute Sinusitis usually present with UNILATERAL facial & forehead pain?
|
bacterial
|
|
Bacterial or viral?"
Sinusitis where the pain gets worsened by bending over, valsalva maneuver, facial swelling, "toothache" & poor response to decongestants |
BACTERIAL
|
|
What is the criteria for sinusitis?
|
2 of 4 of these:
nasal congestion headaches hyposmia post-nasal purulent drainage with objective findings from: -Sinus CT scan -See mucopus in the middle meatus -See polyps in the middle meatus |
|
Do kids tend to have more viral or bacterial sinusitis?
|
VIRAL
|
|
Periorbital cellulitis can be found in ______ with _______, and can cause the _______ to shut
|
kids
sinusitis eyelids |
|
Rhinitis is a group of disorders characterized by 1 or more of these sx: (4)
|
sneezing
nasal itching rhinorrhea nasal congestion |
|
The most common type of chronic rhinitis
|
allergic rhinitis
|
|
Allergic rhinitis peaks in what age group?
|
young adults
|
|
How can allergic rhinitis lead to sinusitis?
|
it causes enlarged inferior turbinates, edema & inflammation, all of which can block the drainage sinus pathway
|
|
Three reasons why the pt's sinusitis may not get better after tx
|
didn't improve SINUS ENVIRONMENT
IMPROPER antibiotics inadequate LENGTH of therapy (2wk min!) |
|
Absolute indications for sinus surgery
|
brain abscess
meningitis eye involvement sinus mucocele or pyocele FUNGAL sinusitis massive polyposis neoplasm |
|
Most common reason why ENT's receive calls after a pt has a tonsillectomy
|
OTALGIA
|
|
Most common cause for complaints of otalgia that ENT's see in their office
|
TMJ syndrome (part of DENTAL disorders!!) - so it's REFERRED OTALGIA!
|
|
CN V has which branch which involves the ear?
|
Auriculotemporal branch
|
|
CN VII has which branch which involves the ear?
|
Ramsey Hunt branch
|
|
CN IX has which branch which involves the ear?
|
Jacobson branch
|
|
CN X has which branch which involves the ear?
|
Arnold branch
|
|
The center for the sensation of otalgia is located in the ________________
|
spinal tract nucleus of CN V
|
|
Primary cell that predominates in effusions
|
monocytes
|
|
If someone presents with ear ache, what other thing do you have to access aggressively?
|
the nose, pharynx & larynx...strong associating between sinus pathology, cancer & ear pain
Also want to check the neck for thyroid dz, adenopathy and MSK disorders such as trap or SCM |
|
Which two nerves near the TMJ can cause referred pain to the ear?
|
third division of trigeminal nerve
auriculotemporal nerve |
|
Which two nerves, near the nose can cause referred pain to the ear from sinusitis?
|
second division of trigeminal nerve
auriculotemporal nerve |
|
Because this nerve pretty much owns the face, if it gets aggitated, it could present as ear pain
|
trigeminal nerve
|
|
Rhinogenic headaches
Sx & What is the cause? |
unilateral pain without a cause;
when the middle turbinates pneumotizes during sinus development & presses against the nasal septum, which then creates a contact point with the lateral nasal wall |
|
Chronic treatment of empyema
|
fibrinolytic
|
|
Which nerves supply the upper aerodigestive tract?
|
CN 9 and 10
|
|
Since the vagus nerve runs caudally, irritation of these three organs in the chest could lead to otalgia by irritation the ___________ of CN 9 and the __________ of CN 10
|
esophagus
bronchi heart Jacobson branch Arnolds branch |
|
What are the two common causes of earaches in children? What is not common in children..but may be in adults?
|
Tonsillitis
Pharyngitis NOT laryngitis; (ALSO..could have extra-esophageal reflux!!!) |
|
In trigeminal neuralgias, burning pain & sx are referred along its _____________
|
auriculotemporal branch
|
|
In geniculate neuralgias, burning pain & sx are referred along the _____________; It's often present in ______________ syndrome, with pain within the __________
|
facial nerve sensory fibers
Ramsey Hunt syndrome auricle |
|
In sphenopalatine and vidian neuralgias, burning pain & sx are referred along the ______ and _______
|
greater superficial petrosal nerves
facial nerves |
|
In glossopharyngeal neuralgias, pain & sx are referred along the ______ as well as cause phantom ___________
|
Jacobson (CN 9)
tonsillar pain |
|
Name the three atypical otologic etiologies which may cause ear pain
|
Meiniere dz (triad)
Tumors of the TEMPORAL BONE Bells palsy |
|
What other DDx should always be considered when dealing with otalgia?
|
Temporal arteritis --> vision loss & increased ESR
Parotid neoplasms Herpes zoster (Ramsey-Hunt syn) Carotidynia Angina pectoris Eagle Syndrome (affects CN 9 & 10) |
|
What is the potential complication of inverted papilloma?
|
chance of malignant degeneration & invasion of intracranial cavity
|
|
A pt gets excessive pain upon palpation of tonsils...Dx?
|
Eagle syndrome
|
|
Name the two main etiologies of pneumothorax and their subtypes
|
1) Spontaneous - includes Primary (bleb, bullae rupture) & Secondary (COPD, infection, infarct, tumors, tissue dz)
2) Traumatic - includes Iatrogenic, Penetrating & Blunt Chest Trauma |
|
Large pneumothorax has acute onset of ipsilateral ________ & ___________
|
chest pain & dypsnia
|
|
In a pneumothorax, does your HR & BP increase or decrease?
|
increase
|
|
To increase recovery from pneumothorax, what can you give?
|
humidified 100% O2 - increases the % of air absorbed by the body per day by 6 fold!
|
|
In pt's with pneumothorax, when do you do a thoracoscopy or open thoracotomy?
|
-repeated episodes
-persistent leaks -pneumo for >5 days -failure of re-expansion |
|
What's chemical pleurodesis?
|
stimulate adhesion w/ tetracycline/minocycline or talc, so lung won't fall from wall
|
|
What's the most common source of bleeding in a hemothorax?
|
intercostal & internal mammary arteries
|
|
Tension pneumothorax is what kind of diagnosis?
|
CLINICAL!
|
|
Why do people with tension pneumothorax die?
|
kinks & diminished venous return in SVC and IVC & compromised cardiopulmonary function
|
|
Most common site of aortic transection
|
at the ligamentum arteriosum, just distal to the left subclavian artery
|
|
Most common finding at autopsy of pts who died at the scene of a MVA
|
cardiac rupture
|
|
What's the Beck's Triad?
|
-muffled heart sounds (pericardial friction rub)
-decreased BP -JVD |
|
What FAST used for?
|
Focused Assessment Sonography for Trauma - used for Cardiac Temponade
|
|
Transudates happen most commonly in what dz process:
|
CHF
|
|
Exudates happen most commonly in what dz process:
|
malignancy
|
|
Pleural effusions: increased hydrostatic pressure most common in:
|
CHF
|
|
Pleural effusions: decreased oncotic pressure most common in:
|
nephrotic syndrome (decreased protein in blood due to leaky kidney, so water stays in the tissues instead of going into the vessels)
|
|
Which kind of tumors are most commonly cause of chylothorax
|
posterior mediastinal
|
|
Pleural effusions: increased permeability of vessels is due to:
|
inflammation
|
|
Pleural effusions: impaired lymphatic drainage is due to:
|
**MALIGNANCY!!
|
|
Pleural effusions: if communication with peritoneal space exists, a pleural effusion could be caused by:
|
ascites
|
|
***BLOODY EFFUSIONS OFTEN DENOTE:
|
MALIGNANCY!
|
|
Most common cause of malignant pleural effusion
|
lung cancer
|
|
Most common cause of Chylothorax
2nd most common cause? |
malignancy
trauma |
|
Complication of pneumonia...that causes effusion
|
Parapneumonic effusion
|
|
How do u tx parapneumonic effusions?
|
If small (majority) = resolve w/ ABX
if > 10 mm on lateral decub. film...THORACENTESIS! |
|
What are the three stages of empyema (a parapneumonic effusion)?
|
1) exudative (0-24hrs) - sterile..resolves with ABX
2) fibropurulent (24-72hrs) - infection of sterile pleural fluid with PMN, bacteria & cell debris 3) chronic (>72hrs) - fibroblasts produce inelastic membrane |
|
What is the tx for empyema?
|
tube thoracostomy
if very thick purulent effusion...FIBRINOLYTIC therapy IV ABX to treat primary infection |
|
Can you TX mesothelioma? What are the options?
|
Can't cure it..but can do surgery, chemo, radiation to improve the QUALITY of life!
|
|
Most common primary neoplasm of the anterior/superior mediastinum
|
thymoma
|
|
Which tumor involves the germ cell layers?
|
teratoma's (usually in children)
|
|
How can we help decrease lung cancer as physicians?
|
PREVENTION!
set an example by not smoking advise pt's not to smoke |
|
Tumors arising centrally in large airways can produce:
|
cough
wheeze hemoptysis focal atelectasis behind the tumor dyspnea recurrent infections (pneumonia, bronchitis) |
|
Tumors arising peripherally can produce:
|
***chest pain (involves parietal pleura!)
dyspnea pleural effusions voice change |
|
Upper, inner arm pain with weakness & parasthesias, and decrease motor control of hand
|
Super sulcus tumor (Pancoast tumor) - tumor of the pulmonary apex that presses up against the brachial plexus & cervical symp chain
|
|
Paravertebral & sympathetic nerve involvement is common in what Syndrome?
|
Horner's Syndrome
|
|
Isolated chest pain..a common presentation of lung cancer?
|
NO..rarely
|
|
What are the four main clinical manifestations of lung cancer?
|
COUGH
WEIGHT LOSS DYSPNEA HEMOPTYSIS |
|
What two screening methods have helped to detect tumors at a more operable stage for HIGH RISK patients?
|
CT (spiral or helical) + molecular markers
|
|
Most common type of lung cancer
|
adenocarcinoma
|
|
Which lung cancer is the only one that travels by LYMPH?
Which lung cancer spreads really FAST? Which lung cancer spreads really SLOW? why? |
squamous cell carcinoma
small cell squamous cell - travels only by lymph! |
|
Stachybotrys chartum causes what certain resp. problem?
|
pulmonary hemorrhage/hemosiderosis
|
|
What is the staging of small cell carcinoma?
|
limited - one side of chest w/o LN involvement
excessive - everything else |
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In non-small cell carcinoma ______________ is the primary form of tx
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surigcal intervention
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In small-cell carcinoma, ________________ is the primary form of tx
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combination chemotherapy
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What type of staging determines resectability?
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mediastinal staging
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Mediastinal nodes > ______ are defined as pathological.
Does everyone with these sized nodes have cancer? If the nodes are less than this size, are they definitely non-pathological? |
>1cm
No...up to 30% don't No...up to 16% of nodes <1cm have tumor involvement |
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What's the best method of identifying mediastinal tumors?
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mediastinoscopy - GOLD STANDARD!!!! - used to sample nodes
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In identifying metastic tumors, what's better to use: CT, MRI, PET scan?
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PET scan
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Surgery is most effective tx method for which type of cancer and stages?
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NSCLC (Adeno, Squamous, Large) Stages I and II (maybe IIIa)
|
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What is the most frequently performed procedure for early stage lung cancer?
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lobectomy
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Name the signs of inoperability
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-mets to supraclavicular nodes, scalene, contralateral mediastinal or higher LN
-distant mets -malig pleural effusions (BLOODY) -carina involvement -SVC syndrome, Horner's syndrome -recurrent laryngeal n, phrenic n paralysis -main pulm artery involvement |
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Pallative tx method in cancer
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radiation = used to shrink localized tumor size, often before surgery, or for "bone" pain
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What is stereotactic radiation?
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delivers high doses, great 3yr survival if pt can tolerate the dose
|
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Most common cause of Pancoast Tumor/Syndrome?
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squamous cell
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Pt presents with hypercalcemia & notice there's a lot of PTH in his body
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SQUAMOUS CELL CA
|
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Pt presents with decreased plasma Na & hyposmolarity
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SMALL CELL CA - (SIADH)
|
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Pt presents with clubbing...what cancer is it associated with?
|
adenocarcinoma (but also ILD..)
|
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Person has new bone formation in extremities...was Dx with Hypertrophic Osteoarthropathy...what cancer is this associated with?
|
adenocarcinoma
|
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Paraneoplastic Syndromes for Small Cell Cancer
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SIADH
ACTH (Cushings & Eaton-Lambert Syndromes) |
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Paraneoplastic Syndromes for Squamous Cell Ca?
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hypercalcemia
|
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Paraneoplastic Syndromes for Adenocarcinoma?
|
Clubbing
HPO (Hypertrophic Osteoarthropathy) |
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Paraneoplastic Syndromes for Large Cell Cancer
|
HCG production (gynocomastia & milky nipple discharge)
|
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A male comes in and has gynocomastia and has milky nipple discharge...what cancer is this associated with?
|
Large cell cancer
|
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Define characteristics of a solitary pulmonary nodule
|
single
peripheral fairly smooth well circumscribed usually 4cm or smaller |
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If you see a lesion on a CT and it is a 'central fat' lesion..it's probably a ________
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Hamartoma - a benign solitary pulmonary node
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If you see a lesion on a CT and it has 'central calcifications' it's probably a ________
|
granuloma - a benign solitary pulmonary node
|
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If you see a single lesion on a CT and it has speculations or lobulations, it's probably a
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malignant solitary pulmonary nodules
|
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Who's more likely to present with a MALIGNANT solitary pulmonary nodule?
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smokers..10x more likely!
|
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Management of solitary pulmonary node
|
No further eval if:
-benign pattern calcification -no growth in past 2 yrs Can do: Chest CT & PET for lesions not obviously calcified HIGH RISK patients need to have TISSUE CONFIRMATION!!!! |
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Most common sources of lung metastasis?
|
#1 - COLON
#2 - breast #3 - kidney |
|
Most common agent causing ATYPICAL pnemonia in infants 1-6 months old
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Chlamydia trochamatis
|
|
Two bacterial infections in kids which may NOT cause a fever
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the atypicals:
Chlamydia trichomatis Bordatella pertussis (mycoplasma..the other common atypical in kids, causes a fever) |
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Fungus that causes flu-like patchy pneumonia
|
Histoplasma capsulatum
|
|
Fungus that is described as "snowstorm" like pattern on CXR
|
histoplasma capsulatum
|
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Which fungus has antiphagocytic properties?
|
coccidioides immitis
|
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If a pt is dx with coccidioiomycosis, you should tell him that the sx will resolve in ______ weeks
|
2-6 WEEKS!
|
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A guy has been a farmer and malt worked for the past 40 years. He presents with sx very similar to asthma. He says that he does have an inhaler, but his sx are getting worse despite using it.
What could this be? To be sure, you take a sputum sample..what will you find that's dx of this bug? |
ABPA - allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis
identification of hyphae in sputum |
|
Galactomannan Ag is located on what bug?
|
aspergillus fumigatus
|
|
Diabetic Ketoacidosis pt's can commonly get this fungal dz..
|
Zygomycosis (with Rhizopus, Mucor, Absidia, A. fusarium)
|
|
At how many weeks does the fetus begins to "breath" and move fluid around?
|
20 weeks
|
|
Can probably save a baby that is ____ weeks..if younger, can't
|
23 weeks
|
|
At what trimester do IgG pass from mother to fetus?
How long does a newborn have mom's immunity? Which Ab are learned? |
3rd
a TERM baby has mom's immunity for a couple months IgM & IgA are learned |
|
At how many weeks do Type I pneumocytes form?
|
23 weeks - so fetal survival depends on Type I pneumocytes...if <23 weeks, they aren't formed & fetus can't survive
|
|
Type II pneumocytes release surfactant when they are ________
|
stretched (breathing)
|
|
Hb binds O2 at the lungs when _______ (alkalotic or acidotic)
Hb releases O2 at muscle tissues when _________ (alkalotic or acidotic) |
alkalotic
acidotic (bohr effect!) |
|
Blood pH & Diet:
increasing carb diet produces (increased/low) amount of CO2 |
increased (Carb has an R=1.0)
|
|
Blood pH & Diet:
increasing fat diet produces (increased/low) amount of CO2 |
decreased (fat has an R=0.7)
|
|
How are atelectasis & dead space differ?
|
atelectasis = no V (blocked air supply)
dead space = no P (blocked blood supply) |
|
Hypoxic pumonary vasoconstriction occurs in response to MAINTAIN ______ in (atelectasis or dead space)
|
V/Q!!!
in ATELECTASIS! (poorly ventilated alveoli) |
|
If a child has atelectasis (due to pneumonia, hemorrhage, etc), and you give him albuterol, what will happen to his pulse ox reading?
Will the child act/feel worse? |
will drop; it dilates the constricted arteries who's alveoli aren't getting perfused, thus increasing blood flow to hypoxic areas of the lung, and increasing venous admixture = pulse ox drops
NO! Child may actually act/feel better inspite of saturation drop! |
|
9 yo boy presents with a "white-out" on CXR, tachypenic, & his pulse-ox drops when you give him a beta-agonist. What physiological process is going on?
|
hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction
|
|
In dead space, is V/Q maintained or is abnormal?
|
V/Q is ABNORMAL!...the alveoli will still get ventilated, but no perfusion will occur
|
|
We are kept pink by the amount of gas that is ____________________.
How much volume of air do we breath? |
left in the lungs at the end of easy breathing
5cc/kg/breath |
|
The 5's - the Basic Goals of Anesthesia
|
Awareness
Amnesia Analgesia Autonomic stability Appropriate surgical conditions |
|
When giving anesthesia, what kind of problems can cause 'silent infarctions'?
|
endocrine abnormalities
|
|
What are the seven Standard ASA monitors for anesthesia?
|
COVT
Circulation = ECG, BP, stethascope O2 = pulse ox, o2 analyzer Ventilation = capnography Temperature |
|
Under anesthesia, patients are at risk for ASPIRATIONS. Pt's who are at most risk for aspirations are:
|
diabetics
obese pregnant have GERD |
|
Explain rapid sequence induction
|
sedate the pt before intubating
pt thus can't protect his airway, so must apply cricoid pressure until the tube is placed |
|
How is malignant hyperthermia dx?
What are the triggering agents? What's the treatment for MH? |
muscle biopsy
anesthetic inhalation gasses or succinylcholine DANTROLENE! |
|
What are the anesthetic agents?
Narcotic agents contain what letters? Inhalation anesthetics contain what letters? non-depolarizing muscle relaxants contain what letters? Local anesthetics contain what letters? |
PEKS - propofol, etomidate, ketamine, sodium thiopental
-FEN- (fentanyl, sufentanil, alfentanil, morphine) -FLU- (isoflurane, sevoflurane, desflurane) + NO + Halothane -CUR- (vecuronium, rocuronium, tracrium) -CAINE (lidocaine, bupivacaine, ropivacaine <-- doesn't affect pregnancy labor!) |
|
clinical features of gaucher
|
hepatosplenomegaly
aseptic necrosis of femur bone crises Gaucher cells |
|
What's the most common of all anterior mediastinal masses?
|
thymoma's
|
|
5 most common sites of distant metastasis for lung cancer.
|
brain
bones liver adrenals skin |
|
What is the most important determinant of cancer patient's outcome?
|
STAGE - final treatment depends on the final TNM stage
|
|
Pancoast Tumor/Syndrom is mainly due to what type of cancer?
|
squamous cell 52%; Adeno is 23%
|
|
Which cancer has hyperchromatic nuclei
|
squamous cell
|