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258 Cards in this Set

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Most common clinical manifestation of infectious pneumonia in children <6 months old
tachypnea
Most common pneumonia-causing bacteria from birth to 1 month
Group B streptococci
Most common pneumonia-causing bacteria from 1 month to 6 months
Streptococcus pneumoniae - Group A
Most common pneumonia-causing viruses (2) from birth to 1 month
Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV)
Most common pneumonia-causing virus from 1 month to 6 months
RSV
Most common ATYPICAL pneumonia-causing bacteria from 1 month to 6 months
Chlamydia trachomatis
The three common atypical agents causing pneumonia in kids
Bordatella pertussis
Chlamydia trachomatis
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Before its vaccine was made, it was the leading cause of death by communicable dz in kids <14 yo
Bordatella pertusis
What's so dangerous about pertussis in very young infants?
infants <3 months old may present with APNEA or gasping cough & choking, rather than the characteristic 'whoop' you'd expect from pertussis infection
Which age group doesn't present with the characteristic 'whoop' if infected with B. pertussis?
infants <3 months old
adolescents/adults
An afebrile child presents with facial petechiae, scleral hemorrhages and vomiting after coughing
Pertussis
What is the major lab finding in pertussis?
lymphocytosis (>20,000 WBC)
When and how does an infant get chlamydia trachomatis pneumonia?
-acquired prenatally but presents after 1 month of age (usually around 2-3 months)
-passed by monthers with untreated vaginal infection to C. trachomatis
What are the 4 clinical manifestations of chlamydia trachomatic pneumonia
Afebrile
conjunctivitis
staccato cough (shallow)
eosinophilia
In infants, bronchopneumonia is mostly caused by
mycoplasma pneumnoniae
Most common cause of pneumonia in children
VIRUSES: RSV & Influenza
two infections that can cause apnea in infants
pertussis
influenza
Infant presents with sepsis-like illness with apnea
influenza
Who can get the flu vaccine?
children 6 months or older
If a child presents with pneumonia and CXR shows pleural effusions, what do you think of?
S. aureus ...especially MRSA!
Are sputum samples helpful in children with pneumnonia?
not really..easily contaminated
FOR ANY PNEUMONIA......
REMEMBER OMT!
If a child presents with TB..what do you ask about?
TRAVEL!
If a child is found at risk for TB by HISTORY..what do you do next?
PPD
In children, what's better for TB, a PPD test or sputum sample?
PPD! (sputum is unreliable in children..easily contaminated!)
2 most common clinical manifestations of TB in kids (similar to adults..)
Weight Loss
Fever
5 listed Extrapulmonary Diseases in children. What age children are most at risk for extrapulmonary dz?
risk greatest in children < 4 yo who have TB!!

-SCROFULA (check for CERVICAL LYMPHADENITIS!!!)
-ileitis
-skin/joint involvement
-Pott's dz (TB of spine)
-skeletal dz involving vertebrae
Risk factors for early childhood persistent asthma
Parental asthma
Allergy (food, rhinitis, dermatitis, etc)
Severe LRTI
Wheezing
Male gender
Low birth weight
Environmental tobacco smoke
In older children, what are the two clinical manifestations of asthma?
SOB
Chest tightness
In younger children, what is the clinical manifestation of asthma?
intermittent, non-focal chest "pain" (not heart related)
What are the 4 main triggers of asthma?
physical exertion
hyperventilation (laughing)
Cold or dry air
Airway irritants
In kids, asthma symptoms tend to worsen with __________ infections and ________ allergens
viral

inhaled
Three main DDx for a pt presenting with S&S of asthma
Allergic rhinitis
Chronic sinusitis
GER - gastroesophageal reflux
The normals for PFT testing in kids is based upon what three factors?
height
gender
ethnicity
What's the earliest age the kid can be to do a PFT?
7 yo or older
Kid comes in with purulent, foul smelling discharge from his R nostril...Ddx?
foreign body
Cobble stoning of posterior pharynx is a sign of what?
allergic rhinitis
In a person with allergic rhinitis, their smear of nasal secretions may reveal ________
eosinophilia
What is the dx and tx for common cold?
dx - clinical
tx- symptomatic
What is the natural course of a common cold?
7-10 days
Infant is born with these two sinuses.

One of these doesn't pneumonize until _____ yo.

Sphenoid sinuses present by ___ yo

Frontal sinuses begin forming at _____ yo
ethmoidal & maxillary

maxillary not pneumonized until 4 yo

sphenoids = 5 yo

Frontals = 7-8 yo
Most common cause of sinusitis in peds?
Strep. pneumo is the most common

also the H. influenza (nontypable) & Moraxella catarrhalis
What are the predisposing conditions that may lead to sinusitis?
Viral URTI
Allergic rhinitis
Cigarette smoke exposure
What two symptoms of sinusitis are usually present in adults but absent in children?
headaches

facial pain

due to late sinus development!!
Dx of sinusitis is based on what?

What are the 2 main criteria?
history

1) persistent URTI for 10-14 days w/o improvement

2) severe resp sx including temp (>101F) and purulent nasal discharge for 3-4 days
What is the most accurate method of dx sinusitis..but it's also not very practical?
sinus aspirate (because kids hate it)
When would you use a CT for sinusitis?
not indicated unless planned surgery
most correlate findings with hx

it's not dx!
periorbital cellulitis, osteomyelitis of frontal bone (Pott puffy tumor) and meningitis are all complications of what?
sinusitis
What is the peak incidence and prevalence for Otitis Media?
6-20 months of age
Most common bacterial cause of AOM?
Strep pneumoniae (but can be caused by viruses as well..or both!)
Do all kids with AOM present with symptoms?
NO...may kids don't have any sx at all!
You see a kid who comes in to your office and is holding his ear, he has fever and is very agitated...DDx?
AOM
Dx of OM is based on what?
mainly on physical findings
If a kid presents with sx of OM, what can you use to get objective evidence of middle ear effusion?
tympanometry
A kid has OME...you should consider Myringotomy w/ tympanostomy tubes if he's had unilateral OME continuously for __________ months or bilateral OME continuously for _______ months, OR he has evidence of ________
9-18 months

6-12 months

hearing loss
All cases of AOM are techanically accompanied by _________.....and if you suspect this, you must obtain a ____
mastoiditis

CT scan
What's the Tx for acute mastoiditis?
IV ABX or surgery
Most common pathogen causing Otitis Externa
P. aeruginosa
When would you consider oral or parentral ABX for otitis externa?
severe infections with fever and lymphadenitis!
Sore throat in kids is 90% _______
VIRAL!
Infectious mononucleosis in kids is due to what bug?
Epstein-Barr Virus
Infectious Mononucleosis is rare in children < ____ yo and adults > ___ yo
4 yo

40 yo
What's the dz that presents with exudative tonsillitis
generlized cervical adenitis
Fever/fatigue
splenomegaly
Infectious mononucleosis
Dx of infectious mononucleosis is based on what?
presentation & labs

-lymphocytes, Ab, EBV titers
How do you tx infectious mononucleosis?
supportive
limit activity if splenomegaly!
Herpangina is due to what bug?

What does it present with?
Enteroviral infections

vesicular and ulcerative lesions on the POSTERIOR buccal mucosa, pharyngeal wall, soft palate & uvula
Stomatitis is caused by what bug?

How does it present?
Herpes simplex virus

ulcerative lesions..mainly in the ANTERIOR portion of the mouth
Hand, Foot and Mouth Dz is caused by what bug?

How does it present?
Enteroviral infection (Coxsackie A)

vesicles/ulcers in the mouth & lesions on hands, feet & butt
Pharyngoconjuncunctival fever is caused by what bug?

How does it present?

Can you swab for this bug?
adenovirus

conjunctivitis
exudative pharyngitis
fever
GI sx

Yes..can do a viral swab for adenovirus
Acute Bacteria Pharyngitis AKA STREP is caused by what bug?

How does strep infection present in kids?
Group A beta-hemolytic strep (GABHS)

SORE THROAT
FEVER
***ABDOMINAL PAIN
tonsillar exudate
strawberry tongue = scarlet fever
If a kid comes in with continuous strep infections..what's the criteria to remove his tonsils?
tonsillectomy is indicated for recurrent GABHS infections of 5 infections or more a year!
A kid presents with sudden onset of violent coughing w/o any other signs
Aspiration/non-infectious pneumonia
When should you admit a kid with pertussis to the hospital?
if he's < 3 mo old...apnea!
Which child pneumonia causing bug can be the cause of an URTI that progresses to a LRTI?
mycoplasma pneumonia
The two childhood infections that can lead to apnea
influenza
pertussis
How old does an infant have to be to get a PPD?
at least 3 mo old
A kid often gets ear infections..what are two important outside factors that you need to know?
whether the kid goes to daycare
whether the parents smoke
Three bacteria that most commonly cause AOM
H. influenza (most common)
S. pneumoniae
Moraxella catarrhalis
What's the mnemonic for virulence factors for Moraxella catarrhalis?
LEPP

lactoferrin
endotoxin
pili
protein w/ resistance to MAC
If someone presents with sinusitis, what is the strongest reason to Tx with ABX?
length of sx! (min of 2 weeks)
What are the four true systemic fungal pathogens that infect the resp tract?
-histoplasma capsulatum (histoplasmosis)
-coccidioides immitis (coccidioidomycosis, San Joaquin Valley Fever, Valley Fever, desert rheumatism)
-Blastomycoses dermatitidis (blastomycosis)
-paracoccidioides brasiliensis (paracoccidioidomycosis)
Which fungal dz can cause granuloma/calcification formations in the lungs?
histoplasma capsulatum
Fungi common in the Ohio-Mississippi
Histoplasma capsulatum
blastomyces dermatitidis
Which fungus turns to arthrospores and gets picked up by dust storms?
Coccidioides immitis
Which fungus turns to yeast in the body, then spherules which divide and produce endospores?
Coccidioides immitis
Which fungus lives in dry soiled areas?
Coccidioides immitis
Which of these two can dissiminate to other organs, and which one can't? (histoplasmosis & coccidioidomycosis)
histoplasmosis = can diss to spleen, liver, adrenals

coccidioidomycosis = RARE
A pt comes in with flu-like sx, you do a sputum sample and find a lot of SPHERULES. Dx?
coccidioidomycosis

cocci = circle/round; spherules = circle/round...
Fungus passed to humans through dogs?
blastomyces dermatitidis (blastomycosis)
Fungal infection by inhalation of spores, but commonly presents only as cutaneous lesions
blastomyces dermatitidis (blastomycosis)
Blastomycosis follows the same pattern as __________ and thus can get _________ & _________ in the lungs
histoplasmosis

granulomas & calcifications
AOM requires the presence of middle ear effusion and most of the follow: (4 things)
otalgia
ottorhea
fever
bulging red/yellow TM
Blastomycosis is commonly found in which geographic locations?
similar to histoplasmosis (Ohio-Mississippi Valley)
Which fungus is present in tropical/subtropical areas of central & south america & can cause cutaneous & mucocutaneous ulcers?
paracoccidioides brasiliensis (paracoccidioidomycosis)
What are the three pathogenic mechanisms of aspergillus fumigatus?
Allergic
Colonizing (aspergilloma)
Invasive
Identification of hyphae in sputum is dx for what?
aspergillus fumigatus
What four fungi can cause Zygomycosis?
RHIZOPHUS
Mucor
Absidia
A. Fusarium
In whom do Zygomycosis infections (Rhizopus) commonly present in?
immunocompromised & those with DIABETIC KETOACIDOSIS!!
What's the virulence factor of Stachybotrys chartrum? What does this virulence factor do?
mycotoxins which produce TRICHOTHECENES

inhibits DNA/RNA
Cauliflower ear deformity is usually due to _____
trauma (damaged ear cartilage)
Destructive and expanding growth consisting of keratinizing squamous epithelium in the middle ear
cholesteatoma
When debriding a cerumen filled ear, what nerve branch could cause coughing if stimulated?
Arnold's Branch of CN X (Vagus N)
List the 5 things that could cause Sensorineural Hearing loss
Noise exposure
Presbycusis
Viral infection
Meniere's Syndrome
Ototoxic medication
What is the triad in Meniere's Syndrome?
vertigo
high-pitched tinitus
low-frequency hearing loss
Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo is due to disorders of the ______________
semicircular canals
What are some non-otologic etiologies of vertigo?
CNS tumors
MS
Vertebral & Carotid artery dz
For which type of epistaxis might you do endoscopic cauterization & arterial ligation procedures?
POSTERIOR epistaxis
In Atropic Rhinitis, rhinorrhea is most commonly associated with _______ and ___________
eating
exertion/exercise
Rhinitis medicamentosa is associated with using what?
OTC decongestant sprays (Afrin)
A "saddle nose deformity" can be caused by what 4 things?
trauma
chemical exposure
granulomatous dz
infectious dz
Hyperplasia of nasal tissue
Rhinophyma (result of a common face rash of adults called Rosacea)
If a pt can't breath through their nose, & no infectious process is found..what is the MAIN etiology?

Tx for this?
deviated nasal septum

surgery!
Which process, usually exclusive to children, can cause difficulty breathing through the nose?
adenoid hypertrophy
Vasomotor rhinitis is _______ and usually due to a _________ issue. commonly occurs when ___________________
intermittent

neurologic issue (so non-allergic)

exercising/eating
Recurrent Acute Sinusitis
4 or more episodes per year w/ resolution between attacks
Does bacteria or viral caused Acute Sinusitis usually present with UNILATERAL facial & forehead pain?
bacterial
Bacterial or viral?"

Sinusitis where the pain gets worsened by bending over, valsalva maneuver, facial swelling, "toothache" & poor response to decongestants
BACTERIAL
What is the criteria for sinusitis?
2 of 4 of these:
nasal congestion
headaches
hyposmia
post-nasal purulent drainage

with objective findings from:
-Sinus CT scan
-See mucopus in the middle meatus
-See polyps in the middle meatus
Do kids tend to have more viral or bacterial sinusitis?
VIRAL
Periorbital cellulitis can be found in ______ with _______, and can cause the _______ to shut
kids

sinusitis

eyelids
Rhinitis is a group of disorders characterized by 1 or more of these sx: (4)
sneezing
nasal itching
rhinorrhea
nasal congestion
The most common type of chronic rhinitis
allergic rhinitis
Allergic rhinitis peaks in what age group?
young adults
How can allergic rhinitis lead to sinusitis?
it causes enlarged inferior turbinates, edema & inflammation, all of which can block the drainage sinus pathway
Three reasons why the pt's sinusitis may not get better after tx
didn't improve SINUS ENVIRONMENT
IMPROPER antibiotics
inadequate LENGTH of therapy (2wk min!)
Absolute indications for sinus surgery
brain abscess
meningitis
eye involvement
sinus mucocele or pyocele
FUNGAL sinusitis
massive polyposis
neoplasm
Most common reason why ENT's receive calls after a pt has a tonsillectomy
OTALGIA
Most common cause for complaints of otalgia that ENT's see in their office
TMJ syndrome (part of DENTAL disorders!!) - so it's REFERRED OTALGIA!
CN V has which branch which involves the ear?
Auriculotemporal branch
CN VII has which branch which involves the ear?
Ramsey Hunt branch
CN IX has which branch which involves the ear?
Jacobson branch
CN X has which branch which involves the ear?
Arnold branch
The center for the sensation of otalgia is located in the ________________
spinal tract nucleus of CN V
Primary cell that predominates in effusions
monocytes
If someone presents with ear ache, what other thing do you have to access aggressively?
the nose, pharynx & larynx...strong associating between sinus pathology, cancer & ear pain

Also want to check the neck for thyroid dz, adenopathy and MSK disorders such as trap or SCM
Which two nerves near the TMJ can cause referred pain to the ear?
third division of trigeminal nerve
auriculotemporal nerve
Which two nerves, near the nose can cause referred pain to the ear from sinusitis?
second division of trigeminal nerve
auriculotemporal nerve
Because this nerve pretty much owns the face, if it gets aggitated, it could present as ear pain
trigeminal nerve
Rhinogenic headaches
Sx & What is the cause?
unilateral pain without a cause;

when the middle turbinates pneumotizes during sinus development & presses against the nasal septum, which then creates a contact point with the lateral nasal wall
Chronic treatment of empyema
fibrinolytic
Which nerves supply the upper aerodigestive tract?
CN 9 and 10
Since the vagus nerve runs caudally, irritation of these three organs in the chest could lead to otalgia by irritation the ___________ of CN 9 and the __________ of CN 10
esophagus
bronchi
heart

Jacobson branch
Arnolds branch
What are the two common causes of earaches in children? What is not common in children..but may be in adults?
Tonsillitis
Pharyngitis

NOT laryngitis; (ALSO..could have extra-esophageal reflux!!!)
In trigeminal neuralgias, burning pain & sx are referred along its _____________
auriculotemporal branch
In geniculate neuralgias, burning pain & sx are referred along the _____________; It's often present in ______________ syndrome, with pain within the __________
facial nerve sensory fibers

Ramsey Hunt syndrome

auricle
In sphenopalatine and vidian neuralgias, burning pain & sx are referred along the ______ and _______
greater superficial petrosal nerves

facial nerves
In glossopharyngeal neuralgias, pain & sx are referred along the ______ as well as cause phantom ___________
Jacobson (CN 9)

tonsillar pain
Name the three atypical otologic etiologies which may cause ear pain
Meiniere dz (triad)
Tumors of the TEMPORAL BONE
Bells palsy
What other DDx should always be considered when dealing with otalgia?
Temporal arteritis --> vision loss & increased ESR
Parotid neoplasms
Herpes zoster (Ramsey-Hunt syn)
Carotidynia
Angina pectoris
Eagle Syndrome (affects CN 9 & 10)
What is the potential complication of inverted papilloma?
chance of malignant degeneration & invasion of intracranial cavity
A pt gets excessive pain upon palpation of tonsils...Dx?
Eagle syndrome
Name the two main etiologies of pneumothorax and their subtypes
1) Spontaneous - includes Primary (bleb, bullae rupture) & Secondary (COPD, infection, infarct, tumors, tissue dz)

2) Traumatic - includes Iatrogenic, Penetrating & Blunt Chest Trauma
Large pneumothorax has acute onset of ipsilateral ________ & ___________
chest pain & dypsnia
In a pneumothorax, does your HR & BP increase or decrease?
increase
To increase recovery from pneumothorax, what can you give?
humidified 100% O2 - increases the % of air absorbed by the body per day by 6 fold!
In pt's with pneumothorax, when do you do a thoracoscopy or open thoracotomy?
-repeated episodes
-persistent leaks
-pneumo for >5 days
-failure of re-expansion
What's chemical pleurodesis?
stimulate adhesion w/ tetracycline/minocycline or talc, so lung won't fall from wall
What's the most common source of bleeding in a hemothorax?
intercostal & internal mammary arteries
Tension pneumothorax is what kind of diagnosis?
CLINICAL!
Why do people with tension pneumothorax die?
kinks & diminished venous return in SVC and IVC & compromised cardiopulmonary function
Most common site of aortic transection
at the ligamentum arteriosum, just distal to the left subclavian artery
Most common finding at autopsy of pts who died at the scene of a MVA
cardiac rupture
What's the Beck's Triad?
-muffled heart sounds (pericardial friction rub)
-decreased BP
-JVD
What FAST used for?
Focused Assessment Sonography for Trauma - used for Cardiac Temponade
Transudates happen most commonly in what dz process:
CHF
Exudates happen most commonly in what dz process:
malignancy
Pleural effusions: increased hydrostatic pressure most common in:
CHF
Pleural effusions: decreased oncotic pressure most common in:
nephrotic syndrome (decreased protein in blood due to leaky kidney, so water stays in the tissues instead of going into the vessels)
Which kind of tumors are most commonly cause of chylothorax
posterior mediastinal
Pleural effusions: increased permeability of vessels is due to:
inflammation
Pleural effusions: impaired lymphatic drainage is due to:
**MALIGNANCY!!
Pleural effusions: if communication with peritoneal space exists, a pleural effusion could be caused by:
ascites
***BLOODY EFFUSIONS OFTEN DENOTE:
MALIGNANCY!
Most common cause of malignant pleural effusion
lung cancer
Most common cause of Chylothorax
2nd most common cause?
malignancy

trauma
Complication of pneumonia...that causes effusion
Parapneumonic effusion
How do u tx parapneumonic effusions?
If small (majority) = resolve w/ ABX

if > 10 mm on lateral decub. film...THORACENTESIS!
What are the three stages of empyema (a parapneumonic effusion)?
1) exudative (0-24hrs) - sterile..resolves with ABX
2) fibropurulent (24-72hrs) - infection of sterile pleural fluid with PMN, bacteria & cell debris
3) chronic (>72hrs) - fibroblasts produce inelastic membrane
What is the tx for empyema?
tube thoracostomy

if very thick purulent effusion...FIBRINOLYTIC therapy

IV ABX to treat primary infection
Can you TX mesothelioma? What are the options?
Can't cure it..but can do surgery, chemo, radiation to improve the QUALITY of life!
Most common primary neoplasm of the anterior/superior mediastinum
thymoma
Which tumor involves the germ cell layers?
teratoma's (usually in children)
How can we help decrease lung cancer as physicians?
PREVENTION!

set an example by not smoking
advise pt's not to smoke
Tumors arising centrally in large airways can produce:
cough
wheeze
hemoptysis
focal atelectasis behind the tumor
dyspnea
recurrent infections (pneumonia, bronchitis)
Tumors arising peripherally can produce:
***chest pain (involves parietal pleura!)
dyspnea
pleural effusions
voice change
Upper, inner arm pain with weakness & parasthesias, and decrease motor control of hand
Super sulcus tumor (Pancoast tumor) - tumor of the pulmonary apex that presses up against the brachial plexus & cervical symp chain
Paravertebral & sympathetic nerve involvement is common in what Syndrome?
Horner's Syndrome
Isolated chest pain..a common presentation of lung cancer?
NO..rarely
What are the four main clinical manifestations of lung cancer?
COUGH
WEIGHT LOSS
DYSPNEA
HEMOPTYSIS
What two screening methods have helped to detect tumors at a more operable stage for HIGH RISK patients?
CT (spiral or helical) + molecular markers
Most common type of lung cancer
adenocarcinoma
Which lung cancer is the only one that travels by LYMPH?

Which lung cancer spreads really FAST?

Which lung cancer spreads really SLOW? why?
squamous cell carcinoma

small cell

squamous cell - travels only by lymph!
Stachybotrys chartum causes what certain resp. problem?
pulmonary hemorrhage/hemosiderosis
What is the staging of small cell carcinoma?
limited - one side of chest w/o LN involvement

excessive - everything else
In non-small cell carcinoma ______________ is the primary form of tx
surigcal intervention
In small-cell carcinoma, ________________ is the primary form of tx
combination chemotherapy
What type of staging determines resectability?
mediastinal staging
Mediastinal nodes > ______ are defined as pathological.

Does everyone with these sized nodes have cancer?

If the nodes are less than this size, are they definitely non-pathological?
>1cm

No...up to 30% don't

No...up to 16% of nodes <1cm have tumor involvement
What's the best method of identifying mediastinal tumors?
mediastinoscopy - GOLD STANDARD!!!! - used to sample nodes
In identifying metastic tumors, what's better to use: CT, MRI, PET scan?
PET scan
Surgery is most effective tx method for which type of cancer and stages?
NSCLC (Adeno, Squamous, Large) Stages I and II (maybe IIIa)
What is the most frequently performed procedure for early stage lung cancer?
lobectomy
Name the signs of inoperability
-mets to supraclavicular nodes, scalene, contralateral mediastinal or higher LN
-distant mets
-malig pleural effusions (BLOODY)
-carina involvement
-SVC syndrome, Horner's syndrome
-recurrent laryngeal n, phrenic n paralysis
-main pulm artery involvement
Pallative tx method in cancer
radiation = used to shrink localized tumor size, often before surgery, or for "bone" pain
What is stereotactic radiation?
delivers high doses, great 3yr survival if pt can tolerate the dose
Most common cause of Pancoast Tumor/Syndrome?
squamous cell
Pt presents with hypercalcemia & notice there's a lot of PTH in his body
SQUAMOUS CELL CA
Pt presents with decreased plasma Na & hyposmolarity
SMALL CELL CA - (SIADH)
Pt presents with clubbing...what cancer is it associated with?
adenocarcinoma (but also ILD..)
Person has new bone formation in extremities...was Dx with Hypertrophic Osteoarthropathy...what cancer is this associated with?
adenocarcinoma
Paraneoplastic Syndromes for Small Cell Cancer
SIADH
ACTH (Cushings & Eaton-Lambert Syndromes)
Paraneoplastic Syndromes for Squamous Cell Ca?
hypercalcemia
Paraneoplastic Syndromes for Adenocarcinoma?
Clubbing
HPO (Hypertrophic Osteoarthropathy)
Paraneoplastic Syndromes for Large Cell Cancer
HCG production (gynocomastia & milky nipple discharge)
A male comes in and has gynocomastia and has milky nipple discharge...what cancer is this associated with?
Large cell cancer
Define characteristics of a solitary pulmonary nodule
single
peripheral
fairly smooth
well circumscribed
usually 4cm or smaller
If you see a lesion on a CT and it is a 'central fat' lesion..it's probably a ________
Hamartoma - a benign solitary pulmonary node
If you see a lesion on a CT and it has 'central calcifications' it's probably a ________
granuloma - a benign solitary pulmonary node
If you see a single lesion on a CT and it has speculations or lobulations, it's probably a
malignant solitary pulmonary nodules
Who's more likely to present with a MALIGNANT solitary pulmonary nodule?
smokers..10x more likely!
Management of solitary pulmonary node
No further eval if:
-benign pattern calcification
-no growth in past 2 yrs

Can do: Chest CT & PET for lesions not obviously calcified

HIGH RISK patients need to have TISSUE CONFIRMATION!!!!
Most common sources of lung metastasis?
#1 - COLON
#2 - breast
#3 - kidney
Most common agent causing ATYPICAL pnemonia in infants 1-6 months old
Chlamydia trochamatis
Two bacterial infections in kids which may NOT cause a fever
the atypicals:

Chlamydia trichomatis
Bordatella pertussis

(mycoplasma..the other common atypical in kids, causes a fever)
Fungus that causes flu-like patchy pneumonia
Histoplasma capsulatum
Fungus that is described as "snowstorm" like pattern on CXR
histoplasma capsulatum
Which fungus has antiphagocytic properties?
coccidioides immitis
If a pt is dx with coccidioiomycosis, you should tell him that the sx will resolve in ______ weeks
2-6 WEEKS!
A guy has been a farmer and malt worked for the past 40 years. He presents with sx very similar to asthma. He says that he does have an inhaler, but his sx are getting worse despite using it.

What could this be?

To be sure, you take a sputum sample..what will you find that's dx of this bug?
ABPA - allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis

identification of hyphae in sputum
Galactomannan Ag is located on what bug?
aspergillus fumigatus
Diabetic Ketoacidosis pt's can commonly get this fungal dz..
Zygomycosis (with Rhizopus, Mucor, Absidia, A. fusarium)
At how many weeks does the fetus begins to "breath" and move fluid around?
20 weeks
Can probably save a baby that is ____ weeks..if younger, can't
23 weeks
At what trimester do IgG pass from mother to fetus?

How long does a newborn have mom's immunity?

Which Ab are learned?
3rd

a TERM baby has mom's immunity for a couple months

IgM & IgA are learned
At how many weeks do Type I pneumocytes form?
23 weeks - so fetal survival depends on Type I pneumocytes...if <23 weeks, they aren't formed & fetus can't survive
Type II pneumocytes release surfactant when they are ________
stretched (breathing)
Hb binds O2 at the lungs when _______ (alkalotic or acidotic)

Hb releases O2 at muscle tissues when _________ (alkalotic or acidotic)
alkalotic

acidotic

(bohr effect!)
Blood pH & Diet:
increasing carb diet produces (increased/low) amount of CO2
increased (Carb has an R=1.0)
Blood pH & Diet:
increasing fat diet produces (increased/low) amount of CO2
decreased (fat has an R=0.7)
How are atelectasis & dead space differ?
atelectasis = no V (blocked air supply)

dead space = no P (blocked blood supply)
Hypoxic pumonary vasoconstriction occurs in response to MAINTAIN ______ in (atelectasis or dead space)
V/Q!!!

in ATELECTASIS! (poorly ventilated alveoli)
If a child has atelectasis (due to pneumonia, hemorrhage, etc), and you give him albuterol, what will happen to his pulse ox reading?

Will the child act/feel worse?
will drop; it dilates the constricted arteries who's alveoli aren't getting perfused, thus increasing blood flow to hypoxic areas of the lung, and increasing venous admixture = pulse ox drops

NO! Child may actually act/feel better inspite of saturation drop!
9 yo boy presents with a "white-out" on CXR, tachypenic, & his pulse-ox drops when you give him a beta-agonist. What physiological process is going on?
hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction
In dead space, is V/Q maintained or is abnormal?
V/Q is ABNORMAL!...the alveoli will still get ventilated, but no perfusion will occur
We are kept pink by the amount of gas that is ____________________.

How much volume of air do we breath?
left in the lungs at the end of easy breathing

5cc/kg/breath
The 5's - the Basic Goals of Anesthesia
Awareness
Amnesia
Analgesia
Autonomic stability
Appropriate surgical conditions
When giving anesthesia, what kind of problems can cause 'silent infarctions'?
endocrine abnormalities
What are the seven Standard ASA monitors for anesthesia?
COVT

Circulation = ECG, BP, stethascope
O2 = pulse ox, o2 analyzer
Ventilation = capnography
Temperature
Under anesthesia, patients are at risk for ASPIRATIONS. Pt's who are at most risk for aspirations are:
diabetics
obese
pregnant
have GERD
Explain rapid sequence induction
sedate the pt before intubating

pt thus can't protect his airway, so must apply cricoid pressure until the tube is placed
How is malignant hyperthermia dx?

What are the triggering agents?

What's the treatment for MH?
muscle biopsy

anesthetic inhalation gasses or succinylcholine

DANTROLENE!
What are the anesthetic agents?

Narcotic agents contain what letters?

Inhalation anesthetics contain what letters?

non-depolarizing muscle relaxants contain what letters?

Local anesthetics contain what letters?
PEKS - propofol, etomidate, ketamine, sodium thiopental

-FEN- (fentanyl, sufentanil, alfentanil, morphine)

-FLU- (isoflurane, sevoflurane, desflurane) + NO + Halothane

-CUR- (vecuronium, rocuronium, tracrium)

-CAINE (lidocaine, bupivacaine, ropivacaine <-- doesn't affect pregnancy labor!)
clinical features of gaucher
hepatosplenomegaly
aseptic necrosis of femur
bone crises
Gaucher cells
What's the most common of all anterior mediastinal masses?
thymoma's
5 most common sites of distant metastasis for lung cancer.
brain
bones
liver
adrenals
skin
What is the most important determinant of cancer patient's outcome?
STAGE - final treatment depends on the final TNM stage
Pancoast Tumor/Syndrom is mainly due to what type of cancer?
squamous cell 52%; Adeno is 23%
Which cancer has hyperchromatic nuclei
squamous cell