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526 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
|
Faber/Patrick'sJansen's/Figure Four
Tests: Hip, Anterior S/I ligament, Iliopsoas Contracture, obturator nerve + Inability to lower leg parallel to straight leg, pain, neurological symptoms |
|
how can a virus hide from a hosts immune system?
|
by embedding viral buds into hosts cell membrane
|
|
what is hypertonicity?
|
increased muscle tonus
|
|
Thomas test
test hip flexion contracture positive: decreases ROM at hip (45 degrees expected) |
|
viral DNA can insert itself into the host's DNA. What is the result of mutating host cells?
|
malignant cells
|
|
what is a muscle spasm?
|
involuntary, convulsive contraction of an entire muscle or segment within a muscle
|
|
Obers test
tests length of TFL and ITB contracture positive: foot of tested leg does not drop below table |
|
antibiotics interfere with what five bacteria functions?
|
cell wall synthesis
DNA replication protein synthesis energy production / metabolism membrane function |
|
what is muscle tone?
|
partial, steady contraction of a muscle at rest
|
|
Ely's test
Indication: Rectus Femoris Contracture, femoral nerve (via stretch) Positive - Ipsilateral hip flexes (some say look at unaffected hip), neurological symptoms |
|
why do antibiotics not interfere with the host's cells?
|
because the host is a eukaryote and the bacteria is a prokaryote (no nucleus or organelles)
|
|
what is edema?
|
accumulation of fluid in the interstitial spaces
|
|
Straight Leg Raise
indication: Hamstring Contracture, tests sciatic nerve via stretch Positive: client is unable to achieve minimum of 70 degrees of knee extension, neurological symptoms |
|
what are the signs and symptoms of local bacterial infection?
|
erythemia
swelling pain exudates |
|
what are adhesions?
|
uniting of two tissue surfaces that are normally separate
|
|
double hibbs
indication: piriformis contracture, compression of sciatic nerve Positive: lever of the lower leg is less than 45 degrees, neurological symptoms |
|
what are the signs of systemic bacterial infection?
|
fever
leukocytosis fatigue / weakness headaches myalgia arthralgia |
|
what is fibrosis?
|
replacement of functional tissue with fibrous connective tissue
|
|
Gillet / SI Joint Motion Palpation
tests SI Joint movement (nutation / counter nutation) Positive: PSIS moves superiorly or not at all |
|
how are bacterial infections spread from person to person?
|
secretions
blood urine fecal matter |
|
what is contracture?
|
fibrosis of connective tissue in skin, fascia, muscle or joint
|
|
Quadrant Kemp's
Indication: lumbar facet pathology, lumbar nerve compression positive: pain, neurological symptoms |
|
what is the hallmark of bacterial infection?
|
release of toxins to host tissues
|
|
what is a trigger point?
|
hyperirritable spot palpable in a taut band of skeletal muscle or fascia
|
|
anterior draw (ankle)
tests anterior talofibular ligament positive: pain and/or laxity |
|
what are the two categories of bacterial toxins?
|
exotoxins
endotoxins |
|
what is atrophy?
|
a decrease in the size of an organ or body tissue as a result of a decrease in the size of tissue cells
|
|
Hibb's / prone gapping
Indication: Posterior Sacroiliac Ligament Pathology, or Piriformis Contracture, sciatic nerve compression + Pain at S/I or reduced mobility at the S/I joint, neurological symptoms |
|
what makes up bacterial exotoxins?
|
proteins/enzymes
|
|
what is paralysis?
|
loss of voluntary movement through injury
|
|
talar tilt
tests: lateral ligaments and medial / deltoid ligament of the ankle (talofibular being the most often sprained) positive: pain and/or laxity |
|
what happens when bacteria release exotoxins?
|
key cellular components in the host's cells are deactivated
leads to cell dysfunction and possible death |
|
Adson Test
Tests for subclavian artery compression + pulse diminishes with arm extended |
|
what makes up endotoxins?
|
complex glycolipids
|
|
Cozen Test
Tests for lateral epicondylitis + if pain in lateral elbow |
|
when are endotoxins released?
|
upon lysis
|
|
Finklestein test
tests for tenosynovitis at the wrist (DeQuarvains) + if pain in the area of the thumb/wrist |
|
what is endotoxemia?
|
blood poisoning
|
|
Golfer's Elbow test
tests for medial epicondylitis by placing stretch on the tendons + if pain at medial elbow |
|
release of endotoxins lead to what activity in the host?
|
blood clotting
bleeding hypotension inflammation |
|
Mills test
tests for lateral epicondylitis by stretching the tendons of the extensor muscles + if pain at lateral elbow |
|
what do endotoxins do to host cells?
|
change or destroy normal functions
|
|
Nobels test
tests for ITB dysfunction at the lateral femoral condyle + if pain and/or crepitus at lateral femoral condyle |
|
what kinds of parasites are rickettsiae and chlamydiae
|
obligate intracellular parasites
|
|
Patellar glide test
tests for crepitus at the patella + if pain and/or crepitus felt at patella |
|
in what ways are rickettsiae and chlamydiae like viruses?
|
obligate intracellular parasites
they can not reproduce independent of host cell |
|
Speeds Test
test for tenosynovitis at the long head of biceps + if pain felt at shoulder where tendon passes through the intertubecular sulcus |
|
in what way are rickettsiae and chlamydiae like bacteria?
|
produce a rigid cell wall
reproduce asexually contain DNA and RNA |
|
trandellenburg test
tests for strength of hip abductors + if hip of standing leg rises and non-weight bearing hip drops |
|
what is the vector of rickettsia?
|
arthropods (ticks, fleas, lice)
|
|
what is the myotome for C1-C2?
|
c/s flexion
|
|
what is the relationship between the vector and rickettsiae?
|
symbiotic
|
|
what is the myotome for C3
|
c/s lateral flexion
|
|
what does chlamydiae affect?
|
affects ATP productions
|
|
what is the myotome for C4
|
shoulder elevation
|
|
how is chlamydiae transmitted?
|
directly from one host to another
no vector required |
|
what is the myotome for C5
|
GH abduction
|
|
what do spirochetes most resemble?
|
similar to bacteria, they are a specialized type of bacteria
|
|
what is the myotome for C6?
|
elbow flexion
wrist extension |
|
what are mycoplasms?
|
a genus of micro-organisms that as a whole do not produce disease
|
|
what is the myotome for C7?
|
elbow extension
wrist flexion |
|
describe fungi based on their cellular make up, how they obtain food and their relationship to other organisms
|
eukaryotic
saprophytic parasitic |
|
what is the myotome for C8?
|
ulnar deviation
thumb extension |
|
what are the two categories of fungi?
|
yeasts
molds |
|
Which SC segment is tested with the triceps reflex test?
|
C7 / C8
|
|
which of the fungi are uni-cellular? How do they reproduce?
|
yeasts. They reproduce via budding
|
|
Which SC segment is tested with the biceps reflex test?
|
C5 / C6
|
|
which of the fungi are multi-cellular? How do they reproduce?
|
molds. They reproduce sexually and asexually
|
|
Which SC segment is tested with the brachioradialis reflex test?
|
C5 / C6
|
|
what is myselium?
|
a thin thread produced by mold that acts as an anchor
|
|
Describe the steps in a cervical scan test
|
1. AF at c/s with overpressure
2. AF at GH joint abduction and scaption ; elbow ; wrist 3. upper limb dermatomes, myotomes and deep tendon reflexes |
|
describe myostatic contractures
|
adaptive shortening of fascia due to disuse, immobilization or faulty postures
|
|
fungi are opportunistic. What does this mean?
|
They usually don't cause any problems, but will infect humans when immunity is low
|
|
what is the capsular pattern of restriction at the cervical spine?
|
side flexion and rotation (equally)
extension |
|
what are the three categories of parasites?
|
protozoa
worms arthropods |
|
what is the capsular pattern of restriction at the glenohumeral joint?
|
external rotation
abduction internal rotation |
|
describe protozoa based on their cellular make up and how they obtain food.
|
eukaryotic
saprophytes |
|
what is the capsular pattern of restriction at the lumbar spine?
|
side flexion and rotation equally
extension |
|
how are protozoa transmitted?
|
directly between hosts.
Body fluids, food, water |
|
what is the capsular pattern of restriction at the hip?
|
flexion, abduction, internal rotation
(order may vary) |
|
how are worms transmitted?
|
ingestion of fertilized eggs (via food or water)
skin penetration by larvae |
|
what is the capsular pattern of restriction at the knee?
|
flexion
extension |
|
what are ectoparasites and give an example
|
parasites that infest the surface of the skin
arthropods such as fleas, lice, ticks |
|
what is the capsular pattern at the ulnohumeral joint?
|
flexion
extension |
|
which body secretions transmit pathogens?
|
nasal secretions
saliva urine blood feces semen/vaginal secretions |
|
What is the capsular pattern of restriction at the radiohumeral joint?
|
flexion
extension |
|
what is the definition of infectious disease?
|
state in which the host sustains injury or pathological tissue change
|
|
what is the industry standard ROM for cervical spine flexion?
|
80 - 90
|
|
what are the two main ports of entry for pathogens?
|
open passageways
lesion sites |
|
what is the industry standard ROM for cervical spine extension?
|
70
|
|
what are the three open passage ways of the body?
|
GI tracts
respiratory tract genitourinary tract |
|
what is the industry standard ROM for cervical spine lateral flexion?
|
20 - 45
|
|
what are the four modes of transmission available to pathogens?
|
penetration
direct contact between hosts ingestion inhalation |
|
what is the industry standard ROM for cervical spine rotation?
|
70 - 90
|
|
what are the defences for penetration by pathogens?
|
inflammatory defence
|
|
what is the resting position of the cervical spine?
|
slight extension
|
|
what are the defences for direct contact transmission by pathogens?
|
immune system
inflammation |
|
what is the close packed position of the cervical spine?
|
full extension
|
|
what are the defences for ingestion of pathogens?
|
intestinal microflora
mucous lining of the GI tracts gastric acid |
|
what is the resting position of the GH joint?
|
40 - 55 degrees of abduction
|
|
what are the defences for inhalation of pathogens?
|
cilia
mucous coughing antimicrobial secretions phagocytes |
|
what is close packed position of the GH joint?
|
full abduction, lateral rotation
|
|
how is a congenital infection contracted?
|
in untero (vertical transmission)
|
|
what is the industry standard ROM for GH abduction?
|
170 - 180
|
|
describe the course of pathogen infection
|
invade
colonize tissue multiply harm host tissue released from host infect a new host |
|
what is the industry standard ROM for GH flexion?
|
160 - 180
|
|
what factos affect the spread of disease?
|
virulence
host immunity sanity factors |
|
what is the industry standard ROM for GH adduction?
|
50 - 75
|
|
opportunistic microflora infections are a type of what source of infection?
|
endogenous
|
|
what is the industry standard ROM for GH extension?
|
50 - 60
|
|
infections acquired from an external source are a type of what source of infection?
|
external
|
|
what is the industry standard ROM for GH internal rotation?
|
60 - 100
|
|
what are the three types of exogenous infections?
|
zoonoses
nosocomial community acquired |
|
what is the industry standard ROM for GH external rotation?
|
80 - 90
|
|
an infection passed from animals to humans
|
zoonoses
|
|
what is the resting position of the ulnohumeral joint?
|
70 degrees elbow flexion, 10 degrees supination
|
|
an infection developed in hospital patients
|
nosocomial
|
|
what is the close-packed position of the ulnohumeral joint?
|
extension with supination
|
|
an infection acquired from a public place
|
community acquired
|
|
what is the resting position of the radiohumeral joint?
|
full extension and full supination
|
|
what is an iatrogenic infection?
|
an infection acquired from surgery
|
|
What is the close packed position of the radiohumeral joint?
|
90 degrees elbow flexion, 5 degrees supination
|
|
list the five stages of disease
|
incubation
prodromal acute convalescent resolution |
|
what is the resting position of the radiocarpal joint?
|
neutral with slight ulnar deviation
|
|
which stage of disease is when the pathogen replicates and the host shows no signs or symptoms?
|
incubation
|
|
what is the close packed position of the radiocarpal joint?
|
extension
|
|
describe the prodromal stage of disease
|
initial appearance of symptoms
|
|
what is the resting position of the lumbar spine?
|
midway between flexion and extension
|
|
that stage of disease when symptoms are most pronounced and specific
|
acute stage
|
|
what is the close packed position of the lumbar spine?
|
extension
|
|
describe the convalescent stage of disease
|
infection is contained
number of pathogens decreases damaged tissue is repaired |
|
what is the resting position of the hip?
|
30 degrees flexion
30 degrees abduction slight external rotation |
|
during which stage of disease does immunity occur via memory cells?
|
the resolution stage
|
|
what is the close packed position of the hip?
|
extension, internal rotation, abduction
|
|
during which stage of disease is the pathogen eliminated from the body?
|
the resolution stage
|
|
what is the industry standard ROM for hip flexion?
|
110 - 120
|
|
if the body's immunute system is not able to contain the infection what are the two possible outcomes?
|
septicemia
chronic infection |
|
what is the industry standard ROM for hip extension?
|
10 - 15
|
|
what is the definition of a chronic infection
|
mild symptoms that are destructive over time
|
|
what is the industry standard ROM for hip abduction?
|
30 - 50
|
|
do all skin lesions or changes signifiy disease?
|
no
|
|
what is the industry standard ROM for hip adduction?
|
30
|
|
what are the three manifestations of skin disorders?
|
rashes
lesions pruritis |
|
what is the industry standard ROM for hip external rotation?
|
40 - 60
|
|
what is pruritis?
|
itching
|
|
what is the industry standard ROM for hip internal rotation ?
|
30 - 40
|
|
what are skin excoriations?
|
destruction of small pieces of skin surface or mucus membranes, chafing or abrasions
|
|
what is the resting position of the tibiofemoral joint?
|
25 degrees of flexion
|
|
what are the three lesions that occur due to mechanical processes?
|
blister
callus corn |
|
what is the close packed position of the tibiofemoral joint?
|
full extension, external rotation of tibia
|
|
what is hyperkeratosis?
|
increased skin production
|
|
what is the resting position of the ankle joint?
|
10 degrees of plantar flexion
|
|
describe the shape of a corn
|
conical (apex is deep)
|
|
what is the close packed position of of the ankle joint?
|
maximum dorsiflexion
|
|
where do primary skin lesions form?
|
on normal skin
|
|
what is the myotome for T1?
|
digital (hand) abduction and adduction
|
|
where do secondary skin lesions form?
|
on primary lesions
|
|
Phaelen test
tests for carpal tunnel syndrome by compressing the median nerve + tingling burning or numb sensation in the hand |
|
name the two flat, non-palpable skin changes / lesions
|
macule
patch |
|
Reverse Phaelen
tests for carpal tunnel by stretching the median nerve + is numbness, tingling etc. |
|
which is larger, a macule or a patch?
|
a patch
|
|
yergesen's test
tests for biceps tendinitis/tenosynovitis + is pain at the shoulder in biceps tendon |
|
a freckle is an example of what type of skin colour change?
|
macule
|
|
Froment test
tests ulnar nerve / adductor pollicis + is weakness |
|
what type of skin lesion is larger than 1 cm, made up of white areas surrounded by normal skin?
|
patch
|
|
Pinch Test
tests median nerve / flexor pollicis and flexor digitorum + is weaknes |
|
what is the only difference between a macule and a patch?
|
size
|
|
Painful Arc
tests for supraspinatus tendinitis, subacromial bursitis + pain at 40 to 60 degrees - 120 degrees is GH impingement; local pain in the last 10 degrees is AC joint pathology |
|
list the five palpable, elevated solid skin masses
|
papule
plaque nodule tumour wheal |
|
Appley's Scratch Test
tests for shoulder pathology, past dislocation, tendon impingement under the acromion, bursitis + is pain or decreased ROM |
|
size of a papule?
|
up to half a centimeter
|
|
Apprehension test
Indicates previous GH joint dislocation + Look of apprehension from the client |
|
describe a plaque
|
elevated surface greater than 0.5 cm
a fusion of papules |
|
AC Shear
indicates A/C Joint Pathology + Pain or excessive mobility in A/C joint. |
|
what type of skin lesion is 0.5 cm and up to 1 or 2 cm and deeper and firmer than a papule
|
nodule
|
|
Hawkins-Kennedy
indicates: Supraspinatus Tendinitis + Pain in the shoulder |
|
describe a tumour
|
larger than 1-2 cm
abnormal mass of cells |
|
describe the upper limb tension test for the radial nerve
|
c/s lateral flexion (away from affected side)
wrist flexion GH internal rotation and extension |
|
describe a wheal (4)
|
irregular
transient superficial area of local skin edema due to inflammatory response |
|
describe the upper limb tension test for the median nerve
|
c/s lateral flexion
wrist extension GH extension and abduction |
|
list the three palpable, elevated, fluid filled masses
|
vesicle
bulla pustule |
|
describe the upper limb tension test for the ulnar nerve
|
c/s lateral flexion
GH abduction, external rotation (looks a little like appley's scratch) |
|
what is the size of a vesicle?
|
up to 0.5 cm
|
|
what is the myotome for L2?
|
hip flexion
|
|
which fluid filled masses contain serous fluid?
|
bulla and a vesicle
|
|
what is the myotome for L3?
|
knee extension
|
|
what would you find in a pustule?
|
pus
|
|
what is the myotome for L4?
|
ankle dorsiflexion
|
|
define lesion
|
wound, injury or pathological change in tissue
|
|
what is the myotome for L5?
|
big toe extension
|
|
define rash / eruptions
|
scattered outbreak on skin surface
usually raised fluid filled vesicles may be covered with scales / crusts |
|
what is the myotome for S1?
|
ankle plantar flexion/eversion
|
|
what can cause skin excoriations?
|
excessive scratching
trauma chemicals |
|
what is the myotome for S2?
|
knee flexion
|
|
what are some treatments for excoriations?
|
cold therapy
topical creams and lotions |
|
what is tested with the jaw reflex?
|
trigeminal nerve
|
|
list four types of infectious skin disorders
|
viral
bacterial fungal parasitic |
|
what is tested with the patellar reflex test?
|
spinal segments of L3-L4
|
|
list five types of non infectious skin disorders
|
burns
inflammation neoplasms allergic mechanical |
|
what is tested with the achilles tendon reflex test?
|
spinal segments of S1
|
|
what type of fungal infection involves the epidermis and dermis and sometimes the subcutaneous layers?
|
deep fungal infections
|
|
Braggarts Test
Indication: sciatic nerve pathology ; hamstring length + nerve pain / symptoms (usually appear once the leg is past 30 degrees) ; decreased ROM |
|
what are the two main culprits in superficial fungal infections?
|
candiasis
tinea |
|
kernig brudzinski
Indication: Sciatic nerve pathology ; hamstring length + nerve pain / symptoms ; decreased ROM |
|
what type of fungus causes tinea infections?
|
mould
|
|
Slump Test
Indication: sciatic nerve pathology + nerve pain / symptom recreation |
|
what is the site of infection of Tinea Corporis?
|
the body
|
|
Yeoman's Test
Indication: femoral nerve pathology; rectus femoris length ; psoas major length ; SI Joint pathology + nerve pain / symptoms ; decreased ROM / length ; pain |
|
what is the site of infection of Tinea Capitis?
|
the head
|
|
Gaenslen's Test
Indication: femoral nerve pathology ; rectus femoris length ; psoas major length ; SI joint pathology + nerve pain ; decreased ROM ; pain |
|
what is the site of infection of Tinea pedis
|
the foot
athlete's foot |
|
Morton's Test
Indication: distal tibial nerve pathology ; Morton's neuroma + nerve pain or pain in the metatarsal area of the foot |
|
what is the site of infection of Tinea unguium?
|
nails
|
|
chvostek test (type of Tinnel's test)
Indication: abnormal reaction to the stimulation of the facial nerve + facial muscles on the same side of the face will contract momentarily |
|
what is the site of infection of Tinea manus?
|
the hands
|
|
Spurling's Test
Indication: cervical nerve root compression ; facet joint irritation + nerve pain / symptoms ; local pain |
|
what is the site of infection of Tinea cruris?
|
thigh
jock itch |
|
Compression Test
Indication: cervical spine nerve compression ; disc pathology + nerve pain, neurological symptoms, local pain |
|
what are the signs and symptoms of a tinea infection?
|
scaling or vesicles
itching red-grey patches brittle hair |
|
Distraction Test
Indication: cervical spine nerve compression ; cervical ligament sprain + relief of neurological symptoms ; local pain |
|
tinea capitis mostly affects which population?
|
children
ages 3 - 8 |
|
Jackson's Test
Indication: cervical spine nerve compression + nerve pain, neurological symptoms |
|
how can tinea pedis be avoided?
|
hygiene!
feet clean and dry change socks often wear open footwear |
|
what are the signs and symptoms of tinea unguium?
|
thick opaque white/yellow/brown nails
brittle nails cracks nail plates separate from the bed |
|
define candiasis
|
yeast infections caused by candida albicans which is part of the the microflora of the mouth, GI and vagina
|
|
what are the signs and symptoms of candiasis?
|
itching, burning
red, swollen mucous membranes thick, whitish discharge painful urination |
|
what are some factors that predispose one to candiasis infections?
|
diabetes
antibiotics birth control malnutrition immunosuppression |
|
what type of infection is impetigo?
|
a superficial, contagious, bacterial infection
|
|
what are the common sites for impetigo?
|
around the mouth
nostrils |
|
what are the signs and symptoms of impetigo?
|
thin walled vesicles, bulla, pustules
clusters contain yellowish fluid / crust |
|
what is the target population for impetigo?
|
infants and young children
|
|
what are decubitus ulcers?
|
bed sores
|
|
what type of infection are decubitus ulcers?
|
non contagious deep tissue infection
|
|
what is the target population for decubitus ulcers?
|
bed ridden patients
wheel chair users |
|
which cranial nerves are tested with the finger movement test?
|
III - occulomotor
IV - trochlear VI - abducens |
|
what are common sites of decubitus ulcers?
|
sacrum
heel ischial area greater trochanter lateral malleoli |
|
Which tests can you use to test CN V (trigeminal)?
|
sensory testing for the face
jaw elevation test jaw reflex knuckle test |
|
what are the two contributing factors to decubitus ulcers?
|
external pressure, ischemia, hypoxia
friction / shearing when shifting in bed or in a chair |
|
what is tested with the fascial expressions test?
|
CN VII - Fascial
|
|
where would you find the most painful part of a decubitus ulcer?
|
the edges of the lesion
the center has degraded past the area where nocicepters are found |
|
the Romberg balance test is used to test which Cranial Nerve?
|
VIII - Vestibulocochlear
|
|
if untreated, decubitus ulcers can lead to what?
|
gangrene
amputation death |
|
how can one test cranial nerve IX?
|
swallow test
|
|
when was penicillin discovered?
|
1928
|
|
what is assessed with the tongue movement test?
|
CN XII - hypoglossal
|
|
what global event spurred the commercial development of antibiotics?
|
WWII
|
|
Lhermittes test
|
tests: sciatic nerve ; entire spinal cord and meninges
+ is neurological symptoms |
|
what are natural microflora?
|
microbes that inhabit different body areas and do not cause disease (if body is in homeostatic balance)
|
|
Brachial Plexus Compression Test
|
tests: brachial plexus
+ is recreation of neurological or vascular symptoms |
|
when are microflora established?
|
shortly after birth
|
|
piriformis test
tests: length of piriformis ; piriformis syndrome + is decreased ROM / length ; neurological symptoms |
|
what is the predominant microflora bacteria?
|
serratia
|
|
lumbar compression test
|
tests: lumbar nerve roots ; lumbar discs
+ is neurological symptoms ; pain |
|
what are the common viral microflora?
|
Herpes simplex, varicella, Epstein Barre
|
|
valsalva test
tests: entire spinal column ; disc pathology / herniation + is pain ' neurological symptoms |
|
what are the common fungal microflora?
|
candida
|
|
pronator teres test
|
tests: pronator teres syndrome
+ is neurological symptoms ; weakness |
|
what is the role of microflora?
|
protection
|
|
thoracic expansion test
|
tests: movement of costovertebral, costotransverse joints as well as general ease of rib cage movement
+ less than 2 inches of expansion |
|
viruses require a host, meaning they are what kind of parasite?
|
obligate intracellular
|
|
shoulder depression test
tests: brachial plexus + is pain and neurological symptoms and possibly vascular symptoms |
|
what are two common skin infections in humans that are viral in nature?
|
warts and herpes
|
|
vertebral artery compression tests
tests: vertebral artery for occlusion + is dizziness ; nauseous ; eyes flicker |
|
what type of herpes is a cold sore?
|
HSV1
|
|
hautant test
test: vertebral artery compression + is dizziness ; nauseous ; eyes flicker ; unable to hold arms up |
|
Herpes simplex virus 2 is what kind of herpes?
|
genital herpes
|
|
naffzigger test
tests: drainage of the jugular veins + is pain in head or neck with coughing ** positive result = refer |
|
what type of herpes virus are chicken pox and shingles?
|
varicella zoster or simplex 3
|
|
Allen's maneuver
tests: TOS due to scalenes or possibly pec minor + is diminished or loss of palpated pulse |
|
herpes simplex 4 is also known as what group?
|
lymphotrophic beta group
|
|
Wrights test
tests: TOS due to pec minor compression + is diminished or loss of palpated pulse |
|
what is herpes simplex virus 8?
|
Koposi's sarcoma
|
|
costoclavicular test
tests: TOS due to compression between first rib and clavicle + is diminished or loss of palpated pulse |
|
which virus causes warts?
|
human papilloma virus (HPV)
|
|
digital blood flow test
tests: capillary refill in nail bed + is if nail bed does not refill within a few seconds |
|
are warts contagious?
|
yes
|
|
Buerger test
tests: blood flow to lower extremities + is if refill is slow (may become bright red also before returning to normal) ** this test may also be performed by palpating a lower extremity pulse and feeling for loss or diminishment. |
|
describe the appearance of warts
|
elevated mass of cells
irregular thickening of stratum spinosum increased thickening of stratum corneum |
|
Homan test
|
tests: presence of DVT
+ is pain deep and local in the calf |
|
an eruption of vesicles related to overexposure to the sun, stress and reduced immunity describes what?
|
Herpes simplex 1
|
|
allen's test
tests: radial and ulnar artery and refill to the hand + refill is slow |
|
describe the appearance of herpes simplex 1
|
thin walled vesicles
tend to recur at same site appear at the junction of skin and mucous membranes |
|
shoulder elevation test
tests: for clavicular syndrome + is relief of symptoms |
|
describe the 10 step pathogenesis of herpes simplex 1
|
virus enters the cell
replication of viral particles cell lysis and release of virons infection spreads necrosis and vesicle eruption wound healing virus moves along nerve colonizes ganglionic cells latency recurrence |
|
Kleiger Test
Tests: deltoid ligament + is pain or laxity |
|
what are the signs and symptoms of HSV1? (7)
|
pruritis
burning sensation soreness tenderness erythema erupted vesicles vesicles rupute |
|
Homan Test
Tests: DVT in lower extremity + is pain deep in calf area * no longer considered clinically reliable |
|
what does herpes zoster cause?
|
post herpetic neuralgia / shingles
|
|
Thompson Test
Tests: achilles tendon integrity + is no motion of foot. Achilles tendon rupture |
|
what is described as an acute inflammatory condition of spinal or cranial nerves?
|
herpes zoster / HSV3
|
|
Gapping Test
Tests: anterior S/I ligaments + is pain in low back area |
|
what are the common sites of infection of herpes zoster?
|
trigeminal nerve
lumbar nerves |
|
Anterior Drawer
Test: anterior cruciate ligament + is pain or laxity |
|
describe the pathogenesis of shingles
|
childhood viral infection
lies latent for years unilateral cutaneous eruption vesicles subside after a few weeks |
|
Appley's Distraction Test
Tests: ligamentous structures + is pain. Relief of pain may indicate meniscal damage |
|
severe pain and neuralgia and paraesthesia are signs and symptoms of what kind of infection?
|
herpes zoster
|
|
Appley's Compression / Grind
Tests: menisci + is pain |
|
what is the treatment for herpes zoster?
|
corticosteroids, antiviral drugs, pain relievers
|
|
Approximation test
Tests: posterior SIJ ligaments + is increased feeling of pressure or pain |
|
what is the causative agent of scabies?
|
a mite that burrows into the epidermis
|
|
SI Rocking / Sacrotuberous stress
tests: sacrotuberous ligament + is pain |
|
what are the common sites of scabies infections?
|
between fingers
wrists axillae genitalia inner thigh |
|
Squish Test
Tests: posterior SIJ ligaments + is pain |
|
papules, vesicles, pustules, itching, excoriations are signs and symptoms of what?
|
scabies
|
|
Clarke's Test
Tests for patellofemoral dysfunction + is retropatellar pain, inability to complete or maintain contraction without pain |
|
pediculus humanus is the causative agent for what infection?
|
lice infestation
|
|
what body areas are infected by lice?
|
body
head pubic area |
|
Halstead Test
tests: TOS due to scalene syndrome + is diminished pulse |
|
what are the signs and symptoms of lice?
|
pruritis
skin irritation eczematous patches |
|
Lachman Test
Tests: anterior cruciate ligament + is mushy or soft end feel |
|
what diseases are associated with ticks?
|
Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever
Lyme Disease |
|
McMurray Test
Tests: menisci + is pain or clicking or snapping |
|
what are the signs and symptoms of a tick carried virus in humans?
|
high fevers
rashes malaise |
|
Nachlas Test
Tests: L2 and L3 nerve root ; femoral nerve ; quadriceps + is neurological pain in the ipselateral lumbar area, buttock. Neurological symptoms in anterior thigh ; decreased ROM |
|
why do antibiotics work against tick infections?
|
because the viruses have characteristics or bacteria
|
|
|
Posterior Drawer
Tests: posterior cruciate ligament + is pain or laxity |
|
inflammatory, allergic, burns and neoplasms are examples of what kind of skin disorders?
|
non-infectious
|
|
Posterior Drawer
Tests: posterior cruciate ligament + is pain or laxity |
|
burns can have what four serious consequences due to skin damage?
|
compromise the integrity of the skin
loss of protective function lead to infection reduced thermoregulation loss of fluids |
|
ROOS test
tests: TOS + is unable to keep arms in starting position, ischemic pain, heaviness, profound weakness, numbness, tingling |
|
what kinds of skin disorders should an RMT look for and possibly refer a client to a heath care professional? (6)
|
bruises
fissures moles athlete's foot dry skin odours |
|
Sag Test
Tests: posterior cruciate ligament + is sulcus at the tibial plateau ; the tibia will 'sag' posteriorly |
|
what are examples of heavy skin scaling?
|
dandruff
psoriasis eczema |
|
Toe Stand
Tests: tricep surae strength, tibial nerve, plantar faciitis + weakness, numbness / tingling, pain in the foot |
|
what glands secrete sebum and what kind of structure are they?
|
sebaceous glands. They are an epithelial structure
|
|
What does sebum contain?
|
a mixture of fatty substances
|
|
what is a holocrine process?
|
cells produce a secretion and then release it by bursting
|
|
how is sebum released?
|
via a holocrine process
|
|
what stimulates sebaceous cell proliferation and sebum production?
|
hormones
|
|
pubescent acne is related the increase of which sex hormone?
|
the male sex hormone androgen
|
|
what are the four types of lesions associated with acne?
|
comedones
papules pustules cysts |
|
what is the laypersons name of comedones?
|
whiteheads
blackheads |
|
what causes a comedone?
|
obstructed ducts of accumulated sebum
|
|
what do blackheads contain?
|
melanin from broken down melanocytes
|
|
the inflammation of acne is cause by what?
|
irritating effects of some of the fatty acids in sebum
|
|
what are the three forms of acne?
|
acne vulgaris
acne conglobata acne rosacea |
|
what type of acne is common at puberty?
|
acne vulgaris
|
|
when does acne conglobata normally occur?
|
in adulthood
|
|
which type of acne is more common in the elderly?
|
acne rosacea
|
|
what is the cause of acne vulgaris?
|
idiopathic / unknown
|
|
hormonal activity, keratinisation of epithelial cells and increased sebum are contributing factors to what non-infectious skin condition?
|
acne vulgaris
|
|
what is the prevention and treatment of acne vulgaris?
|
keep skin clean
balanced diet avoid stress topical creams |
|
what are the three most common lesion site for acne conglobata?
|
back
buttocks chest |
|
how does acne conglobata manifest?
|
comedomes
postules abscesses cysts scars |
|
keloid scarring due to abnormal remodeling is related to what type of acne?
|
acne conglobata
|
|
what is a raised pink or red firm mass of cells due to excess collagen deposition?
|
keloid
|
|
what are the systemic manifestations of acne conglobata?
|
anaemia, increased white blood cell count, increased neutrophil counts
|
|
describe the onset of acne rosacea
|
insidious
begins with red patches over the nose and cheek that spread to chin and forehead |
|
what is telangiectasia and what type of skin disorder is it associated with?
|
it is dilation of capillaries and it is seen in acne rosacea
|
|
how can one best manage acne rosacea?
|
avoid vascular stimulants
|
|
what are the lesion types seen in acne rosacea?
|
red patches (erythema)
telangiectasia spider lesions pustules may or may not be present |
|
what is the etiology of psoriasis?
|
unknown
|
|
what can exacerbate psoriasis?
|
stress
|
|
what are common lesion sites of psoriasis?
|
elbows
knees scalp |
|
what kinds of lesions are seen with psoriasis?
|
papules
plaques thick, silvery scales erythema |
|
what is hyperkeratosis?
|
rapid proliferation and migration of keratinocytes from the basal layer to the corneum
|
|
photochemotherapy, sunbathing, mud treatments and methotrexate are treatment options for which skin condition?
|
psoriasis
|
|
what is the pathology of psoriasis?
|
hyperkeratosis
|
|
what are some possible treatments for psoriasis?
|
photochemotherapy
sunbathing methotrexate natural remedies |
|
what type of white blood cells release histamine?
|
basophils
|
|
what are mast cells?
|
specialized basophils found in connective tissue
|
|
what types of white blood cells are phagocytic?
|
neutrophils and monocytes
|
|
what do lymphocytes do?
|
produce specific antibodies
|
|
what are the two types of lymphocytes?
|
B-lymphocytes
T-lymphocytes |
|
what types of white blood cells are responsible for circulating antibodies and mediating blood/humoral immunity?
|
B-lymphocytes
|
|
what type of white blood cells are responsible for cell mediated immunity and play a role in allergic reactions?
|
T-lymphocytes
|
|
which white blood cells are granulocytes?
|
neutrophils
eosinophils basophils |
|
which white blood cells are agranulocytes?
|
lymphocytes
monocytes |
|
what is an allergy?
|
an acquired abnormal immune response to a substance that does not normally elicit a reaction
|
|
what are the two classifications of allergies?
|
immediate / type I
delayed / type IV |
|
what type of cell is involved in type I allergic reactions?
|
mast cells
|
|
what do mast cells release when they bind with an allergen?
|
histamine
|
|
what three things happen at first exposure to an allergen that will eventually cause a Type I reaction?
|
no symptoms
the mast cells become sensitized an IgE is produced and attaches to the mast cells |
|
What happens at subsequent exposure to an allergen in a Type I allergic response?
|
the allergen binds to the IgE
mast cells release histamine localized inflammatory response symptoms appear |
|
what is the most severe form of a Type I allergic reaction?
|
anaphylaxis
|
|
what type of vascular response does histamine produce?
|
vasodilation
|
|
what is the consequence of vasodilation in an allergic response (anaphylaxis)?
|
blood pressure drops drastically which leads to edema in the lungs and airway constriction
|
|
what category of allergic response is eczema?
|
Type I
|
|
what is the appearance of eczema lesions in infants?
|
oozing vesicles
crusty scales excoriations |
|
what is the appearance of eczema lesions in adults?
|
dry, leathery
hyper or hypopigmentation pruritis weeping / oozing (if severe) |
|
how is eczema treated?
|
avoid extreme temperatures
avoid stress moisturize skine |
|
what two things are reacting in Type IV hypersensitivity?
|
allergen and T-lymphocytes
|
|
Type IV hypersensitivity is mediated by what?
|
cells
|
|
what happens at first exposure in a Type IV hypersensitivity?
|
the T-lymphocytes become sensitized
|
|
what happens at subsequent exposure in a Type IV hypersensitivity?
|
allergen binds to T-lymphocytes
synthesis of lymphokines and cytokines circulating and fixed macrophages are recruited T-lymphocytes proliferate local inflammation tissue damage |
|
dermatitis is what type of hypersensitivity?
|
Type IV
|
|
what are the types of dermatitis?
|
irritant contact
allergic contact |
|
what causes the inflammation in irritant contact dermatitis?
|
chemical irritation
|
|
how long does it take for lesions to appear due to allergic contact dermatitis?
|
24 - 48 hours
|
|
what are the signs of contact dermatitis?
|
erythema
edema vesicles or bulla excoriation pruritis |
|
how is dermatitis treated?
|
avoid irritant
wash affected area dress area loosely topical ointment for itch corticosteroids |
|
what is a burn?
|
tissue injury due to excessive heat, chemicals, electricity or radiation
|
|
what are the two systemic effects of burns?
|
primary shock
secondary shock |
|
which type of shock due to burns has an insidious onset and follows severe burns?
|
secondary shock
|
|
what are the three classifications of burns?
|
first degree
second degree third degree |
|
what degree of burn is also called superficial?
|
first
|
|
which degree of burn is also called partial thickness?
|
second degree
|
|
which degree of burn is also called full thickness?
|
third degree
|
|
a first degree burn results in damage to which structure?
|
the epidermis
|
|
a second degree burn results in damage to which structure?
|
epidermis and dermis
|
|
a third degree burn results in damage to which structure?
|
skin and subcutaneous layer
|
|
what are six possible burn complications?
|
shock
secondary infection rigor muscles vomiting convulsions fever |
|
what type of cell is an undifferentiated cell?
|
a stem cell
|
|
a stem cell can divide into which two different types of cells?
|
another stem cell
a progenitor cell |
|
a progenitor cell will go on to become what?
|
a specialized cell
|
|
what are the four types of labile cells?
|
epithelial
endothelial bone fibrous connective tissue |
|
what are the two types of permanent cells?
|
cardiac muscle
neurons |
|
what are the four types of stabile cells
|
smooth muscle
dense regular connective tissue skeletal muscle cartilage |
|
which of the stabile cells are very limited with regeneration?
|
skeletal muscle
cartilage |
|
what are the three ways that cells can adapt?
|
change size
change shape change in number |
|
what are the two types of adaptation?
|
physiological
pathological |
|
what is a physiological adaptation?
|
a response to appropriate stimuli and the adaptation stops when the stimuli is removed
|
|
what are the two types of pathological adaptation?
|
trophic changes
plastic changes |
|
what is a pathological adaptation
|
abnormal adaptation and response to inappropriate stimuli
|
|
what is a trophic change?
|
change in cell size due to change in nourishment and demand on cells
|
|
what is a plastic change?
|
change in number, type and appearance of cells
|
|
what is atrophy?
|
decrease in cell size
|
|
which type of atrophy is irreversible?
|
atrophy due to denervation
|
|
what are some causes of atrophy? (4)
|
disuse
decreased hormone stimulation malnutrition ischemia |
|
what is hypertrophy?
|
increase in cell size
|
|
what are the types of hypertrophy?
|
physiological
pathological |
|
what causes physiological hypertrophy?
|
increased workload or metabolic demands
|
|
what are the types of pathological hypertrophy?
|
adaptive
compensatory |
|
what is adaptive hypertrophy?
|
a response to chronic pathological conditions
|
|
what is compensatory hypertrophy?
|
enlargement due to tissue or organ loss
|
|
can hypertrophy go on forever?
|
no, it is limited
|
|
what are the three types of plastic changes in cells?
|
hyperplasia
metaplasia dysplasia |
|
what is hyperplasia?
|
increase in the number of cells
|
|
what types of cells are capable of physiological hyperplasia?
|
cells capable of mitosis - labile and stable cells
|
|
what is pathological hyperplasia?
|
excessive reproduction of cells due to viral infections or excessive hormonal stimulation
|
|
which trophic and plastic changes can occur at the same time when stimulated by the same factor?
|
hypertrophy and hyperplasia
|
|
what is metaplasia?
|
replacement of one cell type by another within the boundaries of a primary tissue
|
|
what is dysplasia?
|
a deranged line of cells
|
|
which one is a normal adaptation, metaplasia or dysplasia?
|
metaplasia
|
|
what are the cell adaptations that result in a change in cell size or cell number?
|
hyperplasia
hypertrophy atrophy |
|
what are the cell adaptations that result in a change in cell type?
|
metaplasia
dysplasia |
|
is reabsorption of water and other substances from the nephron tubules done passively or active?
|
both
|
|
a high protein meal stimulates...
|
gastric and intestinal activity
|
|
what happens if small proteins squeeze through the glomerular membrane?
|
they are reabsorbed via endocytosis
degraded in the epithelial cells by enzymes into amino acids and returned to the amino acid pool in the blood |
|
a high fibre diet enhances...
|
gastric motility
|
|
what is tubular secretion?
|
reverse absorption
removes substances from peritubular capillaries to the tubule to join urine |
|
what regulates the contractile rhythm of the stomach?
|
pacemaker cells in the muscularis
|
|
what is the function of tubular secretion?
|
maintain blood pH
maintain plasma K+ ion levels remove urea and uric acid that was reabsorbed remove drugs |
|
how soon after a meal does gastric emptying occur?
|
about four hours
|
|
urine combines substances collected from which two areas?
|
bowmans capsule / glomerulus
peritubular capillaries / distal convoluted tubules |
|
what is acute gastritis?
|
transient inflammation of the gastric mucosa due to local irritants. Usually reversible within a few days
|
|
what is mieturition?
|
urination
|
|
what irritants might predispose someone to gastritis?
|
endotoxins
coffee cigarette smoke heavy alcohol consumption asprin excess bile salt |
|
what is uremia?
|
waste products in the urine (usually nitrogen type waste)
|
|
what is the treatment for acute gastritis?
|
avoidance of irritants
antacids antibiotics (bacterial infections) |
|
what is hematuria?
|
blood in the urine
|
|
what is chronic gastritis?
|
progressive and irreversible atrophy of the epithelium of the stomach. Inflammation leads to mucosal degeneration, metaplasia and dysplasia
|
|
what is the purpose of renal autoregulation of filtration rate?
|
to maintain filtration rate in kidneys regardless of changes in systemic blood pressure
|
|
what are the two forms of chronic gastritis?
|
simple atrophic gastritis
autoimmune atrophic gastritis |
|
what do juxtaglomerula cells detect?
|
pressure
|
|
what is simple atrophic gastritis?
|
disorder involving impaired secretion of acid and pepsinogen
|
|
what do maculadensa cells do and where would you find them?
|
detect filtrate concentration
found in the distal convoluted tubule |
|
what is autoimmune atrophic gastritis?
|
severe impairment of acid and pepsinogen secretions with disturbances in protein digestion and malnutrition
|
|
what do maculadensa cells to when the GFR goes up?
|
they sense increased filtrate concentration and release local vasoconstrictors that cause constriction of the afferent arterioles
|
|
what causes autoimmune atrophic gastritis?
|
antibodies that destroy gastric mucosa cells
|
|
what triggers the angiotensin mechanism?
|
low systemic blood pressure
|
|
autoimmune atrophic gastritis predisposes to which three other disorders?
|
pernicious anemia
gastric ulcers gastric carcinoma |
|
which two regions are common for peptic ulcers?
|
stomach
duodenum |
|
what are the two scenarios that lead to peptic ulcers?
|
normal aggression / decreased defense
increased aggression / normal defense |
|
when is the pain of a peptic ulcer most likely?
|
when the stomach is empty
|
|
what relieves the pain of peptic ulcers?
|
food
antacids |
|
what is a stress ulcer?
|
ulcer is response to major physical stress or trauma such as burns, surgery, long tern steroid use, liver failure
|
|
what are two types of gastric neoplasms?
|
polyps
malignant |
|
what is a gastric polyp?
|
benign nodules of masses projecting above the surface of the mucosa
|
|
which cells are affected in gastric carcinoma?
|
secretory cells
|
|
which structures are the start and end of the small intestine?
|
pyloric sphincter
ileocecal valve |
|
which two ducts drain into the duodenum?
|
bile duct
pancreatic duct |
|
what lines the surface of the intestinal mucosa and what is its function?
|
villi
increase surface area for absorption |
|
which four types of cells are found in the villi of the intestine?
|
absorptive cells / brush border
goblet cells enteroendocrine cells paneth cells |
|
is intestinal juice alkaline or acidic?
|
alkaline
|
|
what makes up intestinal juice?
|
water
mucus electrolytes some enzymes |
|
where would you find most intestinal enzymes?
|
bound to the brush border
|
|
what are the four categories of disorders that affect the intestines?
|
inflammatory
malabsorption diverticular neoplasms |
|
what is enteritis?
|
inflammation of the mucosa of the small intestine leading to temporary atrophy of villi
|
|
what is peritonitis?
|
inflammation of the peritoneum
|
|
which side is the appendix on?
|
the right
|
|
what is irritable bowel syndrome?
|
a functional disorder of the GI tract manifested by various recurrent symptoms that have no apparent structural or biomechanical cause
|
|
how is IBS managed?
|
relaxation / stress reduction
avoidance of irritants |
|
what is crohn's disease?
|
inflammation of ileum that ranges from mild to debilitating
progressive and chronic fistulas form which lead to malabsorption |
|
which intestinal disorder is characterized by 'skip lesions'?
|
crohn's disease
|
|
what is the treatment for crohn's disease?
|
corticosteroids
immunosuppressive therapy surgery |
|
what are the two main functions of the large intestine?
|
absorb remaining water
store and eliminate waste |
|
name the regions of the large intestine (5)
|
cecum
appendix colon rectum anal canal |
|
name the two sphincters of the anal canal and are the voluntary or involuntary?
|
internal anal sphincter (involuntary)
external anal sphincter (voluntary) |
|
what are the two movements in colon?
|
haustral churning
mass movements |
|
what is haustral churning and what is the purpose?
|
segmentation movement
exposes all fecal matter to the intestinal surface for absorption of water and electrolytes |
|
what are mass movements?
|
contraction of large segments of the colon which moves fecal matter along as a until
|
|
which area of the spinal cord contains the defecation reflex?
|
sacral
|
|
how do the walls of the large intestine differ from the small?
|
thicker
gutted by crypts lined with goblet cells |
|
what are the health benefits of fibre?
|
- retain water making feces bulkier and softer
- reduces risk of cancer - binds lipids forming cholesterol |
|
what is constipation?
|
infrequent and/or painful elimination of feces
|
|
what are some factors that predispose someone to constipation?
|
low fiber diet
dehydration bad bathroom habits emotional states lack of exercise |
|
what is ulcerative colitis?
|
a progressive, chronic inflammatory disorder which affects the colon and rectum
|
|
what are the two types of colitis?
|
acute fulminating
chronic intermittent |
|
describe the pathogenesis of colitis
|
ulceration begins in rectum
spreads proximal affects muscosa and submucosa fissure lesions form and merge |
|
what is colonic diverticular disease?
|
mucosa of the colon herniates and bulges through the muscularis
|
|
what is the etiology of colonic diverticular disease?
|
scant colon content leading to increased interluminal pressure due to increased force of contraction
|
|
what is the most common site of colonic diverticular disease?
|
sigmoid colon
|
|
name two types of carcinomas of the colon
|
fulminating
ulcerative |
|
describe fulminating carcinoma (colon)
|
cauliflower shape bulging into the lumen
|
|
describe ulcerative carcinoma (colon)
|
large irregular ulcer penetrating the muscularis
presence of abundant scar tissue |
|
which other GI disorder can predispose to colorectal cancer?
|
ulcerative colitis
|
|
what is celiac disease?
|
intolerance to gluten leading to inflammation and progressive atrophy of small intestine villi
|
|
how many lobes make up the liver?
|
four
|
|
which organ would you find under the liver?
|
the gall bladder
|
|
which system/structure delivers nutrients from the intestinal region to the liver?
|
portal circulation
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what four cell types make up the lobules of the liver?
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hepatocytes
Kupffer's cells bile canniculi sinusoids |
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what are kupffer's cells?
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macrophages in the liver responsible for phagocytosis of bacteria carried up from the intestine
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which structure carries bile from the liver into the gall bladder?
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bile canniculi
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what is the role of the liver sinusoids?
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carry nutrients from the intestines, oxygen from the heart/lungs
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what four functions are affected when injury to the liver damages hepatocytes?
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vascular function
metabolism secretory and excretory functions storage and defense |
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explain what it means that the liver is a blood reservoir?
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in times of need up to 10% of total blood volume in the body can be diverted from the liver to other areas in the body
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what can cause sirrhosis of the liver?
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alcohol abuse
poisons viral infections hepatitis infection of bile ducts |
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what is ascites?
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excessive lymph exudation to the abdominal cavity
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what is portal hypertension?
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increased pressure in the portal vein due to blood obstruction through the liver
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what are two possible causes of portal hypertension?
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right chronic congestive heart failure
liver cirrhosis |
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why does right CCHF lead to portal hypertension?
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congestion of right atrium leads to abnormal venous flow into the heart. This causes peripheral congestion including that of the liver
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why does cirrhosis of the liver lead to portal hypertension?
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inflammation and fibrosis obstruct blood flow
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what is the role of the liver in carbohydrate metabolism?
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-production and storage of glycogen
-convert galactose and fructose to glucose - gluconeogenesis |
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what is the role of the liver in protein metabolism?
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-conversion of amino acids to fatty acids or glucose
-synthesis of plasma proteins conversion of ammonia to urea |
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what is the role of the liver in lipid metabolism?
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-conversion of fatty acids for beta oxidation
-packaging of lipoproteins synthesis of cholesterol and phospholipids -conversion of CHO and proteins to fat |
