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469 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
|
accessory cells in bone marrow
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stromal cells: support matrix, fat cells, fibroblasts, macrophages, monocytes, and lymphocytes
hematopoetic elements:erythroid precursors adjacent to venous sinuses, granulocytic precursors deep in cords, and megakaryocytes adjacent to venous sinuses |
|
hematopoeitic element deep in the bone marrow cords
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granulocytic precursors
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hematopoeitic element adjacent to venous sinuses
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erythroid precursors and megakaryocytes
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granulocytes are comprised of
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neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils
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hallmark of leukemic myeloblasts
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Auer rods (accumulation of primary granules)
|
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dominant feature of promyelocytes
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primary granules (strongly + for MPO)
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hallmark of myelocyte
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secondary granules
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maturation sequence cells capable of mitosis
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myelocyte, promyelocyte, myeloblast, CFU-GM, CFU-GEMM
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final stage in maturation of hematopoeisis
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PMN leukocyte (neutrophil)
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primary function of neutrophils
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phagocytosis and elimation of injured tissue or invading organisms
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steps of neutrophil action
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1) migrate
2) bind and eat 3) digest or kill (marginate to outside of blood vessel and adhere to endothelial cells, diapedesis, phagocytosis, lysosomal enzymes kill) |
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location of monocytes
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peripheral blood
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location of macrophages
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in the tissue
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main functions of monos/macs
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1) phagocytosis
2) production of cytokines 3) production of inflammatory accessory molecules 4) antigen presentation 5) storage of iron 6) removal of senescent cells 7) participation of anti-tumor responses |
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finding:
increased in parasitic infection what cell type? |
eosinophil
|
|
finding:
bi-lobed nucleus what cell type? |
-eosinophils, early megas
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first granulocytic precursor
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myeloblasts
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progression of hematopoeisis
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CFU-GEMM, CFU-GM, myeloblast, promyelocyte, myelocyte, metamyelocyte, neutrophil
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finding:
primary granules what cell type? |
promyelocyte
|
|
finding:
MPO what cell type? |
myeloblast, promyelocyte
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finding:
actively proliferating, undifferentiated cell with high N:C ratio what cell type? |
myeloblast
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finding:
fine chromatin (euchromatin) what cell type? |
myeloblast
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finding:
pink secondary granules, smaller, more differentiated, more heterochromatin what cell type? |
myelocyte
|
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contents of secondary granules
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lysozyme, plasminogen activators
|
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finding:
indented nucleus, lower N:C ratio, more abundant heterochromatin, more abundant secondary granules what cell type? |
metamyelocyte
|
|
finding:
small nucleus, abundant heterochromatin, U shaped nucleus, secondary nucleus what cell type? |
band
|
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finding:
segmented nucleus, heterochromatin, secondary granules with collagenase, lysozyme, and proteases what cell type? |
neutrophils
|
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largest cells in bone marrow
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megakaryocytes
|
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function of megakaryocytes
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production of platelet
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finding:
platelet peroxidase what cell type? |
megakaryocyte
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early vs late megakaryocytes
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early have single or bilobed nuclei and euchromatin; late have multisegmented nucleus with heterochromatin and cytoplasm containes granules
|
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myelocyte stage of eosinophils contains what?
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numerous large, round granules containing a crystallois compound made up of major basic protein (MBP)
|
|
finding:
MBP what cell type? |
eosinophils
|
|
finding:
large coarse basophilic granules what cell type? |
basophils
|
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basophil granules contain what?
|
histamine, heparin, and chemotactic factor
|
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finding:
IgE Fc receptors on cell surface what cell type? |
basophils
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mast cell locations
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tissues
|
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2 types of de-granulation in mast cells and basophils
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anaphylactic and piecemeal
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finding:
peroxidase negative lysosomes what cell type? |
monocytic
|
|
finding:
slate-gray cytoplasm with vacuoles and large renigorm nucleus what cell type? |
mature monocytes
|
|
finding:
larger, unsegmented nucleus with mix of euchromatin and heterochromatin what cell type? |
mature monocytes
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primary lymphoid tissues
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bone marrow, thymus
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secondary lymphoid tissues
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lymphatic vessels, lymph nodes, spleen, lymphoid nodules
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thoracic duct drainage
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larger into left subclavian vein and smaller right thoracic duct drains lymph into right subclavian vein
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location of spleen
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left upper quadrant of abdominal cavity, under the diaphragm
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GALT
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lymphoid nodules associated with the GI tract; include palatine, pharyngeal, and lingual tonsils, and peyer's patches
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BALT
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lymphocytes distributed along the segmental bronchioles and bronchi
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parafollicular areas are made up of
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T cells (part of the lymph node)
|
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primary follicles are made up of
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B cells (part of the lymph node)
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what happens to the primary follicles after antigen stimulation
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they become secondary follicles with germinal centers
|
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medulla of lymph node is composed of what?
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medullary cords and medullary sinuses
|
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lymphocytes enter the lymph node through what?
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Afferent lymphatics or high endothelial venules
|
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spleen arterioles are surrounded by what?
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periarteriolar lymphocytic sheath (PALS); these cells are predominantly T cells
|
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white pulp of the spleen =
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secondary lymphoid organ
|
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red pulp of the spleen =
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filter for the blood
|
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how does the red pulp actually remove damaged cells, bacteria, or other foreign antigens
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macrophages at the splenic cord-splenic sinus interface
|
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cortex of the thymus contains what
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densely packed immature pre-T lymphocytes, irregular epithelial cells
|
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medulla of the thymus contains what
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mature T cells
|
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hassall's corpuscles: what are they and where are they?
|
fused remnants of epithelial cells found in medulla of the thymus
|
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cells making of lymphoid tissues
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1. lymphocytes
2. plasma cells 3. dendritic cells 4. natural killer cells |
|
resting lymphocyte characteristics
|
small with a compact nucleus composed of heterochromatin and cytoplasm populated by few organelles
|
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dividing lymphocytes characteristics
|
larger with a large nucleus composed of euchromatin
|
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sequence of lymphopoiesis
|
pluripotent stem cell, lymphoid progenitor cell, T or B cell or NK cell
|
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what are plasma cells
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terminally differentiated B cells; therefore non-dividing
|
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function of plasma cells
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secrete large quantities of immunoglobin
|
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why is the cytoplasm of plasma cells blue
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abundant rough ER
|
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what is the perinuclear hof in the plasma cell
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area of clearing near the nucleus that consists of the golgi apparatus
|
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what does the nucleus look like in the plasma cell
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eccentric and looks like a soccer ball
|
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characteristics of dendritic cells
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abundant cytoplasm, numerous lysosomes, long cytoplasmic projections
|
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natural killer cells: what are they and what do they mediate
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specialied lymphoid cells that mediate non-specific cytotoxicity
|
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characteristics of NK cells
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large, abundant cytoplasm with numerous large cytoplasmic granules
|
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development timing of lymph nodes
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begins at the end of the 6th week of embryogenesis and at 8 weeks there are 6 primary lymph sacs
|
|
lymphocytes in the embryonic lymph nodes and (when do the other cells come about?)
|
only T cells (after birth, B cells migrate to the nodes and form B cell follicles)
|
|
embryo development of spleen
|
during 5th week
|
|
what does the spleen develop from
|
dorsal mesogastrium
|
|
what does the thymus development from?
|
3rd (thymus and inferior parathyroid gland) and 4th (superior parathyroid) pharyngeal pouches
|
|
what disease is associated with thymus development
|
digeorge syndrome
|
|
complete blood count findings in acute leukemia
|
leukocytosis (normal or low), anemia, thrombocytopenia
|
|
pathophysiology of hyperleukocytosis
|
obstruction or destruction of small capillaries, primarily in CNS and lungs
|
|
lab findings in acute leukemia
|
-low platelets
-prolonged PTT -low fibrinogen -+ fibrin monomers -increased D-dimers |
|
4 lab analyses necessary after a bone marrow aspirate
|
1) morphologic
2) cytogenetics and FISH 3) flow cytometry 4) DNA based analysis |
|
bone marrow biopsy in leukemic patient
|
hypercellularity and lack of heterogeneity
|
|
CD 45
|
nearly all hematopoietic cells
|
|
CD34/CD117/HLA-DR
|
immaturity without lineage specificity
|
|
TdT
|
lymphoid immaturity (ALL)
|
|
CD1-CD8
|
T cell marker (T-ALL)
|
|
CD10 and CD19-CD23
|
B cells marker (B-ALL)
|
|
CD19
|
most specific B cell marker (B-ALL)
|
|
CD13/CD33/myeloperoxidase
|
myeloid lineage markers
|
|
myloperoxidase
|
most specific marker for myeloid lineage and AML
|
|
CD11/CD14/CD64
|
monocytic differentiation
|
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good risk cytogenetics for AML
|
translocation 15 and 17, inversion 16, translocation 8 and 21
|
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intermediate risk cytogenetics for AML
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normal karyotype
|
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poor risk cytogenetics for AML
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>3 abnormalities, deletions involving 5 and 7
|
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poor risk cytogenetics for ALL
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translocation 9 and 22, translocation 4 and 11, hypodiploidy, near triploidy, complex abnormalities
|
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good risk DNA abnormalities for acute leukemia
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CEPBA mutation, FLT3 wild type
NPM mutation, FLT3 wild type |
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poor risk DNA abnormalities for acute leukemia
|
FLT3 mutated
|
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inversion 16, translocation 16,16 or translocation 8 and 21 intermediate risk c-kit findings
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c-kit mutated
|
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inversion 16, translocation 16,16 or translocation 8 and 21 good risk c-kit findings
|
c-kit wild type
|
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what is AML
|
myeloid differentiation of leukemic blasts
|
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how do you tell the difference between myeloid blasts and undifferentiated blasts or lymphoid blasts
|
presence of auer rods or presence of certain proteins on the cell surface
|
|
induction treatment of AML includes what?
|
cytarabine (7 days), idarubicin (3 days)
|
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APL is defined by what?
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translocation 15 and 17, promyeloblasts with abundant auer rods or large purple granules
|
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APL is important because of what associations
|
DIC, and targeted agents such as ATRA and arsenic are able to reverse the abnormal physiology
|
|
abnormal physiology of APL
|
abnormal fusion protein binds and blocks transcription so blasts can't differentiate
|
|
affect of ATRA and arsenic
|
dissociate the abnormal protein, which allows transcription and subsequent differentiation of the promyeloblasts to mature neutrophils
|
|
Early T-ALL is defined as...
|
surface CD3 negative, CD1a negative
|
|
thymic T-ALL is defined as...
|
surface CD3 variable, CD1a positive
|
|
mature T-ALL is defined as...
|
surface CD3 positive, CD1a negative
|
|
prognosis for ALL is primarily based on what?
|
age
|
|
medications for ALL
|
L-asparagine, vincristine, corticosteroids, daunorubicin, imatinib, dasatinib
|
|
CNS prophylaxis for ALL
|
intratehcal chemotherapy: methotrexate/Ara-C
|
|
what is dyspoiesis
|
disorder of blood cell formation, akin to dysplasia characterized by abnormal maturation of any blood cell lineage and can be observed morphologically in BM or peripheral blood
|
|
neutrophilic morphologic findings of dyspoiesis
|
hypogranular neutrophils and bands, hyposegmented neutrophil
|
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megakaryocytic morphologic findings of dyspoiesis
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hypolobulated, multi-nucleated, small
|
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erythrocytic morphologic findings of dyspoiesis
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trinucleated, mitosis, ringed sideroblasts
|
|
diagnosis of MDS with bone marrow biopsy
|
dyspoiesis of one or more cell lineages, hypercellularity, and < 20% blasts
|
|
bone marrow morphology features that are very specific for myelodysplastic syndrome
|
elevated percentage of blast cells between 5-19%, ringed sideroblasts, cytogenetic or FISH abnormality, loss of a chromosome (5 or 7)
|
|
MDS vs. AML
|
MDS do not have hyperleukocytosis, tumor lysis, or present with organ infiltration of blasts
|
|
good prognosis from cytogenetics for MDS
|
normal, negative y, deletion of 5q, deletion of 20q
|
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poor prognosis from cytogenetics for MDS
|
complex (>3 abnormalities), chromosome 7 abnormality
|
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treatment for low risk MDS
|
growth factor (EPO, G-CSF), immunomodulation agents (lenaliomide)
|
|
treatment for high risk MDS
|
allogenic stem cell transfer, methyltransferase inhibitors (azacytidine, decitabine)
|
|
when blast cell promotors are methylated...
|
transcription factor can't bind, can't make proteins necessary to mature the blast cell normally
|
|
MIT's block what?
|
DNA methyltransferase
|
|
what is aplastic anemia
|
total bone marrow aplasia; autoimmune condition in which T cells attack hematopoietic precursor cells, resulting in marrow failure
|
|
aplastic anemia bone marrow aspirate findings
|
lack of hematopoietic cells which are replaced by fat cells,
|
|
severe aplastic anemia requirements
|
ANC < 500, ARC < 40,000, platelets < 20,000
|
|
very severe aplastic anemia requirements
|
ANC < 200
|
|
severe aplastic anemia treatment for < 35 years old with HLA matched sibling
|
bone marrow transplant
|
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severe aplastic anemia treatment for > 35 years old without HLA matched sibling
|
immunosuppressive therapy (horse ATG and cyclosporin)
|
|
4 examples of MPN
|
-CML
-polycythemia vera -essential thrombocythemia -myelofibrosis |
|
CML is characterized by
|
BCR-ABL (9;22) translocation
|
|
bcr-abl 9;22 translocation results in
|
dimerizes and phosphorylates itself, creates abnormal protein, enhances cell signaling, causes myeloblasts to proliferate abnormally and create more WBC
|
|
cellular findings in CML
|
full complement of white cell series: bands, neutrophils, metamyelocytes, myelocytes, promyelocytes, blasts, basophils, and eosinophils, basophilia, eosinophilia
|
|
presenting symptoms of CML
|
fatigue, weakness, pallor, left upper quadrant fullness, early satiety, splenomegaly, hepatomegaly, purpura
|
|
chronic phase of CML
|
<10% blasts
|
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accelerated phase of CML
|
10-19% blasts
|
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blast phase of CML
|
>20% blasts
|
|
imatinib mesylate action
|
occupies the ATP binding pocket of the Abl kinase domain which prevents substrate phosphorylation and signlaing
|
|
gleevec action
|
antagonist developed specifically to inhibit the mutant tyrosine kinase
|
|
second generation tyrosine kinase inhibitos
|
nilotinib and dasatinib
|
|
major criteria for polycythemia vera
|
1. hemoglobin >18 men >16 women
2. JAK2 mutation |
|
minor criteria for polycythemia vera
|
1. hypercellularity with pan myelosis, erythroid, granulocytic, and megakaryocytic proliferation
2. serum EPO below normal 3. endogenous erythroid colony formation in vitro |
|
presenting symptoms of PV
|
asymptomatic, fatigue, headache, pruritis, dyspnea, dizziness, visual change, splenomegaly, thrombosis
|
|
bone marrow of PV is characterized by what?
|
hypercellularity, clustering of megakaryocytes, and panmyelosis
|
|
therapy of PV
|
phlebotomy, daily aspirin and if patient is at high risk of thrombosis cytoreductive therapy with hydroxyurea
|
|
what is essential thrombocythemia?
|
megakaryocyte hyperplasia in bone marrow and sustained thrombocytosis in the peripheral blood
|
|
diagnostic criteria of essential thrombocythemia
|
persistent thrombocytosis, absence of iron deficiency, JAK2, rule out others
|
|
bone marrow findings of essential thrombocythemia
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increased number of large mature megakaryocytes in clusters
|
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characteristic finding of primary myelofibrosis
|
leukoerythroblastic blood smear: immature white blood cells, tear drop red blood cells, and nucleated red blood cells
|
|
diagnostic criteria of PMF
|
-leukoerythroblastic, increased marrow reticulum, splenomegaly, JAK2, CD34 cells, rule out others
|
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bone marrow findings in PMF
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fibrosis and bizarre, dysplastic megakaryocytes
|
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what is PMF
|
bone marrow cavity is replaced by fibrosis
|
|
treatment of PMF
|
ruxolitinib (JAK2 inhibitor): splenomegaly and constitutional symptoms, radiation: bone pain, darbopoietin: anemia
|
|
causes of neutropenia
|
1. drug toxicity (damage to stem cells decrease production of WBCs)
2. severe infection (increased movement of neutrophils into tissues) |
|
what can be used to boost granulocyte production
|
GM-CSF or G-CSF
|
|
causes of lymphopenia
|
1. immunodeficiency
2. high cortisol state (induces apoptosis of lymphocytes 3. autoimmune destruction 4. whole body radiation |
|
cause of increased neutrophils
|
1. bacterial infection
2. tissue necrosis 3. high cortisol state (knocks the neutro off the endothelial wall therefore enters circulation) |
|
immature neutrophils are characterized by what?
|
decrease in Fc receptors and therefore CD16
|
|
cause of increased monocytes
|
chronic inflammatory states and malignancy
|
|
cause of increased eosinophils
|
allergic reactions, parasitic infection, and hodgkin lymphoma (IL5 production)
|
|
cause of increased basophils
|
CML
|
|
cause of lymphocytic leukocytosis
|
1. viral infections
2. bordetella pertussis infection (lymphocytosis-promoting factor blocks lymphocytes from leaving blood to enter lymph node) |
|
EBV primarily infect what?
|
1. oropharynx
2. liver 3. B cells |
|
CD8+ T cell response leads to:
|
1. generalized lymphadenopathy (paracortex)
2. splenomegaly (PALS) 3. high WBC count |
|
EBV infection results in:
|
lymphocytic leukocytosis comprised of reactive CD8+ t cells
|
|
definitive diagnosis of mononucleosis
|
EBV viral capsid antigen
|
|
complications of mononucleosis
|
1. risk of splenic rupture
2. rash 3. dormancy leading to risk of recurrence and B-cell lymphoma |
|
what do blasts look like?
|
large, immature, punched out nucleoli
|
|
what is TdT
|
DNA polymerase
|
|
B-A L L surface markers
|
TdT, CD10, CD19, CD20
|
|
B-A L L: cytogenic abnormalities
|
translocation 12,21 and translocation 9, 22
|
|
translocation 12,21 in B- A L L prognosis
|
good usually seen in children
|
|
translocation 9, 22 in B- A L L prognosis
|
poor usually seen in adults
|
|
T-A L L surface markers
|
TdT, CD2 through CD8 NOT CD10
|
|
T's of T- A L L
|
teenagers, thymic mass (so actually is called a lymphoma)
|
|
meyloblasts are usually characterized by positive staining for what?
|
MPO
|
|
what are auer rods
|
crystal aggregates of MPO
|
|
APL cytogenetic abnormality
|
translocation 15, 17: translocation of retinoic acid blocks maturation and promyelocytes accumulate
|
|
complications of APL
|
abnormal promyelocytes contain numerous primary granules and auer rods which can activate coAg cascade and therefore DIC
|
|
treatment of APL
|
ATRA which will bind the altered receptor and cause blasts to mature and eventually die
|
|
acute monocytic leukemia characteristics
|
1. proliferation of monoblasts
2. lack MPO 3. infiltrate gums |
|
characteristics of acute megakaryoblastic leukemia
|
1. proliferationg of megas
2. lack MPO 3. associated with Downs before the age of 5 |
|
myelodysplastic syndromes typically present with what?
|
cytopenias, hypercellular bone marrow, abnormal maturation of cells, and increased blasts (less than 20%)
|
|
CLL is a proliferation of what?
|
naive B cells that co-express CD5 and CD20
|
|
blood smear of CLL
|
increased lymphocytes and smudge cell
|
|
complications of CLL
|
1. hypogammaglobinemia
2. autoimmune hemolytic anemia 3. diffuse large B-cell lymphoma with enlarging lymph node or spleen |
|
hairy cell leukemia is a proliferation of what?
|
mature B cells characterized by hairy cytoplasmic processes
|
|
clinical features of hairy cell?
|
TRAP positive, splenomegaly, dry tap on bone marrow aspiration
|
|
hairy cell responds well to what?
|
2-CDA (an adenosine deaminase inhibitor)
|
|
ATLL
|
mature CD4 T cells associated with HTLV-1
|
|
clinical features of ATLL
|
rash, LAD, hepatosplenomegaly, lytic bone lesions with hypercalcemia
|
|
mycosis fungoides is a proliferation of what?
|
mature CD4 T cells that infiltrate the skin leading to rash, plaques, and nodules
|
|
what are pautrier microabscesses?
|
aggregates of neoplastic cells in the epidermis
|
|
what is sezary syndrome
|
lymphocytes with cerebriform nuclei
|
|
findings in MPDs
|
high WBC count with hypercellular bone marrow - cells of all myeloid lineages are increased but are classified based on dominant myeloid cell produces
|
|
complications of MPDs
|
1. hyperuricemia and gout
2. marrow fibrosis and transformation to acute leukemia |
|
CML proliferation
|
myeloid cells especially granulocytes and basophils
|
|
mutation seen in CML
|
translocation 9,22 which creates fusion protein with increased tyrosine kinase actitivy
|
|
where is the mutation seen in CML
|
pluripotent stem cell therefore than go to AML or ALL
|
|
how can one distinguish between CML and leukemoid reaction
|
1. negative leukocyte alkaline phosphatase stain (grans in leukemoid reaction are LAS positive)
2. increased basophils 3. translocation 9,22 |
|
polycythemia vera proliferation
|
myeloid cells especially RBCs, grans, and platelets
|
|
mutation seen in polycythemia vera
|
JAK2
|
|
symptoms seen in PV
|
1. blurry vision and headache
2. increased risk of venous thrombosis 3. flushed face 4. itching |
|
treatment of PV
|
phlebotomy and hydroxyurea
|
|
how can one distinguish between PV and reactive polycythemia
|
1. EPO levels decreased
2. RP: high EPO low O2 in high altitude or lung disease and high O2 in renal cell carcinoma |
|
proliferation seen in ET
|
myeloid cells especially platelets
|
|
mutation seen in ET
|
JAK2 kinase
|
|
symptoms of ET
|
increased risk of bleeding and/or thrombosis
|
|
myelofibrosis proliferation
|
myeloid cells especially megakaryocytes
|
|
mutation seen in myelofibrosis
|
JAK2 kinase
|
|
what causes marrow fibrosis in myelofibrosis
|
megakaryocytes producing excess platelet-derived growth factor
|
|
clinical features of myelofibrosis
|
1. splenomegaly
2. leukoerythroblastic smear (tear drop RBCs, nucleated RBCs, and immature granulocytes) |
|
stage I for lymphomas
|
single lymph node group
|
|
stage II for lymphomas
|
multiple lymph node groups on same side of diaphragm
|
|
stage III for lymphomas
|
multiple lymph node groups on both sides of diaphragm
|
|
stage IV for lymphomas
|
multiple extranodal sites or lymph nodes and extranodal disease (i.e. lung, liver, bone)
|
|
B symptoms
|
with constitutional symptoms - weight loss, fever, drenching night sweats
|
|
CD5 positive
CD10 negative CD23 positive |
CLL/SLL
|
|
CD5 negative
CD10 variable |
diffuse large B-cell lymphoma
|
|
CD5 positive
CD10 negative CD23 negative cyclin D positive |
mantle cell lymphoma
|
|
CD5 negative
CD10 positve CD23 negative BCL6 positive |
burkitt lymphoma (also TdT and BCL2 negative and CD20 positive)
|
|
treatment of diffuse large b cell lymphoma
|
stage I and II: R Chop for 3 cycles
stage III and IV R Chop for 6 cycles |
|
finding:
paraimmunoblasts forming proliferation centers in tissue infiltrates disease? |
CLL
|
|
presentation of CLL
|
abnormal complete blood count in asymptomatic individual
|
|
treatment of CLL
|
FCR in younger patients
(Fludarabine, Cytoxan, rituximab) required only for 3-4 stages |
|
Rai staging 0
|
lymphocytosis only
|
|
Rai staging 1
|
lymphadenopathy
|
|
Rai staging 2
|
splenomegaly
|
|
Rai staging 3
|
anemia
|
|
Rai staging 4
|
thrombocytopenia
|
|
Rai staging is used for what cancer
|
CLL/SLL
|
|
neoplasm composition of follicular lymphoma
|
follicle center (germinal center) B cells with a partially follicular pattern
B cells are centrocytes and centroblasts |
|
presentation of follicular lymphoma
|
asymptomatic, enlarged peripheral lymph node
|
|
mutation seen in follicular lymphoma
|
translocation 14, 18
|
|
treatment of follicular lymphoma
|
palliative
younger: R chop or R bendamustin followed by consolidation and maintenance with rituximab |
|
neoplasm composition in mantle cell lymphoma
|
small monomorphic B cells with irrgeular nuclear contents in an expanding mantle layer
|
|
mutations found in mantle cell lymphoma
|
translocation 11, 14 which involves cyclin D gene which moves cells through the cell cycle from G1 to S phase much more rapidly than normal causes increased proliferation
|
|
treatment of mantle cell lymphoma
|
incurable but very responsive to initial immunochemotherapy using R-hyperCVAD
|
|
mutation seen in burkitts lymphoma
|
translocation 8, 14
|
|
presentation of burkitts lymphoma
|
abrupt abdominal symptoms associated with advanced, bulky, adenopathy
|
|
lab manifestations of burkitts lymphoma
|
bone marrow involvement, elevated LAD and uric acid, high risk of tumor lysis syndrome, uric acid, phosphorous, calcium, and potassium levels must be monitored
|
|
treatment of burkitts lymphoma
|
curable:
R hyperCVAD immunochemotherapy |
|
3 types of marginal zone lymphoma
|
-splenic
-extranodal/mucosa associated -nodal |
|
mutation seen in marginal zone lymphoma
|
translocation 11, 18
|
|
most aggressive marginal zone lymphoma
|
nodal
|
|
treatment of marginal zone lymphoma
|
R bendamustine or R Chop
|
|
hep C and marginal zone lymphoma treatment
|
hep C treatment or if no hep C, splenectomy or rituximab
|
|
gastric marginal zone lymphoma
|
caused by h pylori therefore treat the h pylori
|
|
lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma neoplasm composition
|
small B cells, plasamctoid cells, and plasma cells in bone marrow, spleen, and lymph nodes associated with IgM monoclonoal gammopathy
|
|
presentation of lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma
|
hyperviscosity syndrome with dilated retinal veins, visual blurring, epistaxis, and confusion due to elevated IgM, neuropathies, or cryoglobinemia (rash, renal insufficiency)
|
|
treatment of lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma
|
plasmapheresis to remove IgM, rituximab + bendamustine, or rituximab, boretozomib, dexamethasone
|
|
hairy cell neoplasm composition
|
small mature B cells with oval nuclei, hairy projections in bone marrow and splenic red pulp
|
|
markers for hairy cell lymphoma
|
CD 103 positive
CD 25 positive CD 123 positive annexin 1 positive CD 5 negative CD 10 negative |
|
presentation of hairy cell
|
splenomegaly, cytopenias
|
|
treatment of hairy cell
|
remission for majority of patients
|
|
what T cell lymphoma has a good prognosis
|
anaplastic large-cell lymphoma ALK positive
|
|
why don't you use rituximab for T cell lymphomas
|
its a CD 20 antibody and CD20 is not on the surface of T cells
|
|
differences between HL and NHL
|
HL: better prognosis, younger age, less common, orderly lymph node spread, classic disease distribution
|
|
cells seen in HL
|
mononucleated and multinucleated (hodgkins and reed sternburg) tumor cells with admixture of nonneoplastic inflammatory cells
|
|
surface markers of reed sterberg cells
|
CD 15 positive
CD 30 positive |
|
4 subtypes of classic HL
|
1) nodular sclerosis
2) mixed cellularity 3) lymphocyte predominant 4) lymphocyte depleted |
|
malignant cell of NLPHL
|
popcorn cell: large with irregular nuclear membrane
|
|
CD 30 positive
CD 15 positive CD 45 negative CD 20 negative PAX 5 positive |
CHL
|
|
CD 30 negative
CD 15 negative CD 45 positive CD 20 positive PAX 5 positive |
NLPHL
|
|
unfavorable disease risk factors for HL
|
1) B symptoms
2) bulky disease ( greater than 10 cm) 3) 2 or more nodal sites 4) extranodal sites 5) 40 years old and up 6) mixed cellularity or lymphocyte depleted 7) ESR greater than 50 if withouth B symptoms |
|
treatment for favorable cHL
|
2 cycles of ABVD plus 20-30 gy of radiotherapy
|
|
treatment for favorable NLPHL
|
radiation only
|
|
treatment for unfavorable cHL
|
4 cycles of ABVD plus 30 gy of radiotherapy (or 6 ABVD cycles)
|
|
treatment for advanced cHL
|
6 to 8 cycles of ABVD or escalated BEACOPP
|
|
treatment for advanced NLPHL
|
rituximab and chemotherapy
|
|
treatment for cHL relapsed patient
|
3 cycles of salvage chemotherapy followed by autologous hematopoietic stem cell transplantation
|
|
plasma cell dyscrasias
|
expansion of a clone of immunoglobulin secreting, heavy chain class switched, terminally differentiated B cells that typically secretes a single monoclonal immunoglobulin called M-protein (monoclonal gammopathy)
|
|
plasma cell markers
|
CD 138
CD 19 |
|
MGUS vs smoldering myeloma
|
MGUS: less than 3 M-protein and less than 10 percent bone marrow plasma cells
smoldering: greater than 3 and greater than 10 |
|
presentation of MGUS
|
asymptomatic and finds abnormal protein on blood test
|
|
3 factors of MGUS risk
|
1. serum free light chain (kappa:lambda vs normal)
2. type of immunoglobulin (IGA worse) 3. size of M protein (the bigger the worse) |
|
mutations seen in multiple myeloma
|
deletion 17
translocation 4, 14 translocation 14, 16 |
|
surface markers of multiple myeloma
|
CD 19 negative
CD 56 positive CD 138 positive |
|
crab criteria
|
only for multiple myeloma
Calcium Renal insufficiency Anemia Bone lesions |
|
lab findings in multiple myeloma
|
1) low albumin
2) gap between total protein and albumin of greater than 4 3) high calcium 4) high creatinine |
|
treatment of multiple myeloma
|
young: bortezomib, lenalidomide, dexamethasone
elderly: bort and dex or lena and dex |
|
maintenance treatment of multiple myeloma
|
lenalidomide
|
|
multiple myeloma stage I
|
albumin greater than 3.5 and beta 2 microglobulin less than 3.5
|
|
multiple myeloma stage III
|
beta 2 microglobulin greater than 5.5
|
|
treatment for bony lesions of multiple myeloma
|
zoledronic acid
|
|
plasmacytoma
|
collection of plasma cells in a single bony site or a single extramedullary site (upper respiratory tract)
no bone marrow involvement |
|
treatment for plasmacytoma
|
focal external beam radiation
|
|
amyloidosis
|
neoplastic plasma cells that secrete light chains which deposit in various tissues and form beta pleated sheets that binds congo red and displays apple green birefringence
|
|
locations of amyloidosis deposition
|
heart, peripheral nerve, kidney, GI tract, fat, or liver
|
|
how to tell the difference between amyloidosis and deposition disease
|
deposition disease does not bind to congo red and does not show apple green birefringence
|
|
aplasia cutis
|
localized absence of skin, usually on scalp, often part of another syndrome
|
|
ichthyosis
|
dry, fish skin like scales, hyperkeratosis, involving entire body surface, increased cell-cell adhesion, causes abnormal desquamation, leading to retention of abnormal scale
|
|
harlequin fetus
|
rare, autosomal recessive, thick-ridged cracked skin
form of icthyosis |
|
collodion baby
|
covered by thick, taut membrane, cracks with respiration, may shed membrane leaving behind normal or abnormal skin
|
|
cystic hygroma (aka)
|
benign tumor of lymphatics (aka lymphangioma)
|
|
hemangioma (aka)
|
most common neoplasm in infants, children, B9 endothelial cell tumor (aka strawberry nevus)
|
|
albinism defects
|
melanocytes fail to produce melanin because of lack of enzyme tyrosinase
|
|
piebaldism
|
AD, localized albinism, white forelock, lack of melanin in patch of skin or hair; caused by mutation in KIT protooncogene
|
|
piebaldism mutation
|
KIT proto-oncogene encodes cell surface receptor transmembrane tyrosine kinase for embryonic growth factor, steel factor, which regulates melanocyte proliferation
|
|
arthrogryposis multiplex congenita
|
failure of normal muscle development, widespread joint contractures, all associated with decreased fetal movement
|
|
congenital torticollis
|
"wry neck" injury to SCM muscle with fixed rotation, tilting of head, because of fibrosis of SCM muscle
-can't flex the neck (bring to midline) |
|
arthrogryposis can be due to...
|
innervation of muscle (neurogenic), myopathic (primary defect - congenital muscular dystrophy), or lack of normal growth of the muscle (amyoplasia)
|
|
most common location of limb reduction defects
|
upper extremity (75%)
|
|
genetic factors of limb reduction
|
chromosomal anomalies - Trisomy 18
|
|
mutant genes involved in limb reduction
|
brachydactyly
|
|
environment/teratogens involved in limb reduction
|
thalidomide between d 24-36
|
|
genetic + environment involved in limb reduction
|
multifactorial
|
|
vascular disruption and ischemia involved in limb reduction
|
amniotic band sequence
|
|
amelia
|
complete absence of limb; suppression of limb bud development in week 4
|
|
when does limb developent happen
|
week 4
|
|
meromelia
|
partial absence of limb; arrest/disturbance of differentiation/growth in week 5
|
|
when does differentiation and growth of limb occur
|
week 5
|
|
ectrodactyly
|
cleft hand or foot, lobster-claw deformity; absent of central digits, developmental failure of one or more digital ray
|
|
congenital absence of radius presentation
|
usually also has a missing thumb with lateral deviation and contraction abnormalities
|
|
polydactyly
|
supernumerary digit (greater than 5); can be autosomal dominant, extra digit is not normal, lacks normal muscle, usually lateral
|
|
syndactyly
|
webbing of digit, most common limb anomaly, due to imcomplete programmed cell death (apoptosis) of the tissue between the digital rays. in severe cases there is fusion of bones
|
|
oligohydramnios syndrome cause
|
abnormal positioning, restricted limb movement in utero due to reduction of amount of amniotic fluid
|
|
presentation of oligohydramnios syndrome
|
talipe (club foot), deformity of talus (ankle), abnormal foot position prevents normal weight bearing, walk on ankle
|
|
amniotic band sequence cause
|
amnion tear results in constriction or amputation of a developing limb or body part (accident - most likely will not occur in next pregnancies)
|
|
rickets- osteomalacia caused by
|
deficient bone matrix deficient bone matrix calcification due to inadequate calcium intake, vit D deficiency, impairs intestinal Ca absoprtion
altered endochondral bone growth |
|
rickets-osteomalacia findings
|
short, deformed, bowed long bones, frontal bossing, squared head, hypertrophic epiphyseal cartilage (thickened growth plate) at costochondral junction results in rachitic rosary
|
|
etiology of rickets
|
congenital (maternal vit D deficiency), hereditary (defect in Vit D activation of renal tubule phosphate reabsorption), no Vitamin D supplementation, calcium nutrition, inadequate exposure to sunlight
|
|
craniosynostosis due to
|
premature closure of cranial sutures
|
|
seen in sagittal suture closure
|
long narrow wedge-shaped skull
-scaphocephaly |
|
seen in coronal suture closure
|
oxycephaly (turricephaly) : high tower like skull
|
|
key to diagnosis of dwarfism
|
X-rays!! get baby gram! if baby dies, autopsy to classify
|
|
achondroplasia inheritance
|
Autosomal dominant
|
|
achondroplasia mutation
|
usually paternal chromosome de novo mutation, risk increases with increased paternal age,
|
|
lethal form of achondroplasia
|
25% chance if two dwarfs; homozygous
|
|
pathogenesis of achondroplasia
|
due to activating mutation in fibroblast growth factor receptor 3 (FGFR3); overexpression of FGFR2 inhibits growth
|
|
clinical features of achondroplasia
|
1) short extremities with normal sized head and chest (endochondral bone formation defect not intramembranous bone formation - normal bone width), frontal bossing, flattened nasal bridge,
|
|
thanatophoric dwarfism
|
lethal, die with respiratory insufficiecny/lung hypoplasia, frontal bossing, small rib cage, relative macrocephaly FGFR3 mutation
|
|
osteogenesis imperfecta defect
|
congenital defect of bone resorption resultin in structurally weak bone
-defect in type I collagen synthesis (autosomal dominant) |
|
clinical features of osteogenesis imperfecta
|
1. multiple fractures of bone(osteopenia)
2. blue sclera - thinning of scleral collagen reveals underlying choroidal veins 3. hearing loss - bones of middle ear fracture easily |
|
quantitative OI
|
decreases synthesis of normal collagen - mild phenotype
|
|
qualitative OI
|
abnormal collagen chains that don't form collagen triple helix - lethal phenotype
|
|
locations of type I collagen
|
bone. joint, eye, ear, skin and teeth
|
|
osteopetrosis aka
|
marble bone disease of albers-schonberg
|
|
osteopetrosis due to
|
inherited defect of bone resorption resulting in abnormally thick, heavy bone that fractures easily; osteoclast dysfunction causes diffuse symmetrical skeletal sclerosis
|
|
AUTOSOMAL RECESSIVE osteopetrosis
|
benign, in adolescence with repeated fractures, mild anemia
|
|
autosomal recessive osteopetrosis
|
malignant; fractures, anemia, hydrocephaly, extramedullary hematopoiesis, hepatosplenomegaly and entrapped cranial nerves (optic atrophy, deafness, facial parlysis)
entrapped cranial nerves (optic atrophy, deafness, facial parlysis) |
|
osteopetrosis mutations
|
carbonic anhydrase II mutation leads to loss of acidic microenvironment required for bone resorption
|
|
clinical features of osteopetrosis
|
1. bone fractures
2. anemia, thrombocytopenia, and leukopenia with extramedullary hematopoiesis due to myelophthisic process - bony replacement of marrow) 3. vision and hearing impairment 4. hydrocephalus - narrowing of foramen magnum 5. renal tubular acidosis: lack of CAII results in decreased tubular reabsorption of bicarb leading to metabolic acidosis 6. radiopaque bones lackin medullary cavity with erlenmeyer flask deformity on Xray |
|
why can osteopetrosis be treated with bone marrow transplant
|
osteoclasts are derived from marrow monocyte precursors
|
|
hyperuricemia is found in humans because they lack what?
|
the enzyme urate oxidase
|
|
risk factors for hyperuricemia
|
alcohol intake, g6pd deficiency, sickle cell anemia, myeloproliferative disorder, renal insufficiency, drugs such as thiazide or loop diuretics, cyclosporine A, or low dose aspirin
|
|
what are the two inborn errors of metabolism that can result in urate overproduction
|
PRPP and HPRT both are X-linked
|
|
4 stages of gout
|
asymptomatic hyperuricemia, acute intermittent gout, intercritical gout, chronic tophaceous gout
|
|
how does acute intermittent gout present
|
first attacks are monoarticular with first metatarsophalangeal joint with rapid development of warmth, swelling, erythema, severe pain
|
|
what might a patient say about their acute intermittent gout
|
awakens them from sleep when asymptomatic before sleep
|
|
intercritical gout refers to
|
time period between acute attacks
|
|
chronic tophaceous gout occur when
|
intercritical periods are no longer free of pain; persistently swollen, uncomfortable, polyarticular, painful background
|
|
tophi
|
irregularly shaped firm nodules with a shiny yellow appearance of underlying skin; found in tendon, joint, extensor forearm, olecrenon bursa, achilles, helix of ear; peripheral nerve root compression
|
|
diagnosis of acute intermittent gout
|
arthrocentesis; aspiration of monosodium urate crystals seen as negatively birefringent needle-shaped crystals within and outside neutrophils
|
|
radiologic findings in acute intermittent gout
|
erosions have overhanging edge creating a "rat bite", joint space preserved, absence of juxta-articular osteopenia
|
|
short term goal of acute intermittent gout treatment
|
acute inflammatory episode
|
|
long term goal of acute intermittent gout treatment
|
prevention of recurrent attacks by modifying risk factors and reducing serum urate
|
|
management of acute intermittent gout
|
colchicine, Nsaids, corticosteroids
|
|
what is choice of Nsaids used in acute intermittent gout
|
indomethacin
|
|
major side effect of colchicine
|
diarrhea
|
|
three classes of drugs used for lowering urate levels chronically
|
xanthine oxidase inhibitors, uricosuric agents, uricase agents
|
|
side effect of allopurinol
|
hypersensitivity
|
|
mechanism of allopurinol
|
xanthine oxidase inhibitor - blocks synthesis of uric acid
|
|
febuxostat - type of drug
|
xanthine oxidase inhibitor
|
|
uricosuric acid is ineffective in what patients
|
renal impairment, nephrolithiasis
|
|
pegloticase use
|
modified porcine recombinant uricase for chronic gout that is refractory to conventional therapies
|
|
CPPD can be associated with...
|
hyperparathyroidism, hemochromatosis, hypophosphatasia, and hypomagnesemia
|
|
location of CPPD
|
articular and periarticular tissue usually near the surface of the chondral sites
|
|
crystals of CPPD
|
square/rectangular/rhomboid/rod intracellular inclusions with a weakly positive (blue) birefringence under polarized microscopy
|
|
radiologic findings of CPPD
|
punctate and linear densities in articular hylaine or fibrocartilage
|
|
BCP locations
|
tendon, IV disc, joint capsule, synovium, cartilage
|
|
calcinosis
|
soft tissue deposition of basic calcium phosphate crystals
|
|
crystals of BCP
|
polarized light cannot detect, aggregate and can be seen by light microscopy as shiny red coins (alizarin red)
|
|
BCP has a strong association with
|
osteoarthritis: their presence correlates with severity of radiologic osteoarthritis
|
|
old woman with non-inflammatory synovial effusions with severe radiographic damage and large rotator cuff tears
|
milwaukee shoulder - destructive arthropathy - pain on shoulder use and at night
|
|
calcific periarthritis
|
rotator cuff is most common location; BCP crystal elicit a major inflammatory response,
|
|
oxylate crystals in joints of what patients
|
overt renal failure
|
|
oxylate crystals
|
crystal identificiation in joint fluid or tissue - bipyramidal and/or envelope shape; brightly birefringent on polarized microscopy (yellow)
|
|
associated symptoms with fibromyalgia
|
fatigue, sleep, cognitive dysfunction, anxiety, depression, central pain, IBS, cysitis, chronic pelvic pain, TMJ
|
|
infections associated with fibromyalgia
|
lyme, EBV, parvovirus
|
|
mechanism of fibromyalgia
|
centrally mediated augmentation of pain and sensory processes (increased body pain, increased responsiveness to any stimuli)
|
|
dyasthesia
|
unpleasant abnormal sensation such as burning, wetness, itching, electric shock, pins and needles (neuropathic)
|
|
allodynia
|
pain where low intensity stimulation is felt as painful
|
|
hyperalgesia
|
extreme sensitivity to noxious stimuli
|
|
nociceptive pain
|
acute sensation and perception of mechanical, thermal, or chemical noxious stimuli that acts as alert to imminent danger
|
|
neuropathic pain
|
directly from action on nerves (severing or crushing)
|
|
inflammatory pain
|
tissue damage, signaling tissue repair is needed
|
|
brain abnormalities seen in fibromyalgia
|
abnormalities in pain systems: hypoperfusion of thalamus, changes in structure of cingulate gyrus and thalamus
|
|
genetic findings in fibromyalgia
|
5htt, comt, sodium channels, abnormal levels of neurotransmitters, increased baseline of opiate receptors
|
|
depression signs
|
SIG E CAPS
sleep, interest loss, guilt, energy loss, cognition impairment, appetite change, anxiety, suicide |
|
catastrophizing
|
feeling helpless about their pain, ruminate about pain, poor coping, worse outcomes
|
|
diagnostic criteria for fibromyalgia
|
meet thresholds for widespread pain index, symptom severity scale, greater than 3 months, no other disorder that might be causing pain, labs are normal
|
|
medications used for fibromyalgia
|
amitriptyline, cyclobenzaprine, SSRIs, pregabalin/gabapentin
NOT steroids, NSAIDS, and opiates |
|
MOA of amitriptyline/cyclobenzaprine
|
affect norepi transporter and moderate effect on 5HT
|
|
what SSRIs are used in fibromyalgia
|
venlafaxine, duloxetine, milnacipram
|
|
non-pharm therapy for fibromyalgia
|
exercise - water aerobics, education, cognitive behavioral therapy
|
|
common mimickers of fibromyalgia
|
polymyalgia rheumatica, multiple myeloma, lupus, sjogrens
|
|
manifestations of polymositis
|
proximal muscle weakness, elevated serum levels of skeletal muscle enzymes, myopathic changes on EMG and muscle biospy evidence of inflammation, skin rash (dermatomyositis)
|
|
how are idiopathic inflammatory myopathies defined
|
chronic inflammation of striated muscle and skin
|
|
proximal dysphagia/difficulty swallowing, nasal regurgitation, pulmonary aspiration or coughing
|
IIM
|
|
which muscles are not effected in IIM
|
ocular or facial muscles are not typically affected
|
|
what questions might help to discern whether a patient is weak?
|
-stairs
-getting up from a chair -rise from sitting on the floor -falls -combing hair |
|
classic rashes seen in dermatomyositis
|
-heliotrope rash
-gottrons papules or sign -macular erythema -dystrophic cuticles and periungual telangiectasias -peeling dryness at tips of fingers |
|
shawl sign
|
dermatomyositis
|
|
most common extra-muscular target of IIM
|
lung
|
|
pulmonary physical exam findings in IIM
|
basilar crackles, intersitial fibrosis, pulmonary function is restrictive, secondary pulmonary hypertension
|
|
heart findings in IIM
|
electrical disturbances, cardiomyopathy, myocarditis
|
|
GI findings in IIM
|
upper dysphagia,
|
|
life-threatening GI IIM finding in children
|
mucosal ulceration and hemorrhage
|
|
inclusion body myositis GI finding
|
cricopharyngeal muscle dysfunction - blocking sensation on swallowing or retrosternal sticking of food
|
|
lab findings in polymyositis: skeletal muscle enzymes
|
elevated CK, aldolase, LDH, AST, ALT
|
|
what can give elevated CK not related to myositis
|
trauma, exercise, seizures
|
|
what can indicate cardiac muscle involvement in myositis
|
cardiac isoform troponin I
|
|
which myositis is ANA negative
|
inclusion body
|
|
anti-synthetase antibodies in myositis
|
anti-jo, anti mi2, anti-signal recognition particle Antibody
|
|
what other Antibodies are associated with myositis
|
anti PM scl, u1 RNP, Ku, Ro/SSA
|
|
usefulness of EMG in myositis
|
sensitive but nonspecific
|
|
EMG findings in myositis
|
fibrillation potentials, complex repetative discharges, and positive sharp waves on needle insertion
|
|
proper protocol for EMG and biopsies
|
unilateral EMG but use that location to then take a contralateral biopsy to avoid inflammatory artifact
|
|
gold standard for diagnosis of myositis
|
muscle biopsy
|
|
histologic findings in polymyositis
|
degeneration and regeneration of muscle fibers and CD8s invading non-necrotic fibers.
|
|
histologic findings in dermatomyositis
|
CD4s and Bs predominate in perivascular areas and perifascicular atrophy related to capillary depletion and dropout
|
|
histologic findings in inclusion body
|
presence of lined or rimed vacuoles
|
|
amyopathic dermatomyositis
|
cutaneous manifestations for 6 months or longer, but without proximal muscle weakness
|
|
antisynthetase antibody syndrome
|
autoantibodies against aminoacyl tRNA synthetase enzymes; muscle involvement, interstitial lung disease, raynaud's phenomenon, mechanics hands, inflammatory arthritis, fevers
|
|
inclusion body
|
distal and proximal asymmetrical weakness and atrophy of anterior thigh; no GI, no pulmonary, no autoantibodies
|
|
which myositis has a greater risk of cancer
|
dermatomyositis > polymyositis
|
|
most common cancers involved in risk from myositis
|
ovary, lung, pancreas, stomach, colorectal, non-hodgkins lymphoma
|
|
what autoantibody is associated with cancer associated dermatomyositis
|
anti-T155/140
|
|
treatment of myositis
|
1. glucocorticoids
2. immunosuppressive medications 3. IV gamma globulin 4. topical treatments 5. physical therapy |
|
when is IV gamma globin used
|
if infection is a concern when using immunosuppressive medications
|
|
treatment for the rash of dermatomyositis
|
hydroxychloroquine, quinacrine, isotretinoin, topical tacrolimus
|
|
statin associated myopathy symptoms
|
myalgias, muscle tenderness, or weakness, cramp or ache in trunk or proximal muscles, tendon pain, night cramps, increase with exercise, difficulty with fine motor movement
|
|
most common metabolic myopathies
|
mcardles, myoadenylate deaminase, cpmtII deficiency
|
|
ruling out what metabolic disorders in myositis diagnoses
|
thyroid abnormality, electrolyte abnormality
|
|
effect of statins on myositis
|
alteration to membranes and mitochondria, inhibit coenzyme production, exacerbate underlying undiagnoses mitochondrial or metabolic myopathy, higher serum drug levels more frequently associated with myotoxicity
|
|
risk factors of fracture risk assessment
|
age, glucocorticoid use, gender, secondary osteoporosis, history of fracture, parental history of hop fracture, femoral neck BMD, smoking, low BMI, slcohol
|
|
definition of osteoporosis
|
systemic skeletal disease characterized by low bone mass and microarchitectural deterioration of bone tissue, with an increase in bone fragility and susceptibility to fractures
|
|
how many women 60 yo have osteoporosis?
70? 80+? |
20 out of 100, 40 out of 100, 70 out of 100
|
|
what pediatric diseases should be addressed to prevent future osteoporosis
|
1. nutritional problems
2. lack of menstrual periods 3. anorexia |
|
how to stay above fracture threshold
|
addressing pediatric diseases, addressing menopause, addressing age related bone loss
|
|
pathophysiology of osteoporosis
|
disturbance of resorption and formation ratio
|
|
description of pathophysiology of post-menopausal (type II) osteoporosis
|
normal bone mass starts to decrease and absorption exceeds formation
|
|
description of pathophysiology of senile (type I) osteoporosis
|
normal bone mass starts to decrease and resporption exceeds formation
|
|
calcium and phosphorous are used for
|
metabolic functions, bone health, neuromuscular functions
|
|
metabolism of vitamin D
|
UVB rays come in and change cholesterol precursors to vitamin D which goes to the liver where it become 25 hydroxylated then goes to the kidney, intestine, bone to increase calcium and phosphorous absorption and mobilize calcium stores
|
|
t score =
|
standard deviations compared to young adult mean
used to define category of osteoporosis |
|
z score =
|
standard deviations compared to age matched adults
may be a clue to presence of secondary osteoarthritis |
|
what scores receive treatment
|
-2 or less without any risk factors, -1.5 or less with risk factors
|
|
t score categories
|
0 normal
negative 1 osteopenia negative 2.5 osteoporosis |
|
z scoring
|
+2 above age
0 same as age -2 below age |
|
t scores are dependent and independent on what?
|
age independent, gender and race dependent
|
|
who are candidates for additional BMD studies
|
women >65, men >70
ages 50-70 with risk factors fracture after 50 years old disease or medication with low BM or bone loss taking or being considered for treatment women discontinuing estrogen not for healthy young adults or children |
|
biochemical markers for bone formation
|
alk phos, osteocalcin, PICP, PINP
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what does the WHO FRAX measure
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10 year probability of a hip fracture. treat those with >35% hip risk or >20% other
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nutritional treatment for osteoporosis patients
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calcium daily intake (1500 mg), vit D daily intake (600-800 IU)
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mechanism of action of bisphosphonates
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poison osteoclasts and prevent them from resorbing bone; induce apoptosis or osteoclasts
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side effects of bisphosphonates
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corrosive esophagitis, nausea, diarrhea, osteonecrosis of jaw
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raloxifene: indication, adverse
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verterbral fracture in women, can also protect against breast cancer, hot flashes, venous thrombosis, leg cramps
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MOA of SERMs (i.e. raloxifene)
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receptor antagonists in breast and agonists in bone; block the binding of estrogen to estrogen-receptor positive cells
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denosumab MOA
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osteoblasts which are repairing bone are signaling (with RANK) to monocytes to become osteoclasts so if you increase rank you increase osteoclasts and increase resporption; osteopegrin which is lost at menopause tones down resporption by binding up RANK; denosumab is an analog for osteopegrin therefore can decrease resoroption
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how does PTH effect osteoporosis
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increase rate of new bone formation
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recommendations for ALL
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dexa for menopausal women and men >65 years old, exercise, daily calcium and vitamin D,
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recommendations of early menopausal women
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estrogen replacement and maybe bisphosphonates
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recommendations of latemenopausal or osteoporotic women
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bisphosphonates and maybe estrogen replacement
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recommendations of patients with glucoocorticoid use greater than 3 months
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risedronate and calcitonin
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recommendations of osteoporotic men
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workup for secondary causes (hyperthyroid, hypergonad, alcoholism)
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