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469 Cards in this Set

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accessory cells in bone marrow
stromal cells: support matrix, fat cells, fibroblasts, macrophages, monocytes, and lymphocytes

hematopoetic elements:erythroid precursors adjacent to venous sinuses, granulocytic precursors deep in cords, and megakaryocytes adjacent to venous sinuses
hematopoeitic element deep in the bone marrow cords
granulocytic precursors
hematopoeitic element adjacent to venous sinuses
erythroid precursors and megakaryocytes
granulocytes are comprised of
neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils
hallmark of leukemic myeloblasts
Auer rods (accumulation of primary granules)
dominant feature of promyelocytes
primary granules (strongly + for MPO)
hallmark of myelocyte
secondary granules
maturation sequence cells capable of mitosis
myelocyte, promyelocyte, myeloblast, CFU-GM, CFU-GEMM
final stage in maturation of hematopoeisis
PMN leukocyte (neutrophil)
primary function of neutrophils
phagocytosis and elimation of injured tissue or invading organisms
steps of neutrophil action
1) migrate
2) bind and eat
3) digest or kill

(marginate to outside of blood vessel and adhere to endothelial cells, diapedesis, phagocytosis, lysosomal enzymes kill)
location of monocytes
peripheral blood
location of macrophages
in the tissue
main functions of monos/macs
1) phagocytosis
2) production of cytokines
3) production of inflammatory accessory molecules
4) antigen presentation
5) storage of iron
6) removal of senescent cells
7) participation of anti-tumor responses
finding:
increased in parasitic infection

what cell type?
eosinophil
finding:
bi-lobed nucleus
what cell type?
-eosinophils, early megas
first granulocytic precursor
myeloblasts
progression of hematopoeisis
CFU-GEMM, CFU-GM, myeloblast, promyelocyte, myelocyte, metamyelocyte, neutrophil
finding:
primary granules
what cell type?
promyelocyte
finding:
MPO
what cell type?
myeloblast, promyelocyte
finding:
actively proliferating, undifferentiated cell with high N:C ratio
what cell type?
myeloblast
finding:
fine chromatin (euchromatin)
what cell type?
myeloblast
finding:
pink secondary granules, smaller, more differentiated, more heterochromatin
what cell type?
myelocyte
contents of secondary granules
lysozyme, plasminogen activators
finding:
indented nucleus, lower N:C ratio, more abundant heterochromatin, more abundant secondary granules
what cell type?
metamyelocyte
finding:
small nucleus, abundant heterochromatin, U shaped nucleus, secondary nucleus
what cell type?
band
finding:
segmented nucleus, heterochromatin, secondary granules with collagenase, lysozyme, and proteases
what cell type?
neutrophils
largest cells in bone marrow
megakaryocytes
function of megakaryocytes
production of platelet
finding:
platelet peroxidase
what cell type?
megakaryocyte
early vs late megakaryocytes
early have single or bilobed nuclei and euchromatin; late have multisegmented nucleus with heterochromatin and cytoplasm containes granules
myelocyte stage of eosinophils contains what?
numerous large, round granules containing a crystallois compound made up of major basic protein (MBP)
finding:
MBP
what cell type?
eosinophils
finding:
large coarse basophilic granules
what cell type?
basophils
basophil granules contain what?
histamine, heparin, and chemotactic factor
finding:
IgE Fc receptors on cell surface
what cell type?
basophils
mast cell locations
tissues
2 types of de-granulation in mast cells and basophils
anaphylactic and piecemeal
finding:
peroxidase negative lysosomes
what cell type?
monocytic
finding:
slate-gray cytoplasm with vacuoles and large renigorm nucleus
what cell type?
mature monocytes
finding:
larger, unsegmented nucleus with mix of euchromatin and heterochromatin
what cell type?
mature monocytes
primary lymphoid tissues
bone marrow, thymus
secondary lymphoid tissues
lymphatic vessels, lymph nodes, spleen, lymphoid nodules
thoracic duct drainage
larger into left subclavian vein and smaller right thoracic duct drains lymph into right subclavian vein
location of spleen
left upper quadrant of abdominal cavity, under the diaphragm
GALT
lymphoid nodules associated with the GI tract; include palatine, pharyngeal, and lingual tonsils, and peyer's patches
BALT
lymphocytes distributed along the segmental bronchioles and bronchi
parafollicular areas are made up of
T cells (part of the lymph node)
primary follicles are made up of
B cells (part of the lymph node)
what happens to the primary follicles after antigen stimulation
they become secondary follicles with germinal centers
medulla of lymph node is composed of what?
medullary cords and medullary sinuses
lymphocytes enter the lymph node through what?
Afferent lymphatics or high endothelial venules
spleen arterioles are surrounded by what?
periarteriolar lymphocytic sheath (PALS); these cells are predominantly T cells
white pulp of the spleen =
secondary lymphoid organ
red pulp of the spleen =
filter for the blood
how does the red pulp actually remove damaged cells, bacteria, or other foreign antigens
macrophages at the splenic cord-splenic sinus interface
cortex of the thymus contains what
densely packed immature pre-T lymphocytes, irregular epithelial cells
medulla of the thymus contains what
mature T cells
hassall's corpuscles: what are they and where are they?
fused remnants of epithelial cells found in medulla of the thymus
cells making of lymphoid tissues
1. lymphocytes
2. plasma cells
3. dendritic cells
4. natural killer cells
resting lymphocyte characteristics
small with a compact nucleus composed of heterochromatin and cytoplasm populated by few organelles
dividing lymphocytes characteristics
larger with a large nucleus composed of euchromatin
sequence of lymphopoiesis
pluripotent stem cell, lymphoid progenitor cell, T or B cell or NK cell
what are plasma cells
terminally differentiated B cells; therefore non-dividing
function of plasma cells
secrete large quantities of immunoglobin
why is the cytoplasm of plasma cells blue
abundant rough ER
what is the perinuclear hof in the plasma cell
area of clearing near the nucleus that consists of the golgi apparatus
what does the nucleus look like in the plasma cell
eccentric and looks like a soccer ball
characteristics of dendritic cells
abundant cytoplasm, numerous lysosomes, long cytoplasmic projections
natural killer cells: what are they and what do they mediate
specialied lymphoid cells that mediate non-specific cytotoxicity
characteristics of NK cells
large, abundant cytoplasm with numerous large cytoplasmic granules
development timing of lymph nodes
begins at the end of the 6th week of embryogenesis and at 8 weeks there are 6 primary lymph sacs
lymphocytes in the embryonic lymph nodes and (when do the other cells come about?)
only T cells (after birth, B cells migrate to the nodes and form B cell follicles)
embryo development of spleen
during 5th week
what does the spleen develop from
dorsal mesogastrium
what does the thymus development from?
3rd (thymus and inferior parathyroid gland) and 4th (superior parathyroid) pharyngeal pouches
what disease is associated with thymus development
digeorge syndrome
complete blood count findings in acute leukemia
leukocytosis (normal or low), anemia, thrombocytopenia
pathophysiology of hyperleukocytosis
obstruction or destruction of small capillaries, primarily in CNS and lungs
lab findings in acute leukemia
-low platelets
-prolonged PTT
-low fibrinogen
-+ fibrin monomers
-increased D-dimers
4 lab analyses necessary after a bone marrow aspirate
1) morphologic
2) cytogenetics and FISH
3) flow cytometry
4) DNA based analysis
bone marrow biopsy in leukemic patient
hypercellularity and lack of heterogeneity
CD 45
nearly all hematopoietic cells
CD34/CD117/HLA-DR
immaturity without lineage specificity
TdT
lymphoid immaturity (ALL)
CD1-CD8
T cell marker (T-ALL)
CD10 and CD19-CD23
B cells marker (B-ALL)
CD19
most specific B cell marker (B-ALL)
CD13/CD33/myeloperoxidase
myeloid lineage markers
myloperoxidase
most specific marker for myeloid lineage and AML
CD11/CD14/CD64
monocytic differentiation
good risk cytogenetics for AML
translocation 15 and 17, inversion 16, translocation 8 and 21
intermediate risk cytogenetics for AML
normal karyotype
poor risk cytogenetics for AML
>3 abnormalities, deletions involving 5 and 7
poor risk cytogenetics for ALL
translocation 9 and 22, translocation 4 and 11, hypodiploidy, near triploidy, complex abnormalities
good risk DNA abnormalities for acute leukemia
CEPBA mutation, FLT3 wild type

NPM mutation, FLT3 wild type
poor risk DNA abnormalities for acute leukemia
FLT3 mutated
inversion 16, translocation 16,16 or translocation 8 and 21 intermediate risk c-kit findings
c-kit mutated
inversion 16, translocation 16,16 or translocation 8 and 21 good risk c-kit findings
c-kit wild type
what is AML
myeloid differentiation of leukemic blasts
how do you tell the difference between myeloid blasts and undifferentiated blasts or lymphoid blasts
presence of auer rods or presence of certain proteins on the cell surface
induction treatment of AML includes what?
cytarabine (7 days), idarubicin (3 days)
APL is defined by what?
translocation 15 and 17, promyeloblasts with abundant auer rods or large purple granules
APL is important because of what associations
DIC, and targeted agents such as ATRA and arsenic are able to reverse the abnormal physiology
abnormal physiology of APL
abnormal fusion protein binds and blocks transcription so blasts can't differentiate
affect of ATRA and arsenic
dissociate the abnormal protein, which allows transcription and subsequent differentiation of the promyeloblasts to mature neutrophils
Early T-ALL is defined as...
surface CD3 negative, CD1a negative
thymic T-ALL is defined as...
surface CD3 variable, CD1a positive
mature T-ALL is defined as...
surface CD3 positive, CD1a negative
prognosis for ALL is primarily based on what?
age
medications for ALL
L-asparagine, vincristine, corticosteroids, daunorubicin, imatinib, dasatinib
CNS prophylaxis for ALL
intratehcal chemotherapy: methotrexate/Ara-C
what is dyspoiesis
disorder of blood cell formation, akin to dysplasia characterized by abnormal maturation of any blood cell lineage and can be observed morphologically in BM or peripheral blood
neutrophilic morphologic findings of dyspoiesis
hypogranular neutrophils and bands, hyposegmented neutrophil
megakaryocytic morphologic findings of dyspoiesis
hypolobulated, multi-nucleated, small
erythrocytic morphologic findings of dyspoiesis
trinucleated, mitosis, ringed sideroblasts
diagnosis of MDS with bone marrow biopsy
dyspoiesis of one or more cell lineages, hypercellularity, and < 20% blasts
bone marrow morphology features that are very specific for myelodysplastic syndrome
elevated percentage of blast cells between 5-19%, ringed sideroblasts, cytogenetic or FISH abnormality, loss of a chromosome (5 or 7)
MDS vs. AML
MDS do not have hyperleukocytosis, tumor lysis, or present with organ infiltration of blasts
good prognosis from cytogenetics for MDS
normal, negative y, deletion of 5q, deletion of 20q
poor prognosis from cytogenetics for MDS
complex (>3 abnormalities), chromosome 7 abnormality
treatment for low risk MDS
growth factor (EPO, G-CSF), immunomodulation agents (lenaliomide)
treatment for high risk MDS
allogenic stem cell transfer, methyltransferase inhibitors (azacytidine, decitabine)
when blast cell promotors are methylated...
transcription factor can't bind, can't make proteins necessary to mature the blast cell normally
MIT's block what?
DNA methyltransferase
what is aplastic anemia
total bone marrow aplasia; autoimmune condition in which T cells attack hematopoietic precursor cells, resulting in marrow failure
aplastic anemia bone marrow aspirate findings
lack of hematopoietic cells which are replaced by fat cells,
severe aplastic anemia requirements
ANC < 500, ARC < 40,000, platelets < 20,000
very severe aplastic anemia requirements
ANC < 200
severe aplastic anemia treatment for < 35 years old with HLA matched sibling
bone marrow transplant
severe aplastic anemia treatment for > 35 years old without HLA matched sibling
immunosuppressive therapy (horse ATG and cyclosporin)
4 examples of MPN
-CML
-polycythemia vera
-essential thrombocythemia
-myelofibrosis
CML is characterized by
BCR-ABL (9;22) translocation
bcr-abl 9;22 translocation results in
dimerizes and phosphorylates itself, creates abnormal protein, enhances cell signaling, causes myeloblasts to proliferate abnormally and create more WBC
cellular findings in CML
full complement of white cell series: bands, neutrophils, metamyelocytes, myelocytes, promyelocytes, blasts, basophils, and eosinophils, basophilia, eosinophilia
presenting symptoms of CML
fatigue, weakness, pallor, left upper quadrant fullness, early satiety, splenomegaly, hepatomegaly, purpura
chronic phase of CML
<10% blasts
accelerated phase of CML
10-19% blasts
blast phase of CML
>20% blasts
imatinib mesylate action
occupies the ATP binding pocket of the Abl kinase domain which prevents substrate phosphorylation and signlaing
gleevec action
antagonist developed specifically to inhibit the mutant tyrosine kinase
second generation tyrosine kinase inhibitos
nilotinib and dasatinib
major criteria for polycythemia vera
1. hemoglobin >18 men >16 women
2. JAK2 mutation
minor criteria for polycythemia vera
1. hypercellularity with pan myelosis, erythroid, granulocytic, and megakaryocytic proliferation
2. serum EPO below normal
3. endogenous erythroid colony formation in vitro
presenting symptoms of PV
asymptomatic, fatigue, headache, pruritis, dyspnea, dizziness, visual change, splenomegaly, thrombosis
bone marrow of PV is characterized by what?
hypercellularity, clustering of megakaryocytes, and panmyelosis
therapy of PV
phlebotomy, daily aspirin and if patient is at high risk of thrombosis cytoreductive therapy with hydroxyurea
what is essential thrombocythemia?
megakaryocyte hyperplasia in bone marrow and sustained thrombocytosis in the peripheral blood
diagnostic criteria of essential thrombocythemia
persistent thrombocytosis, absence of iron deficiency, JAK2, rule out others
bone marrow findings of essential thrombocythemia
increased number of large mature megakaryocytes in clusters
characteristic finding of primary myelofibrosis
leukoerythroblastic blood smear: immature white blood cells, tear drop red blood cells, and nucleated red blood cells
diagnostic criteria of PMF
-leukoerythroblastic, increased marrow reticulum, splenomegaly, JAK2, CD34 cells, rule out others
bone marrow findings in PMF
fibrosis and bizarre, dysplastic megakaryocytes
what is PMF
bone marrow cavity is replaced by fibrosis
treatment of PMF
ruxolitinib (JAK2 inhibitor): splenomegaly and constitutional symptoms, radiation: bone pain, darbopoietin: anemia
causes of neutropenia
1. drug toxicity (damage to stem cells decrease production of WBCs)
2. severe infection (increased movement of neutrophils into tissues)
what can be used to boost granulocyte production
GM-CSF or G-CSF
causes of lymphopenia
1. immunodeficiency
2. high cortisol state (induces apoptosis of lymphocytes
3. autoimmune destruction
4. whole body radiation
cause of increased neutrophils
1. bacterial infection
2. tissue necrosis
3. high cortisol state (knocks the neutro off the endothelial wall therefore enters circulation)
immature neutrophils are characterized by what?
decrease in Fc receptors and therefore CD16
cause of increased monocytes
chronic inflammatory states and malignancy
cause of increased eosinophils
allergic reactions, parasitic infection, and hodgkin lymphoma (IL5 production)
cause of increased basophils
CML
cause of lymphocytic leukocytosis
1. viral infections
2. bordetella pertussis infection (lymphocytosis-promoting factor blocks lymphocytes from leaving blood to enter lymph node)
EBV primarily infect what?
1. oropharynx
2. liver
3. B cells
CD8+ T cell response leads to:
1. generalized lymphadenopathy (paracortex)
2. splenomegaly (PALS)
3. high WBC count
EBV infection results in:
lymphocytic leukocytosis comprised of reactive CD8+ t cells
definitive diagnosis of mononucleosis
EBV viral capsid antigen
complications of mononucleosis
1. risk of splenic rupture
2. rash
3. dormancy leading to risk of recurrence and B-cell lymphoma
what do blasts look like?
large, immature, punched out nucleoli
what is TdT
DNA polymerase
B-A L L surface markers
TdT, CD10, CD19, CD20
B-A L L: cytogenic abnormalities
translocation 12,21 and translocation 9, 22
translocation 12,21 in B- A L L prognosis
good usually seen in children
translocation 9, 22 in B- A L L prognosis
poor usually seen in adults
T-A L L surface markers
TdT, CD2 through CD8 NOT CD10
T's of T- A L L
teenagers, thymic mass (so actually is called a lymphoma)
meyloblasts are usually characterized by positive staining for what?
MPO
what are auer rods
crystal aggregates of MPO
APL cytogenetic abnormality
translocation 15, 17: translocation of retinoic acid blocks maturation and promyelocytes accumulate
complications of APL
abnormal promyelocytes contain numerous primary granules and auer rods which can activate coAg cascade and therefore DIC
treatment of APL
ATRA which will bind the altered receptor and cause blasts to mature and eventually die
acute monocytic leukemia characteristics
1. proliferation of monoblasts
2. lack MPO
3. infiltrate gums
characteristics of acute megakaryoblastic leukemia
1. proliferationg of megas
2. lack MPO
3. associated with Downs before the age of 5
myelodysplastic syndromes typically present with what?
cytopenias, hypercellular bone marrow, abnormal maturation of cells, and increased blasts (less than 20%)
CLL is a proliferation of what?
naive B cells that co-express CD5 and CD20
blood smear of CLL
increased lymphocytes and smudge cell
complications of CLL
1. hypogammaglobinemia
2. autoimmune hemolytic anemia
3. diffuse large B-cell lymphoma with enlarging lymph node or spleen
hairy cell leukemia is a proliferation of what?
mature B cells characterized by hairy cytoplasmic processes
clinical features of hairy cell?
TRAP positive, splenomegaly, dry tap on bone marrow aspiration
hairy cell responds well to what?
2-CDA (an adenosine deaminase inhibitor)
ATLL
mature CD4 T cells associated with HTLV-1
clinical features of ATLL
rash, LAD, hepatosplenomegaly, lytic bone lesions with hypercalcemia
mycosis fungoides is a proliferation of what?
mature CD4 T cells that infiltrate the skin leading to rash, plaques, and nodules
what are pautrier microabscesses?
aggregates of neoplastic cells in the epidermis
what is sezary syndrome
lymphocytes with cerebriform nuclei
findings in MPDs
high WBC count with hypercellular bone marrow - cells of all myeloid lineages are increased but are classified based on dominant myeloid cell produces
complications of MPDs
1. hyperuricemia and gout
2. marrow fibrosis and transformation to acute leukemia
CML proliferation
myeloid cells especially granulocytes and basophils
mutation seen in CML
translocation 9,22 which creates fusion protein with increased tyrosine kinase actitivy
where is the mutation seen in CML
pluripotent stem cell therefore than go to AML or ALL
how can one distinguish between CML and leukemoid reaction
1. negative leukocyte alkaline phosphatase stain (grans in leukemoid reaction are LAS positive)
2. increased basophils
3. translocation 9,22
polycythemia vera proliferation
myeloid cells especially RBCs, grans, and platelets
mutation seen in polycythemia vera
JAK2
symptoms seen in PV
1. blurry vision and headache
2. increased risk of venous thrombosis
3. flushed face
4. itching
treatment of PV
phlebotomy and hydroxyurea
how can one distinguish between PV and reactive polycythemia
1. EPO levels decreased
2. RP: high EPO low O2 in high altitude or lung disease and high O2 in renal cell carcinoma
proliferation seen in ET
myeloid cells especially platelets
mutation seen in ET
JAK2 kinase
symptoms of ET
increased risk of bleeding and/or thrombosis
myelofibrosis proliferation
myeloid cells especially megakaryocytes
mutation seen in myelofibrosis
JAK2 kinase
what causes marrow fibrosis in myelofibrosis
megakaryocytes producing excess platelet-derived growth factor
clinical features of myelofibrosis
1. splenomegaly
2. leukoerythroblastic smear (tear drop RBCs, nucleated RBCs, and immature granulocytes)
stage I for lymphomas
single lymph node group
stage II for lymphomas
multiple lymph node groups on same side of diaphragm
stage III for lymphomas
multiple lymph node groups on both sides of diaphragm
stage IV for lymphomas
multiple extranodal sites or lymph nodes and extranodal disease (i.e. lung, liver, bone)
B symptoms
with constitutional symptoms - weight loss, fever, drenching night sweats
CD5 positive
CD10 negative
CD23 positive
CLL/SLL
CD5 negative
CD10 variable
diffuse large B-cell lymphoma
CD5 positive
CD10 negative
CD23 negative
cyclin D positive
mantle cell lymphoma
CD5 negative
CD10 positve
CD23 negative
BCL6 positive
burkitt lymphoma (also TdT and BCL2 negative and CD20 positive)
treatment of diffuse large b cell lymphoma
stage I and II: R Chop for 3 cycles

stage III and IV R Chop for 6 cycles
finding:
paraimmunoblasts forming proliferation centers in tissue infiltrates
disease?
CLL
presentation of CLL
abnormal complete blood count in asymptomatic individual
treatment of CLL
FCR in younger patients
(Fludarabine, Cytoxan, rituximab)

required only for 3-4 stages
Rai staging 0
lymphocytosis only
Rai staging 1
lymphadenopathy
Rai staging 2
splenomegaly
Rai staging 3
anemia
Rai staging 4
thrombocytopenia
Rai staging is used for what cancer
CLL/SLL
neoplasm composition of follicular lymphoma
follicle center (germinal center) B cells with a partially follicular pattern

B cells are centrocytes and centroblasts
presentation of follicular lymphoma
asymptomatic, enlarged peripheral lymph node
mutation seen in follicular lymphoma
translocation 14, 18
treatment of follicular lymphoma
palliative
younger: R chop or R bendamustin followed by consolidation and maintenance with rituximab
neoplasm composition in mantle cell lymphoma
small monomorphic B cells with irrgeular nuclear contents in an expanding mantle layer
mutations found in mantle cell lymphoma
translocation 11, 14 which involves cyclin D gene which moves cells through the cell cycle from G1 to S phase much more rapidly than normal causes increased proliferation
treatment of mantle cell lymphoma
incurable but very responsive to initial immunochemotherapy using R-hyperCVAD
mutation seen in burkitts lymphoma
translocation 8, 14
presentation of burkitts lymphoma
abrupt abdominal symptoms associated with advanced, bulky, adenopathy
lab manifestations of burkitts lymphoma
bone marrow involvement, elevated LAD and uric acid, high risk of tumor lysis syndrome, uric acid, phosphorous, calcium, and potassium levels must be monitored
treatment of burkitts lymphoma
curable:
R hyperCVAD immunochemotherapy
3 types of marginal zone lymphoma
-splenic
-extranodal/mucosa associated
-nodal
mutation seen in marginal zone lymphoma
translocation 11, 18
most aggressive marginal zone lymphoma
nodal
treatment of marginal zone lymphoma
R bendamustine or R Chop
hep C and marginal zone lymphoma treatment
hep C treatment or if no hep C, splenectomy or rituximab
gastric marginal zone lymphoma
caused by h pylori therefore treat the h pylori
lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma neoplasm composition
small B cells, plasamctoid cells, and plasma cells in bone marrow, spleen, and lymph nodes associated with IgM monoclonoal gammopathy
presentation of lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma
hyperviscosity syndrome with dilated retinal veins, visual blurring, epistaxis, and confusion due to elevated IgM, neuropathies, or cryoglobinemia (rash, renal insufficiency)
treatment of lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma
plasmapheresis to remove IgM, rituximab + bendamustine, or rituximab, boretozomib, dexamethasone
hairy cell neoplasm composition
small mature B cells with oval nuclei, hairy projections in bone marrow and splenic red pulp
markers for hairy cell lymphoma
CD 103 positive
CD 25 positive
CD 123 positive
annexin 1 positive
CD 5 negative
CD 10 negative
presentation of hairy cell
splenomegaly, cytopenias
treatment of hairy cell
remission for majority of patients
what T cell lymphoma has a good prognosis
anaplastic large-cell lymphoma ALK positive
why don't you use rituximab for T cell lymphomas
its a CD 20 antibody and CD20 is not on the surface of T cells
differences between HL and NHL
HL: better prognosis, younger age, less common, orderly lymph node spread, classic disease distribution
cells seen in HL
mononucleated and multinucleated (hodgkins and reed sternburg) tumor cells with admixture of nonneoplastic inflammatory cells
surface markers of reed sterberg cells
CD 15 positive
CD 30 positive
4 subtypes of classic HL
1) nodular sclerosis
2) mixed cellularity
3) lymphocyte predominant
4) lymphocyte depleted
malignant cell of NLPHL
popcorn cell: large with irregular nuclear membrane
CD 30 positive
CD 15 positive
CD 45 negative
CD 20 negative
PAX 5 positive
CHL
CD 30 negative
CD 15 negative
CD 45 positive
CD 20 positive
PAX 5 positive
NLPHL
unfavorable disease risk factors for HL
1) B symptoms
2) bulky disease ( greater than 10 cm)
3) 2 or more nodal sites
4) extranodal sites
5) 40 years old and up
6) mixed cellularity or lymphocyte depleted
7) ESR greater than 50 if withouth B symptoms
treatment for favorable cHL
2 cycles of ABVD plus 20-30 gy of radiotherapy
treatment for favorable NLPHL
radiation only
treatment for unfavorable cHL
4 cycles of ABVD plus 30 gy of radiotherapy (or 6 ABVD cycles)
treatment for advanced cHL
6 to 8 cycles of ABVD or escalated BEACOPP
treatment for advanced NLPHL
rituximab and chemotherapy
treatment for cHL relapsed patient
3 cycles of salvage chemotherapy followed by autologous hematopoietic stem cell transplantation
plasma cell dyscrasias
expansion of a clone of immunoglobulin secreting, heavy chain class switched, terminally differentiated B cells that typically secretes a single monoclonal immunoglobulin called M-protein (monoclonal gammopathy)
plasma cell markers
CD 138
CD 19
MGUS vs smoldering myeloma
MGUS: less than 3 M-protein and less than 10 percent bone marrow plasma cells

smoldering: greater than 3 and greater than 10
presentation of MGUS
asymptomatic and finds abnormal protein on blood test
3 factors of MGUS risk
1. serum free light chain (kappa:lambda vs normal)
2. type of immunoglobulin (IGA worse)
3. size of M protein (the bigger the worse)
mutations seen in multiple myeloma
deletion 17
translocation 4, 14
translocation 14, 16
surface markers of multiple myeloma
CD 19 negative
CD 56 positive
CD 138 positive
crab criteria
only for multiple myeloma

Calcium
Renal insufficiency
Anemia
Bone lesions
lab findings in multiple myeloma
1) low albumin
2) gap between total protein and albumin of greater than 4
3) high calcium
4) high creatinine
treatment of multiple myeloma
young: bortezomib, lenalidomide, dexamethasone

elderly: bort and dex or lena and dex
maintenance treatment of multiple myeloma
lenalidomide
multiple myeloma stage I
albumin greater than 3.5 and beta 2 microglobulin less than 3.5
multiple myeloma stage III
beta 2 microglobulin greater than 5.5
treatment for bony lesions of multiple myeloma
zoledronic acid
plasmacytoma
collection of plasma cells in a single bony site or a single extramedullary site (upper respiratory tract)

no bone marrow involvement
treatment for plasmacytoma
focal external beam radiation
amyloidosis
neoplastic plasma cells that secrete light chains which deposit in various tissues and form beta pleated sheets that binds congo red and displays apple green birefringence
locations of amyloidosis deposition
heart, peripheral nerve, kidney, GI tract, fat, or liver
how to tell the difference between amyloidosis and deposition disease
deposition disease does not bind to congo red and does not show apple green birefringence
aplasia cutis
localized absence of skin, usually on scalp, often part of another syndrome
ichthyosis
dry, fish skin like scales, hyperkeratosis, involving entire body surface, increased cell-cell adhesion, causes abnormal desquamation, leading to retention of abnormal scale
harlequin fetus
rare, autosomal recessive, thick-ridged cracked skin

form of icthyosis
collodion baby
covered by thick, taut membrane, cracks with respiration, may shed membrane leaving behind normal or abnormal skin
cystic hygroma (aka)
benign tumor of lymphatics (aka lymphangioma)
hemangioma (aka)
most common neoplasm in infants, children, B9 endothelial cell tumor (aka strawberry nevus)
albinism defects
melanocytes fail to produce melanin because of lack of enzyme tyrosinase
piebaldism
AD, localized albinism, white forelock, lack of melanin in patch of skin or hair; caused by mutation in KIT protooncogene
piebaldism mutation
KIT proto-oncogene encodes cell surface receptor transmembrane tyrosine kinase for embryonic growth factor, steel factor, which regulates melanocyte proliferation
arthrogryposis multiplex congenita
failure of normal muscle development, widespread joint contractures, all associated with decreased fetal movement
congenital torticollis
"wry neck" injury to SCM muscle with fixed rotation, tilting of head, because of fibrosis of SCM muscle

-can't flex the neck (bring to midline)
arthrogryposis can be due to...
innervation of muscle (neurogenic), myopathic (primary defect - congenital muscular dystrophy), or lack of normal growth of the muscle (amyoplasia)
most common location of limb reduction defects
upper extremity (75%)
genetic factors of limb reduction
chromosomal anomalies - Trisomy 18
mutant genes involved in limb reduction
brachydactyly
environment/teratogens involved in limb reduction
thalidomide between d 24-36
genetic + environment involved in limb reduction
multifactorial
vascular disruption and ischemia involved in limb reduction
amniotic band sequence
amelia
complete absence of limb; suppression of limb bud development in week 4
when does limb developent happen
week 4
meromelia
partial absence of limb; arrest/disturbance of differentiation/growth in week 5
when does differentiation and growth of limb occur
week 5
ectrodactyly
cleft hand or foot, lobster-claw deformity; absent of central digits, developmental failure of one or more digital ray
congenital absence of radius presentation
usually also has a missing thumb with lateral deviation and contraction abnormalities
polydactyly
supernumerary digit (greater than 5); can be autosomal dominant, extra digit is not normal, lacks normal muscle, usually lateral
syndactyly
webbing of digit, most common limb anomaly, due to imcomplete programmed cell death (apoptosis) of the tissue between the digital rays. in severe cases there is fusion of bones
oligohydramnios syndrome cause
abnormal positioning, restricted limb movement in utero due to reduction of amount of amniotic fluid
presentation of oligohydramnios syndrome
talipe (club foot), deformity of talus (ankle), abnormal foot position prevents normal weight bearing, walk on ankle
amniotic band sequence cause
amnion tear results in constriction or amputation of a developing limb or body part (accident - most likely will not occur in next pregnancies)
rickets- osteomalacia caused by
deficient bone matrix deficient bone matrix calcification due to inadequate calcium intake, vit D deficiency, impairs intestinal Ca absoprtion

altered endochondral bone growth
rickets-osteomalacia findings
short, deformed, bowed long bones, frontal bossing, squared head, hypertrophic epiphyseal cartilage (thickened growth plate) at costochondral junction results in rachitic rosary
etiology of rickets
congenital (maternal vit D deficiency), hereditary (defect in Vit D activation of renal tubule phosphate reabsorption), no Vitamin D supplementation, calcium nutrition, inadequate exposure to sunlight
craniosynostosis due to
premature closure of cranial sutures
seen in sagittal suture closure
long narrow wedge-shaped skull
-scaphocephaly
seen in coronal suture closure
oxycephaly (turricephaly) : high tower like skull
key to diagnosis of dwarfism
X-rays!! get baby gram! if baby dies, autopsy to classify
achondroplasia inheritance
Autosomal dominant
achondroplasia mutation
usually paternal chromosome de novo mutation, risk increases with increased paternal age,
lethal form of achondroplasia
25% chance if two dwarfs; homozygous
pathogenesis of achondroplasia
due to activating mutation in fibroblast growth factor receptor 3 (FGFR3); overexpression of FGFR2 inhibits growth
clinical features of achondroplasia
1) short extremities with normal sized head and chest (endochondral bone formation defect not intramembranous bone formation - normal bone width), frontal bossing, flattened nasal bridge,
thanatophoric dwarfism
lethal, die with respiratory insufficiecny/lung hypoplasia, frontal bossing, small rib cage, relative macrocephaly FGFR3 mutation
osteogenesis imperfecta defect
congenital defect of bone resorption resultin in structurally weak bone
-defect in type I collagen synthesis (autosomal dominant)
clinical features of osteogenesis imperfecta
1. multiple fractures of bone(osteopenia)
2. blue sclera - thinning of scleral collagen reveals underlying choroidal veins
3. hearing loss - bones of middle ear fracture easily
quantitative OI
decreases synthesis of normal collagen - mild phenotype
qualitative OI
abnormal collagen chains that don't form collagen triple helix - lethal phenotype
locations of type I collagen
bone. joint, eye, ear, skin and teeth
osteopetrosis aka
marble bone disease of albers-schonberg
osteopetrosis due to
inherited defect of bone resorption resulting in abnormally thick, heavy bone that fractures easily; osteoclast dysfunction causes diffuse symmetrical skeletal sclerosis
AUTOSOMAL RECESSIVE osteopetrosis
benign, in adolescence with repeated fractures, mild anemia
autosomal recessive osteopetrosis
malignant; fractures, anemia, hydrocephaly, extramedullary hematopoiesis, hepatosplenomegaly and entrapped cranial nerves (optic atrophy, deafness, facial parlysis)
entrapped cranial nerves (optic atrophy, deafness, facial parlysis)
osteopetrosis mutations
carbonic anhydrase II mutation leads to loss of acidic microenvironment required for bone resorption
clinical features of osteopetrosis
1. bone fractures
2. anemia, thrombocytopenia, and leukopenia with extramedullary hematopoiesis due to myelophthisic process - bony replacement of marrow)
3. vision and hearing impairment
4. hydrocephalus - narrowing of foramen magnum
5. renal tubular acidosis: lack of CAII results in decreased tubular reabsorption of bicarb leading to metabolic acidosis
6. radiopaque bones lackin medullary cavity with erlenmeyer flask deformity on Xray
why can osteopetrosis be treated with bone marrow transplant
osteoclasts are derived from marrow monocyte precursors
hyperuricemia is found in humans because they lack what?
the enzyme urate oxidase
risk factors for hyperuricemia
alcohol intake, g6pd deficiency, sickle cell anemia, myeloproliferative disorder, renal insufficiency, drugs such as thiazide or loop diuretics, cyclosporine A, or low dose aspirin
what are the two inborn errors of metabolism that can result in urate overproduction
PRPP and HPRT both are X-linked
4 stages of gout
asymptomatic hyperuricemia, acute intermittent gout, intercritical gout, chronic tophaceous gout
how does acute intermittent gout present
first attacks are monoarticular with first metatarsophalangeal joint with rapid development of warmth, swelling, erythema, severe pain
what might a patient say about their acute intermittent gout
awakens them from sleep when asymptomatic before sleep
intercritical gout refers to
time period between acute attacks
chronic tophaceous gout occur when
intercritical periods are no longer free of pain; persistently swollen, uncomfortable, polyarticular, painful background
tophi
irregularly shaped firm nodules with a shiny yellow appearance of underlying skin; found in tendon, joint, extensor forearm, olecrenon bursa, achilles, helix of ear; peripheral nerve root compression
diagnosis of acute intermittent gout
arthrocentesis; aspiration of monosodium urate crystals seen as negatively birefringent needle-shaped crystals within and outside neutrophils
radiologic findings in acute intermittent gout
erosions have overhanging edge creating a "rat bite", joint space preserved, absence of juxta-articular osteopenia
short term goal of acute intermittent gout treatment
acute inflammatory episode
long term goal of acute intermittent gout treatment
prevention of recurrent attacks by modifying risk factors and reducing serum urate
management of acute intermittent gout
colchicine, Nsaids, corticosteroids
what is choice of Nsaids used in acute intermittent gout
indomethacin
major side effect of colchicine
diarrhea
three classes of drugs used for lowering urate levels chronically
xanthine oxidase inhibitors, uricosuric agents, uricase agents
side effect of allopurinol
hypersensitivity
mechanism of allopurinol
xanthine oxidase inhibitor - blocks synthesis of uric acid
febuxostat - type of drug
xanthine oxidase inhibitor
uricosuric acid is ineffective in what patients
renal impairment, nephrolithiasis
pegloticase use
modified porcine recombinant uricase for chronic gout that is refractory to conventional therapies
CPPD can be associated with...
hyperparathyroidism, hemochromatosis, hypophosphatasia, and hypomagnesemia
location of CPPD
articular and periarticular tissue usually near the surface of the chondral sites
crystals of CPPD
square/rectangular/rhomboid/rod intracellular inclusions with a weakly positive (blue) birefringence under polarized microscopy
radiologic findings of CPPD
punctate and linear densities in articular hylaine or fibrocartilage
BCP locations
tendon, IV disc, joint capsule, synovium, cartilage
calcinosis
soft tissue deposition of basic calcium phosphate crystals
crystals of BCP
polarized light cannot detect, aggregate and can be seen by light microscopy as shiny red coins (alizarin red)
BCP has a strong association with
osteoarthritis: their presence correlates with severity of radiologic osteoarthritis
old woman with non-inflammatory synovial effusions with severe radiographic damage and large rotator cuff tears
milwaukee shoulder - destructive arthropathy - pain on shoulder use and at night
calcific periarthritis
rotator cuff is most common location; BCP crystal elicit a major inflammatory response,
oxylate crystals in joints of what patients
overt renal failure
oxylate crystals
crystal identificiation in joint fluid or tissue - bipyramidal and/or envelope shape; brightly birefringent on polarized microscopy (yellow)
associated symptoms with fibromyalgia
fatigue, sleep, cognitive dysfunction, anxiety, depression, central pain, IBS, cysitis, chronic pelvic pain, TMJ
infections associated with fibromyalgia
lyme, EBV, parvovirus
mechanism of fibromyalgia
centrally mediated augmentation of pain and sensory processes (increased body pain, increased responsiveness to any stimuli)
dyasthesia
unpleasant abnormal sensation such as burning, wetness, itching, electric shock, pins and needles (neuropathic)
allodynia
pain where low intensity stimulation is felt as painful
hyperalgesia
extreme sensitivity to noxious stimuli
nociceptive pain
acute sensation and perception of mechanical, thermal, or chemical noxious stimuli that acts as alert to imminent danger
neuropathic pain
directly from action on nerves (severing or crushing)
inflammatory pain
tissue damage, signaling tissue repair is needed
brain abnormalities seen in fibromyalgia
abnormalities in pain systems: hypoperfusion of thalamus, changes in structure of cingulate gyrus and thalamus
genetic findings in fibromyalgia
5htt, comt, sodium channels, abnormal levels of neurotransmitters, increased baseline of opiate receptors
depression signs
SIG E CAPS
sleep, interest loss, guilt, energy loss, cognition impairment, appetite change, anxiety, suicide
catastrophizing
feeling helpless about their pain, ruminate about pain, poor coping, worse outcomes
diagnostic criteria for fibromyalgia
meet thresholds for widespread pain index, symptom severity scale, greater than 3 months, no other disorder that might be causing pain, labs are normal
medications used for fibromyalgia
amitriptyline, cyclobenzaprine, SSRIs, pregabalin/gabapentin

NOT steroids, NSAIDS, and opiates
MOA of amitriptyline/cyclobenzaprine
affect norepi transporter and moderate effect on 5HT
what SSRIs are used in fibromyalgia
venlafaxine, duloxetine, milnacipram
non-pharm therapy for fibromyalgia
exercise - water aerobics, education, cognitive behavioral therapy
common mimickers of fibromyalgia
polymyalgia rheumatica, multiple myeloma, lupus, sjogrens
manifestations of polymositis
proximal muscle weakness, elevated serum levels of skeletal muscle enzymes, myopathic changes on EMG and muscle biospy evidence of inflammation, skin rash (dermatomyositis)
how are idiopathic inflammatory myopathies defined
chronic inflammation of striated muscle and skin
proximal dysphagia/difficulty swallowing, nasal regurgitation, pulmonary aspiration or coughing
IIM
which muscles are not effected in IIM
ocular or facial muscles are not typically affected
what questions might help to discern whether a patient is weak?
-stairs
-getting up from a chair
-rise from sitting on the floor
-falls
-combing hair
classic rashes seen in dermatomyositis
-heliotrope rash
-gottrons papules or sign
-macular erythema
-dystrophic cuticles and periungual telangiectasias
-peeling dryness at tips of fingers
shawl sign
dermatomyositis
most common extra-muscular target of IIM
lung
pulmonary physical exam findings in IIM
basilar crackles, intersitial fibrosis, pulmonary function is restrictive, secondary pulmonary hypertension
heart findings in IIM
electrical disturbances, cardiomyopathy, myocarditis
GI findings in IIM
upper dysphagia,
life-threatening GI IIM finding in children
mucosal ulceration and hemorrhage
inclusion body myositis GI finding
cricopharyngeal muscle dysfunction - blocking sensation on swallowing or retrosternal sticking of food
lab findings in polymyositis: skeletal muscle enzymes
elevated CK, aldolase, LDH, AST, ALT
what can give elevated CK not related to myositis
trauma, exercise, seizures
what can indicate cardiac muscle involvement in myositis
cardiac isoform troponin I
which myositis is ANA negative
inclusion body
anti-synthetase antibodies in myositis
anti-jo, anti mi2, anti-signal recognition particle Antibody
what other Antibodies are associated with myositis
anti PM scl, u1 RNP, Ku, Ro/SSA
usefulness of EMG in myositis
sensitive but nonspecific
EMG findings in myositis
fibrillation potentials, complex repetative discharges, and positive sharp waves on needle insertion
proper protocol for EMG and biopsies
unilateral EMG but use that location to then take a contralateral biopsy to avoid inflammatory artifact
gold standard for diagnosis of myositis
muscle biopsy
histologic findings in polymyositis
degeneration and regeneration of muscle fibers and CD8s invading non-necrotic fibers.
histologic findings in dermatomyositis
CD4s and Bs predominate in perivascular areas and perifascicular atrophy related to capillary depletion and dropout
histologic findings in inclusion body
presence of lined or rimed vacuoles
amyopathic dermatomyositis
cutaneous manifestations for 6 months or longer, but without proximal muscle weakness
antisynthetase antibody syndrome
autoantibodies against aminoacyl tRNA synthetase enzymes; muscle involvement, interstitial lung disease, raynaud's phenomenon, mechanics hands, inflammatory arthritis, fevers
inclusion body
distal and proximal asymmetrical weakness and atrophy of anterior thigh; no GI, no pulmonary, no autoantibodies
which myositis has a greater risk of cancer
dermatomyositis > polymyositis
most common cancers involved in risk from myositis
ovary, lung, pancreas, stomach, colorectal, non-hodgkins lymphoma
what autoantibody is associated with cancer associated dermatomyositis
anti-T155/140
treatment of myositis
1. glucocorticoids
2. immunosuppressive medications
3. IV gamma globulin
4. topical treatments
5. physical therapy
when is IV gamma globin used
if infection is a concern when using immunosuppressive medications
treatment for the rash of dermatomyositis
hydroxychloroquine, quinacrine, isotretinoin, topical tacrolimus
statin associated myopathy symptoms
myalgias, muscle tenderness, or weakness, cramp or ache in trunk or proximal muscles, tendon pain, night cramps, increase with exercise, difficulty with fine motor movement
most common metabolic myopathies
mcardles, myoadenylate deaminase, cpmtII deficiency
ruling out what metabolic disorders in myositis diagnoses
thyroid abnormality, electrolyte abnormality
effect of statins on myositis
alteration to membranes and mitochondria, inhibit coenzyme production, exacerbate underlying undiagnoses mitochondrial or metabolic myopathy, higher serum drug levels more frequently associated with myotoxicity
risk factors of fracture risk assessment
age, glucocorticoid use, gender, secondary osteoporosis, history of fracture, parental history of hop fracture, femoral neck BMD, smoking, low BMI, slcohol
definition of osteoporosis
systemic skeletal disease characterized by low bone mass and microarchitectural deterioration of bone tissue, with an increase in bone fragility and susceptibility to fractures
how many women 60 yo have osteoporosis?
70?
80+?
20 out of 100, 40 out of 100, 70 out of 100
what pediatric diseases should be addressed to prevent future osteoporosis
1. nutritional problems
2. lack of menstrual periods
3. anorexia
how to stay above fracture threshold
addressing pediatric diseases, addressing menopause, addressing age related bone loss
pathophysiology of osteoporosis
disturbance of resorption and formation ratio
description of pathophysiology of post-menopausal (type II) osteoporosis
normal bone mass starts to decrease and absorption exceeds formation
description of pathophysiology of senile (type I) osteoporosis
normal bone mass starts to decrease and resporption exceeds formation
calcium and phosphorous are used for
metabolic functions, bone health, neuromuscular functions
metabolism of vitamin D
UVB rays come in and change cholesterol precursors to vitamin D which goes to the liver where it become 25 hydroxylated then goes to the kidney, intestine, bone to increase calcium and phosphorous absorption and mobilize calcium stores
t score =
standard deviations compared to young adult mean

used to define category of osteoporosis
z score =
standard deviations compared to age matched adults

may be a clue to presence of secondary osteoarthritis
what scores receive treatment
-2 or less without any risk factors, -1.5 or less with risk factors
t score categories
0 normal
negative 1 osteopenia
negative 2.5 osteoporosis
z scoring
+2 above age
0 same as age
-2 below age
t scores are dependent and independent on what?
age independent, gender and race dependent
who are candidates for additional BMD studies
women >65, men >70
ages 50-70 with risk factors
fracture after 50 years old
disease or medication with low BM or bone loss
taking or being considered for treatment
women discontinuing estrogen
not for healthy young adults or children
biochemical markers for bone formation
alk phos, osteocalcin, PICP, PINP
what does the WHO FRAX measure
10 year probability of a hip fracture. treat those with >35% hip risk or >20% other
nutritional treatment for osteoporosis patients
calcium daily intake (1500 mg), vit D daily intake (600-800 IU)
mechanism of action of bisphosphonates
poison osteoclasts and prevent them from resorbing bone; induce apoptosis or osteoclasts
side effects of bisphosphonates
corrosive esophagitis, nausea, diarrhea, osteonecrosis of jaw
raloxifene: indication, adverse
verterbral fracture in women, can also protect against breast cancer, hot flashes, venous thrombosis, leg cramps
MOA of SERMs (i.e. raloxifene)
receptor antagonists in breast and agonists in bone; block the binding of estrogen to estrogen-receptor positive cells
denosumab MOA
osteoblasts which are repairing bone are signaling (with RANK) to monocytes to become osteoclasts so if you increase rank you increase osteoclasts and increase resporption; osteopegrin which is lost at menopause tones down resporption by binding up RANK; denosumab is an analog for osteopegrin therefore can decrease resoroption
how does PTH effect osteoporosis
increase rate of new bone formation
recommendations for ALL
dexa for menopausal women and men >65 years old, exercise, daily calcium and vitamin D,
recommendations of early menopausal women
estrogen replacement and maybe bisphosphonates
recommendations of latemenopausal or osteoporotic women
bisphosphonates and maybe estrogen replacement
recommendations of patients with glucoocorticoid use greater than 3 months
risedronate and calcitonin
recommendations of osteoporotic men
workup for secondary causes (hyperthyroid, hypergonad, alcoholism)