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423 Cards in this Set

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Define diabetes mellitus
Disorder of CHO, protein and fat metabolism caused by an absolute or relative insulin deficiency.
What is Type I diabetes?
When there is primary beta cell loss. Can also be classed as IDDM (but early in type I diabetes insulin may not be required).
What is Type II diabetes?
Peripheral insulin resistance and dysfunctional beta cells.
Which is most common - type I or II?
Virtually all dogs and the majority of cats are type I.
What are some of the causes of IDDM in dogs?
Immune-mediated destruction
Pancreatitis
Obesity
Genetic susceptibility
Endocrinopathies (Cushing's, diestrus, hypoT) and certain drugs.
What are some of the causes of NIDDM in cats?
Amyloidosis
Pancreatitis
Obesity
How does obesity lead to NIDDM in cats?
Causes a reversible insulin resistance that results from insulin receptor downregulation, impaired receptor binding affinity for insulin and post receptor defects in insulin action. Persistent hyperglycaemia leads to glucose toxicity, with eventual irreversible beta cell destruction and IDDM.
What is the clinical significance of glucose toxicity in obese cats?
Quick control of newly diagnosed diabetic cats may lead to resolution.
Describe the pathogenesis of DM that results in characteristic clinical signs.
An absolute or relative insulin deficiency leads to decreased tissue utilisation of glucose, AA's and TG's. This results in a lack of inhibition of the satiety centre of the brain and thus polyphagia. The liver increases gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis in an effort to rectify this, resulting in hyperglycaemia, glucosuria and thus diuresis and primary PU/secondary PD.
What is the typical signalment for diabetic cats and dogs?
Dogs - entire females 7-9 years

Cats - majority older than 6 with peak at 10yo. Male neutered.
What are the 4 KEY signs of DM?
PU,PD, polyphagia and weight loss.
What are some relatively common ancilliary signs?
Hepatomegaly
Infections such as UTIs
+/- Cataracts in dogs
What are the signs of DKA?
Vomiting
Dehydration
Weakness
Depression
Tachypnoea or slow, deep breathing
Acetone breath
What is the pathogenesis of cataract formation in dogs?
Hyperglycaemia leads to increased glucose in the lens. The high level of glucose exceeds the normal metabolic pathway and the excess is metabolised to sorbitol and in turn fructose which isn't able to move out of the lens. Water moves in via osmotic drag leading to lens oedma.
How is the diagnosis of DM made?
Appropriate clinical signs
Demonstration of both hyperglycaemia and glucosuria
When is fructosamine measurement useful?
Fructosamine is a glycosylated plasma protein and is a marker of mean blood glucose level. Useful for evaluating glucose in the face of stress-induced hyperglycaemia in cats and general monitoring.
Describe the clin path commonly associated with DM.
Leukocytosis (d/t concurrent infections/inflammation)
inc. liver enzymes (d/t hepatic lipidosis)
Lipaemia
inc. cholesterol
low USG
+/- bacteruria, ketonuria and pyuria
What is the treatment goal for diabetic patients?
Alleviation of owner-observed clinical signs.
What are the 4 modalities of treatment?
Insulin
Diet
Controlled exercise
Routines
Describe the diet modifications to be made for a diabetic patient.
Correct obesity gradually.
If not obese feed them 150% caloric requirement initially and adjust from there.
Maintain consistency in the timing and energy content of meals.
Don't feed food high in simple sugars or propylene glycol.
Dogs do well on high fibre diets, while cats do well on high protein diets (essentially Atkins).
What is the role of glipizide in the management of diabetic patients?
Is used in cats to increase insulin secretion. Response to treatment is slow and most cats eventually relpase anyway. Not to be used in dogs as they don't have any beta cells left to increase insulin secretion from.
Describe the monitoring process for diabetic patients
Take a thorough history regarding insulin dose, feeding regimen and any signs of hyper or hypoglycaemia. Thoroughly examine the animal - weight, body condition, hydration, concurrent illness or complications.
What are the causes of iatrogenic hypoglycaemia?
Insulin overdose
Unusually strenuous activity
Inappetance
Decreased insulin need
What are the clinical signs of hypoglycaemia?
Lethargy
Behaviour changes
Tremors
Weakness/ataxia
Collapse/seizures
What is the definition of insulin resistance?
Persistent hyperglycaemia (>16mmol/L) despite insulin dose over 2U/kg.
What are some of the non-biological causes of insulin resistance?
Biologically inactive insulin (outdated, overheated, poor mixing technique, diluted etc)
Inappropriate syringes
Inappropriate administration technique.
What is the Somogyi effect?
Occurs due to relative insulin overdose, release of gluconeogenic hormones leads to rebound hyperglycaemia and insulin resistance for 24-72 hours after
What are some of the biological causes of insulin resistance?
Hyperadrenocorticism, diestrus, obesity, pancreatitis, infection, CHF

Compounds such as glucocorticoids, catecholamines, TH, GH, progesterone
What is the recommendation given to owners of intact diabetic bitches?
SPAY
What are some complications of DM?
Cataracts
Pancreatitis
Hepatic lipidosis
Ketoacidosis
Bacterial infections
Neuropathy (rare)
Describe the pathogenesis of DKA.
Absolute or relative nsulin deficiency causes increased lipolysis - with the products of lipolysis used to produced excessive amounts of ketone bodies. This in conjunction with decreased peripheral utilisation of KBs.
Accumulation of KBs leads acidosis, osmotic diuresis, nausea/vomiting and obtundation. The dehydration/hypotension produced via the vomiting and diuresis leads to decreased GFR and H+ excretion - worsening the acidosis.
What are the 7 components of treatment for a sick DKA patient?
Fluids
Insulin
Potassium
Phosphate
+/- Bicarbonate
Antibiotics/Anitemetics
Monitoring
What should be done for a 'healthy' DKA?
Ketonuric patients may not be vomiting and may still be eating - such patients don't require as intensive treatment as sick DKA patients. Insulin should be provided to these animals as soon as possible.
How does fluid therapy help treat a DKA patient?
Helps replace the fluid deficit caused by vomiting and diuresis - this increases GFR and thus H+ excretion which helps rectify acidosis. Fluids also directly reduce acidosis (bicarbonate).
What type of fluid therapy should be used and what are some considerations that must be taken into account?
0.9% saline, or 0.45% if hypernatremia
Add potassium
Add glucose if blood glucose is less than 13 mmol/L
Describe the insulin therapy employed.
Use regular/crystalline insulin as either CRI or intermittent IM.

Move the patient to intermediate insulin once they're bright, eating well and off IV fluids.
Why is the blood glucose level of utmost concern with DKA patients?
If blood glucose falls too low, stress hormones are secreted (which are insulin antagonistic) and thus further worsen the ketoacidotic state.
What is the effect on potassium with the administration of insulin?
Decreases serum potassium since insulin acts on the glucose-potassium cotransporter to increase cellular uptake of both.

Potassium therapy is MANDATORY unless the patient is anuric.
What is the effect does ketoacidosis have on serum phosphate levels?
Diuresis increase phosphate excretion (since the kidneys are designed to excrete phosphate) and so DKA patients have lowered phosphate. Therapy lowers it further.
What is the significance of hypophosphatemia?
Because phosphorous is an essential component of ATP low serum phosphorous conc. can cause ATP depletion which primarily affects cells that are high energy users such as RBCs, skeletal muscle cells and neurones.
What are the clinical signs of hypophosphatemia?
Pallor due to haemolytic anaemia
Haemoglobinuria
Tachypnoea, dyspnoea or rapid shallow breathing due to decreased respiratory muscle function
Muscle weakness
Mental depression
What treatment should be undertaken to prevent hypophosphatemia?
Provide half of the potassium as potassium chloride and half as potassium phosphate.
What is the recommendation for the use of bicarbonate therapy?
Generally not necessary because fluid therapy, electrolyte replacement and insulin correct the acidosis.

May be required if there is an enormous abberation from normal as measured by blood bicarb or pH.
Why are antibiotics important for DKA treatment?
Diabetic patients are prone to UTIs. Take a urine sample for culture, and then use empirical broad spec bacteriocidal antibiotics.
What parameters should be monitored when monitoring a DKA patient?
Fluid administration rates
Hydration status
Urine output
Electrolyte level
Blood glucose
What is the most important step once the patient is stabilized?
Search for underlying disease processes such as Cushing's, pancreatitis and hyperT.
What is the definition of hypoadrenocorticism?
Deficient production of glucocorticoids and/or mineralocorticoids which occurs with a loss of 85-90% of the adrenal cortex.
What are some of the functions of glucocorticoids in the body?
Stimulates gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis
Stimulates erythrocytosis
Counteracts the effects of stress
Plays a vital role in the maintenance of vascular tone, endothelial integrity and vascular permability
Potentiates the vasoconstrictor action of catecholamines
What does the renin-angiotensin system have to do with HAC?
RAS system activation leads to increased aldosterone release.
Describe the RAS system.
Decreased perfusion through the juxtaglomerular apparatus leads to renin secretion. Renin cleaves angiotensinogen to angiotensin I. ACE acts on angiotensin I to produce angiotensin II.
Angiotensin II has many effects including:
constricts efferent glomerular arterioles (forces blood to build up in the glomerulus which increases GFR despite lowered renal perfusion)
stimulates aldosterone release from the adrenal cortex.
What functions does aldosterone have?
Tubular reabsorption of Na/Cl and K excretion at the DCT and CD.

Increases salt appetite and leads to the sensation of thirst.

Stimulates release of ADH which increases the permeability of the CD leading to increases water absorption.
What effect does potassium have on aldosterone secretion?
Very small increases lead to aldosterone secretion
What are the categories of HAC?
Primary
immune-mediated adrenocortical destruction by lymphocytic/plasmacytic infiltration
atrophy
mitotane overdose, tumor mets or infarctions (rare)

Secondary
iatrogenic via chronic cortisol administration or progestagen therapy
destructive pituitary lesions (rare)
What is the pathogenesis associated with glucocorticoid deficiency?
GI signs = anorexia, vomiting, abdominal pain, weight loss, melaena/haematochezia
Fasting hyperglycaemia = dec. gluconeogenesis, dec. fat utilisation, depletion of liver glycogen stores
Diminished vigour and lethargy
Impaired tolerance to stress
Anaemia
Hypotension

All occur because glucocorticoids are essential for maintenance of vascular tone and integrity, CHO/P metabolism and erythrocytosis
What is the pathogenesis associated with mineralocorticoid deficiency?
Hyponatraemia and hypochloraemia = impaired ability to conserve Na/Cl. Consequences may not occur if dietary salt is adequate. Inappetance, vomiting, diarrhoea may lead to rapid depletion

Hypovolaemia = loss of Na,Cl means hypovolaemia, hypotension, dec. CO, GFR, azotaemia. Loss of renal medullary hypertonicity reduces renal concentrating ability resulting in further water loss. ADH secretion dec. because osmolality is dec. Seen as PU/PD
Hyperkalaemia = d/t dec. GFR and acidosis leads to cardiac problems

Acidosis = d/t decreased tissue perfusion and HCO3 and Cl resorption in tubules.
Describe the signalment associated with hypoadrenocorticism.
Generally young to middle aged, mean 4-5 yo. Can be less than 1 or up to 12.
Majority are female.
No breed predilection but may be familial in certain dogs.
Describe the typical clinical signs/findings.
Lethargy, depression, anorexia
Vomiting, regurgitation, weight loss, meleana/haematochezia, PU/PD, weakness, shivering/shaking, collapse, dehydration, weak pulse, bradycardia and hypothermia.
What general comments can be made out the clinical signs associated with HAC?
Very vague clinical signs, duration may be from a few days to several months. Typically chronic progressive disease which may wax and wane. CS may suggest GI, renal or infectious disease. CS may resovle with fluid therapy and steroids.
What are the clinical signs of an Addisonian crisis?
Collapse, shock, dehydration, lethargy, weakness, vomiting, trembling, anorexia and GI signs.
What are the clin path findings associated with HAC?
Anaemia, eosinophilia and lymphocytosis with a lack of a stress leukogram. VERY SUSPICIOUS if there isn't a stress leukogram in a clinically unwell patient.
HypoNa and hypoCl
HyperK and hyperCa
Azotaemia (pre- or renal)
Inappropriately low USG in a clinically dehydrated animal - Na in urine filtrate impairs the ability to retain water (medullary washout)
Describe the pathogenesis of DKA.
Absolute or relative nsulin deficiency causes increased lipolysis - with the products of lipolysis used to produced excessive amounts of ketone bodies. This in conjunction with decreased peripheral utilisation of KBs.
Accumulation of KBs leads acidosis, osmotic diuresis, nausea/vomiting and obtundation. The dehydration/hypotension produced via the vomiting and diuresis leads to decreased GFR and H+ excretion - worsening the acidosis.
What are the 7 components of treatment for a sick DKA patient?
Fluids
Insulin
Potassium
Phosphate
+/- Bicarbonate
Antibiotics/Anitemetics
Monitoring
What should be done for a 'healthy' DKA?
Ketonuric patients may not be vomiting and may still be eating - such patients don't require as intensive treatment as sick DKA patients. Insulin should be provided to these animals as soon as possible.
How does fluid therapy help treat a DKA patient?
Helps replace the fluid deficit caused by vomiting and diuresis - this increases GFR and thus H+ excretion which helps rectify acidosis. Fluids also directly reduce acidosis (bicarbonate).
What type of fluid therapy should be used and what are some considerations that must be taken into account?
0.9% saline, or 0.45% if hypernatremia
Add potassium
Add glucose if blood glucose is less than 13 mmol/L
Describe the insulin therapy employed.
Use regular/crystalline insulin as either CRI or intermittent IM.

Move the patient to intermediate insulin once they're bright, eating well and off IV fluids.
Why is the blood glucose level of utmost concern with DKA patients?
If blood glucose falls too low, stress hormones are secreted (which are insulin antagonistic) and thus further worsen the ketoacidotic state.
What is the effect on potassium with the administration of insulin?
Decreases serum potassium since insulin acts on the glucose-potassium cotransporter to increase cellular uptake of both.

Potassium therapy is MANDATORY unless the patient is anuric.
What is the effect does ketoacidosis have on serum phosphate levels?
Diuresis increase phosphate excretion (since the kidneys are designed to excrete phosphate) and so DKA patients have lowered phosphate. Therapy lowers it further.
What is the significance of hypophosphatemia?
Because phosphorous is an essential component of ATP low serum phosphorous conc. can cause ATP depletion which primarily affects cells that are high energy users such as RBCs, skeletal muscle cells and neurones.
What are the clinical signs of hypophosphatemia?
Pallor due to haemolytic anaemia
Haemoglobinuria
Tachypnoea, dyspnoea or rapid shallow breathing due to decreased respiratory muscle function
Muscle weakness
Mental depression
What treatment should be undertaken to prevent hypophosphatemia?
Provide half of the potassium as potassium chloride and half as potassium phosphate.
What is the recommendation for the use of bicarbonate therapy?
Generally not necessary because fluid therapy, electrolyte replacement and insulin correct the acidosis.

May be required if there is an enormous abberation from normal as measured by blood bicarb or pH.
Why are antibiotics important for DKA treatment?
Diabetic patients are prone to UTIs. Take a urine sample for culture, and then use empirical broad spec bacteriocidal antibiotics.
What parameters should be monitored when monitoring a DKA patient?
Fluid administration rates
Hydration status
Urine output
Electrolyte level
Blood glucose
Once stable, what is the next most important step in the management of DKA patients?
Checking for secondary disease processes such as Cushing's, hyperT or pancreatitis.
Define hypoadrenocorticism.
Deficiency of glucocorticoids and/or mineralocorticoids that occurs with 85-90% loss of the the adrenal cortex.
What are the categories of Addisons?
Primary = immune mediated destruction via lymphocytic/plasmacytic infiltration
Atrophy
Mitotane overdose, tumor mets, infarction (rare)

Secondary = iatrogenic due to chronic cortisol admin or progestagen therapy.
Destructive pituitary lesions (rare)
Describe how the renin-angiotensin system is involved with Addisons.
When perfusion through the JGA falls renin is secreted. Renin cleaves angiotensinogen to angiotensin I, which ACE acts on to produce angiotensin II. Angiotensin II has a number of effects in the body - including constrictive effects on the efferent glomerular arterioles which leads to blood build up in the glomerulus and inc. GFR despite dec. renal perfusion.
It also stimulates aldosterone release from the adrenal cortex via tubular Na/Cl reabsorption and K excretion at DCT/CD.
Aldosterone stimulates the release of ADH which increases the permeability of the CD which increases water reabsorption.
What are the five characteristic findings of mineralocorticoid deficiency?
HypoNa
HypoCl
Hypovolaemia
HyperK
Acidosis
In what situation is the hypoNa/Cl worsened?
Inappetance, vomiting or diarrhoea.
When might hypoNa/Cl not be clinically apparent?
When dietary salt is adequate.
What are the renal consequences of hypovolaemia?
Dec. CO leads to dec. GFR and azotaemia.
What is the consequence of hyperK?
Dec. GFR promotes hyperK and predisposes to cardiac problems.
What are the functions of glucocorticoids in the body?
Stimulates gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis
Stimulates erythrocytosis
Offsets the effects of stress
Vital role in the maintenance of vascular tone and permeability as well as endothelial integrity
Potentiates vasoconstrictive effects of catecholamines
What are the clinical signs of cortisol deficiency?
Decreased tolerance of stress
Lethargy
Hypoglycaemia
Hypotension
Anaemia
GI bleeding
Vomiting
What are the clinical signs of aldosterone deficiency?
PU/PD
Azotaemia
Heart problems
What is the typical signalment for Addisons?
Majority are female, around 4-5yo although HAC can occur less than 1yo and upwards of 12yo. Any breed although poodles, WHWT, great danes and collies are more common.
What is the issue with the clinical signs associated with Addisons?
Generally vague, may wax and wane for a while. Disease course may be a few days or many months.
What are the clinical signs associated with an acute Addisonian crisis?
Very, very sick dog. Shock, collapse, weakness, vomiting and other GI signs.
Describe the clin path commonly associated with Addisons
Anaemia
Eosinohilia
Lymphocytosis
Lack of a stress leukogram in a clinically unwell dog is VERY SUSPICIOUS

HyperK and Ca
HypoNa and Cl
Azotaemia (pre-renal and renal poss.)
Inappropriately low USG in a clinically dehydrated animal
Acidosis
Hypoalbuminaemia
Hypoglycaemia
What are some of the typical ECG findings associated with hyperK
Bradycardia
Peaked T waves
Widened GRS
Little or no P waves
Ventricular asystole
List some differentials for polyuria.
Renal failure
DM
HyperT
Pyometra
Pyelonephritis
Malignancy-induced hyperCa
List some differentials for meleana/haematochezia.
Ulcerative/erosive GI neoplasia
Parasites
Helicobacter
Foreign body
Gastritis
NSAIDs
Renal failure
Pancreatitis
Thrombocytopenia
List some differentials for hyperK
Artifact
Urinary obstruction/rupture
Anuric/olliguric renal failure
Severe GI disease
Acidosis
What is required to make a diagnosis of Addisons?
Electrolyte abnormalities (not always present)
Lack of stress leukogram in a clinically ill patient
Young dog with chronic history of illness
What test is done to make a definitive dx?
ACTH stim test. Demonstration of undetectable-to-low serum cortisol conc. that fail to increase after administration of ACTH.

Sensitive and specific if no previous steroid admin.
What four things must be treated in an acute Addisonian crisis?
Hypotension/hypovolaemia = 0.9% saline at shock rates. Monitor urine output and blood pressure. Add glucose if hypoglycaemic
Electrolyte imbalance = dextrose +/- regular insulin
+/- Ca gluconate (give if no P waves)
Acidosis = +/- bicarbonate but shock fluids normally take care of this anyway
Glucocorticoid deficiency = give any formulation IV after samples are taken
What are the options for maintenance therapy for Addisons in NZ?
Fludrocortisone PO BID - minimal glucocorticoid activity and thus may cause signs of Cushings

Prenisolone = double the dose of pred prior to stressful events

DOCP isn't available in NZ
What are some of the side effects of prednisone administration?
PU/PD, polyphagia and alopecia (iatrogenic Cushings)
Define hyperadrenocorticism.
Excessive production of cortisol from the adrenal cortex due to pituitary tumors, adrenal tumors or iatrogenic causes.
Which is the most common cause of Cushings?
85-90% of cases of spontaneous Cusings are caused by pituitary tumors.
Describe the pathogenesis of pituitary dependent hyperadrenocorticism (PDH).
The pituitary tumor secretes excessive amounts of ACTH - resulting in bilateral adrenal hyperplasia and subsequent excessive cortisol secretion. Vast majority of dogs have a microadenoma, with 10-20% having a macroadenoma.

2 big adrenals
Describe the pathogenesis of adrenal tumor hyperadrenocorticism (ATH).
10-20% of cases of spontaneous Cushings are caused by adrenal tumors - 50% are adenomas and 50% are sarcomas.

The adrenal tumor is function and secretes excessive cortisol which provokes negative feedback on the pituitary - resulting in decreased ACTH secretion and the unaffected adrenal gland becomes atrophied due to a lack of stimulation.

1 big and one small adrenal
Describe the pathogenesis of iatrogenic hyperadrenocorticism.
Longterm, exogenous corticosteroids will result in suppression of the HPA axis and iatrogenic HAC.

2 small adrenals.
Describe the signalment associated with Cushings.
Disease of middle aged/older dogs.
ATH 11yo
PDH 10yo

Females are at an increased risk of ATH, no predilection in PDH.

Risk factors for PDH - affected dogs generally weigh less than 20kg. Breeds include poodles, dachshunds, terriers and beagles.

Risk factors for ATH - have a tendancy to weigh more than 20%. Breeds include poodles, german shepherds, labs and dachshunds.
Will patients present acutely ill with Cushings?
No - patients are rarely acutely ill and will present for chronic illness with slowly progressive clinical signs.
What are the 4 P's of the characteristic clinical signs?
PU
PD
Polyphagia
Pot-bellied appearance
What is the cause of the PU/PD?
Primary polyuria occurs due to excess cortisol interfering with the action of ADH on the CD leading to diuresis and secondary polydipsia
What is the cause of the polyphagia?
Direct metabolic effect of glucocorticoids and the anti-insulin effect.
What is the cause of the pot-bellied appearance?
Redistribution of abdominal fat and abdominal muscle wasting.
Lethargy is also common and occurs due to muscle weakness and wasting.
What disease process can Cushings mask?
DJD - due to presence of anti-inflammatory levels of corticosteroids. Cruciate ligament rupture can occur.
Describe the cutaneous signs associated with Cushings.
Bilaterally symmetrical alopecia
Pruritis isn't a feature of Cushings
Thin skin, pyoderma, seborrhoea and demodicosis
Bruising
Calcinosis cutis
What are the 7 medical complications of Cushings?
Hypertension
UTIs
Pyelonephritis
Urinary calculi
Pulmonary thromboembolism
DM
Pituitary macroadenoma
What is the cause of hypertension?
Volume retention via hypernatremia (inc. mineralocorticoids), activation of renin-angiotensin system and decreased synthesis of vasodilatory prostaglandins.
What is the cause of UTIs and pyelonephritis?
Immunosuppression and low USG allowing microbrial proliferation.
What is the cause of urinary calculi?
Increased urinary Ca excretion.
What is the cause of pulmonary thromboembolism?
Hypercoagulable state
Vascular fragility and exposure of subendothelial collagen, increase in certain clotting factors and a decrease in antithrombin III.
What are the clinical signs of the mass effect of a pituitary macroadenoma?
Dullness
Obtundation
Ataxia
Tetraparesis
Nystagmus
Circling
Head pressing
Blindness
Describe the clin path associated with Cushings.
Stress leukogram with thrombocytosis
Increased liver enzymes (due to hepatocellular damage and direct effect of cortisol on ALP isoenzyme)
Decreased BUN d/t diuresis
Hyperglycaemia
Hypercholesterolaemia
Lipaemia
Low USG
+/- glucosuria
proteinuria
+/- Ca oxalate crystals
What are the typical radiographic findings associated with Cushings?
Hepatomegaly
Osteopenia
Enlarged bladder
Dystrophic mineralization
Calcified adrenal mass
Mass effect
Presence of mets (with adrenal adenocarcinoma)
Presence of pulmonary thromboembolic disease
What are typical ultrasonography findings and how can these be used to differentiate betweent PDH and ATH?
PDH will demonstrate bilaterally symmetrical adrenomegaly +/- nodular hyperplasia

ATH will demonstrate unilateral adrenomegaly +/- invasion of local structures such as liver, kidney and great vessels.
What are the 4 screening tests used to diagnose Cushings?
ACTH stim
LDDS
Urine cortisol:creatinine
Combined ACTH stim/dex suppression test
What are the 5 differentiating tests used to differentiate the cause of Cushings?
LDDS
HDDS
Combine ACTH stim/dex suppression test
Endogenous ACTH assay
Imaging of pituitary/adrenals
What are some of the advantages of the ACTH stim test?
Quick and easy
Preferred test for patients with concurrent non-adrenal disease
Can diagnose iatrogenic Cushings
Most specific
What post stimulation cortisol level is suspicious of Cushings, and what should be done for borderline responses?
550nmol/L is suspicious - LDDS should be run for borderline results. 650nmol/L is diagnostic for Cushings.
What percentage of cases will an ACTH stim test pick up?
80% of PDH
60% of ATH
30% of iatrogenic

Chronic, non-adrenal disease may produce a false positive
What are some of the advantages of LDDS?
Can be used as a confirmatory and discriminatory test for Cushings
More sensitive than ACTH stim but is more likely to be affected by non-adrenal disease
What response to LDDS is diagnostic for Cushings?
No suppression what-so-ever = straight line = either ATH or the small percentage of PDH which fail to suppress

ie a flat line isn't diagnostic for ATH but DOES INDICATE CUSHINGS

"Suppress-and-escape" = cup shaped line = majority of PDH
For a flat line LDDS what can be done to differentiate between ATH and PDH?
HDDS - dogs with PDH should suppress at higher dex concentrations.

Additional imaging diagnostics can also be employed.
When is the urine cortisol:creatinine useful?
To RULE OUT Cushings
Medicine or surgery as the treatment of choice for PDH?
Medicine
Medicine or surgery as the treatment of choice for ATH?
Medicine is the treatment of choice when there is:
tumor invasion of the great vessels
evidence of mets
unacceptable surgical risk

Medicinal treatment can be used to decrease surgical risk for patients where that is an option.
What are the drugs available for the medical treatment of Cushings?
Mitotane
Trilostane
L-Deprenyl
Ketaconazole
What is the mechanism of action of mitotane?
Adrenocorticolytic drug which leads to progressive necrosis of the zona fasiculata and reticularis.
What is the treatment protocol with mitotane?
Prior to therapy client must record appetite and water intake. Feed one third of the normal food twice daily commencing the day before the first mitotane dose.
An initial loading dose during the induction phase of 30-50mg/kg/day is dispensed.
Dispense prednisone and instruct owner to give only in the advent of pred toxicity.
Have the owner bring the patient back for ACTH stim test in 5-7 days or earlier if decreased water consumption/appetite.
What should the results of the ACTH stim test indicated before the patient can be put on maintenance therapy?
Pre and post stim cortisol should be in basal reference range.
What is the maintenance protocol with mitotane?
50mg/kg/WEEK divided into 4 treatments to prevent the GI signs associated with large mitotane doses. ACTH stim every 3 months to evaluate control.
What is the prognosis with mitotane treatment?
PDH about a year
ATH 20-29 months
What are the clinical signs of mitotane toxicity?
Decreased appetite/anorexia
Decreased water consumption (less than 40mL/kg/day)
Vomiting
Diarrhoea
Lethargy
Weakness
What is the mechanism of action of trilostane?
Competitive inhibitor of an enzyme in cortisol synthesis.
What are some of the advantages of trilostane?
Good response in PDH dogs
Generally few side effects, but all dogs develop adrenomegaly
Can be sourced from human pharmacies in NZ but there's not an animal formulation licensed.
What are some of the disadvantages of trilostane?
Adrenal necrosis and Addisons may occur at any stage during therapy
What is the mechanism of action of L-Deprenyl?
Irreversible inhibitor of monoamine oxidase type B which increase dopaminergic tone in the brain. This decreases ACTH secretion
What is the role of L-Deprenyl in the treatment of Cushings?
Generally not recommended - variability in the results of clinical trials. Not indicated for the treatment of ATH, and generally a poor response seen with PDH.
What are the surgical options for the treatment of PDH?
Hypophysectomy - not a viable option as requires enormous technical skill.
Bilateral adrenalectomy - provides a cure for PDH but medical therapy is easily accomplished so use is debatable. Necessitates treatment for Addisons.
What are the surgical options for the treatmentof ATH?
Bilateral adrenalectomy - excellent prognosis for adenoma, good prognosis for non-invasive carcinoma. Survival post surgery 18-36 months.
What is the most important take-home message for the treatment of Cushings?
A patient should not be treated for Cushings if there aren't any clinical signs consistent with the disorder.
Define hypothyroidism.
Clinical condition which results from inadequate production and release of T4 and T3.
What are the categories of hypothyroidism?
Primary occurs as a result of problems with the thyroid gland such as lymphocytic thyroiditis, idiopathic atrophy, neoplastic destruction, follicular cell hyperplasia or iatrogenic causes

Secondary occurs from impaired secretion of TSH from the pituitary as a result of neoplasia or suppression of TSH by glucocorticoids.

Tertiary hypoT hasn't been documented, congenital hypothyroidism is quite rare in small animals.
Describe the signalment associated with hypoT.
Relatively common endocrine disease of dogs. Predisposed breeds include dobermans, golden retrievers, labs, cocker spaniels, dachshunds and poodles.
No sex predilection, most common in middle aged to older dogs - mean of 7yo.
Describe the nature of clinical signs associated with hypoT.
Tend to be vague, diffuse, gradual and aren't pathognomonic for any disease. Clinical signs may vary between the breeds due to different hair cycles - dermatological and metabolic signs generally predominate in most cases.
List the precise clinical signs associated with hypoT
Lethargy, dullness, inactivity, weight gain, cold intolerance
Bilaterally symmetrical alopecia, dry scaly skin, course coat, puppy coat, hyperpigmentation, seborrhoea, pyoderma
Weakness, ataxia
Bradycardia
Describe the clin path associated with hypoT.
Mild normocytic, normochromic nonregenerative anaemia
Hypercholesterolaemia
What are the best tests to conduct to evaluate thyroid function?
Measurement of total T4 and free T4 in conjunction with TSH concentration
If the total T4/free T4/TSH results are equivocal what should be done next?
Consider havine a test run for lymphocytic thyroiditis or testing for thyroglobulin antibodies.
What is the treatment of choice for hypoT?
0.02mg/kg PO q12h using name brand levothyroxine. Start patients with cardiovascular disease on 1/2 dose.
Describe the therapeutic monitoring involved with hypoT patients.
T4 levels checked 4 weeks after start of therapy. Pre-pill level recommended for those animals on once daily. Serum sample 4-6 hours post pill is submitted for analysis. T4 levels should be monitored during the first 8 months every 6-8 weeks.
Define hyperthyroidism.
Increased serum T3 and T4, which in cats is most commonly due to benign adenomatous hyperplasia, with 2% due to thyroid carcinomas.
Describe the signalment associated with feline hyperT.
Age range 4-22, but mean age around 13yo.
Siamese and Himalayan are at decreased risk - no other breed predilection. Neither sex is predisposed.
Describe the clinical signs associated with feline hyperT.
Weight loss
PU/PD
Polyphagia
Hyperactivity
GI disease
Tachycardia
Tachypnoea/panting
Describe the clin path associated with hyperT.
Mild/moderate erythrocytosis in early phase of the disease
Macrocytosis
Heinz bodies
Stress leukogram
Normocytic, normochromic non-regenerative anaemia may occur in chronic cases due to bone marrow exhaustion or iron deficiency
Increased liver enzymes
Increased phosphorous +/- azotemia (inc. P can occur without azotemia)
Decreased creatinine
Hypocalcaemia
What is the diagnostic paradox in cats with both renal failure and hyperthyroidism (both of which are common in the aged feline population)
HyperT causes hypertension which protects the kidneys by maintaining GFR - thus renal failure patients may not be azotemic. So if an aged cat comes in with a low USG this could be due to renal failure or hyperT.

Is possible to measure GFR via nuclear scintigraphy or iohexol clearance
In patients with hypertension, what examination should be conducted?
Fundic examination to check for retinal haemorrhages/tortuous vessels.
What are some common physical exam findings in patients with hyperT?
Low body condition score
Tachycardia
Unkempt coat
Heart murmur/gallop rhythm
Restlessness
Agression
Signs of CHF
Ocular lesions due to hypertension
Ventroflexion of the head
Dehydration
Why should thoracic rads be done?
Evaluate the cardiac silhouette/great vessels for signs of HCM, mets, lung pathology indicating heart failure

Echocardiography needed to confirm nature of cardiomyopathy
What is the best initial diagnostic test for hyperT?
TT4 - cheap and picks up the majority of patients with hyperT.
What are some of the caveats with the use of TT4 as a diagnostic test?
Normal diurnal variation in T4 concentration - mildly hyperT cats may show up as 'normal' on the test

Non-thyroidal illness can suppress T4 into the reference range in mildly affected hyperT cats
Describe the basis of thyroid scintigraphy.
Based on the uptake of radioactive iodine isotopes or technetium 99m as pertechnetate.
Radioactive compounds are concentrated in hyperplastic and neoplastic tissue regardless of location. Normal tissue is spared due to atrophy.
What are the advantages of thyroid scintigraphy?
Provides a permanent cure - 96-98% effective
Determines benign vs. malignant disease
Destroys neoplastic ectopic tissue
Identifies metastatic disease
Procedure doesn't require anaesthesia
Owner doesn't need to pill the cat for the rest of its life
What are the disadvantages of thyroid scintigraphy?
Quite expensive
Requires referral facilities (can't be done in general practice)
Not appropriate for patients which require daily medication for life-threatening conditions
Small percentage become hypothyroid
Small percentage initial treatment doesn't kill all of the hyperplastic/neoplastic tissue so retreatment required
What are two provocative tests which are used to evaluate thyroid status?
TRH test and T3 suppression test.
What is the dose rate of carbimazole?
5mg PO BID
Once a patient has been placed on carbimazole what should be done in terms of monitoring?
Renal parameters and TT4 should be re-evaluated in 10-14 days. If TT4 is within reference range and renal parameters aren't increasing continue with current dose.
If renal parameters are up, decrease dose (will have to accept less control over T4 - recommended protocol for CRF patients)
What are some of the advantages of carbimazole?
Cheap
Effective in reducing clinical signs
Reversible
Small tablets
No anaesthesia or specialist facilities required
What are some of the disadvantages of carbimazole?
Monitoring (TT4 and CBC every 2-4 weeks for first 3 months then every 3-4 months) can be very expensive
Adverse GI signs associated with drug admin
Serious side effects include drug eruption, hepatotoxicity, thrombocytopenia, leucopenia
Need to pill a cat twice a day for the rest of its life
Not a permanent cure
What are some important aspects to consider prior to surgical therapy to remove neoplastic thyroid tissue?
Pretreatment with carbimazole to minimize complications
Thyroid scan recommended prior to surgery to identify unilateral, bilateral or ectopic disease
What are some of the advantages of surgical treatment of hyperT?
Relatively quick and simple
Permanent cure
Thyroid gland is easily accessible
What are some of the disadvantages of surgical treatment of hyperT?
Anaesthetic risk in elderly/compromised patients
Iatrogenic hypothyroidism
Iatrogenic hypoparathyroidism
Recurrent laryngeal nerve damage
Recurrence of hyperT if all neoplastic tissue isn't removed
Recurrence rate regardless of removal
Permanent cure
What is the precise definition of PU/PD?
Water consumption of more than 100ml/kg/day

Urine production of more than 50ml/kg/day
What are the common causes of primary polydipsia?
Behavioural
Physiologic
CNS lesion
Hepatic encephalopathy
Hyperthyroidsim
What is the cause of secondary polydipsia?
Primary polyuria
What are common causes of primary polyuria?
Lack of ADH - central diabetes insipidus
Lack of response to ADH - nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
Osmotic diuresis
What conditions will result in central diabetes insipidus?
Congenital
CNS lesions
Idiopathic
What are the categories of nephrogenic diabetes insipidus?
Primary and secondary
What is the cause of primary nephrogenic diabetes insipidus?
Congenital defect in the mechanism which increases water permeability of tubules. Very rare
What are the causes of secondary nephrogenic diabetes insipidus?
Consequence of dysfunctional ADH/receptor interactions, dysfunctional renal tubular cells or medullary solute washout.
How does pyometra cause NDI?
E. coli endotoxin cause reversible renal tubular insensitivity to ADH
How does pyelonephritis cause NDI?
Infection/inflammation in the renal pelvis can destroy the counter current mechanism in the renal medulla. This results in isosthenuria, PU/PD and eventually renal failure.
How does hepatic insufficiency cause NDI?
Precise pathogenesis not understood but thought to occur through reduced medullary hypertonicity through impaired urea production by the liver.
How does Addisons and Cushings cause NDI?
Addisons = mineralocorticoid deficiency results in sodium loss and renal medullary solute washout

Cushings = interference with the action of ADH at the CD
How does hypercalcaemia and hypokalaemia cause NDI?
Hypercalcaemia = Ca damages ADH receptors in the renal tubules

Hypokalaemia = reduces sensitivity to ADH
How does hyperthyroidism cause NDI?
Increased medullary blood flow increases GFR.
What are the common causes of osmotic diuresis?
DM
Addisons
Primary renal glucosuria
Describe the pathophysiology of hyposthenuria.
The ability to concentrate urine normally is reliant on the interaction between ADH, ADH-receptor and hypertonic medullary interstitium.
Interference with the synthesis, action or release of ADH, damage to the renal tubule or alterations in the medullary tonicity can cause hyposthenuria.
What disease can be ruled out in patients with hyposthenuria?
Advanced renal failure.
What are some of the differentials for hyposthenuria?
Addisons
Cushings
Diabetes insipidus
Early renal failure
Hypercalcaemia
Hypokalaemia
Primary liver disease
Primary polydipsia
Pyelonephritis
Pyometra
Describe the clin path/test parameters that could be used to rule in/out the various differentials for hyposthenuria?
High ALP suggests Cushings or primary liver disease
High cholesterol is commonly high in Cushings patients
Serum bile acids can be used to evaluate liver function - but some Cushings patients will have mild elevations
Leucocytosis with left shift may occur in patients with pyometra or pyelonephritis
Inflammatory sediment or bacteruria consistent with pyelonephritis
Hyponatremi in conjunction with hyperkalaemia suggests Addisons
Proteinuria is common in patients with pyelonephritis, pyometra and Cushings
Describe the calcium fractions.
Ionized 55%
Protein-bound 35%
Complexed 10%
Which is the most important diagnostically?
Ionized is the active form and is the most important in determining whether a patient is hypercalcaemic
What is the typical signlament associated with hypercalcaemia? Hint=trick question
The precise signalment depends on the aetiology - numerous conditions may cause hypercalcaemia.
Describe the typical clinical signs associated with hypercalcaemia.
PU/PD - acquired nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
Muscle weakness, vomiting, constipation, anorexia, brady cardia all due to decreased neural/muscular excitability
Depression, coma, seizures
Urolith formation
What is the interaction between renal failure and hypercalcaemia?
Renal failure can cause hypercalcaemia and hypercalcaemia can cause renal failure.

Hypercalcaemia causes polydipsia, vomiting and anorexia. This results in dehydration, renal vasoconstriction (in an effort to preserve perfusion pressure) and a decrease in GFR. Ca deposition in the kidneys leads to tubular mineralization, degeneration and necrosis.
What are the 3 findings commonly associated with hypercalcaemia?
Renal failure
Tissue mineralization
Bone resorption/FOD
What is the acronym for remembering the causes of hypercalcaemia?
HOGS IN YARD
Hyperparathyroidism
Osteolytic
Granulomatous
Spurious
Idiopathic (cats only)
Neoplastic
Young, growing animal
Addisons
Renal Disease
D-vitamin D toxicosis
What is THE top differential for hypercalcaemia in dogs?
Cancer, CANCER, CANCER
What specific neoplasms are the most common cause of hypercalcaemia in dogs?
Lymphosarcoma (leukaemia, plasma cell myeloma)
Apocrine gland adenocarcinoma of anal sac origin
Carcinomas (mammary, nasal, SCC, pulmonary, thyroid, nasal)
What are the three most common causes of hypercalcaemia in cats?
Renal failure, neoplasia and idiopathic.
What is the signalment associated with idiopathic hypercalcaemia?
Young to middle aged cats with no obvious aetiology. Total and iCa are high, low to normal PTH with normal phosphorous and vitamin D.
Non-azotaemic but frequently have crystalluria
Describe the hypercalcaemia that occurs with Addisons.
Potentially due to decreased renal Ca excretion, haemoconcentration and increased protein binding
What is the pathophysiology of primary hyperparathyroidism?
Solitary adenoma in 85-90% of cases
Hyperplasia or carcinoma in 15% of cases

Neoplastic/hyperplastic tissue fails to respond to normal regulatory factors.
How commonly does hypercalcaemia occur as a consequence of renal failure?
10-20% of cases - clinical signs are associated with renal failure as hypercalcaemia isn't the primary disease process.
What is the first step in the work up of hypercalcaemia?
Confirm that the patient is indeed hypercalcaemic - ensure a fasted, non-lipaemic and non-haemolysed sample
If the second sample indicates hypercalcaemia, what is the next step.
Evaluate iCa (not just total calcium), phosphorous, degree of azotaemia.

Renal parameters up may indicate renal secondary hyperparathyroidism.

Hyponatraemia/hyperkalaemia may indicate Addisons = do an ACTH stim test

PTH, PTHrp and vitamin D assay to determine if there is primary hyperparathyroidism, hypercalcaemia of malignancy or vitamin D toxicosis
What are the phosphorous levels typically in:
a)primary hyperparathyroidism and hypercalcaemia of malignancy

b)vitamin D toxicosis, osteolytic bone disease, renal failure or Addisons
a) low-normal
b) high-normal
If the test results indicate that either primary hyperparathyroidism or hypercalcaemia of malignancy is the highest differentia what must then be done?
Thorough neoplasia hunt - repeat lymph node, anal gland and mammary gland palpation.

Thoracic and abdominal rads, ultrasound

Lymph node, liver, bone marrow and spleen biopsies
Describe the treatment of hypercalcaemia.
Precise nature depends on the cause (ie vitamin D toxicosis vs. malignancy).

Always treat the primary problem and provide symptomatic care:
-saline diuresis
-+/-potassium supplementation where appropriate
-furosemide once fluid deficit is corrected to increase Ca excretion. DON'T use thiazides
-+/-glucocorticoids. DON'T give if lymphoma is suspected or prior to ACTH stim test
-phosphonates
What are the three general causes for haematuria?
Bleeding due to lesions in the urogenital tract
Clotting factor deficiency
Thrombocytopenia
Where does bleeding at the end of the urine stream localize the lesion to?
Prostate or bladder trigone.
What does bleeding at times other than just urination tell you?
Perhaps a genital lesion.
In a patient with what appears to be haematuria, but occult blood is negative, what could be the cause?
Bilirubin
Porphyrins
Drugs
Dyes etc
What should be conducted once occult blood is detected?
Urine sediement.
What could be the cause if occult blood is positive but urine sediment doesn't yield any RBCs?
Haematuria/myoglobinuria.
Describe some clin path changes assoicated with haematuria?
+/- thrombocytopenia
Azotemia in patients with bilateral renal disease
+/- crystaluria in patients with urolithiasis
+/- inflammatory leukogram in patients with UTI (also +/- bacteruria)
Describe typical treatment protocols for haematuria.
+/- blood transfusion if animal is severely anaemic
Crystalloids for dehydration
Antibiotics for UTI
Heparin for DIC (causing thrombocytopenia)
What is considered normal water intake in cats and dogs?
40 mL/kg/day in cats
60 mL/kg/day in dogs

Greater than 100 mL/kg/day is considered PD
What are some differential for acquired nephrogenic diabetes insipidus?
Renal/hepatic failure/insufficiency
Cushings
Addisons
HyperT
HyperCa
HypoK
Diabetes mellitus
Primary renal glucosuria
Post-obstructive diuresis
Pyometra/pyelonephritis
If PU/PD is occuring with chronic weight loss, what are your top differentials?
Renal failure, DM, hyperT, hepatic failure, pyometra/pyelonephritis and malignancy-induced hypercalcaemia.
If PU/PD is occuring with polyphagia, what are your top differentials?
DM, hyperT and Cushings
What is the definition of azotaemia?
Elevation of non-protein nitrogenous waste in the blood.
What is the definition of uraemia?
Clinical signs due to azotaemia.
What are the three categories of azotaemia?
Pre renal
Renal
Post renal
What are some of the causes of pre renal azotaemia?
Anything which elevates BUN/creatinine prior to metabolism in the kidney.

Increased protein in the diet
GI bleeding
Accelerated catabolism of endogenous protein
Decreased GFR
What causes renal azotaemia?
ARF or CRF
What are some causes of post renal azotaemia?
Urinary tract obstruction
Bladder rupture
Describe your initial management of a patient with azotaemia?
Obtain initial blood work and urinalysis
Estimate degree of dehydration
Rehydrate the patient over 4-12 hours
Monitor hydration status, urine output, body weight, PCV/TS
Repeat bloodwork after 24-48 hours.
If fluid therapy fails to rectify suspected pre renal azotaemia, where has your treatment failed?
Degree of dehydration was underestimated
Ongoing losses

Renal or post renal component
Describe the management of patients with post renal azotaemia?
First correct live-threatening metabolic derangements

Relieve urinary obstruction or repair bladder

Anticipate post obstruction diuresis and treat/monitor accordingly
What biochemistry finding can be used to differentiate between ARF and pre renal azotaemia?
Urine:serum creatinine
More than 20:1 with pre renal
Less than 10:1 with ARF
Describe the differentiating features between ARF and CRF.
The onset of clinical signs with ARF are quick, generally no weight loss or anaemia, kidneys are enlarged and electrolytes are markedly abnormal (high K)

Clinical signs associated with CRF are insidious in onset, associated with weightloss, kidneys are small/nobbly, anaemic with mildly abnormal electrolytes (relatively normal K)
Parathyroid glands are enlarged compared to ARF.
What are the clinical signs associated with renal failure?
Depression
Anorexia
Vomiting/diarrhoea
Dehydration
Uraemic odor on breath
Really big or really small kidneys
PU/PD or oliguria/anuria
Uraemic stomatitis
Hypertension
What are the 4 causes of ARF?
Ishcaemic
Toxic
Infectious
Obstructive
Why are the kidneys so susceptible to toxic/ischaemic damage?
Kidneys receive 20% of CO - delivery of toxins is increased
Proximal tubules and thick ascending loop of Henle receive majority of renal blood flow and are even more susceptible due to their transport functions and high metabolic rate.

Resorption of water electrolytes from the glomerular filtrate may increase toxin exposure, as well as the countercurrent system may concentrate toxins
Explain the pathogenesis of cardiac complications in ARF.
Hyperkalaemia leads to a decreased potassium concentration across myocytes - this reduces the membrane potential and makes the cell more excitable.
Explain the pathogenesis of neurolgocial complication in ARF.
Direct effect of uraemic toxins on the CNS causing lethargy, coma and seizures.
Explain the pathogenesis of the GI complications in ARF.
Direct necrosis of GI mucosae as well as causing a necrotising vasculitis, thrombosis and thus ischaemic damage.
Explain the pathogenesis of haematological complications in ARF.
Anaemia of ARF isn't due to decreased EPO - time course isn't long enough for this to occur. Anaemia occurs due to haemorrhage due to the uraemic thrombocytophathy (uraemic toxins inhibit the release of PF3 and thus cannot form a functional haemostatic plug).
Vasculopathy occurs as a result of necrotising vasculitis.
Explain the pathogenesis of metabolic complications of ARF.
Acidosis, hyperkalaemia and hyperphosphataemia due to the kidneys no longer being able to excrete hydrogen ions, potassium and phosphate.
Describe the contributing factors associated with ARF.
Tubular obstruction
Back leaking of urine
Renal vasoconstriction
Decreased glomerular permeability
Or mixtures of the above
Describe the management protocol for ARF.
Identify underlying cause
Prevent further exposure to toxins/cause
Establish and maintain haemodynamic stability
Provide fluids
Correct metabolic derangements
Provide nutritional support
Describe fluid therapy regiemes used for ARF.
Establish degree of dehydration. Assume 5% dehydrated if no clinical signs of dehydration. Use 0.9% saline or LRS. Rehydrate over 4-8 hours, then give 2x maintenance. If fluids don't take care of the acidosis, administer Nabicarb.

Monitor hydration status, urine output, body weight, PCV/TS. Urine output should be more than 1 mL/kg/hour
In cases of oliguric/anuric renal failure, what should be done?
Once rehydrated, use mannitol, 10-20% dextrose or furosemide to induce diuresis.

Optimise renal perfusions using dopamine infusion
Describe the treatment of uraemic gastritis.
Use antiemetics where appropriate - metoclopramide, chlorpromazine or mariopitant.

H2 receptor antagonists - cimetidine, ranitidine

Gastric protectants eg sucralfate
Should nutritional support be provided for ARF patients?
Yes - 70-100 cal/kg/day
Describe the pathogenesis of CRF.
Can occur as a progressive condition as a result of ARF or due to idiopathic causes that result in a loss of a critical number of nephrons and the self-perpetuation of renal failure. Many times the exact cause is impossible to determine - even with biopsy. Histo changes are generally non-specific, but primary glomerular disorders are thought to be a leading cause.
What is the most common renal tumor in cats which is implicated in causing CRF?
Renal lymphoma
Describe the signalment and clinical findings associated with feline renal lymphoma.
Mean age of FeLV + cats 3 yo
Mean age of FeLV - cats 7 yo
Approx half of renal lymphoma cases are FeLV+.
Kidneys are enlarged and may be smooth or irregular.

Dx made by radiographs/US
FNA of kidneys
How does the use of NSAIDs produce renal failure.
NSAIDs are COX inhibitors and thus reduce the production of prostaglandins. Prostaglandins are involved in a number of pathways in the body - vasodilatory prostaglandins play a role in maintaining perfusion to the kidneys in response to hypovolaemia.
What are the 4 main causes of hypercalcaemia?
HyperCa of malignancy
Hypervitaminosis D
Renal failure
Primary hyperparathyroidism
Breeds with predisposition for renal dysplasia.
Lhasa apso, chow chow, Shi tzu
Breeds with predisposition for polycystic kidney disease.
Himalayans
Persians
Breeds with predisposition for
amyloidosis.
Shar pei
Abyssinian
Breeds with predisposition for glomerulopathies.
English cocker spaniels
Soft-coated Wheaton terriers
Samoyeds
Describe the clin path associated with CRF.
Non regenerative anaemia
Azotaemia
Hyperphosphatemia
Hypokalaemia
Acidosis
Inc. or dec. calcium
What is the acronym used to remember the treatment modalities for CRF.
NEPHRON
Nutrition
Important to maintain body condition and prevent protein catabolism. Oesophageal feeding tubes may be helpful.

Low protein, low phosphorous diet. Phosphate binders may be useful

Omega-3 in the ration decreases intraglomerular hypertension, lipaemia, increases GFR and vasodilatory PGs and reduces inflammation

Anitemetics, H2 blockers, proton pump inhibitors and sucralfate where indicated
Hypo or hyperkalaemia common in CRF?
Hypokalaemia is common in cats with CRF.
What are the clinical signs of hypokalaemia?
RMP is increased - cell membrane is less sensitive to stimuli.
Clinical signs include:
ventroflexion of neck
stiff, stilted gait
generalized weakness
anorexia
What is the treatment for hypokalaemia?
Renal diets usually have Kcitrate added. Otherwise oral supplementation with KCl or Kgluconate
pH
Metabolic acidosis is common.
Due to decreased hydrogen ion excretion, bicarb wasting and chloride retention, decreased filtration of phosphate and increased protein catabolism.
What are the consequences of metabolic acidosis?
Anorexia, hypokalaemia, and muscle weakness. Metabolic acidosis causes a shift of potassium into the extracellular space which can then be vomited out.
What are the benefits of alkalinization therapy?
Decrease signs of uraemic acidosis
Decreases protein catabolism due to acidosis.
Limits demineralization via buffering
Minimises adverse effects of acidosis on the cardiovascular system
Describe alkalinization treatment.
Low protein diets reduce the production of organic acids.
Many renal diets have Kcitrate to act as an alkalinizer
Administer Nabicarb if bicarbonate is less than 15mmol/L. Issues with Na retention worsening hypertension.
Hydration
Provide constant access to water. Add low-Na broth if they'd like it.
SQ fluids 75-150mL q24-72 hours using low Na or LRS
Retention of Waste
Kidneys are unable to eliminate nitrogenous waste - low protein diet.
High soluble fibre in the diet promotes bacterial proliferation which requires nitrogen
Other renal insults
Avoid at all costs:
Hypotension, dehydration and hypovolaemia
Nephrotoxic meds
UTI
Neuroendocrine
Anaemia occurs due to dec. EPO and blood loss through uraemic gastritis.
Fix by providing excellent nutrition, minimizing losses and giving transfusion if necessary.
+/- various forms of EPO and EPO analogues
What is the role of calcitriol in the treatment of renal secondary hyperparathyroidism?
Used to minimise the effects of the condition
Prevents tissue mineralization

Extensive monitoring required, hyperCa common
What are the manifestations of hypertension and what causes it?
Dec GFR leads to activation of the RAS and Na retention.

Blindness
Cardiomyopathy
Proteinuria
Seizures
Progressive glomerular disease
What are the treatment options for hypertension in this case?
Na restriction
ACE inhibitors produce systemic vasodilation but also selectively dilate the renal efferent arteriole
Ca channel blockers are associated with fewer side effects
Why is systemic hypertension bad in CRF patients?
Leads to proteinuria in conjunction with the existing disease process and chronic inflammation.
Proteinuria is very bad because in itself leads to more progressive renal disease
How is proteinuria categorized?
Pre renal
Renal
Post renal
Describe dipsticks.
Colorimetric, and mainly pick up albumin - ie don't pick up Bence Jones proteins
When do you get false positives to dipsticks?
Prolonged contact
Contamination
Alkaluria
When do you get false negatives to dipsticks?
Dilute urine
Aciduria
Abnormal proteins
If you get a positive dipstick results what should be done next?
Urine sediment exam
What diagnostics are available to work up a proteinuria case?
24hr urinary protein
UPC
Microabluminuria
What are the advantages of UPC?
Quick and convenient.
What are the disadvantages of UPC?
Doesn't localize the proteinuria
Influenced by haemorrhage, inflammation/infection
Doesn't differentiate between the causes of glomerular disease
What causes glomerular proteinuria?
Immune mediated and non-immune mediated glomerulopathies

Immune mediated and non-immune mediated amyloidosis
What causes immune mediated glomerulopathies?
Any infectious, inflammatory, parasitic, neoplastic, or degenerative disease process that results in sustained antigenic stimulation can lead to subsequent immune-mediated glomerular damage
What are some examples of disease which can cause immune mediated glomerulopathies?
Familial
• Neoplastic
– LSA, MCT
• Infectious
– ICH, brucella,
leishmania
– heartworms heartworms, ,
Ehrlichia, RMSF RMSF, ,
fungal, FIP, FeLV
• Inflammatory
– SLE SLE, , pancreatitis,
chronic pyoderma,
chronic otitis externa externa, ,
polyarthritis
• Miscellaneous
– Cushing Cushing’s, DM, , chronic
steroids steroids, systemic
, arterial hypertension,
idiopathic
Describe the pathogenesis associated with immune mediate glomerulitis?
Immune complexes lodge in basement membrane of glomerulus and activate complement. This leads to neutrophil chemotaxis and production of inflammatory mediators which produce glomerular damage.
What are the three histological categories of IMGN?
Membranous
Proliferative
Membranoproliferative
What are some of the cause of non-immune mediated glomerulitis?
Familial (Dobermans) or disease processes which produce intraglomerular hypertension such as
- Cushing’s
– Chronic glucocorticoids
– Diabetes mellitus
– Systemic arterial hypertension
– Renal failure
Describe the pathogenesis of amyloidosis.
Excess serum amyloid A accumulates as beta pleated fibrils in the extracellular matrix of various tissues througout the body - notably the kidney. Uniformly progressive and results in renal failure. Can be primary or secondary.
Where do dogs put their amyloid?
Usually in the glomerulus, although in certain familial amyloidosis deposition is in the tubulointerstitium without glomerular involvement.
Where do cats put their amyloid?
Tubulointerstitium
What breeds of cat/dog is amyloidosis familial in?
Shar peis and Abyssinian cats.
Onset generally less than 5yo with variable disease progression.
What stains are useful for evauluating amyloidosis?
Lugol's iodine and Congo Red
What are the clinical signs of proteinuria?
Often none, but...
PU/PD
Weight loss
Lethargy
Thromboembolism (lameness/respiratory distress)
Hypoalbuminaemia (oedema/ascites)
Systemic arterial hypertension
What is the basis of treatment protocol for proteinuria?
1) Treat underlying cause
2)Dietary management
3)ACE inhibitor
4)NSAID’s
5)Omega-3 fatty acids
6)Immunosuppressive drugs
7)Diuretics
What sort of diet should be fed as part of dietary management?
Renal failure diet - low protein and sodium but calorically dense with lots of vitamins/minerals and fish oil.
Why should ACE inhibitors be used?
They dilate efferent arteriole, decreasing intraglomerular pressure which decreases proteinuria. BUT also decreases GFR which may worsen azotemia.
Possibly use specific anti-hypertensives such as amlodipine
Why are low dose NSAIDs indicated?
Aspirin 0.25-0.5 mg/kg PO q12-24hr inhibits platelet activation without causing
vasoconstriction or decreased renal
medullary perfusion.
Decrease dose with hypoalbuminaemia.
Why are omega 3 FAs indicated?
Anti-inflammatory
What two disease entities produce stranguria/pollakiuria
Lower urinary tract infection
and urethral obstruction
What are some differentials for lower urinary tract disease?
Bacterial infections
iFLUTD
Cystic calculi
Bladder/urethral neoplasia
What are some differentials for urethral obstruction?
Urolithiasis
iFLUTD causing mucus plug formation
Neoplasia
Functional obstruction
What should you do if you are in any doubt about urethral patency?
Pass a catheter.
What should you start your workup for a stranguria/pollakiuria case with?
Palpate bladder
Rectal exam before and after urine voiding to feel for calculi, masses
Urine sample via cystocentesis for UA
+/- imaging
What animal group is the most predisposed for UTIs?
Old femal dogs
What are the most common bacterial species involved in UTIs?
E.col, Staph, Strep, Proteus, Klebsiella, Pseudomonas and Enterobacter

May be mixed infection. Infection almost exclusively aerobes that ascend urethra
What are some of the predisposing factors for UTIs?
Diseases which cause urine stasis or incomplete emptying of the bladder
Diseases which act as a nidus of infection (vaginitis, calculi, neoplasis)
Diseases which produce systemic immunosuppression (DM, Cushings, systemic neoplasia, chemotherapy, inherited immunodeficiency etc etc)
What are the clinical signs associated with lower UTIs?
Stranguria
Pollakiuria
Haematuria
Inappropriate urination
What are the clinical signs associated with upper UTIs?
Fever
Anorexia
Signs of uraemia
How would you confirm a suspected lower UTI?
Cystocentesis with a urine sediment to check for pyuria/bacteruria

C & S
How would you confirm a suspected upper UTI?
CBC/biochem would indicate an inflammatory leukogram and azotemia

UA would indicate pyuria/bacteruria/haematuria
+/- leukocyte casts

Radiography and US
Describe how to select an antibiotic for the treatment of UTIs.
Offer the client C & S - choose Ab based on results.
If client won't allow C & S choose Ab based on the sediment exam/most likely species involved - good choices include amoxycillin-clavulanic acid
DON'T use aminoglycosides

Treat lower UTIs for 14 days and upper for 4-8 weeks. Check urine a week after treatment cessation to ensure resolution.
What are the clinical signs assoicated with renal urolithiasis?
Fever
Anorexia
Signs of uraemia
What are the clinical signs assoicated with bladder urolithiasis?
Dysuria
Pollakiuria
Haematuria
What are the clinical signs associated with urethral urolithiasis?
Dysuria
Stranguria
Anuria
Abdominal discomfort
Signs of uraemia
What is struvite?
Magnesium ammonium phosphate
Describe the consistency of struvite uroliths.
Chalky yellow/white-ish. Radiopaque
Is struvite more or less soluble in alkaline urine?
Less
Describe the pathogenesis of struvite urolithiasis.
Urine must be super-saturated with struvite to allow precipitation and thus urolithiasis. A number of processes result in super-saturation of struvite including infection with urease-producing bacteria, alkaline urine, genetic predisposition and diet.
Is struvite urolithiasis in dogs usually seen in patients affected with UTIs?
Yes
What about cats?
Generally not infected.
Describe the medical treatment protocol for UTIs
Use Abs to treat the UTI
Calculolytic diet - Hill's s/d. May take quite some time - monitor every 4-6 weeks and feed diet 4 weeks post resolution
Describe the surgical treatment protocol for UTIs
Use Abs to treat any UTI prior to surgery. Culture any that are apparently sterile. Any that are apparently sterile should be maintained on Hill's c/d or equivalent.

Monitor all cases for reccurence
Describe struvite prophylaxis.
Protein restrictive diet
Constant UTI watch
Encourage plenty of water intake
Describe the consistency of Ca oxalate uroliths.
White/cream quartz-like appearance.
Radiopaque
What are the risk factors for Ca oxalate urolithiasis?
Hypercalciuria
Increased urinary oxalate
Decreased urinary citrate
Acidic urine
What is the typical signalment associated with Ca oxalate urolithiasis?
Older male cats and dogs
Is there a calculolytic treatment available for Ca oxalate urolithiasis?
No
What is the treatment basis for Ca oxalate urolithiasis?
Surgical removal and correction of underlying cause of hypercalcuria (NB steroids and furosemide)
Avoid high Na foods
+/- oral Kcitrate (alkalinizer and chelates Ca)
+/- thiazides (promotes Ca excretion)
Does acidic urine promote the formation of urate stones?
Yes
Urates:radiopaque or radiolucent?
Radiopaque
Which breeds of dogs are predisposed to urate stones?
Dalmations and English bulldogs
What is the underlying pathogenesis which results in urate stone formation?
Impaired conversion of uric acid to allantoin causes hight conc. of uric acid in serum and urine.

This may be due to a genetic defect, PSS or liver failure.
Urease producing UTIs predispose by increasing available ammonia.
Urate treatment?
Cystotomy, urethrotomy or nephrotomy to remove stone.
PSS ligation if necessary.
Urate prophylaxis.
Treat any UTIs promptly
Low purine diet (Hill's u/d + salt or Hill's s/d + alkali)
Allopurinol (decreases the formation of uric acid from precursor compounds)
Describe the characteristics of cystine uroliths.
Generally small, yellow and easily crushed. Often radiolucent.

Formed in acid urine
What is the underlying pathogenesis?
Defect in cystine resorption
Cystine urolith prophylaxis.
Low protein diet such as Hill's u/d (alkalinises the urine and reduces renal cystine concentrating ability)

Nabicarb or potassium citrate to alkalinise the urine
Males or females more commonly affected by cystine urolithiasis?
Males - dachshund, English bulldog, staffies and Welsh corgis
What are the treatment options for dissolution of cystine uroliths?
MPG
Forms disulphide bond with cysteine, leads to a soluble
product
5-10 mg/kg q12h

D-penicillamine
– Forms a disulphide bond with cysteine to form a soluble
product
Reduces conversion of cysteine to cystine
Dosage 15 mg/kg q12h
What is the typical signalment associated with iFLUTD?
Cats 1-5yo, equally affects males and females
What are the typical findings of an iFLUTD non-obstructive patient?
Dysuria
Pollakiuria
Haematuria
Inappropriate urination
Licking the penis/vulva
What are the typical findings of an iFLUTD obstructed patient?
The above signs as well as post renal azotemia, hyperphosphatemia and hyperkalaemia
Enlarged, turgid and painful bladder
What is needed to make a diagnosis of unobstructive FLUTD?
Clinical signs and CBC finding (haematuria)
What do recurrent cases require?
C & S
Radiography
US
What is the treatment protocol for unobstructive FLUTD?
Tincture of time for first occurence cases
Abs only indicated if infection is documented

Recurrent bouts should be treated according to the underlying disease mechanism (if known) - otherwise treat as idiopathic

Propantheline or amitriptyline
Describe the treatment protocl for an obstructed FLUTD patient.
Relieve the obstruction
Place a catheter, relieve the bladder and thoroughly lavage
Surgery may be indicated
Manage post-obstructive diuresis
Describe the prophylaxis of FLUTD
Feed wet food/encourage water consumption - flushing action of increased urine output reduces the concentration of toxins, inflammatory mediators or whatever it is that causes this disease
Likewise encourage regular and frequent urination to get rid of nasties in the urine
What is the typical signalment associated with prostatic disease?
Old intact male dogs
What are the typical clinical signs associated with prostatic disease?
Tenesmus
Dysuria
Urinary incontinence
Urethral discharge - purulent etc
Abdominal distension
Stiff gait
Painful caudal abdomen
Fever, depression
Clinical signs of benign prostatic hyperplasia.
Often none, but....
Bloody urethral discharge
Haematuria
Tenesmus
Ribbon-like stools
Dysuria

Symmetrically enlarged non-painful prostate
What are the treatment options for BPH?
Castration or finasteride
What are the clinical signs of acute bacterial prostatitis?
Lethargy/depression
Anorexia
Tenesmus
Dysuria
Pyrexia
Painful caudal abdomen/prostate
Prostate normal/enlarged
What are the clin path findings?
Inflammatory leukogram or neutropenia (due to enormous neutrophil requirement)
Haematuria
Pyuria
Bacteruria
Findings may indicate a UTI but this isn't the case
What tests should be conducted at this stage?
Prostatic lavage or ejaculation and fluid analysis and culture
What are the most common bacterial species implicated in prostatitis?
E. coli, Staph, Strep, Proteus, Klebsiella, Enterobacter, Pseudomonas
What are the findings associated with chronic prostatitis?
Variably sized, symmetrical prostate which is firm and generally not painful
UA may demonstrate findings similar to UTI
Prostatic fluid is positive on culture
Prostatic biopsy indicates chronic inflammation
What is the minimum Ab treatment time?
21 days
What should be done in terms of monitoring for treatment success with bacterial prostatitis?
Reculture approx a week after treatment has started to ensure it's working.
Reculture one month or so after therapy to ensure no reinfection.
Should you recommend castration with chronic bacterial prostatitis?
Yes
What antibiotics are appropriate for treatment of prostatitis?
Good gram negative spectrum
Issues with penetration into the prostate (blood-prostate barrier)
Ideally want a bacteriocidal one for acute prostatitis, this isn't as big of a concern with chronic prostatitis.
Fluoroquinolones
Trimethoprim sulfa
Cephalosporin
Describe the rectal findings associated with a prostatic abscess.
Enlarged, assymetric prostate
What is the typical clin path of a prostatic abscess?
Neutrophilic leukocytosis
Why do UTIs commonly occur in patients with prostatic abscesses. Hint-rare in male animals.
Infected prostate acts as a nidus of infection which then gets into the bladder.
What diagnostic techniques should you avoid in suspected abscess cases?
Massage and biopsies-may rupture the abscess leading to septic peritonitis.
What is the treatment protocol for prostatic abscesses?
Antibiotics following similar protocol as to that for prostatitis.
Surgery to lance and drain the abscess.
Castration
What are the three types of prostatic cysts?
Intraprostatic with BPH
Retention
Paraprostatic
What is the typical rectal findings with prostatic cysts?
Assymetric fluctuant prostate or a separate mass with paraprostatic cysts.

Radiography may indicate prostatomegaly. US may indicate fluid-filled structures.
What is the treatment for prostatic cysts?
Surgical drainage/excision
Castration
What are the 2 main types of prostatic neoplasia?
Adenocarcinoma
TCC
What are the clinical signs associated with prostatic neoplasia?
Dysuria
Rear limb weakness
Weight loss
Uraemic signs associated with renal failure
What is the typical rectal findings associated with prostatic neoplasia?
Assymetrically enlarged prostate which may be painful
What characteristic radiological finding is highly suspicious of prostatic neoplasia?
Lumbar vertebral osteolysis
What may be seen on US with prostatic neoplasia?
Mineralization of the prostate.
What are the typical clin path findings?
Inflammatory leukogram
Post renal azotaemia
UA-inflammation, UTI or neoplastic cells
What is required to make a definitive diagnosis?
Cytology or biopsy
What is the treatment of prostatic neoplasia?
Surgical excision is not usually undertaken-difficult to excise neoplasm without damaging the urethra
No proven protocl for chemotherapy and radiation has variable results.
Castration may have a palliative effect
What are the 2 general categories of urinary incontinence?
Neurogenic
Non-neurogenic
What are 3 examples of neurogenic causes of urinary incontinence?
UMN dz
LMN dz
Detrusor-urethral dyssnergia
What are 4 examples of non-neurogenic causes of urinary incontinence?
Hormone responsive incontinence
Stress
Urge incontinence
Ectopic ureters
What is the source of sympathetic supply to the urinary system?
Hypogastric nerve L1-4
What adrenergic receptor type is found in the body of the bladder?
Beta receptros
What effect does sympathetic stimulation have on these receptors?
Suppression of contraction of the detrusor ie bladder RELAXATION
What adrenergic receptor type is found in the internal sphincter?
Alpha receptors
What effect does sympathetic stimulation have on these receptors?
Contraction of the internal sphincter
Which sector of the autonomic nervous system predominates during bladder filling?
Sympathetic
What is the source of somatic nervous supply to the urinary system?
Pudendal nerve S1-3
What receptor type does the somatic supply act on, and where are they located?
Cholinergic receptors located in the external sphincter
What does somatic stimulation via the pudendal nerve produce?
Contraction of the sphincter to maintain contenance - predominates during storage/filling of the bladder
What is the source of parasympathetic supply to the urinary system?
Pelvic nerve S1-3
What receptor type does the parasympathetic supply act on?
Cholinergic receptors located in the body of the bladder.
What effect does this have?
Contraction of the detrusor and voiding of bladder
What are some causes of pseudo-incontinence?
Puppy excitement
Submissive behaviour
Inadequate house breaking
Kept inside too long
What are some causes of incontinence assoicated with a large bladder?
LMN
UMN
Detrusor-urethral dyssynergia
Partial obstruction

ie there is something stopping that bladder being expressed
What are some causes of incontinence associated with a small bladder?
Hormone-relate
Urge incontinence
Congenital

ie there is something stopping that bladder from filling properly
Where is the lesion in LMN urinary incontinence?
Spinal cord segments or pelvic nerve
What happens to the bladder when the pelvic nerve isn't working?
Detrusor and sphincter areflexia.
What are the clinical findings associated with LMN urinary incontinence?
Large, easily expressed bladder
Overflow incontinence
Loss of other reflexes
What is the treatment for LMN?
Manually express the bladder
Bethanecol (parasympathomimetic)
Where is the lesion in UMN urinary incontinence?
Above the spinal cord somewhere in the CNS.
How are the typical signs of UMN disease manifested?
Incomplete detrusor contraction
Spasticity of the urethral sphincter
What are the typical clinical findings associated with UMN urinary incontinence?
Large, turgid bladder which is difficult to express
Unable to urinate
Concomitant pareisis/paralysis
What is the treatment?
No pharmacological therapy is able to be used-daily expression of the bladder required.
What is the pathogenesis of detrusor urethral dyssynergia?
The contraction of the bladder isn't co-ordinated with the relaxation of the sphincter to enable micturition.
Where is the lesion located?
Reticulospinal tract or caudal mesenteric ganglion.
What are the clinical findings associated with detrusor urethral dyssynergia?
Initiation of voiding followed by abrupt cessation of urine stream
Large non-expressable bladder
Bladder easily catheterized
What is the treatment for detrusor urethral dyssnergia?
Treatment is targeted at the sphinters.
Either alpha blockers to prevent continual contraction eg oxybutin chloride and propantheline
OR muscle relaxants eg diazepam and dantrolene
What is the pathogenesis of hormone dependent urinary incontinence?
Hormones upregulate the number of adrenergic receptors in the urethral sphincter and enhance urethral defence mechanisms.
Pathogenesis is most likely multifactorial
Describe the typical signalment.
Usually older spayed bitches, although can occur in male dogs.
Often associated with early spaying with the development of intermittent incontinence subsequently.
+/- UTI
What is the treatment recommended?
Oestrogens and phenylpropranolamine in female dogs

Testosterone and phenylpropranolamine in males.
What is the typical signalment assoicated with urethral smooth muscle incompetance?
Intermittent incontinence when the animal is at rest or stressed, but still maintains a degree of voluntary urination.
UTIs aren't a feature of the disease
What does radiography typically indicate?
Intra-pelvic bladder and tortuous urethra.
What are the treatment options for urethral incompetance?
Phenylpropranolamine and ephedrine
What is the underlying pathogenesis for detrusor atony?
Separation of tight junctions between the cells in the detrusor muscle from a functional or mechanical obstruction. Excessive sympathetic stimulation
What findings are required to make a diagnosis?
Large flaccid bladder
Intact reflexes
Large residual urine volumes
What is the treatment for detrusor atony?
Indwelling urinary catheter
Cholinergic agonists - bethanecol
Alpha adrenergic blockers - prazosin