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1291 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
What method of hemostasis are ligatures?
|
internal
|
|
Absorbable collagen should not be used in the presence of ___?
|
infection
|
|
what hemostatic agent must be applied dry and only handled with dry gloves and instruments?
|
Avitene
|
|
what hemostatic agent should not be used on bone?
|
oxidized cellulose
|
|
is Adaptic an adherent or nonadherent dressing?
|
nonadherent
|
|
Whistle, Braasch, and Blasucci are all what type of catheters?
|
ureteral
|
|
A nasogastric tube used for insertion in the small intestine is ___?
|
Miller-Abbott
|
|
Malecot, mushroom, and sump are all types of ___?
|
surgical drains
|
|
what type od sponge is a tightly rolled cotton tape used by surgeons for blunt dissection?
|
Kittner
|
|
what can be utilzed for wounds, particularly abdominal surgical wounds, that will require frequent dressing changes and prevent damage to the skin?
|
Montgomery straps
|
|
most absorbable sutures are packaged in an alcohol-water solution to maintain their ___?
|
pliability
|
|
the substance that weakly holds wound edges together during the first 5 days of first intention healing is ___?
|
fibroblasts
|
|
the least inert of all the synthetic meshes is ___?
|
polyester fiber mesh
|
|
is absorbable or non-absorbable suture generally preferred in suturing periosteum?
|
absorbable
|
|
a microfibrillar collagen that is either supplied in a compacted nonwoven webform or in loose fibrous form is known as ___?
|
Avitene
|
|
A suture used in tendon repair is ___?
|
polydiaxanone
|
|
What type of suture is Ethibond Excel?
|
polyester fiber
|
|
what is the most widely used nonabsorbable suture?
|
nylon
|
|
what is the least inert of all synthetic suture materials?
|
polypropylene
|
|
In how many days is plain gut absorbed?
|
70
|
|
an excellent substitute that provides strength and nonreactivity in tissues where stainless steel cannot be used is ___?
|
polypropylene
|
|
when breaking down the setup, the scrub person should place the instruments in what?
|
a basin of water for transport to decontamination
|
|
a hernia that occurs within Hesselbach's triangle and does not have a sac is called ___?
|
a direct hernia
|
|
the defect in an inguinal hernia occurs in the ___ muscle.
|
transversalis
|
|
the incision commonly used for an appendectomy is ___?
|
McBurney
|
|
a Sengstaken-Blakemore tube is used when treating ___?
|
esophageal varices
|
|
omental flaps, falciform ligament, or Gerota's fascia flaps may be used to ___?
|
control liver hemorrhage
|
|
the procedure performed for decompression of the cecum due to colonic obstruction is ___?
|
cecostomy
|
|
pancreaticojejunostomy is performed for ___?
|
pancreatic psuedocysts
|
|
a Silverman biopsy needle is used to biopsy what?
|
liver
|
|
choledochotomy is performed to do what?
|
drain the common bile duct
|
|
what incision is used for a resection of the sigmoid colon?
|
paramedian
|
|
a type of deep retractor commonly used in an open chole is a ___?
|
Harrington
|
|
the procedure performed to correct pyloric stenosis in the newborn is ___?
|
Fredet-Ramstedt
|
|
the Heller procedure is performed to correct ___?
|
esophageal obstruction
|
|
the procedure to correct intrahepatic obstruction is ___?
|
portacaval shunt
|
|
a forceps commonly used to remove gallstones from the common bile duct during an open chole is ___?
|
Randall
|
|
the instrument used to grasp the appendix during an open appendectomy is ___?
|
Babcock
|
|
a herniation of the Douglas' cul-de-sac containing a loop of bowel is called a/an ___?
|
enterocele
|
|
a HUMI cannula would be used in what procedure?
|
tuboplasty
|
|
a colposcopy may be performed for suspected ___?
|
carcinoma in situ
|
|
a diagnostic procedure for suspected ectopic pregnancy is ___?
|
culdocentesis
|
|
how many sponge, sharp, and instrument counts does a cesarean section require?
|
four
|
|
if a tumor of an oveary is suspected to be malignant, what other organs will be excised?
|
both fallopian tubes, both ovaries, and uterus,
|
|
excision of the tunica vaginalis of the testis is called ___?
|
hydrocelectomy
|
|
female urethral dilation may be accomplished with ___?
|
McCarthy dilators
|
|
Satinsky, Herrick, and Mayo clamps can be used on the ___?
|
kidney pedicle
|
|
the anesthesia of choice for extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy is ___?
|
epidural
|
|
a diagnostic procedure performed for patients with possible prostatic cancer is ___?
|
needle biopsy
|
|
what non electrolytic and isosmotic solution is used during a TURP?
|
Glycine
|
|
why is it important for a patient to void prior to the beginning of a cystoscopy?
|
to rule out residual urine in the bladder
|
|
what instrument is used by the surgeon to intermittently remove prostatic tissue fragments during a TURP?
|
Ellik evacuator
|
|
the procedure in which the attenuated anterior capsule of the shoulder is reattached to the rim of the glenoid fossa with sutures is called a/an ___?
|
Bankart
|
|
Colles' fracture is often treated by ___?
|
closed reduction
|
|
fine hooks available in varying angles are essential dissecting tools to perform a ___?
|
stapendectomy
|
|
what instrument would be used to remove the septal cartilage during a rhinoplasty?
|
Jansen-Middleton forceps
|
|
Freer elevator, Bayonnet forceps, Potts forceps, or Cottle speculum; which is NOT found on a nasal setup?
|
Potts forceps
|
|
removal of an entire eyeball is called ___?
|
enucleation
|
|
a type of cataract extraction in which the lens and its capsule are removed is ___?
|
intracapsular
|
|
is vitrectomy a treatment for glaucoma?
|
no
|
|
which laser is best used during a vitrectomy?
|
argon
|
|
what instrument is used during a dacryocystorhinostomy?
|
ocillating saw
|
|
the pathology characterized by contraction of the the palmar fascia is ___?
|
Dupuytren's disease
|
|
after debridement of the stump and severed digit during replantation surgery, the next step is ___?
|
bone to bone attachment
|
|
the four agents mixed together for injecting during a tumescent liposuction are local anesthetic, epinephrine, saline, and ___?
|
Wydase
|
|
a procedure performed in pts with empyema is called ___?
|
pulmonary decortication
|
|
what type of retractor is a Bailey?
|
rib retractor
|
|
during a bronchoscopy, which solution is preferred for bronchial washing specimens?
|
sterile saline
|
|
what size of trocar is commonly used during a thoracoscopy?
|
10 mm
|
|
which synthetic material used for grafts requires preclotting?
|
Dacron knit polyester
|
|
the commonly used size of suture for peripheral vasculare anastomosis of the popliteal artery is ___?
|
5-0
|
|
the most common cause of intracerebral hemmorrhage is ___?
|
hypertension
|
|
Meniere's disease is associated with which cranial nerve?
|
VIII
|
|
the procedure that involves freeing up a nerve from adhesions for restoration of function is called ___?
|
neurolysis
|
|
the surgical resection of the dorsal root of a spinal nerve is called a ___?
|
rhizotomy
|
|
a procedure to remove intractable pain due to terminal cancer is ___?
|
cordotomy
|
|
are burr holes created for dysraphism?
|
no
|
|
what kind of neurological retractor is a Leyla-Yasargil?
|
self-retaining
|
|
Thrombin does not control bleeding in the skin and ___?
|
glia
|
|
the procedure to treat trigeminal neuralgia is ___?
|
decompression
|
|
to obtain hemostasis in neurosurgery, is monopolar electrosurgery or bipolar electrosurgery used?
|
bipolar
|
|
the self-retaining retractor used during a lumbar laminectomy is ___?
|
Beckman
|
|
is a burr used during a laminectomy or a craniotomy?
|
craniotomy
|
|
the dura mater is closed with what suture?
|
4-0 silk
|
|
during a craniotomy, the instrument commonly used to separate the dura from the cranium is a ___?
|
penfield dissector
|
|
where is the catheter placed when performing the procedure to treat hydrocephalus?
|
lateral ventricle
|
|
how long must a wrapped instrument set be steam sterilized for at 250 degrees?
|
30 minutes
|
|
Items that are mechanically cleaned and chemically disinfected, but not sterile are said to be ___?
|
surgically clean
|
|
as part of OR decontamination after a procedure, the suction canister containing blood and body fluids should be placed where?
|
biohazard bag
|
|
is hydrogen peroxide or ethylene oxide used to create gas plasma for sterilization purposes?
|
hydrogen peroxide
|
|
how long should the EtO biological indicator be incubated before the reading is recorded?
|
48 hours
|
|
what test is used to check for air entrapment in the prevacuum sterilizer?
|
Bowie-Dick test
|
|
where should the biological test pack be placed on the steam sterilizing cart?
|
bottom front
|
|
for EtO sterilized items, how long must they remain in an aerator being operated at 140?
|
8 hours
|
|
what term describes voltage that is strong enough to compromise the sterile glove, an insulator, causing a hole and possibly burning the individual?
|
dielectric breakdown
|
|
what determines if a laser is solid state, gas, liquid, or semiconductor?
|
gain medium
|
|
what type of laser has the most power output?
|
solid state
|
|
generally, where on the OR table is the robotic arm positioned for surgeries of the lower abdomen?
|
by pts head
|
|
what term refers to the robot's ability to differentiate between two objects?
|
resolution
|
|
when performing a lap chole, approximately where should the robotic arm be positioned on the OR table?
|
pt's right side, mid thigh
|
|
when setting the lower limit of the robotic arm, what is the rule of thumb for distance from the pt's skin surface?
|
1 cm or less
|
|
when performing a lap chole on an obese pt, what can be done to create additional space between the elbow of the robotic arm and the pt?
|
tilt mechanism
|
|
during a lap Nissen with access ports along the pt's midline, how should the leg be positioned on the side where the robotic arm is positioned?
|
extended laterally with leg supported
|
|
during a lap Nissen with access ports along the pt's midline, how is the table positioned after the trocars and manipulator have been placed?
|
reverse t-burg
|
|
when a surgeon is using surface based registration in order to perform a difficilt resection of a benign brain tumor, what is used to create the initial images of the brain?
|
MRI
|
|
when a surgeon is using surface based registration in order to perform a difficilt resection of a benign brain tumor, what piece of equipment is necessary to obtain 3-D coordinates in order to superimpose the scan based images on the head of the pt?
|
laser
|
|
when a surgeon is using surface based registration in order to perform a difficilt resection of a benign brain tumor,what term is used to describe the attainment of a 3-D simulation of the pt's tissues for practice prior to the procedure?
|
deformable modeling
|
|
which robotic device requires sterilization, the collar or the optics device?
|
collar
|
|
when performing a lap chole with a robotic arm, what anatomical landmark is used to line up th endoscope?
|
umbilicus
|
|
what is the area in the duodenum where the common bile duct and the pancreatic duct empty called?
|
Ampulla of Vater
|
|
the process by which glucose is stored in the liver and skeletal muscle cells as glycogen is called ___?
|
glycogenesis
|
|
When body cells require energy, what molecule is broken down?
|
ATP molecule
|
|
The fluid within the membranous labyrinth is called ___?
|
endolymph
|
|
intraocular pressure is primarily dependent on ___?
|
aqueous humor
|
|
the ciliary body is part of which layer of the eye?
|
vascular
|
|
a capillary network of blood vessels within the renal cortex that functions as a filter is called the ___?
|
glomerulus
|
|
the most abundant extracellular ion necessary for the transmission of impulses is ___?
|
sodium
|
|
the pacemaker of the heart is the ___?
|
SA node
|
|
which arteries are formed by the bifurcation of the abdominal aorta?
|
iliac
|
|
the process by which blood cells are formed is known as ___?
|
hemopoiesis
|
|
the pancreas lies behind the stomach and duodenum in the R and LUQ and is divided into ___ portions
|
3
|
|
which organ is responsible for the synthesis of many of the coagulation factors?
|
liver
|
|
do the pulmonary veins empty into the right atrium?
|
no
|
|
the medial malleolus is part of which bone?
|
tibia
|
|
the sutures of the skull are examples of what?
|
synarthrosis
|
|
what kind of joint is the thumb and trapezium?
|
saddle joint
|
|
smooth, sustained contractions produced by several very rapid stimuli are called ___?
|
tetanus
|
|
a large, bony process found on the femur is ___?
|
trochanter
|
|
the cranial bones are an example of what kind of bone?
|
flat
|
|
the acromium is part of which bone?
|
scapula
|
|
the olecranon is part of which bone?
|
ulna
|
|
is the styloid a carpal?
|
no
|
|
what type of bones are the vertebra?
|
irregular
|
|
what bones form the greater portion of the sides and roof of the cranial cavity?
|
parietal
|
|
where are the cruciate ligaments found in the knee?
|
lateral and medial
|
|
the mandible articulates with the ___?
|
temporal bone
|
|
the funnel-shaped open distal end of each fallopian tube is called ___?
|
infundibulum
|
|
the cranial nerve that contains special fibers for hearing as well as for balance is ___?
|
VIII vestibulocochlear
|
|
which cranial nerve emerges from the medulla, passes thru the skull, and descends thru the neck region into the thorax and abdominal region?
|
X vagus
|
|
the cranial nerve that carries motor fibers to the tounge and sensory impulses from the tongue to the brain is the ___?
|
VII hypoglossal
|
|
which crainial nerve carries impulses for sense of smell?
|
I olfactory
|
|
neurons that conduct impulses to the cardiac muscles are part of the ___?
|
autonomic nervous system
|
|
the contraction of involuntary muscles are controlled by ___?
|
autonomic nervous system
|
|
the neuroglia are cells that ___?
|
support and protect
|
|
the cytoplasmic process of a neuron that conducts impulses away from the cell body is ___?
|
axon
|
|
the 5th cranial nerve is also called the ___?
|
trigiminal nerve
|
|
the inner lining of the gastrointestinal tract is composed of ___?
|
epithelium
|
|
Which glands are located in the stomach?
|
parietal cells
|
|
the small intestine is drained by the ___?
|
hepatic portal vein
|
|
the pouches in the small intestine are called ___?
|
haustra
|
|
what are the pouches in the large intestine called?
|
haustra
|
|
the secretion of gastric juice is regulated by the impulses of what nerve?
|
vagus(X)cranial nerve
|
|
what does the left coronary artery divide into?
|
anterior descending and circumflex
|
|
where are the papillary muscles found?
|
in the ventricles of the heart
|
|
what vessel delivers blood from the gastrointestinal tract to the liver?
|
hepatic portal vein
|
|
which ligament stabilizes the duodenojejunal angle?
|
Treitz
|
|
which cranial nerve can be tested for sensations of pain, touch, and temperature with the use of a safety pin and hot and cold objects?
|
trigeminal V
|
|
the atrioventricular (AV) valve between the left atruim and the left ventricle is the ___?
|
bicuspid (mitral) valve
|
|
into which chamber of the heart do the pulmonary veins empty?
|
left atrium
|
|
the simplist form of cell organization is the ___?
|
bacteria
|
|
is Streptococcus gram-positive or gram-negative?
|
gram-positive
|
|
what bacteria is freqently found in soil, water, sewage, debris, and air?
|
pseudomonas aeruginosa
|
|
the division of a reproductive cell into two cells with 23 chromosomes each is called ___?
|
meiosis
|
|
An acid-fast test is used to identify ___?
|
tuberculosis
|
|
what is the most common brain disorder?
|
cerebrovascular accidents
|
|
memory impairments result from lesions in the ___?
|
limbic system
|
|
what condition affectes the medulla of the adrenal gland and causes the overproduction of adrenaline?
|
pheochromocytoma
|
|
what enzyme is used before cataract surgery to soften the zonules of the lens?
|
alpha-chymotrypsin
|
|
balanced anesthesia is sometimes referred to as ___?
|
neuroleptanesthesia
|
|
Merperidine hydrochloride (Demerol) is a/an ___?
|
analgesic
|
|
an emergency drug useful in stablizing ventricular fibrillation is ___?
|
propranolol hydrochloride (Inderal)
|
|
the operative stage of anesthesia is the ___?
|
third stage
|
|
Tetracaine (Pontocaine) is an example of what kind of anesthetic?
|
topical
|
|
A short-acting narcotic opioid given intramuscularly for premedication is ___?
|
merperidine hydrochloride (Demerol)
|
|
what agent is commonly given preoperatively to inhibit the production of gastric acid?
|
climetidine
|
|
an anticoagulant given for its antagonistic effect on heparin is ___?
|
protamine sulfate
|
|
the test that determines the ratio of RBCs to whole blood is the ___?
|
hematocrit
|
|
in a cardiac arrest, atropine might be administered to treat ___?
|
severe bradycardia
|
|
Mannitol is used in neurosurgery to ___?
|
reduce swelling of brain tissue
|
|
a mitotic drug used to constrict the pupil to reduce intraocular pressure is ___?
|
pilocarpine hydrochloride
|
|
a local anesthetic agent employed for filtration anesthesia during ophthalmic surgery is ___?
|
lidocaine
|
|
a benzodiazepine sedative given intramuscularly for premedication is ___?
|
midazolam (Versed)
|
|
what drug is a dye used to evaluate the corneal epithelium?
|
fluorescein
|
|
dilating drops are called ___?
|
mydriatics
|
|
is synchondrosis containing hyaline cartilage a characteristic of a synovial joint?
|
no
|
|
vaccination is an example of ___?
|
artificial active immunity
|
|
what kind of transport mechanism is phagocytosis?
|
active transport
|
|
when performing the preop shave, nicks and cuts are considered a clean wound for up to ___ minutes?
|
30
|
|
under what circumstances can the pt's hospital ID bracelet be removed?
|
never
|
|
how many times is the pt ID confirmed before transporting form the ward room to the surgery dept?
|
5
|
|
if a descrepancy occurs in the ID of a pt on the hospital ward, what action should be taken?
|
do not transport to OR and inform OR personnel
|
|
what position is most commonly used for tonsillectomy performed under local anesthesia?
|
Fowler's
|
|
in the lateral chest position, a sandbag or padding is placed under the chest at aillary level to do what?
|
to prevent pressure on the lower arm
|
|
ulnar nerve damage could reusl from ___?
|
use of an unpadded armboard
|
|
stirrups that are not padded or are improperly placed on the Or table can cause pressure on the ___?
|
peroneal nerve
|
|
In the Kraske position, are the arms tucked at the pt's sides?
|
no
|
|
the femoral nerve can be damaged if ___?
|
retractors are placed improperly during pelvic surgery
|
|
the surgical poition commonly used for thyroid and gallbladder surgery is ___?
|
reverse trendelenburg
|
|
in the prone position, which nerve could be compressed against the humerus?
|
radial
|
|
a small pad placed under a pt's head in the supine position allows which muscles to relax?
|
strap
|
|
what size Foley catheter is commonly used for adults?
|
16 Fr
|
|
what aqent is commonly used when performing a pt skin prep of the eye?
|
Triclosan
|
|
What should be prepped last when performing pt skin prep?
|
stoma
|
|
when draping a prep table, the first scrub surgical tech should drape from ___?
|
front to back
|
|
in what type of set would Bennett, Hohmann, and Richardson retractors be found in?
|
major orthopedic
|
|
in what type of set would a Ragnell retractor be found in ?
|
hand tray
|
|
in what type of procedures is a Joseph elevator used?
|
Rhinologic
|
|
an Allen clamp is used in what type of surgery?
|
gastrointestinal
|
|
the Hurd tonsil dissector and Pillar retractor is a double ended instrument used in what procedures?
|
tonsillectomy
|
|
what type of uterine dilator is shaped like an elongated "S"?
|
Hank uterine dilator
|
|
what tissue forceps has a row of small teeth at the end of each tip and is ideal for grasping sub-q, tendon, or muscle?
|
Brown tissue forceps
|
|
what instrument is inserted into the anus and has a groove thru which the surgeon can view the rectal canal and insert instruments?
|
Hill-Ferguson retractor
|
|
what osteotome is frequently used to cut bone, such as to obtain bone for a graft?
|
Lambotte
|
|
is it the Frazier suction tip or the Baron suction tip that has an oval portion for the thumb to be placed on?
|
Baron suction tip
|
|
what instrument can be inserted into the cystic duct to remove gallstones during and open chole?
|
Mayo gallstone scoop
|
|
what laser is used to coagulate bleeders during an endoscopic procedure?
|
Nd:YAG
|
|
how often should a tourniquet applied to an adult leg be periodically deflated?
|
every 1.5 hours
|
|
what laser is used to treat retinopathy?
|
Argon
|
|
at what pressure should the tourniquet be set for an adult thigh?
|
300-350 mm Hg
|
|
the most common nosocomial infections are ___?
|
UTI with catheter use
|
|
a pt who underwent a bronchoscopy is diagnosed with a Pseudomonas aeruginosa infection, which is traced to this type of infection:
|
cross-contamination
|
|
what is the proper procedure for turning the gown?
|
hand tag to circulator; circulator moves around gown
|
|
if a sterile glove becomes contaminated during a procedure, what action should the scrub take?
|
circulator pulls off glove; scrub is regloved by another sterile team member.
|
|
what is the proper procedure to follow when a sponge pack contains an incorrect number of sponges?
|
hand off the field and isolate
|
|
what type of drape would be used for a kidney procedure?
|
transverse drape
|
|
the recommended number of air exchanges per hour in an OR is ___?
|
20
|
|
the relative humidity in an OR should be maintained at ___?
|
50%-60%
|
|
a ventilation system that provides a rapid air exchange in a unidirectional flow is called ___?
|
laminar air flow
|
|
what does the prostate gland secrete?
|
alkaline fluid
|
|
what is the most abundant ion in the body?
|
calcium
|
|
where does the anterior chamber of the eye lie?
|
behind the cornea and in front of the iris
|
|
where is aqueous humor found?
|
in the anterior chamber of the eye
|
|
where do the ureters enter the bladder?
|
medially from the posterior aspect
|
|
the conducting fibers that run from the AV node down the interventricular septum are referred to as what?
|
Bundle of His
|
|
testosterone is secreted by what?
|
Cells of Leydig
|
|
inhibin is produced by what?
|
Sertoli's cells
|
|
the relationship in which organisms occupy the same habitat but do not affect each other is known as ___?
|
neutralism
|
|
a steroid used topically to diminish inflammation after eye surgery is ___?
|
methylprednisolone acetate (Depo-Medrol)
|
|
musclear fasciculation refers to ___?
|
involuntary muscle contractions
|
|
a nonproprietary name for a drug, usually selected by the original developer of the drug, is ___?
|
generic
|
|
the IV barbituate general anesthesia used for induction most frequently is ___?
|
thiopental sodium (Pentothal
|
|
intubation occurs during which phase of anesthesia?
|
induction
|
|
an emergency drug used in cardiac surgery that increases myocardial contractility is ___?
|
calcium chloride
|
|
a drug used to reverse hypotension is ___?
|
levarterenol (Levophed)
|
|
a barbituate that may be used for sleep the night before surgery is ___?
|
secobarbital (Seconal)
|
|
the purpose of administering atropine preoperatively is to ___?
|
inhibit secretions
|
|
one gram equals ___?
|
15 grains
|
|
what amount is approximately equal to 500 ml?
|
1 pint
|
|
an anticoagulant given for its antagonistic effect on heparin is ___?
|
protamine sulfate
|
|
an anticholinergic drug given preoperatively to inhibit mucous secretion is ___?
|
atropine
|
|
the universal recipient blood type is ___?
|
AB
|
|
what agent is a radiopaque contrast medium used during operative cholangiograms?
|
Hypaque
|
|
a cylcoplegic drug used to dilate the pupil is ___?
|
tropicamide (Mydriacyl)
|
|
an enzyme that is mixed with ophthalmic anesthetic solutions for infiltration anesthesia is ___?
|
hyaluronidase (Wydase)
|
|
is Versed an antimuscarinic?
|
no
|
|
what drug is used for irrigating the eye and keeping the cornea moist?
|
balanced salt solution (BSS)
|
|
ADENEXA REFERS TO
|
ACCESSORY ORGANS
|
|
A DROP IS DENOTED BY THE ABBREVIATION
|
gt
|
|
THE ABBREVIATION ung REFERS TO
|
OINTMENT
|
|
PROXIMAL IS A TERM THAT INDICATES A POINT
|
NEAR TO THE BODY
|
|
ADDUCTION MEANS
|
MOVEMENT TOWARD MEDIAN PLANE
|
|
ISCHEMIC CAN BE DEFINED AS
|
A decreased supply of oxygenated blood to the body part or organ
|
|
A cystocele
|
is a herniation of the urinary bladder
|
|
Nulli is a prefix that means
|
none
|
|
False is indicated by the prefix
|
pseudo
|
|
Tiny red or purple spots on the skin appearing as a result of small hemorrhages within the dermal or submucosal layers are called
|
petechiae
|
|
Kerato refers to
|
horny or cornea
|
|
The suffix lysis means
|
breaking down
|
|
The left eye is indicated by the following letters
|
OS
|
|
Tissue death is called
|
necrosis
|
|
The secretion of excessive sweat is also known as
|
diaphoresis
|
|
Which radiografphic procedure has the ability to make images in multiple planes
|
MRI
|
|
The abscence of a normal body opening, duct, or canal is called
|
Atresia
|
|
Epistaxis can be defined as
|
bleeding from the nose
|
|
Blood gas analysis is called
|
ABG
|
|
A ganglion is
|
collection of nerve endings
|
|
The lungs are covered in a serous membranous sac called the
|
visceral pleura
|
|
the passageway for food and liquids into the digestive system, and for air into the respiratory system, is the
|
pharynx
|
|
The vocal cords are located in the
|
larynx
|
|
The function of the trachea is to
|
conduct air to and from the lungs
|
|
The nasal cavity is divided into two portions by the
|
septum
|
|
The bones of the palm of the hand are referred to as
|
metacarpals
|
|
The muscles important in respiration are
|
intercostal
|
|
The thick, fan-shaped muscle that lies on the anterior chest is the
|
pectoralis major
|
|
The triangular muscle of the shoulder that abducts the arm is the
|
deltoid
|
|
which of the abdominal muscles orginigates at the pubic bone and ends in the ribs
|
*RECTUS ABDOMINIS
|
|
One of the principal muscle of the pelvic floor is the
|
levator ani
|
|
The gastrocnemius is the chief muscle of the
|
calf of the leg
|
|
A connective tissue band that holds bones together is called
|
ligament
|
|
The two bones that form the side walls and the roof of the cranium are the
|
parietal bones
|
|
The sternocleidomastoid muscle is located
|
along the side of the neck
|
|
The medial bone of the forearm, which is located on the small-finer side of the hand is called the
|
ulna
|
|
The bone that is shaped like butterfly and forms the anterior portion fo the base of the cranium is the
|
Sphenoid
|
|
The bone that forms the posterior portion of the skull is the
|
occipital
|
|
The lower jawbone is the
|
mandibule
|
|
The adult vertebral column has
|
26 bones
|
|
The conjuntiva is
|
the covering of the anterior globe except the cornea
|
|
The part of the brain responsible for maintenance of balanced and muscle tone, as well as coordination of voluntary muscle is
|
the cerebellum
|
|
The area of the brain that controls the respiratory center is the
|
medulla oblongata
|
|
The largest part of the brain is the
|
cerebrum
|
|
The winding cone-shaped tube of the iner ear is the
|
cochlea
|
|
the vein in the bend of the elbow that is commonly used as a site for veinpuncuture is the
|
median cubital vein
|
|
The superior and inferior mesenteric arteries supply the
|
intestines
|
|
the vein that drains the veins of the chest wall and epties into the superior vena cava is the
|
azygos vein
|
|
The AV node causes
|
ventricular contraction
|
|
The descending aorta termiantes at the level of the fourth lumbar vertebra, dividing into
|
two common iliac arteries
|
|
Tiny blood vessels that permeate and nourish tissue are called
|
capillaries
|
|
the reabsorption of water and electrolytes is the main function of the
|
large intestine
|
|
The terminal portion of the large intestine is the
|
anal canal
|
|
Which structure is known as the "fatty appron"?
|
greater omentum
|
|
The common bile duct is the union of the
|
cystic duct and hepatic duct
|
|
the function of the molar teeth is to
|
crush and grind food
|
|
mumps occur in the
|
parotid glands
|
|
The supporting structure of the male reproductive system is the
|
spermatic cord
|
|
Staphylococcus aureus would most likely be transmitted by
|
nose and mouth
|
|
Rod-like shaped bacteria are identified microscopically as
|
bacili
|
|
What organism is responsible for a boil
|
Staphylococcus aureus
|
|
the burn classification that is characterized by a dry, pearly white, or charred-appearing surface is
|
third degree burn
|
|
OSHA Is a governmental regulating agency whose aim is to
|
execute requirementes designed to prevent transmission of blood-borne pathogens in the work enviroment
|
|
A wound that is infected or one in which there is excessive loss of tissue heals by
|
secondary intention
|
|
the type of wound healing that requires debridement is
|
third
|
|
a drug that interferes with the blood clotting mechanism is
|
Heparin
|
|
An mg is a measurement of
|
weight
|
|
The solutios used intravenously to replace plasma when plasma is not available is
|
Dextran
|
|
a drug that increase blood pressure
|
epinephrine
|
|
the action of an anticholinergic drug is to reduce
|
secretions
|
|
Nalaxone (Narcan) is an example of a
|
narcotic
|
|
Avitene is
|
a hemostatic
|
|
An absorbable gelatin hemostatic agent that is often soked in thrombin or epinephrine solution is
|
Gelfoam
|
|
Each of the following agents must be applied using dry gloves or instruments EXCEPT
|
*GELFOAM, collastat, avitene, helistat
|
|
An anticoagulant given subcutaneously, intravenously or as a flush is
|
heparin
|
|
A drug that decreases the tendency of plood platelets to clot is
|
warfarin sodium
|
|
an antibiotic used intraoperatively is
|
Gentamicin
|
|
a topical antibiotic is
|
Bacitracin
|
|
An osmotic diuretic agent used to decrese cerebral edema and intraocular edema is
|
manitol
|
|
A systemic agent used to control uterine hemorrhage is
|
pitocin
|
|
Solu-Medrol is an
|
anti-inflammatory
|
|
Tubal patency may be tested by the installation of _________ into the uterine cavity
|
methylene blue
|
|
A mydriatic drug, Neo-Synephrine, is used to
|
dilate the pupil
|
|
Immobility of the eye, along with lowered intra-ocular pressure is facillitated by the use of
|
retrobulbar block
|
|
Miochol is a
|
miotic
|
|
Heparin effects are reversed by
|
protamine sulfate
|
|
Levophed
|
restores and maintains blood pressure
|
|
A drug used to trear metabolic acidosis is
|
sodium bicarbonate
|
|
Neuroleptoanalgesia combines
|
a tranquilizer and narcotic
|
|
The most frequently used barbiturate for intravenous anesthesia is
|
pentothal
|
|
Halothane is also called
|
Flouthane
|
|
The indication for an epidural would be
|
anorectal, vaginal, perineal and obstetric procedures
|
|
Compazine is
|
an antiemetic
|
|
Pontocaine is
|
tetracaine HCL
|
|
A drug used to reverse hypotension is
|
Levophed
|
|
A drug that could be used to reverse the effects of muscle relaxants is
|
Prostigmin
|
|
Which piece of ewuipment of extreme importnace when anesthesia induction begins
|
suction
|
|
The minimum distance a nonsterile person should remain from a sterile field is
|
1 foot
|
|
Identify which of the following is not safe practice
|
sterile tables may be covered from later use
|
|
Tables are considered steril
|
only on the top
|
|
At the end of the case, drapes should be
|
checked for instruments, rolled off, and placed in a hamper
|
|
if a solution soaks through a sterile drape
|
cover wet area with imprevious sterile drape or towel
|
|
The pounds of pressure necessary in a steam sterilizer set at 250oF is
|
15 - 17
|
|
Positive assurance that sterilization conditions have been achieved can only be obtained through
|
biological control test
|
|
A wrapped tray of instruments is sterilized in a gravity displacement sterilizer at 250oF for
|
30 minutes
|
|
The minimum exposure time for unwrapped instruments in a flash sterilizer that is set at 270oF (132oC) is
|
3 minutes
|
|
When steam is used to sterilize a rubber tubing or catheter
|
a residual of distilled water should be left inside the lumen
|
|
To be sterilized effectively, a linen pack must not weigh more than
|
12 pounds
|
|
gravity displacement utilizes _______ to destroy microorganisms
|
steam
|
|
The process called cavitation occurs in the
|
ultrasonic cleaner
|
|
All of the following statements regarding instruments sets are true EXCEPT
|
instruments must be placed in perforated trays, heavy instruments are placed ont he bottom, *ALL INSTRUMENTS MUST BE CLOSED, all detachable parts must be disassembled
|
|
all of the following statements regarding steam sterilization are true EXCEPT
|
flat packages are placed on the shelf on edge, small packages, placed one on top of the other, are criss-crossed, basins are placed on their sides, * SOLUTIONS MAY BE AUTOCLAVED ALONG WITH OTHER ITEMS AS LONG AS THEY ARE ON A SHELF ALONE
|
|
Wrapped basin sets may be sterilized by steam under pressure at 250oF for a minimum of
|
20 minutes
|
|
Which of the following statements regarding the sterilization of basin sets is true
|
basins must be separated by a porous material if they are nested
|
|
Why would gas sterilization be chosen over steam sterilization
|
it is less damaging to items
|
|
The chemical agent used in gas sterilization is
|
ethylene oxide
|
|
What chemical system uses peracetic acid as the sterilant
|
steris
|
|
The lumen of a tubing undergoing ethylene oxice (EO) sterilization is
|
dried thoroughly
|
|
Why is ethylene oxide diluted with an inert gas such as chloroflurocarbon
|
it provides flame retardation
|
|
In a high-speed flash sterilizer, unwrapped instruments are exposed for a minimum of
|
3 minutes
|
|
To kill spores, an item must be immersed in a 2% aqueous solution of glutaraldehyde for
|
10 hours
|
|
"Slow exhaust" in a gravity displacement steam sterilizer is used for
|
solutions
|
|
Oil is best sterilized by
|
convection hot air
|
|
what is the function of an aerator in EO sterilization
|
it is a separate unit used to decrese the aeration time
|
|
Ethylene oxide destroys cells by
|
interfering with the normal metabolism of the protein and reporductive precesses
|
|
Activated glutaraldehyde is used to disinfect endoscopes for
|
20 minutes
|
|
when using a high-level disinfectant, always
|
rinse items with sterile distilled water before using
|
|
the chemical sterilant used in the STERIS method of sterilizing is
|
peracetic acid
|
|
The Endoflush system
|
initially cleans reusable channeled instruments
|
|
Which of the following is not an acceptable wrapper for gas sterilizaation
|
nylon
|
|
Which of the following is the only acceptable plastic that can be used for a steam sterilization wrapper
|
polypropylene
|
|
an item dropped on the floor is considered safe only if
|
it is enclosed in an imprevious material
|
|
The room temperature in an OR should be
|
between 68 and 76oF
|
|
If an OR staff member wears eyeglasses
|
the glasses should be wiped with an antiseptic solution before each operation
|
|
The most effective protection from the radiation of x-rays is a
|
lead apron
|
|
It is considered good technique to
|
handle the mask only by the strings
|
|
sterile gloves
|
should be wiped off after donning to remove lubricant
|
|
electrical cords should be
|
removed from pathways so equipment is not rolled over them
|
|
Scatter radiation effects are directly related to
|
amount of radiation and length of exposure time
|
|
when using a patient roller, how many people are necessary to move the patient safely and efficiently
|
four
|
|
To move the patient from the transport stretcher to the OR table
|
one person stands next to the stretcher, one adjacent to the OR table, while the patien moves over
|
|
When moving a patient with a fracture in the OR< all of the following are true EXCEPT
|
extra personnel necessary, SUPPORT OF THE EXTREMITY SHOULD ALWAYS BE FROM BELOW THE SITE OF FRACTURE, lifters on the affected side support the fracture, the surgeon should be present
|
|
To avoid compromising the venous circulation, the restraint or safety strap should be placed:
|
2 inches above the knee
|
|
A patient with a fractured femur is being moved to the OR table, who is responsible for supporting and protecting the fracture site?
|
the physician
|
|
Crossing the patient's arms across his or her chest may cause
|
interference with respiration
|
|
A precaution always taken when the patient is in the supine position is to
|
protect the heels from pressure on the OR table
|
|
During lateral position a
|
pillow is placed between the legs
|
|
To prevent strain to the lumbosacral muscles and ligaments when the patient is in the lithotomy position:
|
the buttocks must not extend beyond the table edge
|
|
When using an armboard, the most important measure is to
|
avoid hyperextension of the arm
|
|
Anesthetized patients should be moved slowly to
|
allow the circulatory system to adjust
|
|
If the patient is in a supine position, the circulator must always
|
see that the ankles and legs are not crossed
|
|
Diastolic blood pressure refers to
|
the relaxation phase between heartbeats
|
|
Systolic blood pressure represents
|
the greatest force caused by contraction of the left bentricle of the heart
|
|
tachycardia is a(n)
|
heartbeat over 100 beats per minute
|
|
the most common artery used to feel the pulse is the
|
radial artery
|
|
the body temperature taken orally is 98.6oF what is it in Celsius?
|
37oC
|
|
which term indicates low or decreased blood volume?
|
hupovolemia
|
|
If the suregeon wants to assess the patient's ability to void voluntarily via the urethra, yet sees the need for urinary drainage, he could use a
|
Bonanno suprapubic catheter
|
|
When catheterizing a patient
|
the tip of the catheter must be kept sterile
|
|
in which burn classification are the skin and subcutaneous tissue destroyed
|
third
|
|
Uncontrolled increased positive pressure in one side of the thorax causes collapse of the opposite side, which is called
|
mediastinal shift
|
|
why is the obese patient at greater surgical risk than one of normal weight
|
fat has poor vascularity
|
|
when drawing a blood sample for ABG's what is considered a safe time laps between blood drawing and analysis
|
10 minutes
|
|
The preop urinalysis test done on a patient inidicates that the specific gravity is 1.050 this
|
is above normal range and her or she is dehydrated
|
|
A type and crossmatch is done
|
if the surgeons anticipates in advance of the operation that blood loss replacement may be necessary
|
|
A patient scheduled for surgery has a hematocrit reading of 40% of whole blood volumen. This is
|
within normal range
|
|
Inherited deficiencies of coagulation in which bleeding occurs spontaneously after minor trauma is
|
hemophilia
|
|
Preoperative chest x-rays
|
should be done on all surgical patients
|
|
An electrocardiogram is
|
an electrical recording of heart activity
|
|
After being shceduled in the OR for a routine tonsillectomy, the nurese checking the chart of a patient notes that the hemoglobin is 9.0gr This reading is
|
below normal range
|
|
A microscopic blood exam that estimates the percentages of each type of white cell is called a
|
differential blood count
|
|
Operative records documenting all aspects of perioperative care are required by
|
JCHO
|
|
Except for endotracheal tube installation, basic life support cannot be interrupted for more than
|
5 seconds
|
|
External caridac compression
|
provides oxygen to vital tissues
|
|
which action is the responsibility of the scrub person during an intraoperative CPR effort?
|
remain sterile, keep track of counted items, and assist as necessary
|
|
A pt was burned on the lip with a hot mouth gag. Which of the following actions would have prevented this incident
|
the scrub nurse cooled the item in a basin with sterile water
|
|
a pt signs a permission form for surgery, but because a language barrier he didn't understand what he has signed. This could constitute a liability case for
|
assault and battery
|
|
If a pt falls because he was left unattended, the OR team member could be cited in a lawsuit for
|
abandonment
|
|
Which is not considered a safe procedure when caring for dentures inadvertently sent to the OR
|
wrap in a plastic bag and attach to the patient's chart
|
|
A lack of care or skill that any nurse or tech in the same situation would be expected to use is the leagal definition of
|
negligence
|
|
The leagal doctrine that mandates every pfordessional nurese and tech to carry out theoir duties according to the nat. standards of care practiced throughout the country is
|
Doctrine of Resonable Man
|
|
The doctrine of Respondeat Superior refers to
|
employer liability for employee's negligent conduct
|
|
Liability is a legal rule that
|
holds each individuals responsible for his or her own actions
|
|
a criteria that identifies, measures, monitors and evaluates patient care is
|
quality assurance programs
|
|
In which way could a patient's response to impending surgery exchibit itself
|
tension and anxiety, fear and suspicion, anger and hostility, ALL OF THE ABOVE
|
|
Excessive exposure to radiation can affect the
|
reporductive organs
|
|
radiation exposure of the staff is monitored with
|
film badges
|
|
ionizing radiation protection is afforded by the use of
|
lead
|
|
a potential safety hazard associated with laser surgery is
|
eye injury
|
|
An OR hazard that has been linked to increased risk of spontaneous abortion in female OR employees is exposure to
|
waste anesthetic gas
|
|
Which virus can be transmitted by a needle puncture or splash in the eye
|
Hepatitis B
|
|
While using the mixture, a scavenging system is used to collect and exhaust or absorb its vapors, IT is called
|
methylmethacrylate
|
|
The best measure for staff protection against HIV is
|
handling all needles and sharps carefully and using barriers to avoid direct contact with blood and body fluids
|
|
Which body organ is most susceptible to laser injury
|
the eye
|
|
how is inhalation of the laser plume best prevented
|
with mechanical smoke evacuator or suction with a high efficiency filter
|
|
When using electrosurgery, what device delivers the current to the patient?
|
active electrode
|
|
What type of current does electrosurgery utilize?
|
alternating current
|
|
When the current passes through the active electrode, the energy is converted from electrical to?
|
magnetic
|
|
What term describes voltage that is strong enough to compromise the sterile glove, an insulator, causing a hole and possibly burning the individual?
|
dielectric breakdown
|
|
Lasers, power drills, and electrosurgical units can produce a?
|
plume of vaporized tissue
|
|
A small power drill has 60hz. What is the interpretation of 60hz?
|
60 ac cycles per second
|
|
In the OR, what should never be removed from a 3 prong plug in order to make it fit a 2-prong plug in?
|
ground prong
|
|
What determines if a laser is solid state, gas, liquid, or semiconductor?
|
gain medium
|
|
What type of laser has the most power output?
|
solid state
|
|
Ultrasound is an example of the medical application of the physics principle of?
|
refraction
|
|
When the arm of a laser hits the OR wall, what is the concern of the surgical team?
|
laser mirrors will be out of alignment
|
|
In terms of physical principles, how is a laser similar to an endoscope?
|
both emit light
|
|
What term is used to refer to performing surgery at a distance with robotic arm?
|
telesurgery
|
|
What is the technical term for robotic arm?
|
manipulators
|
|
What important component of the remote console sends messages to the computer which in turn translates the surgeon's hand movement to the robotic arm?
|
micromanipulators
|
|
The robotic arm's clockwise and counterclockwise movements around an axis are referred to as?
|
degrees of rotation
|
|
A right and left movement of the robotic arm is called?
|
yaw
|
|
Generally, where on the OR table is the robotic arm positioned for surgeries of the lower abdomen?
|
by patient's head
|
|
What term refers to the robot's ability to differentiate between two objects?
|
resolution
|
|
What term is used to refer to remotely controlled robots?
|
telechir
|
|
What term is used to refer to the rotating movement of the robotic arm?
|
roll
|
|
On a laparoscopic cholecystectomy, where should the robotic arm be positioned?
|
patient's right side, mid-thigh
|
|
When setting the lower limit of the robotic arm, what is the rule of thumb for distance from the patient's skin surface?
|
1 centimeter or less
|
|
When performing a laparascopic cholecystectomy on an obese patient, what can be done to create additional space between the elbow of the robotic arm & patient?
|
tilt mechanism
|
|
What term refers to the up and down movement of the robotic arm?
|
pitch
|
|
The complete displacement of a joint is referred to as a?
|
dislocation
|
|
A cyst in the popliteal fossa is called a?
|
baker's cyst
|
|
The medical term for a bunion is?
|
hallux valgus
|
|
Plaster rolls for casting should be submerged in?
|
slightly warm
|
|
A fractured metacarpal would require a?
|
short arm cast
|
|
Which of the following terms describes a fracture in which the bone penetrates the skin?
|
compound
|
|
A Putti-Platt procedure is performed on the?
|
shoulder
|
|
A fracture of the neck of the femur would require a?
|
cannulated screw
|
|
A bucket-handle tear in the medial cartilage of the knee is repaired by performing which of the following?
|
meniscectomy
|
|
A surgical procedure in which a join is fused to prevent movement is called a?
|
arthrodesis
|
|
The procedure in which the attenuated anterior capsule of the shoulder is reattached to the rim of the glenoid fossa with sutures is called a?
|
bankart
|
|
A Keller arthroplasty or McBride procedure is performed to treat?
|
bunions
|
|
The procedure in which the ulnar nerve is moved from the ulnar groove position on the posterior of the humerus to the anterior of the humeral condyle is called a?
|
transposition
|
|
Which of the following procedures would require the postoperative use of an abduction splint?
|
total hip arthroplasty
|
|
Which of the following surgical instruments would be used to retract the muscles during a hip pinning?
|
bennett retractor
|
|
Which of the following anatomical structures is the best site for the removal of cortical bone for grafting purposes?
|
ilium
|
|
Methyl methacrylate would most likely be used on which of the following procedures?
|
total knee arthroplasty
|
|
How is the patient positioned for a knee arthroscopy?
|
supine, knee at lower break of OR table
|
|
Which of the following is not a type of interlocking nail used for a closed intramedullary nailing?
|
austin moore
|
|
Luque rods are used for?
|
spinal deformities
|
|
A dorsally angulated fracture of the distal radius is called a?
|
smith's fracture
|
|
Which of the following conditions would be cause for the patient to undergo a total hip arthroplasty?
|
osteoarthritis
|
|
Femoral shaft fractures in an adult can be repaired by?
|
compression plating
|
|
Colle's fracture is often treated by?
|
closed reduction
|
|
Intertrochanteric fractures most often occur in which age population?
|
elderly
|
|
A Neer prosthesis is used for repair of comminuted fractures of the?
|
humeral head
|
|
A fracture of the femoral shaft would require a?
|
hip spica cast
|
|
What procedure is performed to correct talipes valgus or talipes varus?
|
triple arthrodesis
|
|
What surgical instrument is used to prepare the drilled hole for the screw during an ORIF?
|
tap
|
|
Which type of laser is used to remove methyl methacrylate from a cemented joint implant during a revision arthroplasty?
|
carbon dioxide
|
|
What surgical procedure is performed to relieve pressure on the median nerve?
|
carpal tunnel release
|
|
What specialized type of retractors is used during a rotator cuff repair that aids in exposure of the surgical site?
|
bankart
|
|
What item should be available during a total hip arthroplasty to be inserted into the reamed femoral canal that will prevent methyl methacrylate from entering the medullary canal?
|
cement restrictor
|
|
What is the definition of otosclerosis?
|
hardening of spongy bone in ear
|
|
Meniere's syndrome involves the?
|
inner ear
|
|
Untreated acute otitis media may result in?
|
mastoiditis
|
|
Otoplasty is performed to correct a congenital deformity of the?
|
ear
|
|
Fine hooks available in varying angles are essential dissecting tools to perform a?
|
stapedectomy
|
|
A surgical instrument not used for a nasal fracture?
|
pillar retractor
|
|
Which surgical instrument would you need to remove the septal cartilage during a rhinoplasty?
|
jansen-middleton forceps
|
|
An instrument not used in a tonsillectomy setup?
|
freer elevator
|
|
An instrument not need for a nasal set up?
|
potts forcep
|
|
In what postoperative position is a patient placed following a tonsillectomy?
|
lateral
|
|
An accumulation of squamous epithelium that forms a mass destructive to the middle ear is?
|
cholesteatoma
|
|
The incision for Caldwell-Luc procedure involves the?
|
canine fossa
|
|
Excision of lymphoid tissue at the roof of the nasopharynx and above the soft palate to facilitate breathing is a?
|
adenoidectomy
|
|
Surgical correction of a deviated septum is a?
|
septoplasty
|
|
A plastic procedure performed to correct protruding ear is?
|
otoplasty
|
|
Glossectomy is removal of?
|
tongue
|
|
A surgical procedure for the treatment of acute otitis media is?
|
myringotomy
|
|
The most common cause of retinal detachment is?
|
trauma
|
|
A fleshy encroachment of conjunctiva onto the cornea is a?
|
pterygium
|
|
Blockage of the canal of Schlemm will cause?
|
glaucoma
|
|
An uneven curvatue of the cornea is known as?
|
astigmatism
|
|
The procedure of choice for a detached retina is?
|
scleral buckling
|
|
Removal of an entire eyeball is called?
|
enucleation
|
|
The inability to direct both eyes at the same object is called?
|
strabismus
|
|
A type of cataract extraction in which the lens and its capsule are removed is?
|
intracapsular
|
|
Which instrument would not be used during a vitrectomy?
|
trephine
|
|
Which is not a procedure for treatment of glaucoma?
|
vitrectomy
|
|
Intraocular pressure is measured with the use for a?
|
tonometer
|
|
Which instrument would be used during a keratoplasty?
|
cottingham punch
|
|
The procedure performed to improve the vision of patients with myopia is?
|
radial keratotomy
|
|
A condition that causes the sudden onset of the appearance of floating spots before the eye is?
|
retinal detachment
|
|
Which instrument is used to make the corneal cut during a keratoplasty?
|
corneal trephine
|
|
Which method uses ultrasonic energy to fragment the lens?
|
phacoemulsification
|
|
Which laser is best used during a vitrectomy?
|
argon
|
|
Which drug is a miotic?
|
pilocarpine
|
|
which instrument would be used during a dacryocystorhinostomy?
|
oscillating saw
|
|
Which muscle is involved in resection for strabismus correction?
|
lateral rectus
|
|
The layers of the skin included in a full thickness graft is?
|
epidermis and dermis
|
|
The degree of burn that destroys all layers of the skin and includes subcutaneous tissue is?
|
third
|
|
Microatia refers to?
|
absence of auricle
|
|
The medical term rhytidectomy refers to a?
|
facelift
|
|
What degree of burn is the common sunburn?
|
first
|
|
The medical term for charred and pearly white appearance of tissue damaged by a third degree burn is?
|
eschar
|
|
According to the Rule of Nines, what percentage is assigned to the front and back of the trunk of the body?
|
18%
|
|
The pathology characterized by contraction of the palmar fascia is?
|
dupuytren's disease
|
|
The device used to expand the size of a split thichness skin graft is a?
|
mesh graft
|
|
The sterile liquid placed on the donor skin site as a lubricant when a split thickness skin graft is taken is?
|
mineral oil
|
|
During a repair of cheiloschisis, the procedure in which tissue from the cheek is used to cover the defect is?
|
triangular flap cheiloplasty
|
|
During surgery for De Quervain's disease the tendons are released by cutting the?
|
dorsal carpal ligament
|
|
After debridement of the stump and severed digit during replantation surgery the next step is?
|
bone to bone attachment
|
|
During a pedicle flap mammoplasty reconstruction a commonly used muscle is the?
|
transverse rectus abdominis
|
|
The term mentoplasty refers to plastic surgery of the?
|
chin
|
|
when performing a rhinoplasty, the hum in the nose is removed with a?
|
chisel
|
|
The four agents mixed together for injecting during a tumescent liposuction are?
|
local anesthetic, epinephrine, wydase, saline
|
|
the initial incision for an abdominoplasty is a?
|
low transverse
|
|
A procedure performed in patients with empyema is called?
|
pulmonary decortication
|
|
Which instrument is a rib contractor?
|
lung biopsy
|
|
During a bronchoscopy, which solution is preferred for bronchial washing specimens?
|
sterile saline
|
|
Removal of air and or blood from the pleural cavity by means of an aspiration needle is called?
|
thoracentesis
|
|
A bronchoscopy procedure allows visualization of the?
|
bronchi
|
|
Which procedure is removal of an entire lung?
|
pneumonectomy
|
|
the pathology in which the subclavian artery is compressed resulting in severe ischemia of the arm is a type of?
|
thoracic outlet syndrome
|
|
What size of trocar is commonly used during a thorascopy?
|
10mm
|
|
Which node is an imprtant site for metastasis from the lungs and is a frequent site for biopsyy?
|
scalene
|
|
The majority of abdominal aortic aneurysms begin?
|
below the renal arteries
|
|
Arteriovenous(AV) fistula is eferred over an external shunt for long term dialysis because of a decrease chance of?
|
thrombosis
|
|
Fatty deposits on the walls of arteries are called?
|
lipodeposits
|
|
The rupturing of erythrocytes is called?
|
hemolysis
|
|
The self retaining retractor used during femoral popliteal bypass is?
|
meyerding
|
|
A diagnostic test that examines blood flow and metabolic funtions of the heart and brain is?
|
positron emission tomography
|
|
What procedure is performed for chronic cerebral ischemia?
|
carotid endarterectomy
|
|
The movement of blood through a vessel can be assesed by?
|
doppler device
|
|
The agent used to flush an artery to preventing clotting is?
|
heparin
|
|
A vascular clamp used for occluding peripheral vessels is?
|
bulldog
|
|
The instrument commonly used to clamp the aorta during an abdominal aneurysmectomy is?
|
satinsky
|
|
The instrument commonly used to remove plaque from the carotid during an endarterectomy is a?
|
freer elevator
|
|
Which synthetic material used for grafts requires preclotting?
|
dacron* knit polyester
|
|
The commonly used size of suture for peripheral vascular anastomosis of the popliteal artery is?
|
5-0
|
|
The scissors commonly used to extend the arteriotomy during an endarterectomy is a?
|
potts-smith
|
|
The most common cause of intracerebral hemorrhage is?
|
hypertension
|
|
A tumor arising from the covering of the brain is a?
|
meningioma
|
|
An encapsulated collection of blood over a cerebral hemisphere, producing intracranial pressure is called a?
|
subdural hematoma
|
|
Surgical trauma to the first and second cranial nerve would cause the loss of smell and?
|
sight
|
|
Meniere's disease is associated with which cranial nerve?
|
vestibulocochlear(VIII)
|
|
The cause of arteriovenous malformation is a?
|
tumor
|
|
The procedure that involves freeing up a nerve from adhesions for restoration of function is called?
|
neurolysis
|
|
The incomplete closure of the vertebral arches in the newborn is?
|
spina bifida
|
|
The surgical resection of the dorsal root of a spinal nerve to relieve pain is called?
|
rhizotomy
|
|
A procedure to remove intractable pain due to terminal cancer is?
|
cordotomy
|
|
A Gigly saw is used during a?
|
craniotomy
|
|
Repair of a cranial defect is called?
|
cranioplasty
|
|
Burr holes are not created for following pathologies?
|
dysraphism
|
|
Compression of the median nerve of the wrist is relieved by performing?
|
carpal tunnel release
|
|
A self retaining neurosurgical retractor is?
|
leyla-yasargil
|
|
The procedure to treat hydrocephalus is?
|
shunt
|
|
An agent that does not control bleeding in the skin and galia?
|
thrombin
|
|
The procedure to treat trigeminal neuralgia is?
|
decompression
|
|
Posterior fossa exploration is facilitated through a?
|
suboccipital approach
|
|
Does not obtain hemostasis during neurosurgery?
|
monopolar electrosurgery
|
|
The self retaining retractor used during a lumbar laminectomy is?
|
beckman
|
|
A diagnostic study involving the injection of radiopaque dy into the spinal subarachnoid space is?
|
myelogram
|
|
A type of scalp clips is?
|
raney
|
|
Can not be used in a laminectomy?
|
burr
|
|
The dura mater is closed with suture?
|
4-0 silk
|
|
Transsphenoidal hypophysectomy is performed for?
|
pituitary tumor
|
|
The condition of premature closure of the infant suture lines is called?
|
craniosynostosis
|
|
During a craniotomy, the instrument commonly used to separate the dura from the cranium is?
|
penfield dissector
|
|
Where is the catheter placed when performing the procedure to treat hydrocephalus?
|
lateral ventricle
|
|
Which of the following is an approach to the sella turcica for a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy?
|
upper gum margin
|
|
Cryptorchidism is?
|
undescended testes
|
|
A nonmalignant enlargement of the prostate is called?
|
BPH
|
|
The high ligation of the gonadal veins of the testes done to reduce venous plexus congestion is a?
|
varicocelectomy
|
|
Excision of the tunica vaginalis of the testis is called?
|
hydrocelectomy
|
|
The surgical placement and fixation of a testicle in the scrotum is?
|
orchiotomy
|
|
Filiforms are used to?
|
bypass urethral obstruction
|
|
Denis-Browne ring retractors may be used for?
|
retropubic prostatectomy
|
|
A Gomco clamp or Plastibell are used for?
|
circumcision
|
|
Female urethral dilation may be accomplished with?
|
McCarthy dilators
|
|
Endoscopic suspension of the besical neck of the bladder for treatment of stress incontinence is known as a?
|
stamey procedure
|
|
Satinkly, Herrick, and Mayo clamps can be used on the?
|
kidney pedicle
|
|
The anesthesia of choice for extra corporeal shock wave lithotripsy is?
|
epidural
|
|
A procedure performed to overcome contraction of the bladder neck caused by primary or secondary stricture is a?
|
Y-V-plasty
|
|
A diagnostic procedure performed for patients with possible prostatic cancer is known as a?
|
needle biopsy
|
|
What surgical instrument is used to visualize the prostate and remove prostate tissue during a TURP?
|
resectoscope
|
|
A surgical procedure performed to correct the abnormality in which the urethral meatus is situated on the upper side of the penis is called?
|
epispadias repair
|
|
Which of the following is a non electrolytic and isosmotic solution used during a TURP?
|
glycine
|
|
Continuous irrigation and hemostasis of the bladder following a TURP is accomplished using a?
|
24 fr. 30-cc foley ballon catheter
|
|
An ileal conduit is performed after completing which of the following procedures?
|
prostatectomy
|
|
Which of the following instruments would be used during a supranopubic prostatectomy?
|
masson-judd retractor
|
|
Why is it important for a patient who will be undergoing a cystoscopy to void prior to the beginning of the procedure?
|
rule out residual urine in the bladder
|
|
Which of the following instruments is not a retractor used in a prostatectomy?
|
harrington
|
|
What instrument is used by the surgeon to intermittently remove prostatic tissue fragments during a TURP?
|
elli evacuator
|
|
The following are all complications of suprapubic prostatectomy except?
|
phlebitis
|
|
Which of the following instruments would be used to dilate the urethra?
|
van buren
|
|
The surgical reanastomosis of the vas deferens is called a?
|
vasovasostomy
|
|
An examination of the cervix that uses binocular microscope is called a?
|
colposcopy
|
|
The medical term for removal of the uterus is?
|
hysterectomy
|
|
The prolapse of the bladder causing a bulge in the anterior vaginal wall is called a?
|
cystocele
|
|
The medical term for painful menstruation?
|
dysmenorrhea
|
|
A herniation of the Douglas'cul-de-sac containing a loop of bowel is called a?
|
enterocele
|
|
Which of the following surgical instruments would be in a D&C instrument set?
|
hegar clamps
|
|
The medical term for the removal of a uterine fibroid is?
|
myomectomy
|
|
A Rubin's test is performed to confirm?
|
patency of fallopian tubes
|
|
A HUMI cannula would be used for which of the following procedures?
|
tuboplasty
|
|
A colposcopy may be performed for suspected?
|
carcinoma in situ
|
|
Another name for the uterine dressing forceps found in a D&C tray is?
|
bozeman
|
|
The sharp uterine curettes located in a D&C are called?
|
sims
|
|
A diagnostic procedure for suspected ectopic pregnancy is?
|
culdocentesis
|
|
A D&C may be performed for?
|
menorrhagia
|
|
How many sponge, sharp, and instrument counts does a cesarean section require?
|
three
|
|
What is the name of the procedure in which a collar suture is placed at the level of the internal cervical os to prevent spontaneous abortion?
|
shirodkar procedure
|
|
A pneumoperitoneum is established during a laparoscopy through the use of the?
|
verres needle
|
|
Which of the following surgical instruments is a type of bladder retractor used during a cesarean section?
|
de lee
|
|
Which of the following would first scrub surgical technologist need to include in the set up for an incomplete abortion?
|
suction curettage
|
|
What incision is most commonly used for a C-section?
|
pfannenstiel
|
|
What type of solution is used to stain the cervix while performing a Schiller's test?
|
lugol's
|
|
The position used when performing an abdominal gynecologic laparoscopy is?
|
lithotomy
|
|
A radical procedure involving removal of the reproductive organs, bladder and rectum is called?
|
perlvic exenteration
|
|
Which of the following surgical instruments is a weighted vaginal speculum?
|
auvard
|
|
An indwelling foley catheter is inserted into a patient prior to the start of a hysterectomy to?
|
avoid injury to the bladder
|
|
If a tumor of an ovary is supected to be malignan, what other organs will be excised?
|
both fallopian tubes, both ovaries and uterus
|
|
A postoperative complication in gynecologic surgery resulting from the patient being placed in the lithotomy position is?
|
DIC
|
|
The pneumoperitoneum is established during a laparoscopic procedure to prevent?
|
perforation of intestine
|
|
Which of the following is the medical term for the abnormal implantation of the placenta in the uterus so that it covers the cervical internal os?
|
placentia previa
|
|
What pathology is a serious obstetrical emergency that is a type of coagulopathy resulting from overstimulation of the clotting and anticlotting processes?
|
disseminated intravascular coagulation
|
|
A hernia that occurs within Hesselbach's triangle and does not have a sac is called?
|
direct
|
|
The defect in an inguinal hernia occurs in the?
|
transversalis
|
|
Which of the following is a type of oblique incision?
|
kocher
|
|
A hemolytic disease of the newborn is known is called?
|
erythroblastosis fetalis
|
|
Is not an intestinal instrument?
|
heaney forceps
|
|
The instrument used for common duct exploration during an open cholecystectomy is?
|
baked dilator
|
|
The incision commonly used for an appendectomy is?
|
mcburney
|
|
Glisson's capsule is the?
|
external covering of the liver
|
|
Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography is performed to?
|
visualize biliary and pancreatic tracts
|
|
What can be accomplished when postioning the patient for a thyroidectomy to facilitate exposure of the surgical site?
|
rolled sheet placed under shoulder
|
|
A Sengstaken-Blakemore tube is used when treating?
|
esophageal varices
|
|
Omental flaps, falciform ligament, or Gerota's fascia flaps may be used to?
|
control liver hemorrhage
|
|
If the surgeon's preference card listed a Bookwalter or Omnitract, what type of instrument would be used?
|
self retaining retractor
|
|
The procedure performed for decompression of the cecum due to colonic obstructionis?
|
cecostomy
|
|
Pancreatiocojejunostomy is performed for?
|
pancreatic pseudocysts
|
|
The incision used for splenectomy is?
|
subcostal
|
|
A Silverman biopsy needle is used for?
|
liver biopsy
|
|
A cholelithotripsy is performed to fragment?
|
gallstones
|
|
Choledochotomy is performed to?
|
drain the common bile duct
|
|
The incision for a resection of the sigmoid colon is a?
|
paramedian
|
|
A thoracoabdominal incision is used when performing a?
|
open hiatal hernia repair
|
|
A type of deep retractor commonly used during an open cholecystectomy is?
|
harrington
|
|
The procedure for a lower rectal malignancy that requires an abdominal and rectal insicion is?
|
abdominoperineal resection
|
|
Another name for a partial gastrectomy is?
|
billroth 1
|
|
At the completion of the anastomosis of an intestine, the instruments used on the bowels are placed?
|
in separate basin
|
|
What other procedure is performed with a vagotomy?
|
pyloroplasty
|
|
The type of ostomy established when a total colectomy is performed is?
|
ileostomy
|
|
Another name for Whipple's procedure is?
|
pancreatiocoduodenectomy
|
|
The procedure performed to correct pyloric stenosis in the newborn is?
|
fredet-ramstedt
|
|
The instrument commonly used to provide traction on the gallbladder during an open cholecystectomy is?
|
kocher clamp
|
|
A purse string suture is placed in the cecal serosa for an appendectomy to?
|
invert the appendiceal stump
|
|
The Heller procedure is performed to correct?
|
esophageal obstruction
|
|
The procedure to correct intrahepatic obstruction is?
|
portacaval shunt
|
|
A forceps commonly used to remove gallstones from the comon bile duct during an open cholycystectomy is?
|
randall
|
|
During an appendectomy, the structure that must be dissected free from its attachment to the ecum is called?
|
mesoappendix
|
|
During a thyroidectomy, the nerve that must be preserved is the?
|
recurrent laryngeal
|
|
During a mastectomy, which irrigating solution is used on the muscle layer due to its hypotonic properties?
|
sterile water
|
|
A left subcostal incision indicates surgery of the?
|
spleen
|
|
An irreducible hernia in which the abdominal contents have become necrotic is called?
|
strangulated
|
|
Tetany is a possible postoperative complication following an?
|
thyroidectomy
|
|
Is not an indication for a Splenectomy?
|
biliary obstruction
|
|
The instrument used to grasp the appendix during an open appendectomy?
|
babcock forceps
|
|
The structures that must be ligated prior to removal of the gallbladder?
|
cystic artery, hepatic duct
|
|
A Meckel's diverticulum occurs on the?
|
distal ileum
|
|
The organ that often sustains an incidental injury during a transverse colectomy is the?
|
spleen
|
|
During a laparoscopi Nissen fundoplication, the instrumentused to grasp the upper portion of the fundus of the stomach is?
|
endo-babcock
|
|
During a laparoscopic cholecystectomy, the laparoscope with attach video camera is inserted through the?
|
umbilical port
|
|
During a laparoscopic appendectomy, what instrument is commonly used to dissect, free the appendix from its attachment to the mesoappendix?
|
endoscopic linear stapler
|
|
During a laparoscopic inguinal hernia repair, the size of the lateraly placed trocars is?
|
5mm
|
|
What type of hernia is a combination of direct and indirect inguinal hernai?
|
pantaloon
|
|
A nasogastric tube used for insertion in the small intestine is?
|
miller-abbott
|
|
Which is not a type of ureteral catheter tip?
|
pezzer
|
|
Malecot, Mushroom and Sump are types of?
|
surgical drains
|
|
Am embolus would be removed by a?
|
fogarty catheter
|
|
A tightly rolled cotton tape used by surgeons for blunt dissection?
|
kittner
|
|
Two chest tubes are inserted after an open cardiovascular procedure the upper tube is used to evacuate?
|
air
|
|
What drain system is preffered for a radical neck dissection?
|
hemovac
|
|
The type of catheter used for infusion of chemotherapeutic agents into abdomen?
|
tenckhopp
|
|
Which dressing is ideal for neck procedures?
|
stent dressings
|
|
What layer of the three layer dressing absorbs the secretions of the wound?
|
intermediate
|
|
What can be utilized in abdominal surgical wounds that will require frequent dressing changes and prevent damage to skin?
|
montgomery straps
|
|
What type of drain is used or biliary system?
|
t-tube
|
|
Which is a type of passive drain?
|
penrose drain
|
|
What tube can be inserted and left in place for continual gastric aspiration?
|
sump tube
|
|
A suture that provides strength and non reactivity in tissues where stainless steel cannot be used?
|
polypropylene
|
|
What type of needle is used on tissue of the gastrointestinal tract?
|
taper
|
|
A characteristic of plain gut is that it absorbs in?
|
70 days
|
|
the space caused by separation of wound edges is called?
|
dead space
|
|
If tissue is approximated too tight it can cause?
|
ischemia
|
|
A protein substance that is the chief constituent of connective tissue is?
|
collagen
|
|
Which is the least reactive of al synthetic suture materials?
|
polypropylene
|
|
Ligatures are used to?
|
occlude lumens of blood vessels
|
|
A cutting needle would not be used on?
|
nerve tissue
|
|
Another name for polyglactin 910 is?
|
vicryl
|
|
What type of suture is surgilon?
|
nylon
|
|
Bolsters are used with retention sutures to?
|
prevent sutures from cutting into skin
|
|
Which suture is absorbable and offers extended wound support?
|
polydioxanone
|
|
The most widely used nonabsorbable suture is?
|
nylon
|
|
Which suture is a polyester fiber suture?
|
ethibond
|
|
A suture used in tendon repair?
|
polydioxanone
|
|
A microfibrillar collagen that is either supplied in a compacted nonwoven web form or in loose fibrous form is?
|
avitene
|
|
The EEA surgical stapler is used for?
|
anastomosis of proximal colon to rectum
|
|
A specially treated form of surgical gauze that is a hemostatic agent is?
|
surgicel
|
|
Absorbable suture that is preffered in suturing which tissue?
|
periosteum
|
|
Which suture is treated with a salt solution to decrease the rate of absorption?
|
chromic
|
|
Tissue trauma is best minimized using a?
|
swaged on suture
|
|
A characteristic of polyglycolic acid suture?
|
absorbable
|
|
A stick tie is a?
|
swaged needle
|
|
A type of suture that has a high tensile strength and support a wound indefinately is?
|
stainless steel
|
|
Type of needle point used on peritoneum and intestine is?
|
taper
|
|
They type of needle used on tendon?
|
cutting
|
|
The measure of weight required to break a suture is its?
|
tensile strength
|
|
Which suture would not be used in the presence of infection?
|
silk
|
|
A stapling device used to perorm low anterior anastomosis?
|
EEA
|
|
The mess that is not preffered in the presence of infection?
|
mersilene
|
|
The least inert of all the synthetic mesh is?
|
polyester fiber mesh
|
|
A curved tapered surgical needle is used mostly on?
|
bowel tissue or subcutaneous tissue
|
|
The substance that weakly hold wound edges together during the first five days of first intention healing is?
|
fibroblasts
|
|
The healing process in which a wound is purposely left open and allowed to heal from bottom up is called?
|
secondary intention
|
|
Which is not part of the inflammatory process?
|
vasocontriction
|
|
The rupture of a wound with spilling of contents is known as?
|
evisceration
|
|
Reduced flow to an area is known as?
|
ischemia
|
|
Most absorbable sutures are packaged in an alcohol water solution to maintain their?
|
pliability
|
|
Which factor would not decrease the healing capabilities of a patient?
|
early ambulation
|
|
The healing stage of first intention healing occurs from the?
|
5-14 day
|
|
Second intention healing involves?
|
wound granulation
|
|
The power source for all fiberoptic instruments and equipment is?
|
fiber optic light source
|
|
Orthpedic power equipment is run by?
|
nitrogen
|
|
What part is responsible for conducting the electrical current back to the electrosurgical unit?
|
inactive electrode
|
|
The proper pressure setting for the pneumatic tourniquet for an adult?
|
300-350 mm hg
|
|
Which laser is used to coagulate bleeders during an edoscopic procedure?
|
Nd:Yag
|
|
Which of the following diagnostic imaging techniques provides the best imaging of soft tissues?
|
MRI
|
|
Endometrial laser ablation is most commonly treated by?
|
Nd:Yag
|
|
How often should a tourniquet applied to an adult leg be periodically deflated?
|
every 1 1/2 hours
|
|
What is another name for the electro surgical unit's inactive electrode?
|
grounding pad
|
|
What part of the microscope provides magnification and resolving power?
|
optical lens system
|
|
What is the name of the latex rolled bandage used to exsanguinate an extemity before a tourniquet cuff is inflated?
|
esmarch
|
|
Reese and Brown are types of?
|
dermatomes
|
|
What laser is used to treat retinopathy?
|
argon
|
|
What is the proper range of intraoperative pressure when using an insufflator during a laparoscopic?
|
12-15mm hg
|
|
What term is used to describe the side to side action of a power saw blade?
|
oscillating
|
|
What type of electrosurgical unit does not require the use of a grounding pad?
|
bipolar
|
|
A patient brought into surgery has previously undergona right total hip arthroplasty. Where should the grounding pad be placed?
|
left thigh
|
|
At what pressure should the tourniquet be set for an adult thigh?
|
300-350
|
|
What device would the surgeon use to identify essential nerves during cranial procedures?
|
nerve stimulator
|
|
Which organism is not associated with wound infection?
|
treponema pallidum
|
|
The most common nosocomial infections are?
|
urinary infections with catheter use
|
|
A urinary tract infection following a cystoscopy is an example of?
|
nosocomial infection
|
|
The correct procedure to follow when a sterile metal graduate is opened and water droplets are on the inside?
|
discard pitcher; contaminated
|
|
When opening a sterile wrapper the unsterile person should first open the?
|
corner farthest from the body
|
|
Nosocomial refers to?
|
hospital acquired infections
|
|
Inanimate particles that can be vectors for infection are called?
|
fomite
|
|
A patient who underwent a broncoscopy is diagnosed with a Pseudomonas aeruginosa.Is traced to what type of infection?
|
cross-contaminated
|
|
The most prequent means by which infections are spread are?
|
direct contact with infected person
|
|
The recommended number of air exchanges per hour with in an operating room is?
|
20
|
|
The relative humidity in an operating room should be maintained at?
|
50%-60%
|
|
A ventilation system that proves a rapid air exchange in a undirectional flow is called?
|
laminar air flow
|
|
The control system in which feedback concerning changes in the body's internal environment causes a response that reverses changes is called?
|
negative feedback
|
|
The part of the brain responsible for controlling body temperature?
|
hypothalamus
|
|
The air pressure in OR should be?
|
positive
|
|
Three safety factors concerning the safety of the surgical tech and ionizing radiation are?
|
time, shielding, distance
|
|
Which filter is preffered for une in the OR for air exchanges?
|
high efficiency particulate air filters
|
|
The compression rate for one rescuer adult CPR is?
|
80-100 per minute
|
|
A common complication as a result of chest compressions during CPR is?
|
fracture ribs
|
|
The proper rate of providing ventilations to an adult victim during CPR is?
|
12
|
|
The ratio compressions to ventilations for infants and children during CPR?
|
5 to 1
|
|
When performing external chest compressions on an adult, the sternum should be pressed?
|
1 1/2 to 2 inches
|
|
What organization requires surgery departments to maintain operative records that record peri operative care?
|
JCAHO
|
|
Which specimen would not be placed in a preservation solution?
|
renal calculi
|
|
Anarobic specimens should?
|
not be refreigerated
|
|
Bullets that are considered a specimen should?
|
not be handed off with forceps
|
|
A tissure specimen for frozen section is sent to the pathology dept in a specimen container with?
|
no preservative
|
|
A commonly used preservative solution for tissue specimen is?
|
formalin
|
|
Which incision would be used to gain access to the spleen?
|
subcostal
|
|
A curved transverse incision across the lower abdomen used frequently in gynecological?
|
pfannenstiel
|
|
Which incision is preffered for abdominal surgery?
|
verticle midline
|
|
A lower oblique incision is known as?
|
inguinal
|
|
A hemostatic agent that must be applied dry and only handled with dry gloves & instruments?
|
avitene
|
|
What type of scalpel cuts and coagulates tissue with the ue of heat?
|
hemostatic scalpel
|
|
Which hemostatic agent is contraindicated for use in the presence of infection?
|
absorbable collagen
|
|
Which is an internal method of hemostasis?
|
ligature
|
|
Before closing a kidney incision the OR table is straightened to?
|
allow closure of wound
|
|
Which agent is applied to bleeding surface and edges of bone?
|
bone wax
|
|
Which is a nonadherent dressing?
|
adaptic
|
|
Which hemostatic agent is not recommended for use on a bone?
|
oxidized cellulose
|
|
Of the levels of Maslow's Hierarchy of needs, which is most applicable to the surgical patient?
|
physiological
|
|
A major concern when treating geriatric patients requiring additional emotional support by the surgical team is?
|
depression
|
|
When performing the preoperative shave, nicks and cuts are considered a clean wound ____min.
|
30 min
|
|
How many times is the patient identification confirmed before transporting from the ward room to the surgery dept.
|
5
|
|
When transporting a patient to OR. What direction should the gurney be situated?
|
feet first
|
|
When trasporting a patient to the OR, where should the safety straps be placed?
|
over the thighs
|
|
How should the patient be transported when using an elevator?
|
enter head first, exit feet first
|
|
The patient has withdrawn the general consent prior to surgery. What action should be taken?
|
do not transport patient;inform surgeon
|
|
The ultimate responsibility of obtainin the general consent belongs to?
|
surgeon
|
|
A patient signs a consent for surgery but does not speak english and does not fully understand what they signed. This constitutes liability case for?
|
assault and battery
|
|
A general consent form is to?
|
authorize all routine treatments or procedures
|
|
When using an armboard on the OR table, the most important measure is?
|
avoid hyperextention of the arm
|
|
Which procedure would be performed with the patient in the lateral position?
|
nephrectomy
|
|
The surgical position frequently used for patients undergoing kidney surgery is?
|
lateral
|
|
When perorming the skin prep, the skin should be scrubbed and painted from the?
|
incision site to periphery using circular motion
|
|
The position most commonly used for mitral valve replacement is?
|
supine
|
|
The position most commonly used for tonsillectomy performed under local anesthesia is?
|
fowler's
|
|
What position is commonly used for neurosurgical and some otorhinologic procedures?
|
fowler's
|
|
An anesthetized patient is moved slowly to prevent?
|
cardiovascular complications
|
|
When performing an abdominal prep the umbilicus is?
|
prepped last or separately; it's considered contaminated
|
|
In the lateral chest position, a sand bag or padding is placed under the chest at axillary level to?
|
prevent pressure on lower arm
|
|
In the prone position the thorax must be elevated from the OR table to prevent?
|
respiratory complication
|
|
Ulnar nerve damage could result from?
|
use of unpadded armboard
|
|
Stirrups that are not padded or improperly placed on the OR table can caue pressure on the?
|
peroneal nerve
|
|
If patient is in supine postion, the circulator must always?
|
make sure ankles and legs are not crossed
|
|
What is not a requirement for the Kraske position?
|
arms are tucked at eh sides of the patient
|
|
When moving a patient from the lithotomy position legs should be?
|
lowered together
|
|
What is not required when a patient is placed in the prone position?
|
safety belt placed below the knee
|
|
The femoral nerve can be damaged if?
|
retractors are improperly placed during pelvic surgery
|
|
To avoid foot drop what should be done?
|
padd heels to prevent pressure from OR table
|
|
The best surgical position for visualization of the lower abdomen of pelvis is:
|
trendelenburg
|
|
The surgical position commonly used for thyroid and gallbladder surgery is?
|
reverse trendelenburg
|
|
In the prone position which nerve could be compressed against the humerus?
|
radial nerve
|
|
When positioning an anesthetized patient supporting the head and neck is the responsibility of the?
|
surgeon
|
|
When moving a patient with an unsplinted fracture protecting the fracture is the responsibility of the?
|
surgeon
|
|
Which procedure is performed with the patient in the trendelenburg position?
|
hysterectomy
|
|
A reverse trendelenburg position requires the added table attachment of a?
|
footboard
|
|
A small pad placed under a patients head in the supine position allows which muscle to relax?
|
strap muscle
|
|
Wha position is used for a cesarean section?
|
supine with bolster under left side
|
|
What device is used when placing a patient in the operative position for a thyroidectomy?
|
shoulder roll
|
|
What nerve could be damaged when the patient is placed in fowler's position?
|
sciatic
|
|
What size of foley catheter is communly used for adults?
|
14 fr or 16fr
|
|
Which agents is commonly used when performing a patient skin prep of the eye?
|
triclosan
|
|
What area should be prepped last when performing a patient skin prep?
|
stoma
|
|
What is the name of the instrument part located between the box lock and finger rings?
|
shank
|
|
What is a self retaining retractor?
|
Gelpi
|
|
A retractor not found in a major orthopedic instrument set?
|
ragnell (for hand cases)
|
|
What type of instrument is a Lowman?
|
bone holding clamp
|
|
A Joseph elevator is used in?
|
rhinologic procedures
|
|
An Allen clamp is used for?
|
gastrointestinal procedures
|
|
Which suturing forceps are commonly used during ophthalmic procedures?
|
bishop-harmon
|
|
Which instrument would be found in a gastrointestinal set up?
|
doyen forceps
|
|
The secretion of gastric juice is regulated by the impulses of the?
|
Vagus Nerve (X)
|
|
The fifth cranial nerve is also called the?
|
Trigeminal Nerve(V)
|
|
The cranial nerve that carries motor fibers to the tongue and sensory impulses from the tongue to the brain is the?
|
Hypoglossal (XII)
|
|
Which cranial nerve can be tested for sensations of pain, touch, and temperature with the use of a safety pin and hot and cold objects?
|
Trigeminal Nerve (V)
|
|
In the physiology of hearing, sound waves collect in the ____ and pass on to hit the____?
|
external auditory canal, tympanic membrane
|
|
Which cranial nerve emerges from the medulla, passes through the skull, and descends through the neck region into the thorax and abdominal region?
|
Vagus Nerve (X)
|
|
The cranial nerve that contains special fibers for hearing as well as for balance is?
|
Vestibulocochlear Nerve (VIII)
|
|
The anterior chamber of the eye lies?
|
behind cornea and in front of the iris
|
|
The most abundant extracellular ion necessary for the transmissionof impulses is?
|
sodium
|
|
Intraocular pressure is primarily dependant on?
|
aqueous humor
|
|
The function of the small intestine?
|
digestion and absorption of nutrients
|
|
Athe junction of the sclera nd cornea is a venous sinus know as the?
|
canal of schlemm
|
|
testosteroneis secred by the?
|
cells of leydig
|
|
The structure that binds the small instestine to the posterior abdominal wall is the?
|
mesentry
|
|
The ciliary body is part of which layer of the eye?
|
vascualr tunic
|
|
The process by which blood cells are formed is known as?
|
hemopoiesis
|
|
The sutures of the skull are examples of?
|
Synarthrosis
|
|
What arises from the left ventricle?
|
Aorta
|
|
The functional unit of the kidney responsible for removing waste and regulating fluid is the?
|
nephron
|
|
Which of the following vessels arises from the right ventricle?
|
pulmonary artery
|
|
The cytoplasmic processs of a neuron that conducts impulses away fromthe cell body is an?
|
axon
|
|
The part of the brain that is a continuation of the spinal cord and forms the inferior portion of the rain stem is the?
|
medulla
|
|
The structure that is located anterior to the esophagus and extends from the larynx to the fifh thoracic vertabrae is the?
|
trachea
|
|
The are in the duodenum where the common bile duct and pancreatic duct empty is called the?
|
ampulla of vater
|
|
The diencephalon is composed of the?
|
thalamus and hypothalamus
|
|
The wisp like roots of the nerves at the end of the spinal cord are called the?
|
cauda equina
|
|
Neuron axons that are surrounded by a multilayer white, phospholipid segmented covering are called?
|
myelinated neurons
|
|
Neurons that conduct impulses to the cardiac muscles are part of the?
|
autonomic nervous system
|
|
The neuroglia are cells that?
|
support and protect
|
|
Function of the trachea is to?
|
conduct air to and from the lungs
|
|
The area of the brain that controls respiration is the?
|
medulla oblongata
|
|
All though takes place in the?
|
cerebral cortex
|
|
What bones form the greater portion of the sides and roof of the cranial cavity?
|
parietal bones
|
|
Another name for the tympanic membrane is the?
|
eardrum
|
|
which vessels do not empty into the right atrium?
|
pulmonary veins
|
|
The foramen magnum is found in which bone?
|
occipital
|
|
The ovary is attached to the uterus by the?
|
ovarian ligament
|
|
Which of the following structures is located in the alveolar process?
|
Teeth
|
|
The portion of the stomach surrounding the lower esophageal sphincter is called the:
|
Cardia
|
|
The islets of Langerhans secrete:
|
Insulin
|
|
The area in the duodenum where the common bile duct and the pancreatic duct empty is called the:
|
Ampulla of vater
|
|
The primary function of the gallbladder is to:
|
Store bile
|
|
The plicae circulares, microvilli, and villi are:
|
Structures that increase surface absorption area in the small intestine
|
|
The first part of the small intestine is the:
|
Duodenum
|
|
The appendix is attached to the:
|
Cecum
|
|
The double-layered apron-like structure that hangs from the lower border of the stomach is the:
|
Greater Omentum
|
|
The main function of the large intestine is to:
|
Reabsorb water and electrolytes
|
|
A chemical reaction that provides energy by the breakdown of food molecules is called:
|
Catabolism
|
|
What is the substance that is the body's preffered source of energy?
|
Carbohydrates
|
|
The process by which glucose is stored in the live and skeletal muscle cells as gylcogen is called:
|
Glycogenesis
|
|
The structure that binds the small intestine to the posterior abdominal wall is the:
|
Mesentery
|
|
The salivary glands located in front of the ear that become inflamed and enlarged during mups is called:
|
Parotid glands
|
|
The catabolism of fats produces which of the following substances?
|
Ketone bodies
|
|
Vitamins A,D,E, and K are absorbed in the:
|
Intestine
|
|
The organ that lies posterior to the greater curvature of the stomach and is connected by a duct to the duodenum is the:
|
Pancreas
|
|
When body cells require energy, what molecule is broken down?
|
ATP molecule
|
|
The outer layer of the intestine is the:
|
Serosa
|
|
The cricoid cartilage is a:
|
Leaf-shaped cartilage lying on top of the larynx
|
|
The passageway for foods and liquids into the digestive system and for air into the respiratory system is the:
|
Pharynx
|
|
The larynx is located between the:
|
Pharynx and trachea
|
|
The vocal chords are located in the:
|
Larynx
|
|
Which structure has three divisions consisting of naso, oro, and laryngeal?
|
Larynx
|
|
The function of the trachea is to:
|
Conduct air to and from the lungs
|
|
The space between the vocal chords is called the:
|
Glottis
|
|
The nasal cavity is divided into two portions by the:
|
Septum
|
|
The structure that drains excess tears to the nasal cavity, causing the nose to run is the:
|
Nasolacrimal duct
|
|
The cartilaginous nasal septum lies upon which bone?
|
The vomer
|
|
The structure that connects the middle ear and the throat, allowing the eardrum to vibrate freely, is the:
|
The eustachian tube
|
|
Another name for the tympanic membrane is the:
|
Eardrum
|
|
The winding, cone-shaped tube of the inner ear is the:
|
Cochlea
|
|
The nasal sinus located between the nose and the orbits is the:
|
Ethmoid
|
|
Which ossicle of the middle ear covers the oval window?
|
Stapes
|
|
The large leaf-shaped laryngeal cartilage that acts as a trap door over the layrnx is the:
|
Epiglottis
|
|
Which part of the ear is responsible for equilibrium?
|
Semicircular canals
|
|
A term refering to a waxy secretion in the external ear canal is:
|
Cerumen
|
|
Which of the following structures is not an ossicle of the ear ? Incus Vestibule Stapes Malleus
|
Vestibule
|
|
The fluid within the membranous labrinth is called:
|
Endolymph
|
|
In the physiology of hearing, sound waves collect in the ____ and pass on to hit the _______:
|
External auditory canal, tympanic membrane
|
|
Striated-voluntary muscle tissue is found in the _____ muscle tissue.
|
Skeletal
|
|
The white, tough layer of the eye that gives it it's shape is the:
|
Sclera
|
|
The layer of the eye that is clear, covers the iris, and contains no blood vessels is the:
|
Cornea
|
|
The layer of the eye that absorbs light rays and nourishes the retina through it's numerous blood vessels is the:
|
Choroid
|
|
Which muscle alters the shape of the lens of the eye to acommodate near or far vision?
|
The ciliary muscle
|
|
What structure regulates the amount of light entering the eye and assists in obtaining a clear image?
|
Iris
|
|
Intraocular pressure is primarily dependent on:
|
Aqueous Humor
|
|
At the junction of the sclera and cornea is a venous sinus known as the:
|
The canal of schlemm
|
|
The smooth intrinsic muscle that alters the shape of the eye lens is the:
|
Ciliary Body
|
|
The ciliary body is part of which layer of the eye?
|
anterior portion of the VASCULAR tunic
|
|
A capillary network of blood vessels within the renal cortex that functions as a filter is called the:
|
Glomerulus
|
|
The triangular area of the bladder that is formed by the two openings of the ureters and the opening of the urethra is known as the:
|
Trigone
|
|
Gerota's fascia is located:
|
Around the kidney
|
|
The kidney's are positioned:
|
Retroperitoneally
|
|
The functional unit of the kidney is responsible for removing waste and regulating fluid is the:
|
Nephron
|
|
The most abundant extracellular ion necessary for the transmission of impulses is:
|
Sodium
|
|
The prostate gland secretes:
|
Alkaline fluid
|
|
The first step of urine production in which fluids and dissolved substances are forced through a membrane by pressure is called:
|
Glomular filtration
|
|
Sperm are produced by the:
|
Seminiferous tubules
|
|
The cup-like extensions of the kidney pelvis that collect urine from the pyramids are:
|
Calyces
|
|
The notch on the kidney through which the ureters exit is the:
|
Hilum
|
|
Which of the following is the principal male hormone produced in the testes and responsible for sexual characteristics?
|
Testosterone
|
|
The comma-shaped organ that lies along the posterior border of the testis is the:
|
Epididymis
|
|
The only artery in the body that carries unoxygenated blood is the:
|
The pulmonary artery
|
|
The pacemaker of the heart is the:
|
SA Node
|
|
Which arteries are formed by the bifurcation of the abdominal aorta?
|
Iliac arteries
|
|
The process by which blood cells are formed is known as:
|
Hemopoiesis
|
|
Which of the following arises from the left ventricle?
|
Ascending AORTA
|
|
The pancreas lies behind the stomach and duodenum in the right and left upper quadrants and is didvided into ________ portions.
|
Three portions. (The head, body, and tail)
|
|
Which organ is responsible for the synthesis of many of the coagulation factors?
|
Liver
|
|
The atrioventricular (AV) valve between the left atrium and the left ventricle is the:
|
Bicuspid valve ( mitral )
|
|
The inner layer of an artery is known as the:
|
Intima
|
|
Which of the following vessels arises from the right ventricle?
|
The pulmonary artery
|
|
Untreated acute otitis media may result in
|
Mastoiditis
|
|
In the physiology of hearing, sound waves collect in the _________ and pass on to hit the ___________.
|
Auricle, tympanic membrane
|
|
Hernia's that occur within Hesselbach's triangle and do not have a sac are:
|
direct hernias
|
|
The defect in a hernia occurs in the
|
Transversalis muscle
|
|
Second intention healing involves:
|
Wound granulation
|
|
The healing stage of first intention healing, when the wound rapidly gains tensile strength, occurs from:
|
the fifth to fourteenth day
|
|
Who advanced the theory that handwashing greatly reduces infection in patients?
|
Semmelweis
|
|
Spiral-shaped bacteria are identified as
|
Spirilla
|
|
Rickettsiae are transmitted by:
|
insect bites
|
|
A valuable laboratory test for determing bacterial identification is an:
|
gram stain
|
|
Microbes that prefer to live without oxygen are called:
|
Anarobes
|
|
The relationship in which organisms occupy the same habitat but do not affect each other is known as:
|
Commensalism
|
|
A relationship that benefits one organism at the expense of the other is:
|
Parasitism
|
|
A disease that occurs quickly and has rapid recovery is known as
|
an acute disease
|
|
Vaccination is an example of :
|
artificial active immunity
|
|
An allergy, such as hay fever, is an example of:
|
Hypersensitivity
|
|
Which of the following organelles of the cell is responsible for the production of ATP?
|
Lysosomes
|
|
Who is resposible for carrying out infection control programs in the patient care enviorment?
|
Everyone
|
|
Which process is an active transport mechanism?
|
Phagocytosis
|
|
Which organism causes gas gangrene?
|
Clorstridium perfringes
|
|
Staphlococcus normally found on skin is an example of:
|
resident flora
|
|
Striated-voluntary muscle tissue is found in the ___________ muscle tissue.
|
Skeletal
|
|
"Strike-through" is used aseptically to describe:
|
Soaking of moisture from unsterile to sterile layers or vice versa
|
|
The method most recommended for sterilizing an arthroscope is
|
ethylene oxide
|
|
The simplest form of cell organization is the:
|
bacterium
|
|
Fine, thread-like appendages that provide bacteria with motion are:
|
Flagella
|
|
Most absorbable sutures are packaged in an alcohol-water solution to maintain their:
|
Pliability
|
|
A bacillus found in the intestine is
|
Escherichia Coli
|
|
The part of the body that has the most abundant and various microbes is the
|
mouth and throat
|
|
The complete destruction of all living organisms is known as:
|
Sterilization
|
|
The most common nosocominal infections are:
|
Urinary infections associated with catheter use
|
|
Which of the following methods of sterilization is the most practical and inexpensive technique to sterilize objects that can withstand high temperatures?
|
Moist heat under pressure
|
|
A urinary tract infection following a cystoscopy is an example of a:
|
Nosocominal infection
|
|
What is the correct procedure to follow when a sterile metal graduate is opened and the scrub person notices water droplets on the inside?
|
Discard the pitcher because it is considered contaminated
|
|
Instruments should be placed in perforated trays for sterilization
|
to allow for steam penetration
|
|
Wrapped instrument sets must be sterilized for ____ minutes at 250*F for steam sterilization.
|
30
|
|
Which of the following would be considered a biological monitor?
|
Spore strip
|
|
Which term defines mircroorganisms that are capable of producing disease under favorable conditions?
|
pathogens
|
|
If a sterile package wrapped in muslin falls to the floor, what should you do?
|
Discard the package
|
|
A tradename for activated glutaraldehyde is:
|
Cidex
|
|
Which of the following methods would be used to sterilize a container of lubricating oil?
|
Dry heat
|
|
What radioactive isotope is commonly used for sterilization?
|
Colbalt 60
|
|
Positive assurance of sterility can be accomplished only with the use of:
|
biologic monitors
|
|
Syphilis is caused by:
|
Treponema pallidum
|
|
Malaria and amebic dysentry are caused by:
|
Protozoa
|
|
A bacteria frequently found in soil, water, sewage, debris, and air is:
|
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
|
|
A vegetative resting state of some bacilla is known as:
|
Spore
|
|
Who is responsible for the invention of the first high-powered microscope?
|
Leeuwenhoek
|
|
A passive process in which there is a net or greater movement of molecules or ions from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration is called:
|
diffusion
|
|
Packages wrapped in muslin or medium weight nonwoven material must have:
|
Two layers of wrap
|
|
What is the standard safety margin insidesterile package wrappers?
|
One inch
|
|
When opening a sterile wrapper, the unsterile person should open the:
|
the corner farthest from the body first
|
|
Which area on the surigcal gown is not considered sterile?
|
Upper arms and shoulders
|
|
In a gravity displacement sterilizer, steam enters the chamber through the:
|
Top rack
|
|
Ethylene oxide is mixed with carbon dioxide to:
|
reduce flammability
|
|
DNA is contained within the
|
Nucleus
|
|
Phagocytosis by the white blood cells is an example of the body's:
|
Second line of defense
|
|
Cell "drinking" is called:
|
Pinocytosis
|
|
Inanimate particles that can be vectors for infection are called:
|
Fomites
|
|
An organelle that contains digestive juices is the:
|
Golgi complex
|
|
The division of a reproductive cell into two cells with 23 chromosomes each is called:
|
Meiosis
|
|
Reduced blood flow to an area is known as:
|
Ischemia
|
|
The rupture of a wound with spilling of contents is known as:
|
evisceration
|
|
A disease that is commonly found in a community is considered:
|
Endemic
|
|
Which bacteria causes rheumatic fever?
|
Streptococcus
|
|
What term describes someone known as a "host of infection" who has a disease but displays no symptoms?
|
Carrier
|
|
An example of an autimmune disease is:
|
AIDS
|
|
The white, tough layer of the eye that gives is it's shape is the:
|
Sclera
|
|
The layer of the eye that is clear, covers the iris, and contains no blood vessels is the:
|
Cornea
|
|
The layer of the eye that absorbs light rays and nourishes the retina through its numerous blood vesels is the:
|
Choroid
|
|
Which muscle alters the shape of the lens of the eye to accommodate near or far vision?
|
Ciliary muscle
|
|
What structure regulates the amount of light entering the eye and assists in obtaining a clear image?
|
Iris
|
|
A steriod used typically to diminish inflammation after eye surgery?
|
Methylprednisolone acetate (depo-Medrol)
|
|
Intraocular pressure is primarily dependent on
|
Aqeous humor
|
|
Dilating drops are called:
|
Mydriatics
|
|
At the junction of the sclera and cornea is a venous sinus known as the:
|
canal of schlemm
|
|
On the retina, in line with the visual axis, is a yellow spot reffered to as the:
|
Macula lutea
|
|
The smooth intrinsic muscle that alters the shape of the eye lens is the:
|
Ciliary body
|
|
An enzyme used before cataract surgery to soften the zonula ciliaris holding the lens in place is the:
|
alpha chymotrypsin
|
|
The ciliary body is part of which layer of the eye?
|
Vascular
|
|
A medicine cup holds 2 ounces. How many millimeters does it hold?
|
60 ml
|
|
What drug may be used to treat an allergy?
|
Antihistamine
|
|
Soda lime is used in mask inhalation anesthesia to:
|
adjust anesthetic levels
|
|
Balanced anesthesia is sometimes referred to as:
|
neuroleptanesthesia
|
|
Most anesthetic agents are:
|
potentially lethal
|
|
During general anesthesia
|
the patient is unconscious
|
|
Cricoid pressure
|
occludes the esophagus
|
|
An antagonist drug
|
Neutralizes or impedes the action of another drug.
|
|
Muscular fasculation refers to:
|
involuntary muscle contractions
|
|
A term reffering to a drug name not protected by a trademark that may describe its chemical strucure is the _______ name.
|
generic
|
|
The acronym MAC stands for:
|
Monitored anesthesia care
|
|
Cephalothin sodium (keflin) is a/an:
|
antibiotic
|
|
Indirect arterial blood pressure is obtained with a :
|
sphygmomanometer
|
|
Which drug counteracts metabolic acidosis?
|
Sodium bicarbonate
|
|
Hypovolemia is
|
low blood volume
|
|
Intubation occurs during which phase of anesthesia?
|
Induction
|
|
An emergency drug used in cardiac surgery that increases myocardial contractability is
|
calcium chloride
|
|
A drug used to reverse hypotension is
|
Levarterenol ( Levophed ) .
|
|
Meperidine hydrochloride (Demerol) is a/an:
|
analgesic
|
|
Another name (trade name) for epinephrine is:
|
Adrenalin
|
|
Cardiac arrythmias of ventricular origin can be treated with:
|
lidocaine
|
|
Dextran is used parenterally to:
|
expand blood plasma volume
|
|
A barbituate that may be used for sleep the night before surgery is:
|
Secobarbital (seconal)
|
|
Steriods are used for the reduction of:
|
tissue inflammation and swelling
|
|
The most widely used local anesthetic is:
|
Lidocaine (xylocaine)
|
|
A rapid-onset muscle relaxant used for intubation in short cases is:
|
Succinylcholine chloride (Anectine).
|
|
What amount is approximatly equal to 500 ml?
|
1 pint
|
|
Dark blood in the operative field is a sign of possible:
|
Hypoxia
|
|
The healing process in which a wound is purposely left open and allowed to heal from the bottom up is called:
|
Secondary intention
|
|
The quadrate lobe of the liver is _______ shaped.
|
Square
|
|
An emergency drug useful in stabilizing ventricular fibrillation is:
|
Propranolol hydrochloride (inderal)
|
|
An emergency drug useful in stabilizing ventricular fibrillation is:
|
Propranolol hydrochloride (inderal)
|
|
A method of anesthesia in which medication is injected into the surbarachnoid space, affecting a portion of the spinal chord, is called:
|
Intrathecal (spinal) block
|
|
===--------------------------------------------------------
|
third stage
|
|
Parental adiministration of a drug refers to:
|
administration with a needle
|
|
The purpose of administering atropine preoperatively is to :
|
Inhibit secretions
|
|
Cocaine and tretracaine (pontocaine) are examples of what kind of anesthetic?
|
Topical
|
|
One gram = ____grains
|
15
|
|
One ml is equal to:
|
1 cc
|
|
At what point during administration of an anesthetic must you refrain from making noise or stimulating the patient?
|
During induction
|
|
The action of sodium bicarbonate in an advanced life support effort is to:
|
counteract metabolic acidosis
|
|
An anticoagulant given for its antagonistic effect on heparin is
|
protamine sulfate
|
|
A drug used to soothe and relieve anxiety is called:
|
a sedative
|
|
Morphine is used for:
|
pain
|
|
Lidocaine (xylocaine) is used intravenously for:
|
Cardiac arrhythemias
|
|
The root word aterio means:
|
Artery
|
|
Gelfoam,oxidized cellulose(surgicel), and microfibrillar collagen hemostat (avetine) are examples of:
|
hemostatic agents
|
|
What agency establishes standards for drugs?
|
United states pharmacopeia/national formulary (USP)
|
|
Oxytocic drugs cause
|
uterine contractions
|
|
Drugs that draw fluid from the tissues are classified as:
|
diuretics
|
|
Naloxone hydrochloride (narcan) is an:
|
anitcholinergic
|
|
A vasoconstrictor that added to a local anesthetic agent extends its life is:
|
epinephrine
|
|
An anticholinergic drug given preoperativly to inhibit mucous secretion is:
|
Atropine
|
|
What vitamin is essential to the synthesis of prothrombin by the liver and is a valuable hemostatic agent?
|
Vitamin K
|
|
A capillary network of blood vessels within the renal cortex that functions as a filter is called the:
|
Glomerulus
|
|
The triangular area of the bladder that is formed by the two openings of the ureters and the opening of the urethra is known as the:
|
trigone
|
|
Gerotas fascia is located:
|
Around the kidney
|
|
The kidneys are positioned:
|
retroperitoneally
|
|
The functional unit of the kidney responsible for removing waste and regulating fluid is the:
|
Nephron
|
|
The most abundant extracellular ion necessary for the transmission of impulses is:
|
Sodium
|
|
The prostate gland secretes:
|
alkaline fluid
|
|
The first step of urine production in which fluids and dissolved substances are forced through a membrane by pressure is called?
|
Glomerular filtration
|
|
Enuresis is...
|
bed wetting
|
|
Lack of control over urination is called:
|
incontinence
|
|
What is the function of the seminal vesicles, prostate gland, and the cowpers gland?
|
To secrete the liquid portion of the semen
|
|
The position used most often for an open ureterolithotomy of the upper third of the ureter is :
|
Lateral
|
|
Sperm is produced by the
|
seminiferou tubules
|
|
Renal calculi are sent as specimens in
|
a dry jar
|
|
Non-explosion-proof electrical outlets must be how high above the OR floor?
|
Five feet
|
|
Hypertension means:
|
High blood pressure
|
|
The recommended number of air exchanges per hour within an operating room is:
|
20-30
|
|
If a patient has recieved medication (sedative) preoperativly, can he or she sign ther operative consent?
|
No
|
|
"dys" means:
|
bad, difficult
|
|
QID refers to..
|
4 times a day
|
|
The first article of OR attire donned is:
|
Head cover
|
|
What is the greatest influencing factor when designing an operating room?
|
Infection control
|
|
Surgical masks should be changed:
|
after each case
|
|
Chole refers to:
|
gall,bile
|
|
Mastectomy means:
|
removal of the breast
|
|
Os means
|
opening
|
|
Aseptic means:
|
without sepsis
|
|
The relative humidity in an operating room is normally:
|
60%
|
|
What team member is responsible for performing the surgical prep of a patient?
|
Circulator
|
|
If a patient is illiterate, how is the consent form signed?
|
With an X, and the witness writes "patients mark" next to it.
|
|
A semi-sitting position is also known as :
|
fowler
|
|
A hemorrhoidectomy is performed in what position?
|
kraske
|
|
Bilateral salpingo-oopherectomy means:
|
removal of both tubes and ovaries
|
|
Tenolysis means:
|
freeing of a tendon
|
|
NPO means nothing by mouth:
|
nothing by mouth
|
|
Bx means:
|
Biopsy
|
|
Mentoplasty means reconstruction of the...
|
chin
|
|
Pnuemonectomy means
|
removal of the lung
|
|
Oscopy means
|
viewing
|
|
Which team member acts as a liasion between both sterile and unsterile members?
|
Circulator
|
|
The ventilation system in the operating room must:
|
ensure a controlled supply of filtered air.
|
|
A jacknife position is also known as:
|
Kraske
|
|
Hepat refers to:
|
liver
|
|
Tachycardia is...
|
fast heart rate
|
|
A telescopic examination of the cervix is known as
|
Colposcopy
|
|
Who assumes full responsibility for all medical acts of judgement for a patient?
|
Surgeon
|
|
Otomy means ..
|
incision
|
|
Ectomy means..
|
excision
|
|
Appendicitis means
|
inflammation of the appendix
|
|
Ideally, sliding doors should be used in the operating room because..
|
they eliminate air currents.
|
|
Inter means..
|
between
|
|
Otoplasty is performed to correct a congenital deformity of the:
|
ear
|
|
Oopher refers to..
|
Ovary
|
|
A ventilation system that provides a rapid air exchange in a undirectional flow is called:
|
Laminar air flow
|
|
Removal of the uterus is known as
|
hysterectomy
|
|
The ultimate responsibilty of obtaining a surgical consent belongs to the:
|
surgeon
|
|
The patient has the right to withdraw written consent prior to the operation. What is the proper procedure?
|
The patient is not taken into the operating room and the surgeon is notified.
|
|
The hospital committee that monitors routine activities, audits incident reports,and conducts problem-focused studies in an effort to change practices deemed substandard is the:
|
quality assurance committee
|
|
Who is responsible for all nursing care given in the operating room?
|
OR nurse manager
|
|
The most natural position for the body is:
|
Supine
|
|
The position used for a patient in hypovolemic shock is:
|
Trendelenburg
|
|
The knee-chest position would be used for a:
|
Sigmoindoscopy
|
|
In the lateral chest position, the lower leg is,
|
Straight
|
|
The only artery in the body that carries unoxygenated blood is the:
|
Pulmonary artery
|
|
The universal recipient blood type is..
|
AB+
|
|
Which arteries are formed by the bifurcation of the abdominal aorta?
|
Iliac
|
|
Which of the following is an example of a saddle joint? A). Radius and carpals B). Thumb and trapezium C). Femur and hip D). Ulna and radius
|
B). Thumb and trapezium
|
|
A smooth, sustained contraction produced by several very rapid stimuli is called:
|
a tetanus
|
|
The dense white fibrous covering around bone is the:
|
periosteum
|
|
An example of a short bone is the:
|
wrist
|
|
A large, bony process found on the femur is a:
|
trochanter
|
|
The foramen magnum is found in which bone?
|
Occipital
|
|
An example of a flat bone is the:
|
cranial bones
|
|
An exaggeration of the thoracic curve of the spine resulting in a "hunchback" is known as:
|
Kyphosis
|
|
The acromion is part of which bone:
|
Scapula
|
|
The olecranon is part of which bone?
|
Ulna
|
|
Which of the following is not a carpal? -Lunate -Scaphoid -Capitate -Styloid
|
Styloid
|
|
The only bone in the body that does not articulate with another bone is the:
|
Hyoid
|
|
The shaft of the bone is known as the..
|
diaphysis.
|
|
The extremity or end of a bone is known as the:
|
epiphysis
|
|
Another name for spongy bone is:
|
cancellous
|
|
The vertebrae are examples of what type of bone?
|
Irregular
|
|
The area of a bone where growth occurs until early adulthood is the
|
epiphyseal plate
|
|
A differential count is the:
|
calculation of the number of each type of white blood cell
|
|
The majority of abdominal aortic anneurysms begin:
|
below the renal arteries
|
|
Emboli may be: -clot particles -foreign bodies -air or fat spaces -all of the above
|
all of the above
|
|
Sodium bicarbonate is used:
|
to prevent or correct metabolic acidosis
|
|
A deliberate reduction of body tempature for therapeutic purposes is known as:
|
Hypothermia
|
|
The test that determines the percentages of each type of white blood cell is the:
|
differential count
|
|
The sutures of the skull are examples of:
|
synarthrosis
|
|
The large artery found behind the knee is the:
|
Popliteal
|
|
Chemical substances that react with the body and cause the formation of antibodies are:
|
antigens
|
|
The muscle that forms the bulk of the upper calf is the:
|
gastrocnemius
|
|
The mandible articulates with the:
|
temporal bone
|
|
The thoracic spine contains how many vertebrae?
|
12
|
|
Another name for a bunion is
|
hallux valgus
|
|
A cyst in the popliteal fossa is a:
|
Baker's cyst
|
|
If a patient signs a consent form for surgery but does not speak english;therefore, he or she does not fully understand what was signed. Surgery on this patient could consitute a liability case for...
|
assualt and battery
|
|
The most effective and efficient procedure for sponge counts is to have them counted by:
|
two persons, three or more times.
|
|
Liability is a legal rule that:
|
holds each individual responsible for his or her own actions
|
|
CPR may be discontinued when
|
pulse and respiration are restored
|
|
The compression rate for one rescuer adult CPR is:
|
80-100 beats per minute
|
|
The walls of the vagina are lined with:
|
mucous membrane
|
|
The perineum is:
|
the area between the vagina and the anus
|
|
Fertilization of the ovum generally occurs in the:
|
fallopian tubes
|
|
The hormone responsible for the development and maintenance of the female secondary sex characteristics is:
|
estrogen
|
|
A hernial protusion of the bladder that causes a downward bulge in the anterior wall of the vagina, usually associated with surgical trauma, is known as:
|
rectocele
|
|
Painful menstration caused by forceful contractions of the uterus is known as:
|
dysmenorrhea
|
|
A collective term for any extensive bacterial infection of the pelvic organs is
|
pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)
|
|
In the ovary, a granular yellow body that develops after the extrusion of an ovum is the:
|
corpus luteum
|
|
The finger-like projections on the end of the fallopian tubes are:
|
fimbrae
|
|
The elevated adipose tissue over the symphsis is called the:
|
mons pubis
|
|
The ovary is attached to the uterus by the:
|
ovarian ligament
|
|
The middle layer of the uterus composed of muscle is the:
|
myometrium
|
|
The outermost covering of the brain and spinal cord is the:
|
dura mater
|
|
The brain contains four fluid-filled spaces called the:
|
ventricles
|
|
The area of the brain that controls respirations is the:
|
Medulla oblongata
|
|
All thought takes place:
|
cerebral cortex
|
|
The basic unit of the nervous system is the:
|
nueron
|
|
The cranial nerve that contians special fibers for hearing as well as for balance is the:
|
VIII
|
|
The peripheral nervous system contains?
|
Cranial and spinal nerves
|
|
The largest part of the brain is the:
|
Cerebellum
|
|
The fifth cranial nerve is also called:
|
the trigeminal nerve
|
|
Cephalgia refers to:
|
headache
|
|
Cell "eating" is called:
|
Phagocytosis
|
|
The basic living, structural, and functional unit of the body is known as the:
|
cell
|
|
The rupturing of RBC'S is called:
|
hemplysis
|
|
A good example of filtration in the body is:
|
Kidneys
|
|
The result of fertilization of gametes is a:
|
zygote
|
|
The study of tumors is called:
|
Oncology
|
|
A cancerous growth is said to be:
|
MALIGNANT
|
|
Spores are:
|
the resting stage of some bacilli
|
|
The spread of cancerous cells to other parts of the body is referred to as:
|
metastasis
|
|
Nosocominal refers to:
|
hospital-acquired infection
|
|
The bodies first line of defense against infection:
|
intact skin and mucous membranes
|
|
The portion of the stomach above the level of the upper esophageal sphincter is the:
|
fundus
|
|
The main duct of the pancreas is the:
|
duct of wirsung
|
|
The teeth are composed primarily of:
|
dentin
|
|
The large vien that drains the head is the:
|
Jugular
|
|
The portion of the small intestin that joins the large intestine is the:
|
ileum
|
|
Another name for the folds of the stomach:
|
rugae
|
|
Aqueous humor is found within the
|
anterior cavity
|
|
Care of a surgical specimen includes placing it:
|
in a bag or container with formalin
|
|
What position is most often used for vaginal surgery?
|
lithotomy
|
|
What is the recommended tempature in the operating room?
|
20-24 celcius 68-75 farenhiet
|
|
How must basins be positioned for sterilization in the autoclave?
|
On thier sides
|
|
Which of the following instruments is necessary for an open cholecystectomy? -Oschner forceps - Jennings retractor - Mixter clamp - O'sullivan-O'connor retractor
|
Mixter clamp
|
|
A pad-like sac or cavity that preents friction within a joint is known as aL
|
bursa
|
|
Wrinkle free padding is applied to an extremity before application of a tourniquet to avoid:
|
skin injuries
|
|
Procedure for removing excess skin from the face and neck is called?
|
rhytidectomy
|
|
Which scissor is most likely found in a basic hysterectomy set-up? A. Potts-smith B. Stevens C. Jorgenson D. Iris
|
Jorgenson
|
|
Which of the following is NOT a sympton of shock? A. tachycardia B. hypertension C. cold, clammy skin D. increased respirations
|
Hypertension
|
|
Which of the following solution can be used to disinfect endoscopic instruments? A. iodophors B. ethyl alcohol 70% C. phenolic compounds D. activated glutaraldehyde
|
Activated Glutaraldehyde
|
|
Glove powder is normally wiped from the gloved hand because it has the potential to cause:
|
Granulomas
|
|
When a cholecystectomy is performed, which of the following anatomical structures must be preserved?
|
Common duct
|