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143 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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what is the substance that covers the crown of the tooth?
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Enamel
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What is the substance that covers the root of a tooth?
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cementum
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What is the substance that forms the interior and major portion of the tooth?
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Dentin
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Which substance(s)is the hardest? (Enamel, Cementum or Dentin)
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Enamel
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What is the structure that holds a tooth in its socket and acts as a shock absorber?
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Periodontal ligament
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What is the gingival sulcus?
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space between free gingiva and tooth
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what is the normal sulcus depth in dogs and cats?
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Dogs: 1-3mm
Cats: 0.5-1mm |
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When do deciduous teeth begin to erupt in puppies?
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3 weeks
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what is the oldest age by which all deciduous teeth in puppies should be present?
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10 weeks
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when do deciduous teeth begin to erupt in kittens?
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2 weeks
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what is the oldest age by which all deciduous teeth in kittens should be present?
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6 weeks
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what type of permenant tooth is not present as a decisuous tooth in puppies and kittens?
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Primary Molars (or Molars)
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In what order to deciduous teeth in puppies and kittens usually erupt?
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incisors, canines, premolars
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what is the dental formula for puppy deciduous teeth?
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I3/3 C1/1 P3/3 (x2)
or I3 C1 P3 (x2) and I3 C1 P3 (x2) |
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what is the dental formula for kitten deciduous teeth?
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I3/3 C1/1 P3/2 (x2)
or I3 C1 P3 (x2) and I3 C1 P2 (x2) |
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when do permanent teeth begin to erupt in puppies?
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3 months
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What is the oldest age by which all permenant teeth in puppies should be present?
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7 months
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when to permanent teeh begin to erupt in kittens?
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3 months
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What is the oldest agy by which all permanent teeth in kittens should be present?
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6 months
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what is the dental formula for adult teeth in the dog?
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I3/3 C1/1 P4/4 M2/3 (x2)
or I3 C1 P4 M2 (x2) and I3 C1 P4 M3 (x2) |
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what is the dental formula for adult teeth in the cat?
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I3/3 C1/1 P3/2 M1/1 (x2)
or I3 C1 P3 M1 (x2) and I3 C1 P2 M1 (x2) |
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how many adult teeth do dogs have?
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42
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How many adult teeth do cats have?
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30
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which adult teeth in dogs have three roots?
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Max: P4, M1 and M2
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Which adult teeth in cats have three roots?
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Max: P4
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Which adult teeth in dogs have two roots?
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Max: P2, P3
Man: P2 P3 P4 M1 M2 |
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which adult teeth in cats have two roots?
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Max: P3
Man: P3 P4 M1 |
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which teeth are called the carnassial teeth in dogs and cats?
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Max: P4
Man: M1 |
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What is the relationship of the mandible to the maxilla in an animal with a class II malocclusion (distoclusion)?
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Mandibular teeth positioned distally to maxillary due to shortened mandibular
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What is the relationship of the mandible to the maxilla in an animals with a class III malocclusion (mesioclusion)?
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Mandibular positioned mesially to maxillary due to elongated mandibule or shortened maxilla
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Give three reasons why small breed dogs are more prone to periodontal disease then are larger breed dogs?
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Smaller mouths can overcrowd teeth, smaller dogs tend to not chew on toys as much as larger dogs, and smaller dogs are more often put on canned/semisolid diets
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what is plaque? how long does it take to form? how is it most easily removeD?
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A bacterial layer on teeth surfaces that forms 6-8 hours after pellicle forms, it's removed with a toothbrush
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What is calculus (tartar)? how long does it take to form? how is it most easily removed?
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When the bacterial layer begins to die and calcify in 3-5 days. Scraping will remove it.
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Which tooth in the dog is most commonly fractured?
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P4
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What is the difference between gingivitis and periodontitis from the standpoint of reversibility?
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Periodontitis is non-reversible
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What is the measure of degree of periodontitis and how is it best assessed?
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by bone loss through radiographs
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What is the purpost of root debridement and subgingibal curettage in the treatment of periodontal disease?
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Clean root surface and opposing gingiva
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What is HESKA PERIOceutic gel? Where is it applied and what is its purpose?
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A gel of doxycucline applied to periodontal pockets to assist healing and closing of pockets.
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What is Porphyromonas Denticanis-Gulae-Salivosa Bactrin and for what is it used?
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A vaccine used in healthy dogs as an aid in preventing canine periodontitis.
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What are the two types of ultrasonic scaling units?
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Magnetostrictive and piezoelectric
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What portion of the insert in the hand piece of an ultrasonic scaler is placed against the tooth?
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all but the back and sides
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What is the time interval that an ultrasonic scaler should be used on a tooth at one time? Why?
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5-10 seconds because excess heat may damage the tooth
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What two things should you do before using an ultrasonic scaler to remove subgingival calculus?
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Make sure you have the correct tip and the power levels are correct
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what is the low speed ahdn piece on a dental unit used for?
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Subgingival scaling
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What is the high speed hand piece on a dental unit used for?
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Cutting and drilling teeth
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Hand scalers are used to remove calculus on what part of the tooth?
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crown
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Curettes are used to remove calculus on what part of the tooth?
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Subgingival calculus
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for what is a periodontal probe used?
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to determine depth of pockets
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For what is a periodontal explorer used?
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detect subgingival calculus, resorptive leasions and exposed pulp
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dental elevators are used to break down what structure when extracting teeth?
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periodontal ligament
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how does one perform the bisecting angle technique for dental radiography?
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beam angled perpendicular to film with intraoral film parrallel to pallate and mandible.
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what radiographic artifacts does the bisecting angle technique minimize?
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foreshortening and elongation
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for which teeth is the bisecting angle technique recommended when performing dental radiography?
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mandibular incisors and canine and all maxillary teeth
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for which teeth is the parallel techinique recommended when performing dental radiography?
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mandibular premolars and molars
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What type of film is recommended for dental radiography to give optimum detail?
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non-screen intraoral dental film
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what is a dental prophylaxis?
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procedures to remove calculus and stain from teeth and polish enamel
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what are three potential complications that can occur when performing a dental prophylaxis?
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injury to gingival tissues, damage to enamel and bacteremia
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In what position should an animal be when a dental prophylaxis is performed?
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lateral recombancy with head tilted downward
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why is it important that an ET tube with a properly inflated cuff be used when performing a dental prophylaxis?
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in case any water or bacteria does make it down the throat it won't get into the lungs
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why should the technician wear a mask, goggles, and gloves when performing a dental prophylaxis?
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aerosalized bacteria and debris can be hazardous
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what is the time interval that each tooth should be polished at one time?
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5-10 seconds
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What two products are routinely used on teeth at the end of a routine dental prophylaxis?
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flouride treatment and oravet barrier sealant
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what is the purpose of oravet barrier sealant?
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to prevent plaque and calculus buildup
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how often should clients brush the teeth of their dog or cat?
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daily
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what type of food most promotes the formation of dental tartar?
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semi-moist
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what type of food least promotes the formation of tartar?
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dry
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what does the term exodontics refer to?
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extraction of teeth
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What does the term endodontics refer to?
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treatment of dental pulp
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what is the most common indication for endodontics in dogs and cats?
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fractured teeth
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in what time frame should a vital pulpotomy be performed on a mature tooth?
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within 48 hours
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how does a standard root canal differ from a vital pulpotomy?
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root canals remove all pulp while vital pulpotomy removes only dead pulp and disinfects living pulp
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what is the purpose of restorative dentistry?
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restore form and function and protection for tooth after endotonic treatment
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what type of restorative provides the hardest material and is easiest to install?
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Alalgam (silver alloys)
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what type of restorative material is most commonly used in veterinary medicine?
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composites (plastic)
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what is the purpose of orthodontics?
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to correct dental malocclusions class I
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what advice should be given relative to breeding and showing animals that require orthodontic procedures?
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stop showing and breeding because it is genetic
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what tooth ismost prone to develop a tooth root abscess? what externalsymptom frequently accompanies this?
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maxillary carnassial teeth, fractured teeth with exposed pulp
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what is a feline odontoclastic resorptive lesion? what is the best treatment for this condition?
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a progressive resorption of enamel, dentin and pulp until crown is lost. best treatment is extraction
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what is feline lymphocytic plasmacytic stomatitis? what information should client be given relative to treatment of the condition? for what two disorders should cats with this condition be tested?
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Cronic inflammation of oral mucosa. Its possibly due to an autoimmune disease. the animal should be checked for FeLV and FIV
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What is the most common feline oral tumor?
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squamous cell carcinoma
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what is the most common canine oral tumor?
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malignant melanoma
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What two injectable local anesthetic agents are used most commonly in veterinary medicine?
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Lidocaine (xylocaine) and Buprivicaine (marcaine)
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What two topical local anesthetics are used most commonly for ophthalmic procedures in veterinary medicine?
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tetracaine (pontocaine) and proparacaine (ophthaine)
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what is the mechanism of action of local anesthetic agents?
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blocks sodium channels in membrane
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list the proper order in which sensation to heat, cold, pressure and pain are lost under local anesthesia?
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pain, cold, head and then pressure
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on what two areas of the body is topical application of local anesthetic most effective?
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mucous membranes and cornea
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what should be done to the skin before performing local anesthesia?
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clip and use aseptic technique
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in reference to infiltration local analgesia techniques, what is the difference between a nerve block and a line bloock?
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a nerve block is an analgesic placed around a specific nerve while a line block is a ling of SQ analgesic placed proximal to area between area used and spine
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what is the most common use of nerve blocks in small animal practice?
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dental blocks
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what is the most common use of line blocks in small animal practice?
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declaw in cat
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compare the differences inonset of action and duration of effect for ludocaine and bupivicaine
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lidocaine has an almost immediate onset of action while it takes bupivicaine 20 minutes. lidocaine lasts an hour while bupivicaine lasts 4-6 hours
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on what area of the body can surgical procedures using epidural analgesia?
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abdomen, pelvis, tail, pelvic limbs and perineum
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are dogs or cats at greater risk for damage to the spinal cord during administration of epidural anesthesia?
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cats
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what is the effect on heart rate and blood pressure if sympathetic blockade occurs when epidural analgesia is used on a patient?
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vasodialation, hypotention, bradycardia, and decreased ventricular contractions.
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what is the effect on respiration if cranial infiltration of the spinal cord occurs during epidural analgesia? why?
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respiration is impaired because paralysis of intercostal muscles and diaphram occur
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what should be done relative to patient position to help prevent side effects during epidural anesthesia?
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elevate head
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what is the effect of injecting a local anesthetic agent into a nerve?
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temporary or permanent loss of function
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what is the maximum SQ dose of lidocaine in dogs and cats?
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dogs: 10 mg/kg
cats: 4mg/kg |
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what is the maximum SQ dose of bupivicaine in dogs and cats?
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Dogs: 2 mg/kg
cats: 1mg/kg |
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epinephrine is often added to the local analgesic agent lidocaine to prolong its duration of effect. how does this drug prolong the duration of effect of lidocaine as a local analgesic agent?
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epinephrine decreases absorption into the blood stream due to vasodialation
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what is the difference between assisted and controlled ventilation?
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assisted allows the animal to continue individual breaths while controlled does all the breathing for the animal
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give an example of assisted ventilation
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squeezing the bag every 5 minutes
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what is the stimulus for inspiration in an animal (or person)?
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CO2 levels raise and cause the respiratory center to initiate another breath
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what happens if you bag a patient under inhalation anesthesia too frequently?
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CO2 does not build up and spontaneous respirations do not occur
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describe the process of gaining and relinquishing control of ventilation in an anesthetized patient
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when you reduce vaporizer setting and assist breathing at 12-16/br/min for 3-5 minutes you gain control. in order to relinquish, you must reduce inspiration rate to 5 br/min until animal breathes spontaneously
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give an example of a surgical procedure in which controlled ventilation is necessary
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thoracic surgery
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what is the most important thing that must be done for an animal when a neuromuscular blocking agent is used
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you must control breathing for them
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why is it not appropriate to use a neuromuscular blocker as the sole agent for surgical procedures?
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because they have no anesthetic, analgesic or sedative effects
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what is the effect on anesthetic monitoring when a neuromuscular blocking agent is used?
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difficult to do because of absence of normal reflexes, jawtone and movement
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what are the five steps in performing CPR
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A- Airway (check if clear)
B- Breathing (make sure animal is breathing C- Circulation (get heart pumping and check for blockages) D- Drugs (administer as necessary) E- ECG/Examination |
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how is step one most commonly and effectively accomplished in the hospital setting?
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intubation
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in what position should a patient be placed when performing CPR?
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right lateral recumbancy
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at what rate should an animal be ventilated when performing CPR?
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15-20 BrPM
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at what rate should cardiac compressions be done when performing CPR?
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80-100/min
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with what inflation pressure should an animal be ventilated when performing CPR using the cardiac pump technique
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20-30cm of H20
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with what inflation pressure should an animal be ventilated when performing CPR using thoracic pump technique
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20-30cm of H2o
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what is the proper pattern of bentilation and compre4ssion when performing CPR using the cardia pump technique
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ventilate every 5th (to 15th) compression
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what is the proper pattern of bentilation and compression when performing CPR using the thoracic pump technique
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ventilate simultaneously with every 2nd compression
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on what size animals are use of the cardia pump technique and the thoracic pump technique resprctively recommended?
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Cardiac: <10Kg
Thoracic: >10Kg |
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how is the Jen Chung acupumcture philtrum point governor vessel 26 technique performed? what is its purpost?
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use a 25-28G needle inserted into the bast of the midline of nasal philtrum to cause stimulated breathing
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what anesthetic gas has been most associated with reproductive risks with long term exposure?
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nitrous oxide
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what is the most prudent recommendation for pregnant women relative to exposure to all anesthetic gases?
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avoid them
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what two anesthetic gases have been associated with hepatotoxicity in humans?
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halothane and methoxyflurane
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what three anesthetic gases have been associated with renal toxicity?
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methoxyflurane, sevoflurane and NO2
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which anesthetic gas has been associated with CNS effects in jumans?
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NO2
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what effects on the CNS may be sen with chronic exposure to high levels of all anesthetic gas?
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decline in motor skills and short term memory
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what is the single most important thing that can be done to minimize human exposure to waste antesthetic gas?
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use a scavenger system
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what is the difference btween an active and a passive scavenger?
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active uses a suction vacuum, passes uses the positive pressure from the system
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when should a chemical scavenger be replaced?
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after 12 hours of use or when it gains 50g in weight
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what is the maximum O2 flow rate at which a chemical scavenger is considered effecient?
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2L/Min
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what three categories of injectable durgs used for anesthetic procudres are of greatest risk relative to accidental human exposure to small amounts?
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potent opiods, cyclohexamines, and a-2 agnoists
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in what location on the chest is the cardiac pump technique performed?
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directly over the heart
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in what location on the chest is the thoracic pump technique performed?
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over the widest area of the thorax
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what type of prep of the chest is done prior to performing internal cardiac massage?
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rapid clip of thorax from dorsal to midline over 6th ICS and squirt with steril prep solution
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what should be done relative to ventilations when entering the chest to perform internal cardiac massage?
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stop ventilations
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should shock dosages of IV fluids always be adminstered when performing CPR?
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no, because you don't want to overload the animal with fluids
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what is the rule of thumb for dosage of epinephrine (1:1000), lidocaine (2%) and atropine (0.5-0.6 mg/ml) to be administered during CPR for a non-anesthetic related arrest?
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it should equal the bodyweight in Kg multiplied by 0.1
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what change should be made to the dose and the concentration of epinephrine administered if the arrest occurs under isoflurane anesthesia?
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dilute to 1:10000 and give 2/10 times the weight in Kg
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what is teh initial drug of choice for CPR?
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epinephrine
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what is the treatment of choice for ventricular fibrillation?
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bretylium
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what are dopamine and dobutamine? how are they administered?
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positive inotropes taht are given by IV infusion
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list six short term effect to personnel that result from exposure to anesthetic gas.
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headache, fatigue, irritability, depression, muscle pain, drowsiness
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what four body systems are considered most at risk for long term effect due to chronic exposure to anesthetic gas?
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reproductive, liver, kidney and nervous system dysfunction.
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