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275 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
|
How do Vmax differe between competitive and noncompetitive inhibitors
|
competitive - unchanged
noncompetitive - decreased |
|
How do Km differ between competitive and noncompetitive inhibitors
|
compeittive - increase
noncompetitive - unchanged |
|
how are pharmacodynamics affected by competitive inhibitors
|
decrease in potency
|
|
how are pharmacodynamics affected by noncompetitive inhibitors
|
decrease in efficacy
|
|
what is the formula for volume of distribution
|
amount of drug in the body/plasma drug concentration
|
|
where is a low volume of distribution held
|
in blood
|
|
where is a medium volume of distribution held
|
extracellular space or body water
|
|
where is a high volume of distribution held
|
distributed to all tissues
|
|
what are the two formula's for clearence
|
- rate of elimination of drug/plasma drug conc
- Vd x Ke (elimination constant) |
|
how many half-lifes does it take to reach steady state
|
4-5
|
|
wha tis the formula for half life
|
t1/2 = (0.7 x Vd)/ CL
|
|
what is the formula for loading dose
|
Cp X (Vd/F)
|
|
what is the formula for maintenance dose
|
Cp x (CL/F)
|
|
how are maintence and loading dose affected in renal and liver disease
|
maintence dose decreases and loading dose is unchanged
|
|
what are three examples of zero order drugs
|
- Phenytoin
- Ethanol - Asprin (at high or toxic conc) |
|
what is rate of elimation equal to in first order reaction
|
- drug concentration
|
|
how does target plasma concentration change during first order reactions
|
- decreases exponentially
|
|
What three things occur during phase 1 metabolism and what metabolites are made
|
- oxidation, reduction, hydrolysis
- yields slightly polar and water soluble metabolites |
|
What three things occur during phase 2 metabolism and what metabolites are made
|
- acetylation, glucuronidation, sulfation
- Yields very polar, inactive metabolites which are normal excreted |
|
what is efficacy
|
maximal effect a drug can produce
|
|
what is potency
|
amount of drug needed for a given effect
|
|
what is the effect of a competitive antagonisist
|
- shifts curve to right and decreases potency with no change in efficacy
|
|
what is the effect of a noncompetitive antagonist
|
- shifts curve down and decreases efficacy
|
|
what is the effect of a partial agonist
|
- acts at same site as full agonist but with reduced maximal effect and decreased efficacy
- potency can increase or decrease |
|
what is physiologic antagonism
|
substance that produces the opposite physiologic effect of an agonist but does not act at the same receptor
|
|
what is the formula for therapeudic index
|
LD50/ED50
|
|
what are the adrenal medulla and sweat glands innervated by
|
cholinergic fibers and the sympathetic NS
|
|
what type of receptors are nicotinic ACh
|
ligand-gated Na+/K+ channels
|
|
what type of receptors are muscarinic ACh receptors
|
G-protein-coupled receptors
|
|
what are the three major functions of alpha 1 receptors
|
- icnreased vascular smooth muscle contraction
- increased pupillary dilator muscle contraction - increased intestinal and bladder sphincter muscle contraction |
|
what is mydriasis
|
dilation of pupil
|
|
what are the two main functions of alpha 2 receptors
|
decrease in sympathetic outflow
decrease in insulin reelease |
|
what are the four main functions of Beta 1 receptors
|
- increase in heart rate
- increase in contractility - increase in renin release - increase in lipolysis |
|
what are the seven main functions of Beta 2 receptors
|
- vasodilation
- bronchodilation - increased heart rate - increased contractility - increased lipolysis - incrased insulin release - decreased uterine tone |
|
what does M1 receptors act on
|
CNS and enteric NS
|
|
what are the two functions of M2 receptors
|
decrease in heart rate and contractility of atria
|
|
What are the six major functions of M3 receptors
|
- increase in exocrine gland secretions
- increase in gut peristalsis - increase in bladder contraction - bronchoconstriction -increase in pupillary sphincter muscle contraction - ciliary muscle contraction |
|
what are the major function of D1 receptors
|
- Relaxes renal vascular smooth muscle
|
|
what is the main function of D2 receptors
|
- modulates transmitter release especially in the brain
|
|
what are the four main functions of H1 receptors
|
- increase in nasal and bronchial mucus production
- contraction of bronchioles - pruritus - secretion |
|
What is the main function of H2 receptors
|
increase gastric acid secretion
|
|
Wha tis the main function of V1 receptors
|
increase vascular smooth muscle contraction
|
|
what is the main function of V2 receptors
|
- Increase in H2O permeability and reabsorption in the collecting tubules of the Kidney
|
|
Wha tis the Gq receptor pathway
|
- Activation of phospholipase C
- Lipids are converted to PIP2 - PIP2 is converted to IP3 and DAG - IP2 increase Calcium intake - DAG activates protein kinase C |
|
What is the Gs recptor pathway
|
-Activation of Adenylyl cyclase
- activation of ATP to cAMP - cAMP activates protein Kinase C |
|
What is the Gi receptor pathway
|
- activation of Adenylyl cyclase
- decrease in cAMP - decrease in protein Kinase A |
|
What drug blocks choline uptake by cholinergic neurons
|
= Hemicholinum
|
|
What blocks ACH uptake by vsicles in the cholinergic neurons
|
- vesamicol
|
|
what blacks ACH vesicle binding in cholinergic receptors
|
- botulinum
|
|
what blocks conversion of tyrposine to DOPA
|
metyrosine
|
|
what blocks uptake of dopamine into vesicles in Noradrenergic neurons
|
Reserpine
|
|
what blocks NE vesicle binding in Noradrenergic neurons
|
Guanethidine
|
|
what increases NE vesicle binding in noradrenergic neurons
|
amphetamine
|
|
what three things block NE reuptake by Noradrenergic receptors
|
- cocanine
- TCA's - amphetamine |
|
What drug is used for postoperative and neurogenic ileus and urinary retention
|
bethanechol
|
|
what is the function of bethanechol
|
- activates bowel and bladder smooth muscle
|
|
what drug is used for glaucoma, pupillary contraaction and relief of intraocular pressure
|
carbachol
|
|
what does carbachol act similar to
|
acetylcholine
|
|
what drug is a potent stimulator of sweat tears and saliva
|
Pilocarpine
|
|
what are are the two main functionos pilocarpine
|
contacts ciliary muscle of eye and pupillary sphincter
|
|
what is Pilocarpine resistant to
|
AChE
|
|
what drug is used for the challenge test for diagnosis of asthma
|
methacholine
|
|
what is the action of methacoline
|
stimulates muscarinic receptors in airway when inhaled
|
|
what are the four main direct agonists for cholinomimetic agents
|
- Bethanechol
- Carbachol - Pilocarpine - Methacholine |
|
what are the five indirect cholinomimetic agents
|
- neostigmine
- pyridostigmine - Edrophonium - Physostigmine - Echothiophate |
|
What indirect agonist is used to treat postoperative and neuro genic ileus and urinary retetion, Myasthenia gravis, reversal of neuromuscular junction blockadge
|
neostimine
|
|
What is the action of neostigmine
|
increases indogenous ACh
|
|
what two anticholinesterases dont penetrate the CNS
|
- Neostigmine
- Pyridostigime |
|
what are the two actions of pyridostigmine
|
- increase endogenous ACh
- Increase strength |
|
what is the clinical application for Pyridostigime
|
long acting myasthenia gravis
|
|
what drug is short acting for diagnosis of Myasthenia gravis
|
edrophonium
|
|
what is the main action for edrophonium
|
increases endogenous ACH
|
|
what drug is used to treat atropine OD and glaucoma
|
physostigmine
|
|
what drug is used to treat only glaucoma
|
chothiophate
|
|
what three things should be watched for wiht choliomimetic agents
|
- exacerbation of COPD, Asthma and peptic ulcers
|
|
what is the antidote for cholinesterase inhibitor poisoning
|
- atropine and pralidoxime
|
|
what drug regenerates active AChE
|
pralidoxime
|
|
what normally causes cholinesterase inhibitor poisoning
|
- organophosphates
|
|
what ar ethe symptoms of cholinesterase inhibitor poisioning
|
D - Diarrhea
U - Urination M - Miosis B - Bronchospasm B - Bradycardia E - Excitation of Skeletal muscle and CNS L - Lacrimation S - Sweating S - Salivation |
|
what three muscarinic antagonists treat the eye
|
- atropine
- homatropine - tropicamide |
|
what is the function of muscarnic antagonists on the eye
|
produce mydriasis and cycloplegia
|
|
what two muscarinic antagonists treat the CNS
|
- Benztropine and scopolamine
|
|
what drug treats motion sickness
|
scopolamine
|
|
what drug treates parkison's disease
|
Benztropine
|
|
what muscarnic antagonist is used to treat the respiratory system
|
Ipratropium
|
|
what is Ipratropium used to treat
|
- asthma and COPD
|
|
what two muscarinic antagonists treat the genitourinary tract
|
- ocybutynin
- glycopyrrolate |
|
what is the function of oxybutynin and glycopyrrolate
|
- reduce urgency in mild cystitis and reduce bladder spasms
|
|
what three muscarinic antagonists are used for the GI tract
|
- methscopolamine
- pirenzepine - propantheline |
|
what are methscopolamine, pirenzepine and propantheline used to treat
|
- peptic ulcers
|
|
how does atropine affect the eye
|
increased pupil dilation and cycloplegia
|
|
how does atropine affect the airway
|
decreased secrations
|
|
how does atropine affect the stomach
|
decreased acid secreation
|
|
how does atropine affect the Gut
|
decreased motility
|
|
how does atropine affect the bladder
|
- decreaed urgency in cystitis
|
|
what are the the six main atributes of atropine toxicity
|
- increased temp due to decreased sweating
- rapid pulse - dry mouth and skin - cycloplegia - constipation - disorientation |
|
what can atropine cause in elderly
|
acute angle closure glaucoma
|
|
what can atropine cause in men with prostatic hyperplasia
|
urinary retention
|
|
what can atropine cause in infants
|
hyperthermia
|
|
what drug is a nicotinic antagonist
|
hexamethonium
|
|
what is hexamethonium used for
|
- ganglionic blocker to prevent vagal reflex responses to changes in blood pressure
- prevents reflex bradycardia caused by NE - helps smokers quit |
|
what are the four main atributes of hexamethonium toxicity
|
- sever orthostatic hypotension
- blurred vision - constipation - sexual dysfunction |
|
what receptors does EPI act on
|
- alpha 1 and 2
- Beta 1 and 2 |
|
what receptors are low doses of epi selective for
|
Beta 1
|
|
what receptors are targeted with NE
|
alpha 1, alpha 2 > Beta 1
|
|
what is NE used to treat
|
- hypotension and AV block
|
|
what drug is isolated to beta receptors
|
isoproternol
|
|
what is used to treat AV block
|
- Isoproterenol
|
|
what receptors are targets for dopamine
|
D1=D2 > B >alhja, inotropic and chronotropic
|
|
what drug is used to treat shock
|
dopamine
|
|
what drug is used to treat theart failure
|
dobutamine
|
|
what drug is used for cardiac stress testing
|
dobutamine
|
|
what receptors are targeted for dobutamine
|
B1 > B2, inotropic but not chronotropic
|
|
what drug is used for pupillary dilation, vasoconstriction and nasal decongestion
|
- phenylephrine
|
|
what receptors are targeted with phenylephrine
|
alpha 1 > alpha 2
|
|
what two drugs are used to treate acute asthma
|
- metaproterenol and albuterol
|
|
what drug beta agonist is used for long term treatment of asthma
|
salmeterol
|
|
what two drugs is used to reduce premature uterine contractions
|
terbutaline and ritodrine
|
|
what are the four main beta2 agonists
|
- metaproterenol
- albuterol - salmeterol - terbutaline |
|
what is the difference between ritodrine and terbutaline
|
- ritodrine targets B2 specifically and terbutaline is a selective B2 agonist
|
|
what is used to treat narcolepsy, obesity and ADD
|
amphetamine
|
|
what is used to treat nasal decongestion, urinary incontinence and hypotension
|
- Ephedrine
|
|
what causes vasoconstriction and local anesthesia
|
cocain
|
|
what are the three main indirect sympathomimetics
|
- Amphetamine
- Ephedrine - Cocaine |
|
what is the mechanism o faction for amphetamiene
|
releases stored catecholamines
|
|
wha tis the mechanism of action for ephedrine
|
releases stored catecholamines
|
|
what is the mechanism of action for cocaine
|
uptake inhibitor
|
|
what are the two main sympathoplegics
|
- Clonidine
- Alpha-methyldopa |
|
what is the mechanism for sympathoplegics
|
centrally acting alpha-2 agonists, decrease central adrenergic outflow
|
|
what is the application for sympathoplegics
|
- hypertension especially with renal disease because ther eis no decrease in blood flow to kidney
|
|
what drug is an irreversible non-selective alphablocker
|
- phenoxybenzamine
|
|
what drug is a reversible non-selective alphablocker
|
phentolamine
|
|
what is the toxicity from non-selective alpha blockers
|
- orthostatic hypotension and reflex tachycardia
|
|
what are three alpha 1 selevtive blockers
|
- prazosin
- terazosin - doxazosin |
|
what is fhe function of alpha 1 selective blockers
|
- hypertension
- urinary retention in BPH |
|
what is the toxicity from alpha-1 selective blockers
|
- 1st dose hypotension
- dizziness - headache |
|
what drug is an alpha 2 selective blocker
|
Mirtazapine
|
|
what is mirtazapine used to treat
|
depression
|
|
what are toxicity symptoms from mirtazapine
|
- sedation
- increased serum cholesterol - increaed appetitie |
|
what 6 applications are beta-blockers used for
|
- hypertension
- angina pectoris - MI - SVT - CHF - Glaucoma |
|
what two drugs are used to treat SVT
|
- propranolol
- esmolol |
|
what drug is used to treat glaucoma
|
- timolol
|
|
What is the effect of beta-blockers for hypertesnionj
|
- decrease Cardiac output
- decrease renin secreation |
|
what are the effects of beta blockers for angina pectoris
|
- decrease heart rate and contractility resulting in decreased oxygen consumption
|
|
what is the effect of betablockers for MIs
|
decrease mortality
|
|
what is the effect of betablockers for SVT
|
decrease in AV conductioin velocity
|
|
what is the effect of beta blockers for CHF
|
slows progression of chronic failure
|
|
what is the effect of timolol
|
decreases secretion of aqueous humor
|
|
what are the four signs of beta-blocker toxicity
|
- impotence
- exacerbation of asthma - cardiovascular adverse effections - CNS adverse affects |
|
what are the four non-selective beta blocker antagonists
|
- propranolol
- timolol - nadolol - pindolol |
|
what are the five B1 selective antagonists
|
- acebutolol
- betaxolol - Esmolol - atenolol - Metoprolol |
|
what are the two nonselective alpha and beta antagonists
|
- carvedilol
- labetalol |
|
what are the two partila beta agonits
|
- pindolol
- acebutolol |
|
what are Beta one selective antagonists useful for
|
- patients with comorbid pulmonary disease
|
|
what patients should beta-blocker use be cautioned for
|
diabetics
|
|
what are the three cardiac adverse affects from beta-blocker toxicity
|
- bradycardia
- AV block - CHF |
|
what are the CNS adverse effects from beta-blocker toxicity
|
- sedation
- sleep alterations |
|
what is the treatment for acetaminophen toxicity
|
- N-acetylcysteine
|
|
what is the treatment for salicylates toxicity
|
- NaHCO3 (alalinize urine)
- dialysis |
|
what is the treatment for Amphetamine toxicity
|
- NH4Cl (acidify urine
|
|
what is the treatment for acetylcholinesterase inhibitor toxicity
|
- atropine and pralidoxime
|
|
what is the treatment for organophosphate toxicity
|
atropine and pralidoxime
|
|
what is the treatment for antimuscarnic toxicity
|
- physostigmine salicylate
|
|
what is the treatmenet for anticholinergic aget toxicity
|
- physostigmine salicylate
|
|
what is the treatment for beta-blocker toxicity
|
dopamine
|
|
what is the treatment for Digitalis toxicity
|
- stop dig, normalize K+, lidocane, anti-dig Fab fragments and magnesium
|
|
what is the treatment for iron poisining
|
deferoxamine
|
|
what are the four treatments for lead poisoining
|
- CaEDTA
- Dimercaprol - succimer - penicillamine |
|
what are the two treatments for mercury, arsenic and gold poisoning
|
- dimercaprol (BAL)
- succimer |
|
what is the treatment for copper, arsenic, gold poisoning
|
- penicillamine
|
|
wha tare the three treatments for cyanide poisining
|
- nitrite
- hydroxocobalamin - thiosulfate |
|
what iare the two treatments for methemoglobin toxicity
|
- methylene blue
- vitamin c |
|
what is the treatment for carbon monoxide poisoning
|
- 100 percent o2 and hyperbaric oxygen
|
|
what are the three treatmetns for methanol, ethylene glycol posioning
|
- ethanol
- dialysis - fomepizole |
|
what is the treatment for opiod OD
|
Naloxone/naltrexone
|
|
what is the treatment for benzodiazepine OD
|
flumazenil
|
|
What is the treatment for TCA OD
|
NaHCO3 (plasma alkalinization)
|
|
what is the treatment for heparin OD
|
Protamine
|
|
what is the treatment for Warfarin OD
|
- vitamin K and fresh frozen plasma
|
|
what is the treatmetn for tPA and streptokinase toxicity
|
- Aminocaproic acid
|
|
what is the treatment for Theophylline posioning
|
B-blocker
|
|
What drug causes atropine like side effects
|
TCAs
|
|
what two drugs cause coronary vasospasm
|
- cocain
- sumatriptan |
|
what four drugs cause cutaneous flushing
|
- Vancomycine
- Adenosine - Niacin - Calcium channel blockers |
|
What two drugs cause dilated cardiomyopathy
|
- Doxorubicin (Adriamycin)
- daunorubicin |
|
what two drugs cause Torsades de pointes
|
- class three (sotalol)
- Class IA (quinidine) antiarrhymics |
|
What six drugs can cause agranulocytosis
|
- clozapine
- carbamazepine - colchicine - propylthiouracil - methimazole - dapsone |
|
what five drugs can cause aplastic anemia
|
- chloramphenicol
- benzene - NSAIDs - Propylthiouracil - methimazole |
|
what drug can cause direct Coombs-postive hemolytic anemia
|
methyldopa
|
|
What drug can cause gray baby syndrome
|
chloramephenicol
|
|
what six drugs can cause hemolysis is G6PD deficient pts
|
- Isoniazid (INH)
- Sulfonamides - Primaquine - Asprin - Ibuprofen - Nitrofurantonin |
|
what three drugs can cause megaloblastic anemia
|
- phenytoin
- methotrexate - sulfa |
|
what drugs cause thrombotic complication
|
OCPs
|
|
what drugs cause cough
|
- ACE inhibitors
|
|
what three drugs can cause pulmonary fibrosis
|
- Bleomycin
- Aminodaron - Busulfan |
|
what drug can cause acute cholestatic hepatitis
|
Macrolides
|
|
What six drugs can cause agranulocytosis
|
- clozapine
- carbamazepine - colchicine - propylthiouracil - methimazole - dapsone |
|
what five drugs can cause aplastic anemia
|
- chloramphenicol
- benzene - NSAIDs - Propylthiouracil - methimazole |
|
what drug can cause direct Coombs-postive hemolytic anemia
|
methyldopa
|
|
What drug can cause gray baby syndrome
|
chloramephenicol
|
|
what six drugs can cause hemolysis is G6PD deficient pts
|
- Isoniazid (INH)
- Sulfonamides - Primaquine - Asprin - Ibuprofen - Nitrofurantonin |
|
what three drugs can cause megaloblastic anemia
|
- phenytoin
- methotrexate - sulfa |
|
what drugs cause thrombotic complication
|
OCPs
|
|
what drugs cause cough
|
- ACE inhibitors
|
|
what three drugs can cause pulmonary fibrosis
|
- Bleomycin
- Aminodaron - Busulfan |
|
what drug can cause acute cholestatic hepatitis
|
Macrolides
|
|
What three drugs can cause focal to massive hepatic necrosis
|
- Halothane
- valproic acid - Acetaminophen |
|
What fungus can cause focal to massive hepatic necrosis
|
Amanita phalloides
|
|
what drug can cause hepatitis
|
INH
|
|
What two drugs can cause pseudomembranous colitis
|
- Clindamycin
- Ampicillin |
|
what drug can cause adrenocortical insufficiency
|
Glucocorticoid withdrawal by HPA suppresion
|
|
what 6 drugs can cause gynecomastia
|
- Spironolactone
- Digitalis - Cimetidine - Chronic Alcohol Use - estrogens - Ketoconazole |
|
what two drugs can cause hot flashes
|
Tamoxifen
Clomiphene |
|
what two drugs can cause hypothyroidism
|
- Lithium
- amiodarone |
|
what drug can cause gingival hyperplasia
|
phenytonin
|
|
what two drugs can cause gout
|
- Furosemide
- thiazides |
|
what two drugs can cause osteoporosis
|
- corticosteroids
- heparin |
|
what three drugs can caus ephotsensitivity
|
- Sulfonamides
- Amiodarone - Tetracycline |
|
What 8 drugs can cause rash (stevens - Johnson syndrome)
|
- Ethosuximide
- Lamotrigine - Carbamazepine - phenobarbital - phenytonin - Sulfa drugs - penicillin - Allopurinol |
|
What four drugs can cause SLE-like syndrome
|
- Hydralazine
- INH - Procainamide - Phenytoin |
|
what drugs can cause tendonitis, tendon rupture and cartilage damage in kids
|
- Fluoroquinolones
|
|
What drugs can cause fanconi's sydrom
|
- expired tetracycline
|
|
what three drugs can cause interstitial nephritis
|
- methicillin
- NSAIDs - furosemide |
|
What two drugs can cause hemorrhagic cystitis
|
- cyclophosphamide
- ifosfamide |
|
how do you prevent hemorrhagic cystitis from ifosfamide
|
- coadministering with mesna
|
|
what two drugs can cause Cinchonism
|
- Quinidine and quinine
|
|
what two drugs can cause diabetes insipidus
|
- Lithium and demeclocycline
|
|
what four drugs can caus eparkinson like syndrome
|
- Haloperidol
- chlorpromazine - reserpine - metoclopramide |
|
what four drugs can cause seizures
|
- Bupropion
- imipenem/cilastatin - isoniazid |
|
what drugs can cause tardive dyskinesia
|
- antipsychotics
|
|
what four drugs can cause disulfiram like reaction
|
- Metronidazole
- certain cephalosporins - procarbazine - 1st generation sulfonylureas |
|
what drugs can cause nephrotoxicity and neurotoxicity
|
- polymyxins
|
|
what four drugs can cause nephrotoxicity/ototoxicity
|
- Aminoglycosides
- Vancomycin - Loop diuretics - cisplatin |
|
What are the 8 inducers of p-450
|
- Quinidine
- Barbiturate - St. John's Wort - Phenytonin - Rifampin - Griseofulvin - Carbamazepine - Griseofulvin - Carbamazepine - Chronic alcohol use |
|
What are the 8 inhibitors of p-450
|
- HIV protease inhibitors
- Ketoconazole - Erythromycin - Grapefruit juice - Acute alcohol use - Sulfonamides - Isoniazids - Cimetidine |
|
what can induce and inhibit different isoforms of p-450
|
- Quinidine
|
|
what does alcohol dehydrogenase convert ethylene glycol to
|
- Oxalic acid
|
|
What does oxalic acid cause
|
- Acidosis and nephrotoxicity
|
|
what does alcohol dehydrogenase convert methanol to
|
- formaldehyde and formic acid
|
|
what does formaldehyde and formic acid cause
|
- sever acidosis and retinal damage
|
|
what does acetaldehyde cause
|
- nausea
- vomiting - headache - hypotension |
|
what blocks acetaldehyde dehydrogenase
|
Disulfiram
|
|
what is acetaldehyde dehydrogenase form
|
Acetic acid
|
|
what blocks alchol dehydrogenase formation of acetaldehyde
|
fomepizole
|
|
what are the three competitive substrates for ADH
|
- Ethylene glycol
- Methanol - Ethanol |
|
what does Alcohol metabolism deplete
|
NAD+
|
|
What is NAD+ needed for in the liver
|
fatty acid oxidation in the liver and conversion of pyruvate to lactate
|
|
what does does depletion of NAD+ cause in the liver
|
fatty liver and lactic acidosis
|
|
what is responsible for the glow seen in some individuals after drinking
|
- Polymorphism in the gene that codes for acetaldehyde dehydrogenase
|
|
what are the 9 main sulfa drugs
|
- Celecoxib
- furosemide - probenecid - thiazides - TMP-SMX - sulfasalazine - Sulfonylureas - Acetazolamide - Sulfonamide antibiotics |
|
what are the 7 possible symptoms associated with sulfa allergies
|
- Fever
- pruritic rash - Stevens-johnson syndrom - hemolytic anemia - thrombocytopenia - agranulocytosis - urticaria |
|
what category are -afil drugs
|
erectile dysfunction
|
|
what category are -ane drugs
|
inhalation general anesthetic
|
|
what categorary are -azepam
|
- Benzodiazepine
|
|
what category are azine
|
phenothiazine (neuroleptic, antiemetic)_
|
|
what category of drugs are azole
|
antifungal
|
|
what category of drugs are barbital
|
barbituate
|
|
what category of drugs are -caine
|
local anesthetic
|
|
what category of drugs are -cillin
|
penicillin
|
|
what category of drugs are -cycline
|
- antibiotic, protein synthesis inhibitor
|
|
what category of drugs are -etine
|
SSRI
|
|
what category of drugs are -ipramine
|
TCA
|
|
what category of drugs are -navir
|
protease inhibitor
|
|
what category of drugs are -olol
|
B-antagonist
|
|
what category of drugs are -operidol
|
Butyrophenone (neuroleptic
|
|
what category of drugs are -oxin
|
Cardiac glycoside
|
|
what category of drugs are -phylline
|
methylxanthine
|
|
what category of drugs are -pril
|
ACE inhibitor
|
|
what category of drugs are -terol
|
beta-2 agonist
|
|
what category of drugs are -tidine
|
H2 antagonist
|
|
what category of drugs are - triptan
|
5-HT 1B/1D agonists (migrane)
|
|
what category of drugs are -triptyline
|
TCA
|
|
what category of drugs are -tropin
|
- pituitary hormone
|
|
what category of drugs are -zolam
|
Benzodiazepine
|
|
what category of drugs are -zosin
|
alpha1 antagonist
|
