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52 Cards in this Set

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  • Back
What are type 1 and type 2 alveolar cells?
Type 1 are involved in gasoues exchange, type 2 secrete surfactant
What are pores of Kohn?
Join alveoli
What are the FIVE functions of the lung?
- gaseous exchange
- conversion of angiotensin to angiotensin II (ACE)
- conversion of lipoxygenases to leukotrienes
- conversion of arachadonic acid to prostaglandins (COX)
- uptake of norepinephrine and histamine
- release of heparin
What are the THREE openings in the diaphragm?
- aorta/azygous vein/thoracic duct
- caval foramen (vena cava)
- oesophageal hiatus
What innervates the diaphragm?
Phrenic nerves, arising from C3-C5 roots
What is pulmonary surfactant?
Phospholipid, secreted by type 2 alveolar cells
What FOUR receptor types control respiration? Where are they located?
Central chemoreceptors - pons + medulla (acidity of CSF reflects pCO2)
Peripheral chemoreceptors - aotric + carotid bodies
Pulmonary stretch receptors
Irritant receptors (don't know where!)
What is the Bohr effect?
Increased HbO2 dissociation in the presence of increased pCO2
What is the Haldane effect?
Displacement of CO2 at lungs (Hb+O2 -> H+, causing HCO3- to dissociate into H2O and CO2)
What equation links arterial blood pressure, total peripheral resistance and cardiac output?
Arterial blood pressure - right atrial pressure = total peripheral resistance x cardiac output
What TWO things cause inspiratory distress?
Extrathoracic non-fixed airway obstruction
Limit to lung expansion
What causes expiratory distress?
Intrathoracic airway obstruction
What causes inspiratory and expiratory distress?
Extrathoracic fixed airway obstruction
What is orthopnea?
Difficulty breathing while recumbent
What causes alveolar emphysema?
Bronchial obstruction (e.g. RAO)
What causes interstitial emphysema? What is the risk?
Forced inspiration
May progress to subcutaneous emphysema
What are the FOUR possible causes of pulmonary oedema?
Cardiogenic (high venous pressure)
Neurogenic (excessive sympathetic stimulation increases pulmonary hydrostatic pressure)
Volume overload
Endothelial damage
What is bronchiectasis?
Permanent bronchial dilation due to irreversible wall damage
What TWO toxins cause interstitial pneumonia?
What is the resultant condition called?
Paraquat (weedkiller)
Tryptophan (lush autumn grass)
Causes fog fever (acute bovine pulmonary oedema)
Where is lung neoplasia most likely to occur?
What is a common sequel?
Primary lung neoplasia tends to arise at the hilar region
Marie's disease (hypertrophic pulmonary osteopathy) is periosteal thickening of long bones associated with space-occupying lung lesions. Causes pain and lameness
What organism causes kennel cough?
What type of organism is it?
Bordetella bronchiseptica
Slow-growing opportunistic Gram negative rod anaerobe
What type of organism is Pasteurella multocida?
What disease does it cause, and how is this usually acquired?
Gram negative rod
Causes suppurative pneumonia and pleuritis (rabbit snuffles)
Often acquired following cat bites
What type of organism is Actinomyces viscosus?
What type of disease does it cause?
Grame positive branching filamentous aerobe (don't mistake for fungus!)
Causes granulomatous thoracic and skin infection
If thoracic granulomas with red-brown exudate and 'sulphur granules' are seen, what is the likely causative organism?
How does the disease occur?
Nocardia (Gram positive rods)
Found in soil, grows within macrophages
What type of organism is Chlamydophila felis?
Gram negative rod
Affects cats, not dogs
Name THREE fungal causes of respiratory infection and the type of diseases they cause?
Where is each organism found?
Blastomyces: pyogranulomatous pneumonia and formation of multinucleate giant cells in dogs and horses. Africa/east USA
Hisoplasma: systemic granulomatous disease. Bird droppings in USA/Europe
Cryptococcus: cat nasal granulomas and neurological disease. Found in UK (capsulated yeast)
How wide should the normal mediastinum be?
Less than twice the width of the vertebral bodies
What are the names of the diaphragmatic borders seen radiographically?
Crus laterodorsally
Cupula cranioventrally
A yorkie presents with a quacking/honking/clicking/ slapping cough. What does it probably have?
Tracheal collapse
Graded 1 (mild) to 4 (severe)
Name the THREE types of lungworm that may affect dogs. Where are their predilection sites?
Dirofilaria immitus - peripheral
Filaroides (Oslerus) osleri - tracheal bifurcation
Angiostrongylus vasorum - pulmonary vasculature
What lungworm affects cats?
How is it treated?
Aelurostrongylus abstrusus
10-14d fenbendazole or 1-off ivermectin
What are the THREE mainstays of feline asthma treatment?
What should always be done before treatment commences?
Corticosteroids, bronchodilators, antihistamines
ALWAYS rule out feline lungworm before starting treatment (Aelurostrongylus abstrusus) - causes radiographically visible lung nodules and larvae seen in faeces
What THREE organisms are implicated in cat 'flu?
Chlamydia psittaci
Bordatella bronchiseptica
Mycoplasma spp
Name SIX ways of controlling chylothorax
Low fat diet
Switch to medium-chain triglycerides in diet (absorbed by capillaries not lymphatics)
Rutin
Ligation of thoracic duct
Create alternative drainage route
Pleurodiesis
What FOUR organisms contribute to the development of laryngeal condritis?
Outline treatment and prognosis
Mannheimia haemolytica, Mycoplasma, adenovirusand parainfluenza virus (i.e. causative agents of enzootic pneumonia)
Tx is oxytetracycline. Px poor by onset of clinical signs
What should lambs be vaccinated against? When?
Combined pneumonia and clostridial vaccine.
Vaccinate ewes 2-6 weeks before parturition and boost lambs at 3-5 weeks old
What causes husk?
Describe the aetiology
How is it diagnosed?
Dictyocaulus vivparus (trichostrongyle)
Spread onto pasture in Pilobolus fungi, L3 are ingested and live in the trachea.
Following infection strong immunity develops and reinfection leads to parasitic granulomata and eosinophilic plug formation
Dx Baermann technique
Name THREE common lungworms of goats and sheep.
How are they transmitted?
How are they controlled?
Dictyocaulus filaria (transmitted by Pilobolus fungi on pasture)
Muellerius capillaris (intermediate host mollusc)
Protostrongylus (intermediate host mollusc)
All very common and low pathogenicity - not routinely treated
What lungworm affects pigs?
What is the lifecycle?
Metastrongylus spp.
Earthworm intermediate host
May cause severe lung damage but immunity rapidly develops
What are the SIX components of Brachycephalic Obstructive Airway Syndrome?
Stenotic nares
Long soft palate
Lateral laryngeal ventricle eversion
Laryngeal collapse
Tracheal hypoplasia
Epiglottic scrolling
Describe the rationale behind a tie-back procedure
Left arytenoid is sutured to cricoid to mimic the function of the cricoarytenoid muscle
You suspect a lung lobe torsion - which lobes are you most worried about?
What is your patient?
What underlying condition do you suspect?
Right middle and cranial lobes
A large deep-chested dog
Chylothorax
How should a congenital peritoneopericardial diaphragmatic hernia be managed?
If found in a young animal surgically repair at first opportunity to prevent adhesion formation
If found in an adult manage conservatively
What are the FOUR stages of surgical repair of oesophageal hiatal hernia?
Replace viscera
Close defect
4 x oesophagopexy sutures
Belt-loop gastric fundopexy
What portal is best for sinoscopy? Which sinuses can be viewed?
What other option is there?
Frontal portal (60% from midline to medial canthus, 0.5cm caudal)
Conchofrontal, caudal maxillary and sphenopalatine sinuses
Can view rostral maxillary/ventral conchal sinus via rostral maxillary portal but risk tooth damage
What are THREE possible aetiologies of dorsal displacement of the soft palate?
How is it diagnosed?
Neuropathy
Lower airway disease
Lack of cardiovascular fitness
Common in standing horses so best to diagnose dynamically
Suggest SIX surgical procedures to correct DDSP. Explain the rationale behind each
Sternohyoid and sternothyroid Myectomy: reduce caudal retraction of larynx (increase respiratory impedance)
Staphylectomy: shorten palate and scar to prevent displacement
Pharygoplasty: scar
Soft palate cautery: scar
Epiglottic augmentation: inject teflon to stiffen epiglottis
Tie-forward: suture thyroid cartilage to stylohyoid bone
What causes epiglottic entrapment? How is it treated?
The epiglottis becomes entrapped by the aryepiglottic fold.
Tx is surgical division
How is laryngeal hemiplegia graded in the horse?
Grade 1 - normal function
Grade 2 - asymmetry but full abduction can be achieved and maintained
Grade 3 - full abduction can be achieved but not maintained
Grade 4 - total immobility of arytenoid
Give FOUR possible treatments for laryngeal hemiplegia in the horse
Tie-back
Ventriculectomy (Hobday)
Arytenoidectomy
Neuromuscular pedicle graft (attempt to re-innervate cricoarytenoid, low success)
What are the THREE components of fourth branchial arch defect?
What is the treatment and prognosis?
Right laryngeal paralysis
Rostral displacement of palatopharyngeal arch (dynamic laryngeal dysfunction)
Cricopharyngeal mucous membrane dysplasia
There is no treatment. Prognosis poor
Name FOUR respiratory viruses of pigs
Swine influenza
PRRS
PRCV (porcine respiratory coronavirus)
Inclusion body rhinitis (porcine cytomegalovirus/porcine herpesvirus-2)