In Plato's Euthyphro, Socrates introduces a problem to Euthyphro asking whether “the pious [is] being loved by the gods because it is pious, or is it pious because it is being loved by gods” (Plato 12). One can better understand this concept by relating the Euthyphro Dilemma to the Divine Command Theory and examining the potential philosophical implications associated with the two while indicating their errors.
The Divine Command Theory states that morality is “somehow dependent upon God” and that it “consists in obedience to God’s commands”. The Divine Command Theory also says that it’s basis is that it is “ultimately based on the commands or character of God” (Austin). In other words, the morally correct decision is that which a deity, or group of deities, concludes is correct.
For the sake of these arguments, the Christian God, who is omniscient, omnipotent, omnibenevolent, and omnipresent, will represent the deity that Socrates speaks about. God's …show more content…
There are many opponents of the Divine Command Theory but very few have plausible arguments. Bertrand Russell argues that if piety is because of God’s authorization, then to God “there is no difference between right and wrong” and because of this, Russell says it cannot be said that God is good (Russell 12). He also says that in order to say that God is good, one must agree that morality and immorality have meaning separate from God’s authorization because “God's fiats are good and not good independently of the mere fact that he made them” (12). One valid point Russell brings up is that to assume God is good would mean that He is unable to command anything that is evil. This argument allows that God can haphazardly change whether an action is moral or not. However, because of God’s omnipotence and omnibenevolence, He does have the power to acknowledge rape as moral but will not because of his nature of
The Divine Command Theory states that morality is “somehow dependent upon God” and that it “consists in obedience to God’s commands”. The Divine Command Theory also says that it’s basis is that it is “ultimately based on the commands or character of God” (Austin). In other words, the morally correct decision is that which a deity, or group of deities, concludes is correct.
For the sake of these arguments, the Christian God, who is omniscient, omnipotent, omnibenevolent, and omnipresent, will represent the deity that Socrates speaks about. God's …show more content…
There are many opponents of the Divine Command Theory but very few have plausible arguments. Bertrand Russell argues that if piety is because of God’s authorization, then to God “there is no difference between right and wrong” and because of this, Russell says it cannot be said that God is good (Russell 12). He also says that in order to say that God is good, one must agree that morality and immorality have meaning separate from God’s authorization because “God's fiats are good and not good independently of the mere fact that he made them” (12). One valid point Russell brings up is that to assume God is good would mean that He is unable to command anything that is evil. This argument allows that God can haphazardly change whether an action is moral or not. However, because of God’s omnipotence and omnibenevolence, He does have the power to acknowledge rape as moral but will not because of his nature of