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50 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
After processing, complete dentures on the
original stone casts are rearticulated in order to correct occlusal disharmony produced by 1. flasking and processing procedures. 2. strained jaw relation records. 3. errors in registering of centric jaw relation. |
1. flasking and processing procedures.
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Dental polysulfide rubber impression
materials are polymerized with the following initiator: A. lead peroxide. B. sodium peroxide. C. carbon disulfide. D. hydrogen peroxide. E. phosphorus pentoxide. |
A. lead peroxide.
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The accuracy of the mercaptan polysulfide
and silicone rubber impression materials A. is less than that of alginates. B. is better than that of hydrocolloids. C. is contra-indicated. D. compares favorably with reversible hydrocolloids. E. is inversely proportional to temperature and humidity. |
D. compares favorably with reversible
hydrocolloids. |
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Which of the following structures affects
the thickness of the flange of a maxillary complete denture? A. Malar process. B. Coronoid process. C. Mylohyoid ridge. D. Zygomatic process. E. Genial tubercle. |
B. Coronoid process
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The form of the distobuccal border of a
mandibular denture is modified by 1. buccinator muscle. 2. masseter. 3. temporal tendon. 4. pterygomandibular raphe. 5. external oblique ridge. |
1. buccinator muscle.
2. masseter. |
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Which of the following should be
evaluated for surgical removal before new complete dentures are constructed? A. Mandibular tori. B. Epulis fissuratum. C. Papillary hyperplasia. D. Sharp, prominent mylohyoid ridges. E. All of the above. |
E. All of the above.
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Upon examination of an edentulous
patient, it is observed that the tuberosities contact the retromolar pads at the correct occlusal vertical dimension. The treatment of choice is to A. reduce the retromolar pads surgically to provide the necessary clearance. B. reduce the tuberosities surgically to provide the necessary clearance. C. construct new dentures at an increased occlusal vertical dimension to gain the necessary clearance. D. proceed with construction of the denture and reduce the posterior extension of the mandibular denture to eliminate interferences. |
B. reduce the tuberosities surgically to
provide the necessary clearance. |
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Most zinc-oxide-eugenol cements are not
suitable for permanent cementation of crowns and fixed partial dentures because of A. high viscosity. B. low pH. C. high solubility in saliva. D. adverse pulp response. |
C. high solubility in saliva.
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Effective tissue displacement with elastic
impression materials can be accomplished by 1. a firm tray material. 2. injection of the material into the gingival sulcus. 3. placement of chemical-impregnated cords into the gingival sulcus. 4. electrosurgical means. |
3. placement of chemical-impregnated
cords into the gingival sulcus. 4. electrosurgical means. |
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A pontic exerting too much pressure
against the ridge will cause 1. fracture of the solder joints. 2. hypertrophy of the soft tissue. 3. crazing of the gingival portion of the porcelain. 4. resorption of the alveolar bone. |
2. hypertrophy of the soft tissue.
4. resorption of the alveolar bone. |
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Minor tooth movement to correct an
inclined fixed partial denture abutment will 1. enhance resistance form of the abutment. 2. reduce the possibility of pulpal involvement. 3. direct occlusal forces along the long axis of the tooth. 4. improve embrasure form. |
E. All the above.
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In a hygroscopic investment technique,
excess water in the investment mix will result in a casting which A. is over expanded. B. is under expanded. C. has deficient margins. D. shows microporosity. E. None of the above. |
B. is under expanded.
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Which of the following are characteristics
of restorative glass ionomer cements? 1. Release of fluoride. 2. Bonding to enamel. 3. Setting not affected by moisture. 4. Irritating to pulpal tissues. |
1. Release of fluoride.
2. Bonding to enamel. |
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Where cavity preparations are extensive,
polycarboxylate cement can be used as a base material because A. its pH stimulates secondary dentin formation. B. it interacts with setting amalgam to form a weak chemical union. C. it is biocompatible with the pulp. D. it is compressible when set. |
C. it is biocompatible with the pulp.
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Dental amalgam
A. is almost insoluble in the oral fluids. B. has a satisfactory compressive strength. C. adapts well to the walls of the prepared cavity. D. All of the above. |
D. All of the above.
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The main reason for adding copper to a
dental amalgam alloy is to A. increase expansion. B. reduce tarnish resistance. C. make amalgamation easier. D. increase lustre. E. reduce the tin-mercury phase. |
E. reduce the tin-mercury phase.
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Dental amalgams that are made from
alloys containing 6 percent copper, compared to those made from alloys containing 13 percent copper 1. have higher concentration of the tinmercury phase. 2. are more resistant to tarnish and corrosion. 3. demonstrate less creep or flow. 4. generally have lower compressive strength. 5. demonstrate less marginal breakdown in clinical service. |
1. have higher concentration of the tinmercury
phase. 4. generally have lower compressive strength. |
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Which of the following would occur if a
zinc containing amalgam is contaminated with saliva during condensing? 1. No change in compressive strength but lower tensile strength. 2. Increased expansion. 3. Reduced flow or creep. 4. Increased surface pitting. |
2. Increased expansion.
4. Increased surface pitting. |
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Gold contributes which of the following
properties to a gold-copper alloy? A. Corrosion resistance. B. Increased strength. C. Lowered specific gravity. D. Increased hardness. |
A. Corrosion resistance.
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Inlay wax patterns should be invested as
soon as possible in order to decrease distortion caused by A. reduced flow. B. drying-out of the wax. C. release of internal stress. D. continued expansion of the wax. |
C. release of internal stress.
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A maxillary complete denture exhibits
more retention and stability than a mandibular one because it 1. covers a greater area. 2. incorporates a posterior palatal seal. 3. is not subject to as much muscular displacement. 4. is completely surrounded by soft tissue. |
1. covers a greater area.
2. incorporates a posterior palatal seal. 3. is not subject to as much muscular displacement. |
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The prime advantage of vacuum firing of
porcelain is A. better colour. B. less shrinkage. C. more translucency. D. increased strength. |
D. increased strength.
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Which of the following materials is most
radiolucent? A. Calcium hydroxide. B. Zinc phosphate cement. C. Amalgam. D. Gold foil. |
A. Calcium hydroxide.
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After initial setting, a chemically cured
glass ionomer cement restoration should have a coating agent applied to A. hasten the final set. B. protect the cement from moisture. C. retard the final set. D. protect the cement from ultraviolet light. E. create a smooth finish. |
B. protect the cement from moisture.
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Generally, glass ionomer cements contain
A. zinc oxide and distilled water. B. zinc oxide and polyacrylic acid. C. fluoro aluminosilica powder and orthophosphoric acid. D. fluoro aluminosilica powder and polyacrylic acid. |
D. fluoro aluminosilica powder and
polyacrylic acid. |
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In taking a polysulfide impression for a
cast restoration in the maxilla, the tray must 1. be rigid. 2. have occlusal stops. 3. cover the hard palate. 4. be coated with an adhesive cement |
1. be rigid.
2. have occlusal stops. 4. be coated with an adhesive cement |
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The retentive arm of a combination clasp
(wrought wire retentive arm and cast lingual arm) is better than a cast arm because it A. has a lower yield strength. B. produces less stress on the abutment tooth during removal and insertion. C. can be used to engage deeper undercuts because of a high modulus of elasticity. D. is economical to fabricate. |
B. produces less stress on the abutment
tooth during removal and insertion. |
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All things being equal, which of the
following pontic designs is the most likely to cause soft tissue irritation? A. Polished gold. B. Polished acrylic. C. Polished porcelain. D. Glazed porcelain. |
B. Polished acrylic.
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The curing of polysulphide and silicone
rubbers will not be complete throughout the mass if A. an equal amount of catalyst is not present. B. heat is not supplied to the reaction. C. the mixture is not heterogenous. D. the mixture is not homogenous. |
D. the mixture is not homogenous.
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Which of the following is NOT a direct
physiological response to additional forces placed on abutment teeth? A. Resorption of bone. B. Increase in trabeculation. C. Increase in width of cementum. D. Increased density in cribiform plate. E. Decrease in width of periodontal ligament. |
E. Decrease in width of periodontal
ligament. |
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The retention of an indirect, extra-coronal
restoration can be improved by 1. decreasing the taper of the preparation wall. 2. lengthening the clinical crown. 3. adding grooves. 4. an antirotation key. |
E. All of the above.
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The function of the reciprocal clasp arm is
to 1. act as an indirect retainer. 2. stabilize the abutment teeth. 3. act as a direct retainer for the distal base. 4. counteract any force transmitted by the retentive arm. |
2. stabilize the abutment teeth.
4. counteract any force transmitted by the retentive arm. |
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The location of a crown margin is
determined by 1. esthetic requirements. 2. clinical crown length. 3. presence of caries. 4. presence of an existing restoration. |
E. All of the above.
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After initial setting, glass ionomer cements
should have a coating agent applied in order to A. hasten the final set. B. protect the cement from moisture. C. retard the final set. D. protect the cement from ultraviolet light. E. create a smooth finish. |
B. protect the cement from moisture.
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Which of the following muscles has two
separate functions in mandibular movement? A. Masseter. B. Geniohyoid. C. External (lateral) pterygoid. D. Buccinator. |
C. External (lateral) pterygoid.
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A lowering of serum calcium is the
stimulus for the endogenous release of A. thyroid hormone. B. adrenocortical hormone. C. insulin. D. parathyroid hormone. E. adrenalin. |
D. parathyroid hormone.
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Collagen
A. is most common in hard tissues. B. forms insoluble high tensile strength fibres. C. has a triple helical structure. D. All of the above. |
D. All of the above.
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The success of remineralization of "white
spot" lesions is dependent upon the 1. pH of the saliva. 2. frequency of the cariogenic challenge. 3. availability of mineral ions in saliva. 4. viscosity of the saliva. |
E. All of the above.
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Chronic alcoholism will
1. cause impairment of liver function. 2. increase tendency to hemorrhage. 3. delay healing. 4. decrease the effectiveness of local anesthetics. |
E. All of the above.
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The main functions of fat soluble vitamins
are: 1. Vitamin E is an important antioxidant. 2. Vitamin A is important in the formation of visual purple. 3. Vitamin D promotes intestinal calcium and phosphate absorption. 4. Vitamin K catalyzes the synthesis of prothrombin. 5. Vitamin A maintains the integrity of mucous membranes. |
D. All of the above.
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Which of the following condition(s)
increase(s) susceptibility to dental caries? 1. Vitamin K deficiency during tooth development. 2. Vitamin D deficiency during tooth development. 3. Hereditary fructose intolerance. 4. Hyposalivation. |
2. Vitamin D deficiency during tooth
development. 4. Hyposalivation. |
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Which of the following is the greatest risk
factor for rampant caries in children? A. Frequent ingestion of polysaccharides. B. Frequent ingestion of high sucrosecontaining foods. C. Severe enamel hypoplasia. D. Deficiency of vitamin D. |
B. Frequent ingestion of high sucrosecontaining
foods. |
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Which of the following anaesthetic agents
is/are metabolized by plasma cholinesterase? 1. Procaine. 2. Lidocaine (xylocaine). 3. Mepivicaine (carbocaine). 4. Prilocaine (citanest). |
1. Procaine.
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Long-acting barbiturates are mainly
excreted by the A. salivary glands. B. kidneys. C. small intestine. D. All of the above. E. None of the above. |
B. kidneys.
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The selection of a vasoconstrictor for a
local anesthetic depends upon A. the duration of the operation. B. the need for hemostasis. C. the medical status of the patient. D. all of the above. |
D. all of the above.
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Warfarin (Coumadin®) acts by
A. preventing formation of thromboplastin. B. preventing fibrinogen conversion to fibrin. C. inhibiting the synthesis of prothrombin in the liver. D. incorporating ionic calcium. |
C. inhibiting the synthesis of
prothrombin in the liver. |
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Streptomycin
A. enhances the activity of some neuromuscular blocking agents. B. can induce 8th cranial nerve damage. C. is a broad-spectrum antibiotic. D. All of the above. |
D. All of the above.
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When used for conscious sedation, nitrous
oxide may 1. produce signs of inherent myocardial depression. 2. produce an indirect sympathomimetic action. 3. cause the patient to sweat. 4. produce numbness of the extremities. |
2. produce an indirect
4. produce numbness of the extremities. |
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Epinephrine is one drug used in the
management of an acute anaphylactic reaction (Type I allergic reaction) because it A. relaxes bronchial muscles. B. stimulates heart muscle and increases heart rate. C. increases systolic blood pressure. D. produces vasoconstriction in many vascular beds. E. All of the above. |
E. All of the above.
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Which of the following, if left untreated, is
most likely to result in a periapical lesion? A. Internal resorption. B. Reversible pulpitis. C. Acute suppurative pulpitis. D. Chronic hyperplastic pulpitis. E. Diffuse calcification of the pulp. |
C. Acute suppurative pulpitis.
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