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90 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
What is outlined in AFI 36–2101, Classifying Military Personnel (Officer and Enlisted)? |
Duties and responsibilities for each Air Force career fields or specialties. |
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Materiel management specialists are not responsible for |
directing policy and guidance for career field.
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The purpose of the Air Force Logistics Career Broadening Program is to promote a better understanding of the whole materiel management system through the cross-utilization of training, knowledge, experience, and |
perspectives |
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For you to be eligible to apply for the Air Force Logistics Career Broadening Program, you may have up to but not including how many years of time-in-service? |
15
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What two organizations provide wholesale logistics experience for selected materiel management noncommissioned officers (NCO)? |
Defense Logistics Agency (DLA) and AFMC. |
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Which Expeditionary Logistics 21st Century (eLog21) effect ensures logistics decisions are made and actions are taken with an understanding of their impact across the entire Air Force? |
One: Enterprise view. |
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In support of the Expeditionary Logistics 21st Century’s (eLog21) integrated processes, which is not a resource? |
Technology
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What source of supply has responsibility for cradle-to-grave management of every Air Force weapon system? |
AFMC
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Which source of supply provides support for peacetime maintenance requirements and wartime demands to major weapon systems? |
Air Logistics Complex (ALC).
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Local manufacture is a term that describes an item |
fabricated by a maintenance activity on base.
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What source of supply consists of vendors from the local community? |
Local purchase
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What section gives maintenance repair functions in a single facility? |
Centralized repair facility.
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Who serves as the primary point of contact for interfacing with the Air Force Sustainment Center (AFSC) on behalf of maintenance customers? |
MSL
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Which class of supply includes weapons? |
II.
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Which class of supply consists of ammunition? |
V
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What best describes Class III items? |
Petroleum, oil, and lubricants (POL).
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Which class of supply consists of construction? |
IV. |
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What best describes Class VI items? |
Personal demand items. |
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What best describes Class VII items? |
Major end items.
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What best describes Class IX items? |
Repair parts.
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Which class of supply consists of repair parts? |
IX.
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What best describes Class X items? |
Materiel to support nonmilitary programs. |
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What provides a unique framework that links performance metrics, processes, best practices, and people into a unified structure? |
Supply-chain operations reference (SCOR). |
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Which logistics readiness squadron (LRS) flight consists of the Asset Management, Maintenance Support, and Customer Support sections? |
Materiel Management. |
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What logistics readiness squadron (LRS) flight provides centralized command and control, planning, and execution of all wing deployment operations and the distribution of cargo, passengers, and personal property? |
Deployment and Distribution. |
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Which specialized center will be the hub for the integration and management of maintenance/supply chain capabilities? |
Air Force Sustainment Center (AFSC). |
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What is the Air Force Sustainment Center’s (AFSC) mission? |
Sustain weapon system readiness. |
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Which process is not one of the four supply major processes in the materiel management system? |
Administration |
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What materiel management system process activates if assets are insufficient to satisfy the requirement on the requested item? |
Due-out. |
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Which maintenance process updates various basic and support records, such as item records, routing identifier records, and warehouse locations? |
Miscellaneous file maintenance. |
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How many different types of reports can be processed through the materiel management computer system? |
5 |
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What Department of Defense (DOD) instruction implements requirements and procedures for materiel manager and others who need to work within the supply system? |
4140.1-R, DOD Supply Chain Materiel Management Regulation. |
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Which functional area does Defense Logistics Manual (DLM) 4000.25, Defense Logistics Management System Manual, not pertain to? |
Safety |
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What process governs logistics functional business management standards and practices? |
Defense logistics management system. |
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Which research process provides chapters and sections on the publication requested allowing you to scroll to the corresponding document? |
Table of contents |
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How many characters make up a national stock number (NSN)? |
13 |
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What two entities make up the national stock number? |
FSC and NIIN |
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How many major types of inquiries are there in the materiel management system? |
4 |
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Which action code on an item record inquiry in the materiel management system is used to obtain specific information? |
Record retrieval. |
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Which record retrieval code in the materiel management system gives you the transaction history when processing an inquiry? |
4
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What data can be obtained when using record retrieval code 5 on an item record inquiry? |
Repair cycle record.
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What releveling flag is used on a requirements computation inquiry in the materiel management system to provide a summary of information about a given stock number? |
R |
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Under the consolidated transaction history (CTH) system, which type inquiry allows you to select records using the stock number and transaction date? |
Stock number |
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Which program in the materiel management system takes control of computer processing when an error is detected during processing of a transaction? |
Reject. |
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Who is responsible for ensuring all rejects are corrected from computer records? |
Flight chief. |
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Which chapter in AFH 23–123, Materiel Management Handbook, volume 2, part 2, identifies the action required to correct the materiel management system’s rejects created during processing? |
7 |
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Management notices can be readily identified by what letters preceding the management code and phrase? |
MGT |
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Which product of the materiel management system is used to ensure rejects are processed in a timely manner? |
D818 |
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What listing shows all force-deleted rejects processed through the reject processor program? |
D20 |
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Which individual must ensure force deletions from the reject processor program are processed for valid reason only? |
Flight chief. |
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Who, in coordination with the flight chief, determines who will process controlled transaction identification codes (TRIC) and informs the computer operations terminal security manager which controlled TRICs each user identification (user ID) is authorized to process? |
Terminal security monitors. |
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Who is responsible for reviewing part 8 of the D20 when an unauthorized user attempts to process a controlled TRIC? |
Management and systems officer. |
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Production scheduling of all materiel management computer system reports and listings must be supported by a specific requirement in AFMAN 23–122, Materiel Management Procedures; an AF Form 2011, Base Supply ADPE Work Request; or |
an approved supplement. |
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The annotated forecast listing of all computer requirements is returned to the computer room production scheduler by which workday of the same month it is received? |
15th |
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When the cost of an item is transferred from the customer’s funds into the Supply Management Activity Group-Retail (SMAG-R) account, what type of fund is created? |
Revolving. |
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Which of the following is not a division within the Supply Management Activity Group- Retail (SMAG-R)? |
Air Force Working Capital Fund. |
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The quality assurance (QA) program will help identify any area, program, or equipment and system that are not compliant with |
standards. |
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Who selects highly experienced materiel management personnel for customer support visits? |
Logistics readiness squadron (LRS) leadership. |
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When the materiel management system does not process or update transactions as it should, what Air Force form is used to report the problem? |
1815, Difficulty Report. |
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What activity within the Air Force Materiel Command (AFMC) supply chain management (SCM)-retail community is responsible for submitting, controlling, and monitoring difficulty reports? |
Quality assurance |
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A category III difficulty report does not stop computer system processing and is corrected |
in the next scheduled release.
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What analysis method do you use most often for recurring reports or for comparing statistical data with standards and norms? |
Trend analysis
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What analysis method do you use most often to satisfy a one-time requirement or solve a specific problem? |
Special studies
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Which of the following best describes what is required to perform an analysis? |
Source documents |
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What is used when selecting key information for monitoring performance measures? |
Management indicators. |
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Who works with logistics readiness squadron (LRS) quality assurance (QA) to develop local programs for solving problems identified by management? |
Training |
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Which best describes the next step after an assessment has been conducted by quality assurance (QA) with discrepancies? |
Review training requirements. |
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What section is tasked with assigning meaning to raw data and providing information that can be used to determine the account’s effectiveness? |
Quality assurance (QA). |
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What is used to help logistics readiness squadron (LRS) leadership know what an organization has done in the past and how it is doing at the present before directing future efforts? |
Analysis program. |
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What section should be contacted to ensure an item is physically available for a customer? |
Storage and issue. |
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What must match the reports or accountable documents with what is reflected on computer products and forms during quality control? |
Input images. |
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Who will ensure each item has a valid location assigned prior to the actual inventory date? |
Storage facility. |
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Who ensures data required to support degraded operations is updated and downloaded as needed and readily available when degraded operations are initiated? |
Control team chief. |
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What transaction identification code input is created from the transaction exception (TEX) |
Special requisition (SPR). |
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What transaction exception (TEX) is used to identify a degraded operations shipment or nondirected transfer to the Defense Logistics Agency Disposition Services (DLADS)? |
6 |
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What takes place once the computer is back on-line after degraded operations? |
Recovery. |
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Which process is very important to prevent rejects and incorrect data from being processed during recovery? |
Sequencing. |
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Who can elect not to formally activate the control team (CT) when the system is off-line less than 24 hours? |
Control team chief. |
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How often does document control perform a revalidation of those people who are authorized to receipt for classified property? |
Semiannually. |
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What type of materiel management source documents are not placed in a permanent document file? |
(TRIC) FIC and FCU. |
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What materiel management register may be prepared to replace the Daily Transaction Register (D06)? |
Consolidated Transaction (M19).
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What materiel management register lists information from the transactions stored in the daily transaction history area of the materiel management database? |
Daily Document Control (D04).
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The Consolidated Inventory Adjustment Document (IAD) Register (M10) must contain an entry for each adjustment transaction appearing on what two registers? |
D04 and D06.
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All shipments and transfers processed through the logistics readiness squadron (LRS) produce what type of detail? |
Shipment-suspense or shipped not credited (SNC). |
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What transaction identification code is used to update the shipment-suspense detail? |
SSC
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What listing is used to manage delinquent shipment suspense details? |
R40
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What code is assigned if an item record requiring record reversal action does not contain a freeze code? |
Q |
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What is the transaction identification code for an automated reverse-post (RVP) transaction? |
1AM
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What information is required to make an automated reverse-post (RVP) input? |
Transaction serial number, TTPC, and date. |
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What do you do with the prefilled data on an automated reverse-post (RVP) input? |
Screen for accuracy and input it. |