Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
148 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
Navy ambulances are stocked in accordance with, what instruction?
|
BUMEDINST 6700.42
|
|
How much does a Unit One bag weigh?
|
9 POUNDS
|
|
Dressings should be large enough to cover the entire area of the wound and to extend at least ____ in every direction beyond the edges
|
1 INCH
|
|
What types of bandages are made of gauze or muslin and are used over a sterile dressing to secure the dressing in place?
|
STANDARD
|
|
In bandaging and extremity, what parts of the body do you leave exposed to observe the circulation?
|
FINGERS OR TOES
|
|
What type of bandage do you use for the elbow?
|
A SPICA OR FIGURE EIGHT
|
|
What type of bandage do you use to cover wounds of the forearms and lower extremities?
|
SPIRAL REVERSE
|
|
What type of bandage is good for bandaging any protruding part of the body?
|
FOUR TAILED
|
|
How long does a Oxygen Breathing Apparatus last for?
|
20 TO 45 MINUTES
|
|
To what device you should never connect the Hose mask to?
|
OXYGEN BOTTLE
|
|
How long is a lifeline?
|
50 FEET LONG
|
|
What detects oxygen deficiency?
|
OXYGEN INDICATOR
|
|
How many phases of Rescue Operations are there?
|
FOUR
|
|
What phase of rescue operations is where extrication is extremely difficult and time consuming?
|
PHASE THREE
|
|
How many stages of extrication are there?
|
FIVE
|
|
What stage of extrication is preparing the victim for removal?
|
FOURTH
|
|
When rescuing a victim from a fire, what part of the body do you leave uncovered?
|
HEAD
|
|
When trying to break an electrical contact, always stand on what type of items?
|
DRY BOARD, DRY NEWSPAPERS, OR DRY CLOTHING
|
|
When using a stretcher, how do you move the victim?
|
FEET FIRST
|
|
What litter is most commonly used for transporting sick or injured persons?
|
STOKES
|
|
How many blankets should be used to pad a stokes stretcher?
|
THREE
|
|
What type of stretcher is a collapsible stretcher made of canvas?
|
ARMY LITTER
|
|
What type of stretcher is used in confined spaces and vertical extrication?
|
MILLER BOARD
|
|
How many sizes does the spine board come in and what are they?
|
TWO: SHORT(18”X 32”) AND LONG (18”X 72”)
|
|
What materials do they use to make the spine board?
|
FIBERGLASS OR EXTERIOR PLYWOOD
|
|
What is one of the easiest ways to carry a unconscious person?
|
FIREMAN’S CARRY
|
|
What type of bandage do you use for the ear?
|
BARTON
|
|
When using a lifeline to raise an unconscious person from an compartment, the lifeline should be attached to victim in what manner?
|
AROUND THE CHEST AND UNDER THE ARMS
|
|
How many minutes does it take for irreversible brain damage to occur?
|
4 TO 6 MINUTES
|
|
How many general first aid rules are there in an emergency?
|
NINE
|
|
What is the process of quickly assessing patients in a multiple casualty incident?
|
TRIAGE
|
|
What are the two types of triage?
|
TACTICAL AND NONTACTICAL
|
|
When sorting for treatment, in what class do you place a patient with immediate life sustaining injuries?
|
CLASS II
|
|
When sorting for treatment, in what class do you place a patient whose definitive treatment can be delayed without jeopardy to life?
|
CLASS III
|
|
When sorting for treatment, in what priority do you place a patient with a simple fracture?
|
PRIORITY III
|
|
When sorting for treatment, in what priority do you place a patient with eye injuries?
|
PRIORITY II
|
|
In what war were the techniques for MEDEVAC so effective?
|
VIETNAM
|
|
What survey is a complete detailed assessment consisting of a subjective interview and an objective examination?
|
SECONDARY
|
|
When arriving at the scene, what is the first thing you do?
|
MAKE SURE THE SCENE IS SAFE
|
|
What do the ABCDEs of emergency care stand for?
|
AIRWAY, BREATHING, CIRCULATION, DISABILITY, AND EXPOSE
|
|
Usually the trauma assessment is about ______ percent patient interview and _______ percent physical exam?
|
20/80
|
|
What type of examination is a comprehensive hands-on survey of the patient’s body?
|
OBJECTIVE
|
|
How many steps does the head to toe survey have?
|
26
|
|
What is the possible cause of abnormality if your pupil characteristics are unequal?
|
STROKE AND HEAD INJURY
|
|
What is the normal pulse rate for an adult?
|
60 TO 80 BEATS PER MINUTE
|
|
Where is the most common site to determine a patients pulse?
|
RADIAL
|
|
What is the normal respiration rate for an adult?
|
12-20 BREATHES PER MINUTE
|
|
How many beats per minute is considered a rapid respiration rate?
|
28
|
|
How is respiration rates classified?
|
NORMAL, DEEP OR SHALLOW
|
|
What type of blood pressure is the remaining arteries were relaxed between beats?
|
DIASTOLIC
|
|
What type of blood pressure is created in the arteries when the blood pumps blood out in circulation?
|
SYSTOLIC
|
|
Low blood pressure exists is considered to exist when your pressure falls below _______ millimeters of mercury (mm HG)
|
90
|
|
What are some signs of partial airway obstruction?
|
UNUSUAL BREATH SOUNDS, CYANOSIS OR CHANGES IN BREATHING PATTERNS
|
|
How many steps are there in positioning the patient?
|
FOUR
|
|
What two maneuvers can be used to open an obstructed airway?
|
HEAD TILT CHIN LIFT AND JAW THRUST
|
|
What maneuver is recommended for relieving foreign body airway obstruction?
|
HEIMLICH
|
|
What is the second aspect of life support?
|
BREATHING
|
|
If the patient still does not respond continue mouth to mouth ventilations at the rate of ____ to _____ ventilations per minute or one breath every ______ seconds.
|
10 to 12, 5
|
|
Who states that no attempt should be made to force air from the stomach unless suction equipment is on hand for immediate use?
|
AMERICAN RED CROSS
|
|
Within how many minutes should CPR commence on a patient that went into cardiac arrest?
|
FOUR
|
|
Once the airway has been opened during one rescuer CPR where do you check for pulse?
|
CAROTID
|
|
During CPR, How many inches should the sternum be depressed?
|
APPROXIMATELY 11/2 TO 2 INCHES
|
|
What is the ratio for compressions to ventilations during one rescuer CPR?
|
15 TO 2
|
|
How many compressions per minute during Two-Rescuer CPR?
|
80 to 100
|
|
CPR for children between what ages is similar to that for adults?
|
1 TO 8 YEARS OLD
|
|
Where are chest compressions performed during CPR for children?
|
LOWER HALF OF THE STERNUM
|
|
During CPR on an infant, where do you check for a pulse?
|
BRACHIAL ARTERY
|
|
What is the compression rate for both infant and children?
|
100
|
|
What type of shock is caused by the loss of blood and other body fluids?
|
HYPOVOLEMIC
|
|
What type of shock is caused by the presence of severe infection?
|
SEPTIC
|
|
What is the process of quickly assessing patients in a multiple casualty incident?
|
TRIAGE
|
|
What are the two types of triage?
|
TACTICAL AND NONTACTICAL
|
|
When sorting for treatment, in what class do you place a patient with immediate life sustaining injuries?
|
CLASS II
|
|
When sorting for treatment, in what class do you place a patient whose definitive treatment can be delayed without jeopardy to life?
|
CLASS III
|
|
When sorting for treatment, in what priority do you place a patient with a simple fracture?
|
PRIORITY III
|
|
When sorting for treatment, in what priority do you place a patient with eye injuries?
|
PRIORITY II
|
|
In what war were the techniques for MEDEVAC so effective?
|
VIETNAM
|
|
What survey is a complete detailed assessment consisting of a subjective interview and an objective examination?
|
SECONDARY
|
|
When arriving at the scene, what is the first thing you do?
|
MAKE SURE THE SCENE IS SAFE
|
|
What do the ABCDEs of emergency care stand for?
|
AIRWAY, BREATHING, CIRCULATION, DISABILITY, AND EXPOSE
|
|
What type of wound do you have is you were cut by a knife?
|
INCISION
|
|
What type of wound is torn rather than cut?
|
LACERATIONS
|
|
What type of wound is the nonsurgical removal of the limb from the body?
|
AMPUTATION
|
|
How much liters of blood does the average adult have?
|
5
|
|
The loss of how much liters of blood causes shock?
|
ONE
|
|
How many pressure points are on each side of the body?
|
11
|
|
What pressure point do you use for bleeding in the shoulder or in the upper part of the arm?
|
BEHIND THE CLAVICLE
|
|
What pressure point do you use for bleeding between the knee and the foot?
|
FIRM PRESSURE AT THE KNEE
|
|
To control bleeding, what do you use as a last resort?
|
TOURNIQUET
|
|
Where do you apply a tourniquet?
|
ABOVE THE WOUND AND AS CLOSE TO THE WOUND AS POSSIBLE
|
|
What do you do to make sure that all other people aware of the tourniquet?
|
T AND TIME TOURNIQUET WAS APPLIED
|
|
What types of wounds are more likely to become infected?
|
BATTLE WOUNDS
|
|
What are the two types of bacteria that commonly cause infection in wounds?
|
AEROBIC AND ANAEROBIC
|
|
What type of bacteria destroys red cells?
|
HEMOLYTIC
|
|
When dealing with inflammation, how long do you apply cold to reduce swelling?
|
24 TO 48 HOURS
|
|
What is an abscess in the true skin caused by the entry of microorganisms through a hair follicle or sweat gland?
|
FURUNCLE (BOIL)
|
|
What is most serious chest injury?
|
SUCKING CHEST WOUND
|
|
In what position during combat do you place a patient that is suffering from a sucking chest wound?
|
ON THE AFFECTED SIDE
|
|
Where can you find guidelines for rabies treatment?
|
BUMEDINST 6220.6
|
|
How long should you keep confined an animal that has bitten someone?
|
8 TO 10 DAYS
|
|
How many days should you wait before closing a puncture wound?
|
FOURTH DAY
|
|
What type of suture material has the least tissue reaction of all suture materials?
|
RUST-PROOF MATERIAL
|
|
What type of suture needle is most often used in deep tissues?
|
TAPER POINT
|
|
What is the most common local anesthetic used?
|
XYLOCAINE
|
|
What are the three methods of anesthesia administration?
|
TOPICAL, LOCAL INFILTRATION AND NERVE BLOCK
|
|
When should you remove sutures from the face?
|
4 OR 5 DAYS
|
|
What type of suture material should you use for children under 3 years old?
|
6-0
|
|
What is used to immobilize severely injured joints or muscles?
|
SPLINTS
|
|
What are the two bones in the forearm called?
|
RADIUS AND ULNA
|
|
In how many places should the splint be fastened for a thigh fracture?
|
FIVE
|
|
When a patient has a kneecap fracture where will you place extra padding?
|
UNDER THE KNEE AND JUST ABOVE THE HEEL
|
|
What type of fracture does a patient have if they stand and the injured shoulder is lower than the uninjured one?
|
CLAVICLE FRACTURE
|
|
What are the primary symptoms for a fractured spine?
|
PAIN, SHOCK AND PARALYSIS
|
|
If the spine is broken at the neck, how do you transport the victim?
|
LAYING ON THE BACK FACE UP
|
|
When a bone is forcibly displaced from it’s joint, the injury is known as?
|
DISLOCATION
|
|
If a Medical Officer could not be reached within how many hours can the Hospital Corpsman attempt to reduce a dislocation?
|
8 HOURS
|
|
What are injuries to the ligaments and soft tissues that support a joint?
|
SPRAIN
|
|
For a patient that suffered a sprain, how many hours after applying the last cold pack should you wait to apply heat?
|
24 HOURS
|
|
What types of injuries are caused by forcible overstretching or tearing of muscles or tendons?
|
STRAINS
|
|
What is also commonly called bruises?
|
CONTUSIONS
|
|
How many classifications do burns have?
|
THREE
|
|
What is the recovery period for second degree burns?
|
2 TO 3 WEEKS
|
|
What degree of burn does a patient have if the tissue color will range from white to black?
|
THIRD DEGREE
|
|
What is the burn percentage if a patient has burns to the back and right arm?
|
13 ½
|
|
What type of electrolyte solution do you use on a patient with over 20 percent of extensive burns?
|
RINGERS LACTATE
|
|
All major burn victims should be given a booster dose of _________________ to guard against infection.
|
TETANUS TOXOID
|
|
Irrigate acid burns to the eyes for at least ___ to ____ minutes with at least ______ml of water.
|
5 TO 10, 2000
|
|
How long do irrigate alkali burns to the eyes?
|
20 MINUTES
|
|
What is the most common condition caused by working or exercising in hot environments?
|
HEAT EXHAUSTION
|
|
What is the body temperature for a patient that has heat stroke?
|
105 F OR 41 C OR HIGHER
|
|
Who is responsible in the prevention of heat exposure injuries?
|
COMMAND
|
|
What is caused by continued exposure to low or rapidly falling temperatures, cold moisture, snow or ice?
|
GENERAL COLLING (HYPOTHERMIA)
|
|
Death results as the core temperature of the body approaches ______.
|
80 F
|
|
What is the most effective method of warming a victim with hypothermia?
|
IMMERSION IN A TUB OF WATER (100 TO 105 OR 38 TO 41 C) WATER
|
|
What are the two types of frostbite?
|
SUPERFICIAL AND DEEP
|
|
What is the instruction number for Morphia Dosage and Casualty Marking?
|
BUMEDINST 6570.2
|
|
What is the morphine adult dosage?
|
10 TO 20 MG
|
|
How do you identify a patient that has been given morphine?
|
M AND THE HOUR OF INJECTION ON THE PATIENTS FOREHEAD
|
|
What most often results either from forgetting to take your insulin or from taking to little to insulin?
|
DIABETIC KETOACIDOSIS
|
|
What is caused by an interruption of the arterial blood supply to a portion of the brain?
|
STROKE OR APOPLEXY
|
|
At what men ages do heart conditions most commonly occur?
|
50 TO 60
|
|
What type of medication do you give a patient that suffers from angina pectoris?
|
NITROGLYCERIN
|
|
Convulsive episodes occur in ____ to _____ percent of the general population.
|
1 TO 2
|
|
What is also known as seizures or fits?
|
EPILEPSY
|
|
What is the most serious type of epilepsy?
|
GRAND MAL SEIZURE
|
|
Once the baby has been born, how many clamps do you use to clamp the umbilical cord?
|
TWO
|
|
Once the baby has been born ,where do you clamp the umbilical cord?
|
2 INCHES APART, FIRST CLAMP 6 TO 8 INCHES FROM THE NAVEL
|
|
How long does it take for the placenta to deliver itself?
|
10 TO 20 MINUTES
|