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285 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
- 3rd side (hint)
True or False – Since Central Service Technicians do not handle money, ethical considerations do not apply to them
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False (pg. 16)
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True or False – Central Service Technicians practice resource management when they control costs and reduce waste
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True
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True or False – Central Service Technicians must be able to identify approximately 100 surgical instruments in order to be proficient in their job
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False (pg. 17)
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True or False – Central Service Technicians must be able to adapt to change
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True (pg. 15)
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True or False – Because all Central Service Departments have the same structure, healthcare facilities use one standardized job description for all Central Service Technicians
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False (pg. 18)
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True or False – Career growth and progression is virtually non–existent for Central Service Technicians
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False (pg. 21)
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True or False – Departments that perform central service functions may go by other names at different facilities. For example, Sterile Processing and Distribution, Surgical Supply, etc.
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True (pg. 9)
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True or False – Central Service workflow can be divided into the handling of 3 categories of items: soiled items, clean items, and sterile items
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True (pg. 9)
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True or False – The use of positive and negative air pressure in the Central Service Department is designed to take the place of heating and air–conditioning
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False (pg. 13)
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True or False – Since modern Central Service Departments are virtually risk–free, Central Service Technicians need not be concerned with safety practices.
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False (pg. 16)
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endo
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within
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hemi
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half
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para
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beside, near
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peri
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around, about
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post
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after
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supra
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above
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cardio
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heart
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chole
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bile
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cranio
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skull
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cysto
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bladder
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derma
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skin
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gastro
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stomach
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gyne
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woman
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hepat
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liver
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herni
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rupture
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hyster
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uterus/womb
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lipo
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fat
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litho
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stone
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rhino
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nose
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arthro
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joint
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–ectomy
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surgical removal
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–ostomy
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surgical creation of a new opening
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–otomy
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incision into an organ
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–rrhaphy
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Surgical restoration or repair
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–oscopy
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visual exam
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–cise
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to cut
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excision of the colon:
col____ |
colectomy
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Forming an opening into the colon: colo____
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Colostomy
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Instrument to cut skin:
derma_____ |
dermatome
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excision of hemorrhoids:
hemorrhoid_____ |
hemorrhoidectomy
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crushing of a stone:
litho_____ |
lithotripsy
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surgical repair of the nose:
rhin_____ |
rhinoplasty
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surgical repair of the tympanic membrane: Tympan_______
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tympanoplasty
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Define this abbreviation:
D&C |
Dilatation and Curettage
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Define this abbreviation:
BSO |
Bilateral Salpingoophorectomy
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Define this abbreviation:
CABG |
Coronary Artery Bypass Graft
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Name the procedure and body system:
Making an opening into the skull to access the brain |
Procedure: Craniotomy
Body System: Skeletal |
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Name the procedure and body system:
Making an opening into the thoracic cavity to give surgeons access to the lungs and heart |
Procedure: Thoracotomy
Body System: Respiratory System |
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Name the procedure and body system:
Removing a salivary gland because of a tumor formation |
Procedure: Parotidectomy
Body System: Digestive System |
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Name the procedure and body system:
Removing plaque from the carotid artery that causes a lack of brain oxygen |
Procedure: Carotid Endarterectomy
Body System: Circulatory System |
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Name the procedure and body system:
Removing a vein from a lower limb to to bypass a blocked coronary artery of the heart |
Procedure: CABG
Body System: Circulatory System |
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Name the procedure and body system:
Removal of a kidney |
Procedure: Nephrectomy
Body System: Urinary System |
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Name the procedure and body system:
Making an incision into the tympanic membrane to permit fluid to drain and placing small tubes in the membrane to permit continuous drainage |
Procedure: Myringotomy
Body System: Nervous System |
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Name the procedure and body system:
A repair to the muscles and ligaments of the shoulder joint |
Procedure: Rotator Cuff Repair
Body System: Muscular System |
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Name the procedure and body system:
Removing disc tissue pressing on the lower spine area, inserting a piece of bone between the vertebra and fusing the area with plates and screws |
Procedure: Posterior Lumbar Interbody Fusion
Body System: Skeletal System |
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Name the procedure and body system:
Removing the lymph tissue in the pharynx |
Procedure: Tonsillectomy
Body System: Immune System (book incorrectly answers circulatory system) |
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Name the procedure and body system:
Removing the gall bladder |
Procedure: Cholecystectomy
Body System: Digestive System |
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Name the procedure and body system:
Straightening or removing cartilage and/or bone in the nose when the nasal septum is deformed, injured, or fractured |
Procedure: Septoplasty
Body System: Respiratory System |
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Name the procedure and body system:
Removing of both fallopian tubes and ovaries |
Procedure: Bilateral Salpingooopherectomy
Body System: Reproductive System |
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Name the procedure and body system:
Removing tissue or displaced bone in the wrist area to release pressure on the median nerve |
Procedure: Carpal Tunnel Repair
Body System: Nervous System |
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Name the procedure and body system:
Removing a testicle |
Procedure: Orchiectomy
Body System: Reproductive System |
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Name the procedure and body system:
Reconstructing the ear drum so sound waves can be sent to the middle and inner ear |
Procedure: Tympanoplasty
Body System: Nervous System |
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This organ pumps blood throughout the body
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Heart
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The process by which cartilage is replaced by bone
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Ossification
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Any place where two bones meet
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Joint
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The main control until of the central nervous system
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Brain
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Considered the master gland because it helps controls the activities of all other endocrine glands
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Pituitary Gland
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This organ filters blood to remove amino acids and neutralize xome harmful toxins
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Liver
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Produces a flued element in the semen that stimulates the motility of sperm
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Prostate Gland
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The largest part of the brain, it controls mental activities and movement
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Cerebrum
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These carry blood away from the heart
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Arteries
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A somewhat flexible muscular tube that helps move food into the stomach
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Esophagus
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a type of connective tissue fluid that moves throughout the circulatory system
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Blood
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The pathway that food takes through the digestive system
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Alimentary canal
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Female reproductive organs
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Ovaries
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A cord of fibrous tissue that connects muscle to bone
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Tendon
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The largest organ of the body
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Skin
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The basic unit of life
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Cell
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Tube–like structures that connect the kidneys to the urinary bladder
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Ureters
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This is where the digestive process begins
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Mouth
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These cells components are comprised of DNA and pass on traits of parent cells to new cells
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Chromosomes
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This part of the nervous system controls many automatic body functions like the heartbeat and breathing
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Brain Stem
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The functional center of a cell that governs activity and heredity is called the______.
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Nucleus
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Thread–like "tails" that help bacteria move through liquids are called _______.
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Flagella
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______ are often pathogenic to humans because they grow best at body temperature.
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Mesophiles
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Herpes Simplex is a _____ disease.
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Viral
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Bacteria that require free oxygen to grow are called _____ bacteria
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Aerobic
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Bacteria are divided into 3 main shape classifications:
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Cocci (round), Bacillus (rods), and Spirillum (spirals).
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Microorganisms that are capable of forming a thick wall around themselves to survive in adverse conditions are called
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Spores
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The two most common processes designed to classify bacteria by color change are the ______ and the ______.
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Gram Stain and Ziehl–Neilson Stain
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Tetanus and botulism do not require free oxygen to grow, so they are classified as _______ bacteria
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Anaerobic
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Using Gram–Stain classifications, Staphlococcus, Enterococcus, and Streptococcus are examples of Gram–________ bacteria
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Positive
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The bacterial reproductive process that takes place when a mother cell divides into two daughter cells is called ________.
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Binary Fission
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List the six steps in the change of infection
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1: causative agent
2: reservoir of the agent 3: portal of exit 4: mode of transmission 5: portal of entry 6: susceptible host |
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_________ is defined as the state of being soiled or infected by contact with infectious organisms or other material
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Contamination
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Most bacteria are approximately ________ microns in size
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1–2 microns
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Sunlight is lethal to the _________ stage of pathogens
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Vegetative
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This organization has established standards for the effective processing of flexible endoscopes. Is it voluntary or regulatory?
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SGNA. Voluntary
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Furthers international cooperation in improving health conditions.
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Is it voluntary or regulatory?
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WHO. Voluntary
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Develops nationally recognized standards, recommended practices, and guidelines for the PeriOperative setting. Is it voluntary or regulatory?
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AORN. Voluntary
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Protects workers from occupationally–caused illnesses and injuries. Is it voluntary or regulatory?
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OSHA. Regulatory
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Proposed standards are submitted from members such as AAMI. Is it voluntary or regulatory?
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ANSI. Voluntary
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Provides standards and evaluations for healthcare facilities. These evaluations are in the form of onsite surveys at least every three years.
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Is it voluntary or regulatory?
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Joint Commission. Voluntary.
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Creates and revises standards for processing water for irrigation. Is it voluntary or regulatory?
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USP–NFR. Voluntary
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Creates and enforces laws relating to cleaner water, air, and land. Is it voluntary or regulatory?
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EPA. Regulatory
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A voluntary international organization dedicated to the prevention and control of infections and related outcomes. Is it voluntary or regulatory?
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APIC. Voluntary
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Enforces laws relating to the transportation of medical wastes. Is it voluntary or regulatory?
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DOT. Regulatory
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Is considered one of the major resources for healthcare guidelines. Is it voluntary or regulatory?
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AAMI. Voluntary
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International standards to reduce the burden of fire and other hazards. Is it voluntary or regulatory?
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NFPA. Voluntary
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Promotes health by preventing and controlling disease. Is it voluntary or regulatory?
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CDC. Voluntary
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Responsible for pre and post market medical device requirements, MedWatch, medical device classification, and medical device recall
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FDA. Regulatory
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Enhances the global competitiveness and quality of life by promoting standards and ensuring their integrity. Is it voluntary or regulatory?
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ANSI. Voluntary
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Agency responsible for regulating EO. Is it voluntary or regulatory?
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OSHA & EPA. Regulatory
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Agency responsible for the MedWatch Program. Is it voluntary or regulatory?
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FDA. Regulatory
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Give the reason behind this regulation:
Central Service Technicians change from their street clothes into clean attire before entering their work area |
Central Service Technicians work in a controlled environment. They help maintain that environment by removing street clothes that may carry contaminants and changing into facility–issued scrubs. They wear hair covers and follow specific dress codes to reduce the amount of microorganisms introduced into the work area
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Give the reason behind this regulation:
Before beginning work, Central Service Technicians remove watches and other jewelry before beginning work |
Watches and other jewelry can harbor microorganisms that could be transmitted into or out of the Central Service work areas.
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Give the reason behind this regulation:
Central Service Technicians wear PPE in the Decontamination area. |
PPE is designed to protect workers in biohazard areas from bloodborne pathogen exposures that may occur as they handle contaminated items
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Give the reason behind this regulation:
Food and beverages are not allowed in the Central Service work areas |
Central Service Technicians should not eat or drink in their work area for several reasons:
–Beverages may spill and contaminate items –Food and beverages may attract insects –Central Service Technicians should not eat in the work area because their hands may be soiled and they bay transmit bacteria –Oils from foods may pass from hands onto surgical instruments |
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Give the reason behind this regulation:
Floors in the Central Service department should be wet–mopped daily. They should never be swept or dust–mopped. |
Floors in the Central Service work areas should never be swept or dust–mopped because those processes cause dust to rise and it may be re–deposited on items in the area. Floors in the Central Service work areas should be wet–mopped at least daily.
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A compound in which chlorine is combined with another element or radical (e.g., a salt or hydrochloric acid)
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Chloride
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A measurement of the ability of water to carry an electrical current
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Conductivity
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To remove ions which are have an electrical charge
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Deionize
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The diffusion of water through a semi–permeable membrane to eliminate impurities in the water
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Reverse Osmosis
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Water that has been treated and is acceptable for drinking
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Tap Water
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Having the sediment or solids stirred up to appear cloudy silicate – a mineral derived from silca which from quartz, sand, opal, etc.
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Turbidity
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A unit of measure that measures the amount of resistance to an electrical current
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Ohm
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Solution used to remove the white, hard–to–remove substance that sometimes appears on sinks and equipment
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Descaler
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The _____ department is the major source of soiled items received by the Central Service department
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Surgery
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Soiled items that are held in user departments for pick up must be stored in designated areas labeled with ______ signage
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Biohazard
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If grossly soiled instruments cannot be cleaned immediately, the should be kept _______.
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Moist
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Tissue, body fat, blood, and other body substances are examples of ________ soil.
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Gross
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Disposable sharp items (i.e. blades, needles, etc.) should be removed at point–of–use and placed in a ________ container labeled biohazard.
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Hard–sided
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Point–of–use preparation of soiled items is normally performed by the ________.
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User Department
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Disposable components should be removed at _______.
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Point of Use
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Soiled instruments should be transported in an ________ container or care.
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Enclosed
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Before transport, reusable sharps should be ______ from other instruments.
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Separated
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Containers and carts used to transport contaminated items should not be used to transport clean items unless the have been thoroughly _________ between uses.
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Decontaminated
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True or False, if false explain why:
Instruments with lumens should be soaked in a horizontal position. |
False – Instruments with lumens should be soaked vertically
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True or False, if false explain why:
The mechanical process by which an ultrasonic cleaner works is called cavitation. |
True
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True or False, if false explain why: To prevent aerosols, items should be brushed below the surface of the water.
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True
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True or False, if false explain why:
Automatic washers clean using spray–force action called impingement |
True
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True or False, if false explain why:
Instruments received from surgery and tagged for repair do not need to be cleaned until they come back from repair. |
False – nonfunctional instruments received from surgery must be cleaned before they are sent out for repair
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True or False, if false explain why:
Powered surgical instruments should be cleaned using a mechanical cleaning process |
False – Powered Surgical Instruments (PSI's) should not be cleaned using a mechanical cleaning process
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True or False, if false explain why:
There are currently no methods available to verify cleaning process outcomes. |
False – Along with visual inspection, there are products available that can help measure cleaning outcomes
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True or False, if false explain why:
Infectious waste is regulated by the EPA. |
True
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True or False, if false explain why:
Horizontal work surfaces in the decontamination area should be cleaned and disinfected once per day. |
False – Horizontal work surfaces in the decontamination area should be cleaned and disinfected at the beginning and end of each shift.
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True or False, if false explain why:
PPE should be changed immediately if it becomes soaked with blood or other infectious material. |
True
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The use of heat to kill microorganisms, except spores
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Thermal disinfection
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Compounds that contain a positive electrical charge. They exhibit germicidal properties.
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Cationic
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A chemical which kills most pathogenic organisms, but does not kill spores
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Disinfectant
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A solution which inhibits the growth of bacteria. It is usually used topically and only on animate objects
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Antiseptic
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The length of time a disinfectant can be properly stored after which it must be discarded
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Shelf Life
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Compounds that have a negative electrical charge. They form a large group of synthetic detergents.
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Anionic
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The destruction of nearly all pathogenic microorganisms on an inanimate surface.
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Disinfection
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Relating to the destruction of bacteria
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Bactericidal
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The length of time (or number of uses) after which the efficiency of a disinfectant is diminished
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Use Life
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A process by which all forms of microbial life are destroyed.
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Sterilization
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Name the disinfectant:
These low–level disinfectants are often used in environmental sanitation on objects such as floors, walls, and furniture. They are incompatible with soaps. Their concentration may be diminished by some materials such as cotton, wool, filter paper, and charcoal. |
Quaternary Ammonium Compounds
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Name the disinfectant:
This high–level disinfectant is sued for semi–critical devices such as endoscopes. It has sterilant capabilities, but to achieve sterilization the exposure time is 10 hours or more. Once it is activated (mixed) it must be checked routinely using test strips to ensure its concentration. Because of its fumes, employees who work with it must follow specific OSHA guidelines for safety |
Glutaraldehyde
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Name the disinfectant:
This common disinfectant has been in use for several years. It is often used to disinfect equipment. It is inactivated by organic soil. In order to achieve a reasonable level of disinfection it must remain in wet contact with the item being disinfected for at least 5 minutes. That can be a problem because it evaporates quickly. |
Alcohol
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Name the disinfectant:
This relatively new high–level disinfectant is effective at room temperature and provides a fast and effective way to disinfect a side range of items. It has excellent high–level disinfection capabilities, but is not classified as a sterilant. |
Ortho–Phthaldehyde
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A self–retaining retractor
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Gelpi
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The part of a ring–handled instrument that locks the handles in place
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Ratchet
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Surgical instruments used to cut away at bone and tissue
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Rongeurs
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A chemical process applied during instrument manufacture that provides a corrosion–resistant finish
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Passivation
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Surgical instruments with a hollow barrel (lumen) through their center
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Cannulas
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Also known as 400 series stainless steel, this metal used in surgical instrument manufacture can be heat–hardened
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Martensitic
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Surgical instruments used to cut, incise, or dissect tissue
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Scissors
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Commonly found in the Operating Room, this can damage instruments with prolonged exposure
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Saline
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Surgical instruments used to grasp
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Forceps
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The part of a ring–handled instrument where the two parts meet and pivot.
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Box Lock
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True or False:
Tungsten Carbide Scissor blades hold a sharp edge longer than stainless steel ones. |
True
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True or False:
Tissue forceps have teeth and dressing forceps have serrations |
True
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True or False:
Double action ronguers should be tested for sharpness using tissue paper |
False
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True or False:
Laser–etching is a permanent instrument marking process |
True
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True or False:
Because they are mild cleaners, dish soaps are the cleaners of choice for surgical instruments. |
False
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Name the PSI:
Used to repair and reconstruct teeth and jawbones |
Dental drill
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Name the PSI:
Used in ear surgery and for driving very small wires through bone |
Micro Drill
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Name the PSI:
Used in open heart surgery |
Sternal Saw
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Name the PSI:
Used to remove cement |
Cebatome
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Name the PSI:
Used to harvest skin grafts and reshape skin surfaces |
Dermatome/Dermabraider
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Name the PSI:
Used to perform specific cutting actions such as reciprocating or oscillating |
Saw
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Name the endoscope:
Allows for visual inspection of the lower part of the large intestine |
Sigmoidoscope
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Name the endoscope:
Allows for visual inspection of the upper digestive tract |
Gastroscope
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Name the endoscope:
Used to visualize the urethra and bladder |
Cystoscope
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Name the endoscope:
Used to visualize the tracheobronchial tree |
Bronchoscope
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Name the endoscope:
Used to visualize the entire large intestines |
Colonoscope
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True or False:
Leak testing should be performed on each flexible endoscope annually |
False
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True or False:
Loaner instrument trays that are received sterile from other facilities do not need to be decontaminated and resterilized before use |
False
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True or False:
Endoscope channels should be cleaned and then left moist for storage |
False
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True or False:
Powered Surgical Instruments have one of three power sources: electricity, air, or battery. |
True
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True or False:
Modern powered surgical instruments are submersible |
False
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True or False:
Laparoscopic instrument insulation failure can cause burns |
True
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True or False:
The purpose of a decontamination battery is to protect PSI's from fluid invasion |
True
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True or False:
Dental drills are used to remove cement |
False
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True or False:
Automatic endoscope reprocessors are not recommended for flexible endoscopes. |
False
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A method of stock rotation that ensures that older items are used first.
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First in, first out (FIFO)
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Minimum amount of time that packaging materials should be held at room temperature and at 35%–70% relative humidity before sterilization
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2 hours
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Flat wrapping technique that applies one wrap on top of another to create a package within a package
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Sequential
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Government agency that regulates sterilization packaging materials
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Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
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This type of packaging contains no cellulosic materials and would be used to package small items for low temperature sterilization.
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Spunbond Polyolefin–Plastic Combinations
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This type of packaging can be used in dry heat sterilization but is not recommended for other types of sterilization.
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Aluminum Foil
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When using paper/plastic pouches, package content information should be written on this side of the pouch
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Plastic
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True or False: Paperclips are acceptable method of package closure
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False
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Muslin is an example of this type of packaging material
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Reusable
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Maximum density recommended per cubic foot of a linen pack
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7.2 Pounds
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True or False: Sterilization documentation is not required for items that are flash sterilized
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False
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True or False: Instruments must be cleaned before flash sterilization
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True
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True or False: Flash sterilization is rarely performed in hospitals
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False
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True or False: Peracetic acid is a liquid oxidizing agent that effectively kills bacteria at low temperatures
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True
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True or False: Currently there are no process monitors for peracetic acid sterilization processes
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False
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True or False: a diagnostic cycle on the peracetic acid system should be run every day
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True
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True or False: hydrogen peroxide in an example of oxidative chemistry
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True
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True or False: Liquid peracetic acid is difficult to rinse from items
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False
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True or False: Ethylene oxide is not used for point of use processing because of its long cycle times
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True
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True or False: High level disinfection is appropriate for semi–critical devices
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True
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The procedure used by healthcare facilities to confirm that sterilization recommendations from the manufacturer can be successfully undertaken in the hospital setting is called_____.
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Verification
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The test used to evaluate the efficacy of a steam sterilizer's air removal system is call a _____ test.
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Bowie–Dick
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A dating system that records the date as the number of days that have elapsed since January 1st is called the _______.
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Julian Date
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The ______ is the portion of the steam sterilizer that measures steam temperature and automatically controls the flow of air and condensate from the sterilizer chamber
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Thermostatic Trap
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Central Service Technicians should never use _______ to hold instruments together for sterilization
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Rubber Bands
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Steam sterilization heats items within the load using a heat transfer process called ______.
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Convection
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______ steam sterilization can be used to sterilize liquids
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Gravity
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The weight of wrapped basin sets should not exceed ______.
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7 Pounds
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The bacterial spore used for testing dry heat sterilization is __________.
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Bacillus atrophaeus
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Dry heat sterilization heats items within the load using a heat transfer process called ______.
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Conduction
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The "newest" low temperature sterilization process
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Ozone
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This method of low temperature sterilization has been in use since the 1960's
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Ethylene Oxide
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Cycle time for items sterilized using hydrogen peroxide gas plasma
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Less than one hour
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Bacterial spore used to test ethylene oxide sterilization cycles
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Bacillus atrophaeus
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Cycle time for items using ozone sterilization
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4 hours
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140 degrees F. aeration time recommended for items sterilized with ethylene oxide
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8 hours
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Bacterial spore used to text hydrogen peroxide gas plasma sterilization cycles
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Geobacillus stearothermophilus
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Cycle time for items sterilized using using ethylene oxide sterilization
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12+ hours
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Sets exposure standards for chemical sterilants
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OSHA
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Requires that sterilants be rigorously tested before being marketed.
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FDA
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Items that are stored at the healthcare facility, but owned by the vendor are called ______ items.
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Consignment
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Consumable items that are stored in Central Service and other assigned storage systems are referred to as _______. Their value is usually included on the facility's balance sheet.
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Official Inventory
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______ occur when consumable or reusable inventory items are not available when needed.
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Stock Outs
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When items are needed immediately, or at once, Central Service Technicians may receive a ______ order.
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STAT
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The number of times per year that inventory is purchased, consumed, and replaced is called the ________.
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Inventory Turnover Rate
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Something of value that is owned by an organization or person is called an ________
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Asset
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Detergents, sterilization quality assurance products, and other items that are purchased, used up, and replaced are called _______.
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Consumable Inventory
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Sterilizers, mechanical washers, and other expensive items are examples of ______.
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Capital Equipment
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The inventory management strategy that pays the most attention to the items with the highest dollar value and less attention to items with the lowest dollar value is called ________.
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ABC Analysis
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The act of withdrawing supplies from storage for transfer to the areas where they will be used is called _______.
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Issue
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Name the System:
This inventory replenishment system uses identical carts filled with supplies. One cart is dispensed to the user unit and the second cart is kept in standby. Then, at a specified time, the second (full) cart is taken to the user unit to replace the used one. The used cart is taken to the storage area, restocked, and held until the next scheduled replacement time. |
Exchange Cart
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Name the System:
This inventory system is usually used to manage instruments and supplies for individual surgical procedures. A cart filled with instruments and supplies is assembled for each specific procedure and delivered to the user unit, usually the operating room. |
Case Cart
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Name the System:
In this system needed items are requested by the user unit, the order is received and filled from a central storage location. The requested items are then delivered to the requesting (user) unit. |
Requisition System
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Name the System:
In this system a predetermined quantity of supplies is stored on the user unit. Central Service/Material Management staff inventory the supply stock on the user unit and replenish used supplies to ensure that stock levels are returned to the predetermined quantities. |
Par–Level
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Name the System:
This system is a computerized system that allows clinical staff to obtain patient items from a storage unit on the user unit. When the item is removed the clinical staff keys in a code or uses a scan to account for the items they are removing. That data is complied by the computer and at an established time, an order is generated to restock the storage unit. |
Automated Supply Replenishment System
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The ICU places a requisition for 100 items, only 88 of the items can be filled. The inventory service level is _____ and the stock out rate is ______.
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88% Inventory Service Level and 12% Stock Out Rate
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Department that check patient care equipment for safety and function
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Biomedical Engineering
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Allows the patient to self–administer pain medication
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Patient Controlled Analgesia (PCA) Pump
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|
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Applies a brief electroshock to restore the rhythm of the heart
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Defibrillator
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Artificially stimulates the venous plantar plexus to increase circulation in bed–ridden patients.
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Foot Pump
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Gives control of a hospital's equipment management system to an external entity
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Outsourcing
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This is done to return inoperative equipment to proper operating condition
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Repair
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True or False:
Manufacturers sometimes loan equipment to facilities at no cost if the facility agrees to purchase disposable equipment components from the manufacturer |
True
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|
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True or False:
A gastric suction unit is used to suction liquids from oral and nasal cavities |
False
|
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True or False:
Both biomedical technicians and central service technicians are qualified to repair patient care equipment |
False
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True or False:
Used equipment that is not visibly coiled may be returned to the clean equipment storage area without undergoing a decontamination process |
False
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List six reasons why it is important for the Central Service Department to track items
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1. Insure items can be quickly located
2. Determine when consumable supplies should be replaced 3. Measure item usage 4. Maintain accurate records of processes such as sterilization, distribution, etc. 5. Assist with quality processes 6. Obtain information for financial analysis |
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The system that uses small, bandage–sized transponders that provide real–time data about the location of a specific piece of equipment is called a
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Radio Frequency Identification (RFID)
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Hand–written tags, wall–mounted bulletin boards, and log books are examples of _______ tracking systems.
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Manual
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Nurses, physicians, and other professionals working in the healthcare facility are ______ customers of Central Services
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Internal
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An activity designed to identify and resolve work task–related problems is called ________.
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Process Improvement
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When something deviates from the expected standard it is said to have a _______.
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Defect
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Biological indicators, chemical indicators and integrators, as well as pressure gauges, graphs, and charts are all examples of ___________.
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Technical Quality Control Indicators
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A process that looks backwards at an event to help prevent it from reoccurring is called a ______.
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Root Cause Analysis (RCA)
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The quality process that uses the DMADV/DMAIC processes to improve processes is called ___________.
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Six Sigma
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________ is an international standard used by participating organizations to help assure that they consistently deliver quality services and products
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ISO 9000
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The act of granting authority to employees to make decisions within their area of responsibility is called ____________.
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Empowerment
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__________ is a technical, statistical sampling method that measures the quality of production.
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Quality Control
|
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An unexpected occurrence involving death, serious physical or psychological injury, or the risk there of is called a __________.
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Sentinal Event
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True or False - Gas cylinders should be stored and transported in the upright position. |
True |
|
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True or False -If you are exposed to body fluids or chemicals, notify your supervisor before you go home at the end of your shift |
False |
|
|
True or False -Sterile preparation an sterilization areas pose no risk of injury to Central Service Technicians |
False |
|
|
True or False -OSHA has established the PEL for ethylene oxide as 1PPM over an 8-hour TWA |
True |
|
|
True or False -You would find physical data relating to a chemical on its' MSDS sheet |
True |
|
|
True or False -Loss of the central service department's water supply would be an example of an internal disaster
|
True |
|
|
True or False - Sterilization load recalls should only be made if patients develop Infections |
False |
|
|
True or False - If an injury seems insignificant, there is no need to report it |
False |
|
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True or False - Once Central Service Technicians have been made aware of the hazards they face in the work area, they are responsible for working safely and following safety guidelines |
True |
|
|
True or False - When possible, ethylene oxide sterilizers should be located in a separate area from work areas |
True |
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