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426 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
Adnexa refers to
|
accessory organs
|
|
A drop is denoted by the abbreviation
|
gt
|
|
The abbreviation ung refers to
|
ointment
|
|
Proximal is a term that indicates a point
|
nearer to the body
|
|
Adduction means
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movement toward median plane
|
|
Ischemic can be defined as
|
a decreased supply of oxygenated blood to a body part or organ
|
|
A cystocele is
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a herniation of the urinary bladder
|
|
Nulli is a prefix that means
|
none
|
|
False is indicated by the prefix
|
pseudo
|
|
Tiny red or purple spots on the skin appearing as a result of small hemorrhages within the dermal or submucosal layers are called
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petechiae
|
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Kerato refers to
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horny
|
|
The suffix lysis means
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breaking down
|
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The left eye is indicated by the following letters
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OS
|
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Tissue death is called
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necrosis
|
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The secretion of excessive sweat is also known as
|
diaphoresis
|
|
Which radiographic procedure has the ability to make images in multiple planes
|
MRI
|
|
The absence of a normal body opening, duct, or canal is called
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atresia
|
|
Epistaxis can be defined as
|
bleeding from the nose
|
|
Blood gas analysis is called
|
ABG
|
|
A ganglion is a
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collection of nerve endings
|
|
The lungs are covered in a serous membranous sac called the
|
visceral pleura
|
|
The passageway for foods and liquids into the digestive system, and for air into the respiratory system is the
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pharynx
|
|
The vocal cords are located in the
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larynx
|
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The fuction of the trachea is to
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conduct air TO AND FROM the lungs
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|
The nasal cavity is divided into two portions by the
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septum
|
|
The bones of the palm of the hand are referred to as
|
metacarpals
|
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The muscles important in respiration are
|
intercostal
|
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The thick, fan-shaped muscle that lies on the anterior chest is the
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pectoralis major
|
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The triangular uscle of the shoulder that ABDUCTS the arm is the
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deltoid
|
|
Which of the abdominal muscles orginates at the pubic bone ad ends in the ribs
|
rectus abdominis
|
|
One of the principal muscles of the pelvic floor is the
|
levator ani
|
|
The gastrocnemius is the chief muscles of the
|
calf of the leg
|
|
A connective tissue band that holds bones tovether is called
|
ligament
|
|
The two bones taht form the side walls the rood of the cranium are the
|
parietal bones
|
|
The sternocleidomastoid muscle is located
|
along the side of the neck
|
|
The medial bone of the forearm, which is located on the small-finger side of the hand, is called the
|
ulna
|
|
The bone that is shaped like a butterfly and forms the anterior portion of the base of the cranium is the
|
sphenoid
|
|
The bone that forms the posterior portion of the skull is the
|
occipital
|
|
The lower jawbone is the
|
mandible
|
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The bone located in the neck between the madible and the larynx, which suports the tongue and provides attachement for some of the its muscles, is the
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hyoid bone
|
|
The adult vertebral column has
|
26 bones
|
|
How many cervical vertebrae are there
|
7
|
|
The bone is the axial skeleton that does not articulate with any other bone is the
|
hyoid
|
|
The number of pairs of ribs is
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12
|
|
A slender, rodlike bone that is located at the base of the neck and runs horizontally is the
|
clavicle
|
|
A connective tissue band that holds bones together is called
|
ligament
|
|
A connective tissue that holds bone to muscle is a
|
tendon
|
|
The medial bone of the forearm, which is located on the small-finger side of the hand, is called the
|
ulna
|
|
The bones that is shaped like a butterfuly and forms the anterior portion of the base of the cranium isthe
|
sphenoid
|
|
A connective tissue band that holds bones together is called
|
ligament
|
|
THe bone that forms the posterior portion of the skull is the
|
occipital
|
|
A connective tissue that holds bone to muscle is a
|
tendon
|
|
The medial bone of the forearm, which is located on the small-finger side of the hand, is called the
|
ulna
|
|
The bones that is shaped like a butterfuly and forms the anterior portion of the base of the cranium isthe
|
sphenoid
|
|
A connective tissue band that holds bones together is called
|
ligament
|
|
THe bone that forms the posterior portion of the skull is the
|
occipital
|
|
A connective tissue that holds bone to muscle is a
|
tendon
|
|
A connective tissue band that holds bones together is called
|
ligament
|
|
A connective tissue band that holds bones together is called
|
ligament
|
|
The medial bone of the forearm, which is located on the small-finger side of the hand, is called the
|
ulna
|
|
A connective tissue that holds bone to muscle is a
|
tendon
|
|
A connective tissue that holds bone to muscle is a
|
tendon
|
|
The bones that is shaped like a butterfuly and forms the anterior portion of the base of the cranium isthe
|
sphenoid
|
|
The medial bone of the forearm, which is located on the small-finger side of the hand, is called the
|
ulna
|
|
The medial bone of the forearm, which is located on the small-finger side of the hand, is called the
|
ulna
|
|
THe bone that forms the posterior portion of the skull is the
|
occipital
|
|
The bones that is shaped like a butterfuly and forms the anterior portion of the base of the cranium isthe
|
sphenoid
|
|
The bones that is shaped like a butterfuly and forms the anterior portion of the base of the cranium isthe
|
sphenoid
|
|
THe bone that forms the posterior portion of the skull is the
|
occipital
|
|
THe bone that forms the posterior portion of the skull is the
|
occipital
|
|
The bone that forms the posterior portion of the skull is the
|
occipital
|
|
The lower jawbone is the
|
mandible
|
|
The bone located in the neck between the mandible and the larynx, thich supports the tongue and provides attachment for some of the its muscles, is the
|
Hyoid bone
|
|
A slender, rodlike bone that is located at the base of the neck and runs horizontally is the
|
clavicle
|
|
The nucleus pulposus is the
|
cushioning mass within an intervertebral disk
|
|
The upper, flaring portion of hipbone is the
|
ilium
|
|
A large opening at the base of the skull through which the spinal cord passes is the
|
foramen magnum
|
|
The larger, weigt-bearing bone of the lower leg is the
|
tibia
|
|
The bone that fits into the acetabulum, forming a joint, is the
|
femur
|
|
Another name for the kneecap is
|
patella
|
|
The membranes that l ine closed cavities within the body are called
|
serous membranes
|
|
the longest bone in the body is the
|
femur
|
|
A rounded protuberance found at a point of articulation with another bone is called a
|
condyle
|
|
An infection of the bone is
|
osteomyelitis
|
|
The epiphyses are the
|
ends of long bones
|
|
Oil glands of the skin are called
|
sebaceous
|
|
The periosteum is
|
the membrane that covers bone
|
|
A transparent structure that permits the eye to focus rays to form an image on the retina is the
|
lens
|
|
The purpose of the iris is to
|
regulate the amount of light entering the eye
|
|
The structure that is seen from the outside as the colored portion of the eye is the
|
iris
|
|
The nerve that carries visual impulses to the brain is the
|
optic nerve
|
|
the white outer layer of the eyeball is the
|
sclera
|
|
A jelly-like substance in the eye's posterior cavity is called POSTERIOR cavity is called
|
vitreous humor
|
|
The watery substance in the anterior and posterier cavity is
|
aqueous humor
|
|
The structure that connects the middle ear and the throat, allowing the eardrum to vibrate freely, is the
|
eustachian tube
|
|
The conjectiva is the
|
covering of the anterior globe except the cornea
|
|
The number of pairs of spinal nerves is
|
31
|
|
The great sensory nerve of the face and head is the
|
trigeminal
|
|
The crainial nerve that contains special sense fibers for hearing as well as for balance is
|
VIII acoustic
|
|
The part of the brain responsible for maintenance of balance and muscle tone, as well as coordination of voluntary muscle, is the
|
cerebellum
|
|
The grontal, temporal, parietal, and occipital lobes are divisions of the
|
cerebrum
|
|
The area of the brain that controls the respiratory center is the
|
medulla oblongata
|
|
The largest part of the brain is the
|
cerebrum
|
|
The outermost covering of the brain and spinal cord is the
|
dura mater
|
|
Cerebrospinal fluid circulates freely in the
|
subarachnoid space
|
|
The brain contains four fluid-filled spaces called the
|
ventricles
|
|
The following structure transmits sound vibrations to the inner ear
|
tympanic membrane
|
|
The winding, cone-shaped tube of the inner ear is the
|
cochlea
|
|
cross-matching of blood
|
determines suitability of donor by mixing donor RBCs with recipient serum
|
|
The highly specialized blood cell whose funciton is oxygen transportation is
|
red blood cell with protein hemoglobin
|
|
A differential count provides an estimate of
|
the percentage of each type of white cell
|
|
Mixing of incompatible bloods may result in
|
agglutination
|
|
Platelets are essential for
|
coagulation of blood
|
|
In the normal adult, the average number of leukocytes per cubic millimeter of circulating blood is
|
5000-10000
|
|
A large superficial vein in the lower etremity, which begins in the foot and extends up the medial side of the leg, the knee, and the thigh, is called the
|
greater saphenous
|
|
The vein in the bend of the elbow that is commonly used as a site for venipuncture is the
|
median cubital vein
|
|
The artery at the back of the knee is the
|
popliteal
|
|
The superior and inferior mesenteric arteries supply the
|
intestines
|
|
The vein that drains the veins of the chest wall and empties into the superior vena cava is the
|
azygos
|
|
The veins of the head and neck are drained by the
|
jugular veins
|
|
Which arteries supply the heart
|
right and left coronary
|
|
The atrioventricular AV node causes
|
ventricular contraction
|
|
Why would an aspirated foreign body be more likely to enter the right bronchus rather than the left bronchus?
|
the right bronchus is more vertical, shorter, and wider than the left
|
|
The spleen filters
|
blood
|
|
Circulation that is established through an anastomosis between two vessels supplying or draining two adjacent structures is called
|
collateral circulation
|
|
Which artery supplies the head and neck?
|
carotid
|
|
The circle of Willis is lcated
|
at the base of the brain
|
|
The branch of the external iliac artery that is located in the thigh is called the
|
femoral artery
|
|
The descending aorta terminates at the level of the fourth lumbar vertebra, dividing into
|
two common iliac arteries
|
|
The contractions of the heart are synchronized and regularted by the pacemake of the heart, called the
|
sinoatrial node
|
|
Tiny blood vessels that permeate and nourish tissue are called
|
capillaries
|
|
The wall or partition dividing the heart into right and left sides is called the
|
septum
|
|
The heart valve that closes at the time the right ventricle begins pumping, preventing blood from returning to the right atrium, is the
|
tricuspid
|
|
The inner lining of the heart, composed of smooth, delicate membrane, is called the
|
endocardium
|
|
The spleen is located
|
in the left hypochondriac region
|
|
All of the following are parts of the lymphatic system
|
tonsils
spleen thymus |
|
The s-shaped bend in the lower colon is called the
|
sigmoid
|
|
The reabsorption of water and electrolytes is the main function of the
|
large intestine
|
|
The terminal portion of the large intestine is
|
anal canal
|
|
Which structure lies retroperitoneally?
|
kidney
|
|
The first portion of the large intestine is the
|
cecum
|
|
The appendix is attached to the
|
cecum
|
|
The primary function of the gallbladder is
|
storage of bile
|
|
When the gallbladder contracts, bile is ejected into the
|
duodenum
|
|
The area in the duodenum where the common bile duct and the pancreatic duct empty is called
|
the ampulla of Vater
|
|
Which structure is also known as the "fatty apron"?
|
greater omentum
|
|
The common bile duct is the union of the
|
cystic duct and hepatic duct
|
|
The yellow tinge in the skin symptomatic of obstructive jaundice is caused by the accumulation of what substance in the blood and tissue?
|
bilirubin
|
|
The head of the pancreas is located
|
in the curve of the duodenum
|
|
the sphincter at the junction of the small and large intestines is the
|
ileocecal sphincter
|
|
The portion of the small intestine that receives secretions from the pancreas and the liver is the
|
duodenum
|
|
The region of the stomach that connects to the duodenum is the
|
pylorus
|
|
The mesentery is
|
a double-layered peritoneal structure shaped like a fan
|
|
The large central portion of the stomach is called the
|
body
|
|
The muscle serving as a valve to prevent regurgitation of food from the intestine back into the stomach is known as the
|
pyloric sphincter
|
|
The digestive passageway that begins at the pharynx and terminates in the stomach is the
|
esophagus
|
|
The point at which the esophagus penetrates the diaphragm is called the
|
hiatus
|
|
Adenoids are also called
|
pharyngeal tonsils
|
|
The function of the molar teeth is to
|
crush and grind food
|
|
Mumps ocur in the
|
parotid glands
|
|
The salivary glands located under the tongue are the
|
sublingual
|
|
The liver has
|
two lobes
|
|
The glomerulus is a
|
cluster of capillaries located on one end of the nephron
|
|
The tubes or cuplike extensions that project from the renal pelvis are called
|
calyces
|
|
Urine is transported along the ureters to the bladder by
|
peristaltic waves
|
|
The smooth, triangular area at the bottom of the bladder that contains three opening is called the
|
trigone
|
|
The kidneys are positioned
|
retroperitoneally
|
|
The kidney structure that filtures blood, returns useful sustances to blood, and removes substances form blood that are not needed
|
nephron
|
|
Blood is supplied to the kidney by means of the renal artery, which arises from the
|
abdominal aorta
|
|
The indentation in the kidney through which all structures must pass as they enter or leave the kidney is the
|
hilus
|
|
The outer layer of the kidney is known as the
|
cortex
|
|
The portion of the male urethra that passes through the pelvic floor is called the
|
membranous portion
|
|
A lack of voluntary control over micturition is called
|
incontinence
|
|
Urine empties from the bladder through a tube called the
|
urethra
|
|
Fertilization occurs in the
|
fallopian tubes
|
|
The perineum is
|
the area between the vagina and the anus
|
|
The kidneys are positioned
|
retroperitoneally
|
|
The kidney structure that filtures blood, returns useful sustances to blood, and removes substances form blood that are not needed
|
nephron
|
|
Blood is supplied to the kidney by means of the renal artery, which arises from the
|
abdominal aorta
|
|
The indentation in the kidney through which all structures must pass as they enter or leave the kidney is the
|
hilus
|
|
The outer layer of the kidney is known as the
|
cortex
|
|
The portion of the male urethra that passes through the pelvic floor is called the
|
membranous portion
|
|
A lack of voluntary control over micturition is called
|
incontinence
|
|
Urine empties from the bladder through a tube called the
|
urethra
|
|
Fertilization occurs in the
|
fallopian tubes
|
|
The perineum is
|
the area between the vagina and the anus
|
|
The small, sensitive structure of the female homologous to the male penis is the
|
clitoris
|
|
Ova are swept into the fallopian tubes by small, fringelike extensions of the distal ends of the tubes called
|
fimbriae
|
|
The inner lining of the uterus is called the
|
endometrium
|
|
The ligament that attaches the overies to the pelvic wall is the
|
suspensory
|
|
The supporting structure of the male reproductive system is the
|
spermatic cord
|
|
The loose skin covering the glans penis like a sheath is called the
|
prepuce
|
|
In a male, the structure surrounding the entrance to the urethra just below the urinary bladder is
|
the prostate gland
|
|
The following are structures of the male urethra
|
membranous, prostatic, penile
|
|
This structure stores sperm and propels them toward the urethra during ejaculation
|
vas deferens
|
|
The long, coiled tue in which sperm mature is the
|
epididymis
|
|
The English surgeon who began the age of chemical control of the atmosphere was
|
Lister
|
|
Passage of fluid through a cell membrane is called
|
osmosis
|
|
Oxygen-dependent bacteria are said to be
|
aerobic
|
|
The destruction of bacteria by white cells during the inflammatory process is called
|
phagocytosis
|
|
Bacteriostatic means
|
to inhibit growth of microorganisms
|
|
Staphylococcus aureus would most likely be transmitted by
|
nose and mouth
|
|
Microbial death occurs when an organisms is
|
no longer capable of reproduction
|
|
What immune protection is available to the fetus
|
natural passive
|
|
The clinical syndrome characterized by microbial invasion of the bloodstream is
|
septicemia
|
|
A toxoid is
|
an inactivated toxin
|
|
Inflammatory exudate that is thick and yellow is termed
|
suppurative
|
|
The body's first line of defense against the invasion of pathogens is
|
skin and mucous membrane linings
|
|
Rodlike shaped bacteria are identified microscopically as
|
bacilli
|
|
A procedure used to remove damaged tissue that provides growth conditions for pathogens is called
|
debridement
|
|
Herpes simplex is commonly called
|
cold sore
|
|
All of the following descriptors refer to the inflammatory process EXCEPT:
heat pain vasoconstriction edema |
vasoconstriction
|
|
Clostridium tetani causes
|
lockjaw
|
|
A laboratory procedure useful in classifying bacteria using a staining procedure is
|
Gram stain
|
|
A dulminating infection arising from necrotic tissue and spreading rapidly is
|
gas gangrene
|
|
Which bacteria is commonly found in soil?
|
Clostridium tetani
|
|
The bacteria that causes rheumatic fever is
|
Streptococcus
|
|
A severe allergic reaction possibly resulting in death is called
|
anaphylactic shock
|
|
What organism is responsible for a boil?
|
Staphylococcus aureus
|
|
The organism most frequently found in burns is
|
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
|
|
A bacterial pathogen most frequenly invading damaged skin is
|
Staphlococcus aureus
|
|
Which type of wound would favor the development of gas gangrene?
|
necrotic
|
|
Gas gangrene is caused by
|
Clostridium perfringens
|
|
The bacteria highly resistant to sterilization and disinfection is
|
spores
|
|
A bacteria found in the intestinal tract is
|
Escherichia coli
|
|
The burn classification that is characterized by a dry, pearly white, or charred-appearing surface is
|
third
|
|
OSHA is a governmental regulating agency whose aim is to
|
execute requirements designed to prevent transmission of blood-borne pathogens in the work environment
|
|
Inflammation is characterized by pain, redness, heat, swelling, and loss of function. The redness can be attributed to
|
vasodilation bringing more blood to the area
|
|
Removal of contaminated debris from a wound is called
|
debridement
|
|
The space caused by separation of wound edges is called
|
dead space
|
|
If tissue is approximated too tightly it can cause
|
ischemia
|
|
Tensile strength of a wound refers to
|
ability of tissue to resist rupture
|
|
The substance that unites with thrombin to form fibrin, the basic structural material of blood clots is
|
fibrinogen
|
|
A cicatrix is
|
a scar
|
|
Keloids are
|
a raised, thickened scar
|
|
supraspinatous function
|
abduction, external rotation, most commonly torn
|
|
A CDC guidleline that addresses the care of "sharps" includes ALL of the following EXCEPT:
a. needles should always be recapped b. needles should not e bent or broken by hand c. needles should not be removed from disposable syringes d. needles should be discarded in puncture-resistant containers for disposal |
a
|
|
The type of wound healing that requires debridement is
|
third
|
|
To promot healing, a surgical wound must have all of the following requisites EXCEPT
a. suture closure of dead space b. drains to removed fluid or air c. a moderately tight dressing d. tight sutures to create tension |
d
|
|
Wound healing that employs a technique allowing the wound to heal from the bottom up is called
|
second intention
|
|
Which body fluid is least likely to transmit HIV?
|
saliva
|
|
A band of scar tissue that binds together two anatomical surfaces that are normally separate from each other is called
|
adhesion
|
|
A drug that interferes with the blood-clotting mechanism is
|
heparin
|
|
A mg is a measurement of
|
weight
|
|
The solutions used IV to replace plasma when plasma is not available is
|
Dextran
|
|
An inch equals how many cm?
|
2.54cm
|
|
How many millilters are in 1 ounce?
|
30ml
|
|
One gram equals
|
1000mg
|
|
A drug used to increase blood pressure is
|
epinephrine
|
|
The action of an anticholinergic drug is to reduce
|
secretions
|
|
The total volume in a 30cc syringe is
|
1 ounce
|
|
Naloxone (Narcan) is an example of a/an na
|
narcotic antagonist
|
|
Avitene is a
|
hemostatic
|
|
An absorbable gelatin hemostatic agent that is often soaked in thrombin or opinephrine solution is
|
Gefoam
|
|
Each of the following agents must be applied using dry gloves or instruments EXCEPT
a. gelfoam b. collastat c. avitene d. helistat |
a
|
|
An anticoagulant given subcutaneously, intravenously, or as a flush is
|
heparin
|
|
A drug that decreases the tendency of blood platelets to clot is
|
warfarin sodium
|
|
An antibiotic used intraoperatively is
|
Gentamicin
|
|
A topical antibiotic is
|
Bacitracin
|
|
Which item is used on cut edges of bone to seal off oozing of blood?
a. electrocautery b. silver nitrate c. bone wax d. epinephrine |
bone wax
|
|
The most common diurectic is
|
Lasix
|
|
An osmotic diurectic agent used to decrease cerebral edema and intraocular edema is
|
mannitol
|
|
A systemic agent used to control uterine hemorrhage is
|
pitocin
|
|
Steroids are used for
|
reduction of tissue inflammation and swelling
|
|
Solu-Medrol is an
|
anti-inflammatory
|
|
Tubal patency may be tested by the installation of ______ into the uterine cavity
|
methylene blue
|
|
A mydriatic drug., Neo-Synephrine, is used to
|
dilate the pupil
|
|
Immobility of the eye, along with lowered intra-ocular pressure is facilitated by the use of
|
Retrobulbar block
|
|
Miochol is a
|
miotic
|
|
An agent that keeps the cornea moist during surgery and is used for irrigation as well is
|
BSS
|
|
An artificial plasma-volume expander is
|
dextran
|
|
An anticoagulant used in vascular surgery is
|
heparin
|
|
Heparin effects are reversed by
|
protamine sulfate
|
|
The universal donor blood that may be fiven in extreme emergencies until the patient can be typed and crossmatched is
|
O
|
|
Normal saline is used for laparotomy pack moistening and for intraperitoneal irrigation because it is
|
isotonic
|
|
Levophed
|
restores and maintains blood pressure
|
|
A drug used to treat metabolic acidosis is
|
sodium bicarbonate
|
|
The last sensation to leave the patient during general anesthesia induction is
|
hearing
|
|
An ultrashort acting drug useful during intubation to produce paralysis and also to produce muscle relaxation when used in a dilute solution is
|
Anectine
|
|
Neuroleptoanalgesia combines
|
a tranquilizer and narcotic
|
|
A sedative-tranquilizer used to reduce anxiety and apprehension of the pre-op patient and as an adjunct to general anesthesia to reduce the amount and concentration of other more potent agents is
|
Valium
|
|
An antimuscarinic
|
limits salivation
|
|
Anesthesia given in combination of several agents to obtain optimum results is called
|
balanced anesthesia
|
|
A bolus is
|
a dose injected all at once, IV
|
|
A drug used to soothe and relieve anxiety is
|
sedative
|
|
A Bier block provides
|
anesthesia to a distal portion of an extremity
|
|
Which inhalation agent is used for short procedures requiring no muscle relaxation?
|
nitrous oxide
|
|
The most frequently used barbiturate for IV anesthesia is
|
pentothal
|
|
Halothan is also called
|
Fluothane
|
|
A method of anesthesia in which medication is injected into the subarachnoid space, affecting a portion of the spinal cord, is called a
|
spinal block
|
|
The indication for an epidural would be
|
anorectal, vaginal, perineal, and obstetric procedures
|
|
Compazine is
|
an antiemetic
|
|
Pontocaine is
|
tetracaine HCL
|
|
Which technique can be employed to prevent pain during an operative procedure or to relieve chronic pain
|
nerve block
|
|
The most widely used local anesthetic is
|
lidocaine
|
|
Another name for adrenalin is
|
epinephrine
|
|
A vasocontrictor that, when added to a local anesthetic agent, extends its life is
|
epinephrine
|
|
The purpose of an LMA is
|
to establish and maintain a patent airway
|
|
A drug used to reverse hypotension is
|
Levophed
|
|
Blood or fluid can be quickly delivered to a patient via
|
rapid infusion pump
|
|
Blood oxygenation can be monitored during surgery by means of a
|
pulse oximeter
|
|
A drug that could be used to reverse the effect of muscle relaxants is
|
Prostigmin
|
|
Arterial blood gases (ABGs) are commonly obtained by accesssing the
|
radial artery
|
|
Which piece of equipment is of extreme importance when anesthesia induction begins?
|
suction
|
|
The minimum distance a nonsterile person should remain from a sterile field is
|
1 foot
|
|
Identify whoch of the following is NOT safe practice
a. discard opened sterile bottles b. sterile persons drape first toward themselves, than away c. sterile persons face sterile areas d. sterile tables may be covered for later used |
d. NOT safe to covere sterile tables for later use
|
|
Tables are considered sterile
|
only of the top
|
|
At the end of the case, drapes should be
|
check for instruments, rolled off, and placed in a hamper
|
|
If a solution soaks through a sterile drape
|
cover wet area with impervious sterile drape or towel
|
|
The pounds of pressure necessary in a steam sterilizer set at 250F is
|
15-17psi
|
|
Positive assurance that sterilization conditions have been achieved can only be obtained through
|
biologic control test
|
|
A wrapped tray of instruments is sterilized in a gravity displacement sterilizer at 250F for
|
30 min
|
|
The minimum exposure time for unwrapped instruments in a flash sterilizer that is set at 270F is
|
3 min
|
|
When steam is used to sterilized a rubber tubing or catheter
|
a residual of distilled water should be left inside the lumen
|
|
To be sterilized effectively, a linen pack must not weigh more than
|
12 pounds
|
|
Gravity displacement utilizes _____ to destroy microorganisms
|
steam
|
|
The process called cavitation occurs in the
|
ultrasonic cleaner
|
|
All of the following statments regarding instrument sets are true EXCEPT
a. instruments must be placed in perforated trays b. heavy instruments are placed on the bottom c. all instruments must be close d. all detachable parts must be disassembled |
c is false because all instruments must be OPEN
|
|
All of the following statements regarding steam sterilization are true EXCEPT
a. flat packages are placed on the shelf on edge b. small packages, placed one on top of the other, are criss-crossed c. basins are placed on their sides d. solutions may be autoclaved along with other itmes as long as they are on a shelf alone |
d is false because solutions are sterilized alone on a slow-exhaust cycle to prevent them from boiling over. The pressure gauge must read 0F before opening the door. This is so the caps will not pop off
|
|
Wrapped basin sets may be sterilized by steam under pressure at 250F for a minimum of
|
20 min
|
|
Which of the following statements regarding the sterilization of basin sets is true?
|
basins must be separated by a porous material if they are nested
|
|
Why would gas sterilization be chosen over steam sterilization
|
it is less damaging to items
|
|
The chemical agent used in gas sterilization is
|
ethylene oxide
|
|
What chemical system uses peracetic acid as the sterilant?
|
steris
|
|
The lumen of a tubing undergoing ethylene oxide (EO) sterilization is
|
dried thoroughly
|
|
Why is thylene oxide diluted with an inert gas such as chlorofluorocarbon?
|
it provides flame retardation
|
|
The commerical name for glutaradehyde is
|
Cidex
|
|
A 30 min, single use, sterilization system useful for endoscopes is
|
Steris
|
|
Which of the following is essential when using activated glutardehyde for sterilization?
|
items must be rinsed thoroughly in sterile water before use
|
|
What is the shelf life of Cidex?
|
between 14-28 days
|
|
In which procedure would the use of a high-level disinfectant be acceptable instrument preparation
|
cystoscopy
|
|
In a high-speed flash sterilizer, unwrapped instruments are exposed for a minimum of
|
3 min
|
|
To kill spores, an item must be immersed in a 2% aqueous solution of glutaraldehyde for
|
10 hours
|
|
When placing tubing in an activated glutaraldehyde solution, one should
|
be certain that the interior of the tubing is completely filled
|
|
What is the role of moisture in EO sterilization?
|
dried spores are resistant to the gas, so they must be hydrated
|
|
"Slow exhaust" in a gravity displacement steam sterilizer is used for
|
solutions
|
|
Oil is best sterilized by
|
convection hot air
|
|
What is the function of an aerator in EO sterilization?
|
it is a separate unit used to decrease the aeration time
|
|
Ethylene oxide destroys cells by
|
interfering with the normal metabolism of the protein and reproductive processes
|
|
Activated glutaraldehyde is used to disinfect endoscopes for
|
20 minutes
|
|
When using a high-level disinfectant, always
|
rinse items with sterile distilled water before using
|
|
The chemical sterilant used in the STERIS method of sterilizing is
|
peracetic acid
|
|
The Endoflush ststem
|
initially cleans reusable channeled instruments
|
|
Which of the following is not an acceptable wrapper for gas sterilization?
a. nylon b. muslin c. paper d. plastic |
a. nylon is not acceptable because of inadequate permeability; however, muslin, nonwoven fabric, paper, and plastic are safely used. Items wrapped for gas sterilization should be tagged to avoid inadvertent steam sterilization
|
|
Which of the following is the only acceptable plastic taht can be used for a steam sterilization wrapper?
a. polyethylene b. polypropylene c. polyamide d. polyvinyl chloride |
b. polypropylene
- polypropylene film of 1-3mm thickness is the only plastic acceptable for steam sterilization. It is used in the form f pouches presealed on two or three sides. The open sides are then heat sealed |
|
All of the foloowing statments regarding muslin wrapper are true EXCEPT
a. muslin must be laundered, even if unused, in order to rehydrate it b. a 140-thread count of unbleached muslin is used for wrappers c. muslin is flexible and easy to handle d. small holes can be repaired by stitching on a patch |
d. is false because small holes can only be heat sealed with double-vulcanized patches, they never can be stitched bc they will leave needle holes in the muslin
|
|
Packages wrapped in muslin must have
|
four thicknesses
|
|
The maximum storage life for a muslin-wrapped item in a closed cabinet is
|
30 days
|
|
An item dropped on the floor is considered safe only if
|
it is enclosed in an impervious material
|
|
When using a pour solution
|
the contents must be used or discarded after the bottle is opened
|
|
What is the standard safety margin on package wrappers
|
1 inch or more
|
|
When opening a wrapper, the circulator should open the top flap
|
away from self
|
|
When the scrub nurse opens an inner sterile wrapper
|
the side nearest the body is opened first
|
|
When flipping a sterile item onto the field, the circulator may
|
project item without reaching over the sterile field
|
|
The room temperature in an operating room OR should
|
between 68 and 76F
|
|
If an OR staff member wears eyeglasses
|
the glasses should be wiped with an antiseptic solution before each operation
|
|
Each statement regarding OR attire is true EXCEPT
a. lab coats worn out of the OR suite should be clean, closed, and knee length b. scrub suits are always changed upon re-entry to the OR suite c. scrub suits may be worn out of the OR uncovered, if they are changed upon OR re-entry d. nonprofessional personnel and visitors must wear approved attire in the OR |
c. is false
|
|
The most effective protection from the radiation of x-rays is a
|
lead apron
|
|
It is considered good technique to
|
handle the mask only by the strings
|
|
Sterile gloves
|
should be wiped off after donning to remove lubricant
|
|
Electrical cords should be
|
removed from pathways so equipment is not rolloed over them
|
|
Scatter radiation effects are directly related to
|
amount of radiation and length of exposure time
|
|
When using a patient roller, how many people are necessary to move the patient safely and efficiently?
|
4
|
|
When moving the patient from the OR table, who is responsible for guarding the head and neck from injury?
|
anesthesiologist
|
|
To move the patient from the transport stretcher to the OR table
|
one person stands next to the stretcher, one adjacent to the OR table, while the patient moves over
|
|
When moving a patient with a fx in the OR, all of the following are true EXCEPT
a. extra personnel are necessary b. support of the extremity should always be from below the site of fracture c. lifters on the affected side support the fx d. the surgeon should be present |
b. is false, because, fx should be supported from both above and below the fx site when moving the patient
|
|
The safety strap is ____ inches above the knee, not too tight but secure
|
2 inches
|
|
A patient with a fractured femur is being moved to the OR table. Who is responsible for supporting and protecting the fx site?
|
The physician
|
|
Crossing the patient's arms across his or her chest may cause
|
interference with respiration
|
|
A precaution always taken when the patient is in the supine position is to
|
protect the heels from pressure on the OR table
|
|
During lateral positioning, a
|
pillow is placed between the legs
|
|
To prevent strain to the lumbosacral muscles and ligaments when the patient is in the lithotomy position
|
The buttocks must not extend beyong the table edge
|
|
The lithotomy position requires each of the following
|
1. Legs raised simultaneously by two people who grasp the sole of a foot in one hand and support the knee area with the other
2. sturrups must be of equal height and approprate for the size of the patient's leg 3. patient's buttocks rest along the break between the body and leg sections of the table |
|
All off the following are requirements of the Kraske position
|
1. patient is prone with hips over the break of the table
2. a pillow is placed under lower lefs and ankles 3. a padded knee strap is applied 2 inches above the knees 4. table is flexed to acute angle and small rolled towel is under each shoulder |
|
When using an armboard, the most important measure is to
|
avoid hyperextension of the arm
|
|
Anesthetized patients should be moved slowly to
|
allow the circulatory system to adjust
|
|
If the patient is in a supine position, the circulator must always
|
see the that ankles and legs are not crossed
|
|
Extreme positions of the head and arm can cause injury to the
|
brachial plexus
|
|
Ulnar nerve damage could result from
|
placing an arm on an unpadded table egde
|
|
In the prone position, the thorax must be elevated from the OR table to prevent
|
compromised respiration
|
|
The anesthesiologist closes the eyelids of a general anesthetic patient for all of the following reasons
|
1. prevent drying of the eye
2. prevent eye trauma 3. protect the eye from anesthetic agents - they may remain open if protected with opthalmic ointment |
|
Diastolic blood pressure refers to
|
the relaxation phase between heartbeats
|
|
Systolic blood pressure represents
|
the greatest force caused by contraction of the left ventricle of the heart
|
|
Tachycardia is a
|
heartbeat over 100 beats per minute
|
|
The most common artery used to feel the pulse is the
|
radial artery
|
|
The body temp in 98.6F, what is it in Celsuis?
|
37C
|
|
Which term indicated low or decreased blood volume?
|
hypovolemia
|
|
If the surgeon wants to assess the patient's ability to void voluntarily via the urethra, yet sees the need for urinary drainage, he could use a
|
Bonanno suprapublic catheter
|
|
When catheterizing a patient
|
the tip of the catheter must be kept sterile
|
|
In which burn classification are the skin and subcutaneous tissue destroyed?
|
third
|
|
Uncontrolled increased positive pressure in one side of the thorax causes collapse of the opposite side, which is called
|
mediastinal shift
|
|
Why is the obese patient at greater surgical risk than one of normal weight?
|
because fat has poor vascularity
|
|
The patient has received preop meds. The action to be taken when this patient complains of dry mouth and request water would be to
|
restrict fluids completely and explain the reason for action of medication
|
|
When drawing a blood sample for arterial blood gases (ABGs), what is considered a safe time lapse between blood drawing and analysis?
|
10 minutes
|
|
A patient is on anticoagulant drugs. Which of the following tests may be done to check the clotting time of his or her blood?
|
prothrombin time
|
|
The preoperative UA done on a patient indicates that the specific gravity is 1.050. This is
|
above normal range and he or she is dehydrated
|
|
A type and crossmatch is done
|
if the surgeon anticipates in advance of the operation that blood loss replacement may be necessary
|
|
A patient scheduled for surgery has a hematocrit reading of 40% of whole blood volume. This is
|
within normal range
|
|
Inherited deficiencies of coagulation in which bleeding occurs spontaneously after minor trauma is
|
hemophilia
|
|
Preoperative chest x-rays
|
should be done on all surgical patients
|
|
An electrocardiogram is
|
an electrical recording of heart activity
|
|
After being scheduled in the OR for a routine tonsilectomy, the nurse checking the chart of a patient notes that the hemoglobin is 9.0g. This reading is
|
below te normal range
|
|
A microscopic blood exam that estimates the percentages of each type of white cell is called a
|
differential blood count
|
|
Which procedure is NOT absolutely necessary in patient identification?
|
identification by the scrub before the procedure begins
|
|
Operative records documenting all aspects of perioperative care are required by
|
JCHO
|
|
Except for endotracheal tube installation, basic life support cannot be interrupted for more than
|
5 seconds (and CPR should not be suspended for more than 30 seconds)
|
|
External cardiac compression
|
provides oxygen to vital tissues
|
|
During intraoperative CPR effort the scrub's role is to
|
remain sterile, keep track of counted items, and assist as necessary
|
|
A patient was burned on the lip with a hot mouth gag. Which of the following actions would have prevented this incident?
|
the scrub nurse cooled the itme in a basin with sterile water
|
|
A patient signs a permission form for surgery, but because of a language barrier he or she does not fully understand what she or he has signed. This could constitute a liability case for
|
assault and battery
|
|
If a patient falls because he or she was left unattended, the OR team member could be cited in a lawsuit for
|
abandonment
|
|
Which is NOT considered a safe procedure when caring for dentures inadvertently sent to the OR?
|
wraping in a plastic bad and atch to the patient's chart
|
|
A lack of care or skill that any nurse or technician in the same situation would be expected to use is the legal definition of
|
negligence
|
|
The lefal doctrine that mandates every professional nurse and technician to carry out their duties according to national standards of care practiced throughout the country is the
|
doctrine of Reasonable Man
|
|
The doctrine of Respondeat Superior refers to
|
employer liability for employee's negligent conduct
|
|
Liability is a legal rule that
|
holds each individual responsible for his or her own acts
|
|
A criteria that identifies, measures, monitors, and evaluates patient care is
|
quality assurane programs
|
|
Each of the following applies to an incident report EXCEPT:
a. notation is made on the patient's OR record b. statement should be factual and non-interpretive c. description includes action taken d. details are complete and accurate |
a. is false bc you would NOT make a record on the chart
|
|
In which way could a patient's response to impending surgery exhibit itself?
|
tension, axiety, fear, suspicion, anger and hostility
|
|
Excessive exposure to radiation can affect the
|
reproductive organs
|
|
Radiation exposure of the staff is monitored with
|
film badges
|
|
Ionizing radiation protection is afforded by the use of
|
lead
|
|
A potential safety hazard associated with laster sugery is
|
eye injury
|
|
An OR hazard that has been linked to incrased risk of spontaneous abortion is female OR employees is exposure to
|
waste anesthetic gas
|
|
Which virus can be trasmitted by a needle puncture or splash in the eye
|
Hep B
|
|
While usuing this mixture, a scavenging system is used to collect and exhaust or absorb its vapors. It is called
|
methyl methacrylate
|