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198 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
Microorganisms are involved in each of the following processes EXCEPT
a) food production b) infection c) O2 production d) smog production e) decomposition of organic material |
d) smog production |
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Each of the following organisms would be considered a microbe EXCEPT
a) mushroom b) yeast c) bacterium d) protozoan e) virus |
a) mushroom |
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The term used to describe a disease-causing microorganism is
a) bacterium b) infection c) microbe d) virus e) pathogen |
e) pathogen |
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Common commercial benefits of microorganisms include synthesis of
a) aspirin b) antibiotics c) insulin d) antibiotics and aspirin e) antibiotics and insulin |
e) antibiotics and insulin |
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Commercial utilization of microbial products has become increasingly popular due to their environmentally friendly nature. Removal of these products from the environment typically utilizes
a) organic solvents b) soap c) alcohol d) enzymes e) organic acids |
d) enzymes |
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The formal system for classifying and naming organisms was developed by
a) Aristotle b) Robert Koch c) Louis Pasteur d) Ignaz Semmelweis e) Carolus Linnaeus |
e) Carolus Linnaeus |
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In the name Staphyloccocus aureus, aureus is the
a) genus b) family name c) specific name d) domain name e) kingdom |
c) specific name |
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8) A prokaryotic cell may possess each of the following cellular components EXCEPT
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a) a nucleus |
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9) Which of the following is NOT associated with viruses?
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d) organelles |
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10) The bacterial shape of the cells in Figure 1.1 would best be described as
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b) bacillus |
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11) Protozoan motility structures include
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e) cilia, flagella, and pseudopods |
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12) Viruses are not considered living organisms because they
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e) cannot reproduce by themselves |
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13) The infectious agent that causes AIDS is a 13) ______
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a) virus |
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14) Which of the following is NOT a domain in the three-domain system? 14) ______
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d) animalia |
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15) Classification of organisms into three domains is based on 15) ______
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e) cellular organization |
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16) Archaea differ from bacteria in that archaea 16) ______
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d) have diverse cell wall compositions |
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17) Who is credited with first observing cells? 17) ______
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b) Robert Hooke |
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c) Anton van Leeuwenhoek |
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19) Biogenesis refers to the 19) ______
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a) development of life forms of from preexisting life forms |
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20) If you were setting up an experiment to disprove spontaneous generation in a liquid medium, which of the following would be essential to the experiment? 20) ______
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a) using a sterile liquid and eliminating exposure to microorganisms |
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21) The arguments supporting spontaneous generation were finally disproved by 21) ______
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c) Louis Pasteur |
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22) Regarding Louis Pasteur’s experiments with the S-neck flask, which of the following statements is TRUE? 22) ______
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e) all of the answers are correct |
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23) The microbial process of converting sugars to alcohol is known as 23) ______
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e) fermentation |
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24) Proof that a microbe could cause disease was provided by 24) ______
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d) Koch |
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25) The use of phenol (carbolic acid) as a wound disinfectant was first practiced by 25) ______
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c) Lister |
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26) Mycology is the study of 26) ______
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e) molds, yeast, and mushrooms |
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27) The first step for directly linking a microbe to a specific disease according to Koch’s postulates is to 27) ______
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d) obtain a sample of blood or other body fluid from a diseased animal |
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28) In which of the following situations would Koch’s postulates be utilized? 28) ______
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e) determination of the cause of a patient's illness in a hospital microbiology lab |
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29) Robert Koch identified the cause of 29) ______
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c) anthrax |
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30) ________ is the physician first associated with vaccination. 30) ______
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d) Jenner |
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31) Which of the following findings was essential for Edward Jenner’s vaccination process? 31) ______
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a) exposure to a milder disease form may produce immunity |
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32) Antibiotics are produced by 32) ______
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e) bacteria and fungi |
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34) Who was the first scientist to pursue a “magic bullet” that could be used to treat infectious disease? 34) ______
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d) Ehrlich |
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35) Fungal infections are studied by 35) ______
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d) mycologists |
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36) Vaccinations are available for all of the following diseases EXCEPT 36) ______
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b) strep throat |
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37) Recombinant DNA refers to the 37) ______
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B) DNA resulting when bacterial genes are inserted in an animal genome |
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38) Molecular biology is the study of 38) ______
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c) the structure and function of macromolecules essential to life |
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39) Microorganisms are essential to our life. Each of the following is an example of a beneficial function of microorganisms EXCEPT 39) ______
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c) increased morbidity |
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40) The major food producers for other living organisms is/are 40) ______
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e) higher plants, cyanobacteria, and algae |
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41) Gene therapy is currently used to treat all of the following diseases EXCEPT 41) ______
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b) colon cancer |
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42) Recombinant DNA technology has become an increasingly important part of our life. It is used for all of the following EXCEPT 42) ______
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e) synthesis of water |
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43) Normal microbiota are typically found in and on all the following body locations EXCEPT the 43) ______
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c) blood |
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44) Which of the following statements about biofilms is FALSE? 44) ______
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b) Compared to free-living bacteria, biofilms are more sensitive to antibiotics |
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45) Development of emerging infectious disease can be a result of all of the following EXCEPT 45) ______
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e) use of genetically modified foods |
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46) Infectious disease is almost totally eradicated in our world. |
false |
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47) A student has obtained a sample of pond water for study. Using the high-power lens, he observes several cells with nuclei. He can conclude that the cells are NOT bacteria. |
true |
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48) The process of pasteurization to reduce food spoilage utilizes high heat to kill all bacteria present. |
false |
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49) Anton van Leeuwenhoek was the first microbiologist to use a microscope to examine environmental samples for the presence of microorganisms. |
true |
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50) Spontaneous generation refers to living cells arising only from other living cells. |
false |
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51) Microbes are associated with life-sustaining benefits as well as life-threatening diseases. |
true |
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52) All cells possess a cell wall. |
false |
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53) Some viruses can contain both DNA and RNA. |
false |
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54) Bovine spongiform encephalitis (BSE, or “mad cow disease”) is caused by a virus. |
false |
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55) All pathogens known to infect humans have been identified at this point in time. |
false |
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1) Which of the following is NOT equal to 1 mm? 1) _______
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b) 100 um |
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2) What structure does light pass through after leaving the condenser in a compound light microscope? 2) _______
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a) specimen |
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3) Which of the following pairs is mismatched? 3) _______
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d) basic dye - negative stain |
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c) 2-4-1-3 |
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5) Which of the following pairs is mismatched? 5) _______
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d) safranin - acid dye |
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6) Which of the following is NOT true regarding the acid-fast stain? 6) _______
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a) If cells are acid-fast, they are gram-negative. |
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7) The purpose of a mordant in the Gram stain is to 7) _______
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d) prevent the crystal violet from leaving the walls |
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8) Which of the following places the steps in the correct sequence?
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a) 2-3-1 |
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a) visualize capsules |
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10) Simple staining is often necessary to improve contrast in which microscope? 10) ______
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d) compound light microscope |
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11) Which microscope is used to see internal structures of cells in a natural state? 11) ______
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c) phase-contrast microscope |
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12) Which microscope uses visible light? 12) ______
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e) differential interference contrast microscope |
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13) Which microscope achieves the highest magnification and greatest resolution? 13) ______
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e) electron microscope |
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14) In using this microscope, the observer does NOT look directly at an image through a lens. 14) ______
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e) electron microscope |
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15) This microscope produces an image of a light cell against a dark background; internal structures are NOT visible. 15) ______
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e) darkfield microscope |
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16) A virus measures 100 nm in length. What is its length in μm? 16) ______
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.1 um |
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17) Which of the following is NOT useful for observing living cells? 17) ______
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d) scanning electron microscope |
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18) A microorganism measures 5 μm in length. Its length in mm would be 18) ______
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d) 0.005 mm |
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19) Which of the following correctly traces the path of light through the compound microscope? 19) ______
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d) light source; condenser; specimen; objective lens; ocular lens |
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20) In Figure 3.1, line "c" points to the microscope's 20) ______
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b) condenser |
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21) Which microscope can be used to visualize DNA or botulinum toxin? 21) ______
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c) scanning tunneling microscope |
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e) fluorescence microscope |
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23) Which microscope is most useful for visualizing a biofilm? 23) ______
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e) scanning acoustic microscope |
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24) Which microscope takes advantage of differences in the refractive indexes of cell structures? 24) ______
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a) phase-contrast microscope |
|
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c) scanning tunneling microscope - allows visualization of atoms |
|
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a) scanning electron microscope |
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33) Which microscope uses two beams of light to produce a three-dimensional color image? 33) ______
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b) DIC microscope |
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34) Which microscope is used to see intracellular detail in a living cell? 34) ______
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c) two-photon microscope |
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35) Which microscope is used to observe viruses and the internal structure of thinly sectioned cells? 35) ______
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e) transmission electron microscope |
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c) electron microscope |
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38) Which step in the Gram stain is the critical step in differentiating gram-positive cells from gram-negative cells? 38) ______
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a) alcohol-acetone |
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39) You find colorless areas in cells in a gram-stained smear. What should you apply next? 39) ______
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e) endospore stain |
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40) Which microscope is best used for observing the surfaces of intact cells and viruses? 40) ______
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a) scanning electron microscope |
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44) The purpose of the ocular lens is to 44) ______
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d) magnify the image from the objective lens |
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45) ) In microscopy, the term resolution 45) ______
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d) refers to the ability to distinguish fine structure and detail in a specimen |
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46) The counterstain used in the Gram stain is a basic dye. |
true |
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48) In a completed Gram stain, gram-positive bacteria are purple. |
true |
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49) If acid-fast bacteria are stained with the Gram stain, they will stain gram-negative. |
false |
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50) The limit of resolution of the compound microscope illuminated with visible light is approximately 0.2 μm. |
true |
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51) Both phase-contrast microscopy and differential interference contrast microscopy are used to view the internal structures of cells without staining. |
true |
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52) Cells viewed in darkfield microscopy appear similar to those stained with the negative stain. |
true |
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53) The capsules and flagella of bacteria can be observed in gram-stained smears. |
false |
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54) The greater resolution of the electron microscope compared to the compound microscope is due to the longer wavelengths of the electrons used to examine specimens. |
false |
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55) Scanned probe microscopy is used to examine fine detail of molecular complexes, such as blood clots, or molecules, such as DNA. |
true |
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59) Which of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding prokaryotic cells? 59) ______
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d) they lack a plasma membrane |
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60) Each of the following statements concerning the gram-positive cell wall is true EXCEPT 60) ______
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b) it protects the cell in a hypertonic environment |
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61) Which of the following statements best describes what happens when a bacterial cell is placed in a solution containing 5 percent NaCl? 61) ______
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D) water will move out of the cell |
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62) A gram-positive bacteria suddenly acquires resistance to the antibiotic methicillin. This trait most likely occurred due to 62) ______
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d) transformation |
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63) By which of the following mechanisms can a cell transport a substance from a lower to a higher concentration? 63) ______
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e) active transport |
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64) Which of the following is NOT a typical characteristic of most bacterial plasma membranes? 64) ______
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e) contains cholesterol |
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65) Which of the following have a cell wall? 65) ______
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B) fungi |
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67) Which of the following pairs is mismatched? 67) ______
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c) centrosome and food storage |
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68) Which of the following organelles most closely resembles a prokaryotic cell? 68) ______
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d) mitochondrion |
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69) Which drawing in Figure 4.1 is a tetrad? 69) ______
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b) b |
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70) Which drawing in Figure 4.1 possesses an axial filament? 70) ______
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a) a |
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d) d |
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72) Antibiotics that target cell wall synthesis ultimately cause bacterial cell death as a result of 72) ______
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c) osmotic lysis |
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e) lysozyme |
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74) Which of the following statements about gram-negative cell walls is FALSE? 74) ______
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e) they are sensitive to penicillin |
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75) Which of the following structures is NOT found in some prokaryotic cells? 75) ______
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c) cilium |
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76) Functions of the glycocalyx include all of the following EXCEPT 76) ______
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c) binary fission |
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77) Which structure acts like an “invisibility cloak” and protects bacteria from being phagocytized? 77) ______
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a) capsule |
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78) Which of the following is NOT part of the passive transport process? 78) ______
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e) ATP |
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79) Which of the following terms best describes the cell in Figure 4.2? 79) ______
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c) lophotrichous flagella |
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80) In bacteria, photosynthetic pigments are found in 80) ______
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a) chromatophores |
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81) The difference between simple diffusion and facilitated diffusion is that facilitated diffusion 81) ______
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b) requires transporter proteins |
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83) You have isolated a motile, gram-positive cell with no visible nucleus. You can safely assume that the cell 83) ______
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d) has a cell wall |
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84) Fimbriae and pili differ in that 84) ______
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d) pili are used for transfer of DNA and motility |
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85) In Figure 4.3, which diagram of a cell wall is a gram-negative cell wall? 85) ______
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b) B |
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86) In Figure 4.3, which diagram of a cell wall possesses molecules responsible for symptoms associated with infection? 86) ______
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b) B |
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87) In Figure 4.3, which diagram of a cell wall has a structure that protects against osmotic lysis? 87) ______
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c) both a and b |
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88) In Figure 4.3, which diagram of a cell wall is decolorized by alcohol? 88) ______
|
b) b |
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89) In Figure 4.3, which diagram of a cell wall is resistant to many antibiotics (e.g., penicillin)? 89) ______
|
b) B |
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90) In Figure 4.3, which diagram of a cell wall contains teichoic acids? 90) ______
|
a) A |
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91) In Figure 4.3, which diagram of a cell wall contains porins? 91) ______
|
a) A |
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92) Where are phospholipids most likely found in a prokaryotic cell? 92) ______
|
C) the plasma membrane |
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93) Where are phospholipids most likely found in a eukaryotic cell? 93) ______
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e) the plasma membrane, around organelles, and surrounding flagella |
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94) Which of the following is NOT found in mitochondria and prokaryotes? 94) ______
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a) cell wall |
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95) Which of the following statements is correct about diffusion? 95) ______
|
e) it involves movement of molecules down a concentration gradient and may require a transport protein |
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96) Oxygen crosses a plasma membrane 96) ______
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d) through simple diffusion |
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97) In a hypertonic solution, a bacterial cell will typically 97) ______
|
b) plasmolyze |
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98) What will happen if a bacterial cell is placed in distilled water with lysozyme? 98) ______
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d) the cell will undergo osmotic lysis |
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99) How do spirochetes and spirilla differ? 99) ______
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d) spirilla have an external flagella but spirochetes have axial filaments |
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100) Which one of the following pairs is mismatched? 100) _____
|
a) ribosomes - protein storage |
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101) Which of the following are NOT energy reserves? 101) _____
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e) carboxysomes |
|
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d) cilia-pili |
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103) The DNA found in most bacterial cells 103) _____
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e) is circular in structure |
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104) The cell walls of bacteria are responsible for the shape of the bacteria and the difference in the Gram stain reaction. |
true |
|
106) Cells placed in a hypotonic solution tend to lose water due to osmotic pressure. |
false |
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107) Small, hydrophobic molecules pass through a cell membrane most easily by diffusion. |
true |
|
108) Spheroplasts, protoplasts, and mycoplasms are bacterial cells without cell walls. |
true |
|
109) Endospores are a reproductive structure. |
false |
|
110) The internal structure of eukaryotic cilia and flagella are the same. |
true |
|
111) Many enzymes in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells are compartmentalized within organelles. |
false |
|
113) If you observe rod-shaped red cells after the Gram stain, you can assume their cell walls contain endotoxin. |
true |
|
1) Which of the following compounds is NOT an enzyme? 1) _______
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A) coenzyme A |
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2) Which compound is being reduced in the reaction shown in Figure 5.1? 2) _______
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B) NAD+ |
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3) Which organism is NOT correctly matched to its energy source? 3) _______
|
a) photoautroph - CO2 |
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4) Which of the following statements about anaerobic respiration is FALSE? 4) _______
|
c) it involves the reduction of an organic final electron acceptor |
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5) What type of reaction is in Figure 5.2? 5) _______
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a) transamination |
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6) What is the fate of pyruvic acid in an organism that uses aerobic respiration? 6) _______
|
c) it is converted into acetyl CoA |
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8) How is ATP generated in the reaction shown in Figure 5.4? 8) _______
|
c) substrate-level phosphorylation |
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9) Fatty acids are oxidized in 9) _______
|
C) the Krebs cycle |
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10) Which of the graphs in Figure 5.5 best illustrates the activity of an enzyme that is saturated with substrate? 10) ______
|
c) C |
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11) Which of the following is the best definition of oxidative phosphorylation? 11) ______
|
D) A proton gradient allows hydrogen ions to flow back into the cells through transmembrane protein channels, releasing energy that is used to generate ATP. ` |
|
12) Which of the following statements about substrate-level phosphorylation is FALSE? 12) ______
|
E) The oxidation of intermediate metabolic compounds releases energy that is used to generate ATP. |
|
13) Which of the following statements about photophosphorylation is FALSE? 13) ______
|
d) it requires CO2 |
|
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d) three ATPs |
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16) Which of the following statements about beta oxidation is FALSE? 16) ______
|
c) it is a step in glycolsysis |
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17) In noncyclic photophosphorylation, O2 is released from 17) ______
|
a) H2O |
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18) Which of the following is the best definition of fermentation? 18) ______
|
c) the partial oxidation of glucose with organic molecules serving as electron acceptors |
|
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e) oxygen |
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20) Which one of the following would you predict is an allosteric inhibitor of the Krebs cycle enzyme, α-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase? 20) ______
|
a) NADH |
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21) In green and purple bacteria, electrons to reduce CO2 can come from 21) ______
|
B) H2S |
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23) Which of the following uses CO2 for carbon and H2 for energy? 23) ______
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a) chemoautotroph |
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24) Which of the following uses glucose for carbon and energy? 24) ______
|
c) chemoheterotroph |
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25) Which of the following has bacteriochlorophylls and uses alcohols for carbon? 25) ______
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d) photoheterotroph |
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26) Cyanobacteria are a type of 26) ______
|
d) photoautotroph |
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27) Which of the following statements are true?
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d) 2,4,5 |
|
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b) heterolactic fermenters |
|
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a) anabolic reactions are degenerative |
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31) Which of the following statements regarding the Entner-Doudoroff pathway is TRUE? 31) ______
|
b) ATP is generated |
|
32) Assume you are working for a chemical company and are responsible for growing a yeast culture that produces ethanol. The yeasts are growing well on the maltose medium but are not producing alcohol. What is the most likely explanation? 32) ______
|
d) O2 is in the medium |
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33) The rates of O2 and glucose consumption by a bacterial culture are shown in Figure 5.6. Assume a bacterial culture was grown in a glucose medium without O2. Then O2 was added at the time marked X. The data indicate that 33) ______
|
c) aerobic metabolism is more efficient than fermentation |
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35) If a cell is starved for ATP, which of the following pathways would most likely be shut down? 35) ______
|
c) pentose phosphate pathway |
|
36) Which of the following statements regarding the glycolysis pathway is FALSE? 36) ______ |
a) One molecule of ATP is expended |
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37) The graph at the left in Figure 5.7 shows the reaction rate for an enzyme at its optimum temperature. Which graph shows enzyme activity at a higher temperature? 37) ______
|
B) b |
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39) Gallionella bacteria can get energy from the reaction Fe2+ → Fe3+. This reaction is an example of 39) ______
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e) oxidation |
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38) A bacterial culture grown in a glucose-peptide medium causes the pH to increase. The bacteria are most likely 38) ______
|
D) using the peptides |
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40) In Figure 5.8, where is ATP produced? 40) ______
|
e) E |
|
41) Refer to Figure 5.8. In aerobic respiration, where is water formed? 41) ______
|
D) d |
|
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C) a plasma membrane |
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43) In Figure 5.8, the path labeled "2" is the flow of 43) ______
|
e) Protons |
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44) What is the most acidic place in Figure 5.8? 44) ______
|
a) A |
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46) Catabolic reactions are generally degradative and hydrolytic. |
true |
|
|
false |
|
48) In general, ATP is generated in catabolic pathways and expended in anabolic pathways. |
false |
|
49) An apoenzyme that loses its coenzyme subunit will be non-functional. |
true |
|
50) The use of enzymes is necessary to increase the activation energy requirements of a chemical reaction. |
false |
|
51) Glycolysis is utilized by cells in both respiration and fermentation. |
true |
|
52) Carbon fixation occurs during the light-independent phase of photosynthesis. |
true |
|
53) Both respiration and photosynthesis require the use of an electron transport chain. |
true |
|
54) Both respiration and photosynthesis use water molecules for the donation of hydrogen ions. |
false |
|
55) Once an enzyme has converted substrates into products, the active site reverts back to its original form. |
true |