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250 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
Which of the following statements about the functions of the respiratory system is (are) true?
|
All of the above statements are true.
|
|
What cells within the alveoli are capable of phagocytosis and can therefore engulf particulate matter that might reach the alveoli?
|
alveolar macrophages
|
|
The difference between the true and false vocal cords is that the false vocal cords:
|
play no part in sound production
|
|
Structures in the trachea that prevent its collapse or overexpansion as pressures change in the respiratory system are the:
|
C-shaped tracheal cartilages
|
|
If food particles or liquids manage to touch the surfaces of the ventricular or vocal folds, the:
|
coughing reflex will be triggered
|
|
Which of the following statements about the trachea is false?
|
Stimulation by the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system will decrease the diameter of the trachea, thus making it more difficult to breathe.
|
|
In a bronchiole, the release of histamine by activated mast cells and basophils:
|
increases bronchoconstriction and decreases airflow
|
|
The parietal pleura are attached to the:
|
all of the above
|
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During internal respiration, the exchange of the respiratory gases takes place between which of the following?
|
the systemic capillaries and the interstitial fluid that surrounds the cells
|
|
Breathing, which involves the physical movement of air into and out of the lungs, is:
|
pulmonary ventilation
|
|
Air enters the respiratory passageways when the pressure inside the lungs is lower than the:
|
atmospheric pressure
|
|
During quiet breathing, the diaphragm and external intercostals muscles contract. What effect does this have on the thoracic cavity?
|
increases the volume and decreases the pressure of the thoracic cavity
|
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During expiration there is a(n):
|
increase in intrapulmonary pressure
|
|
Which of the following statements about the respiratory membrane is (are) true?
|
All of the above statements are True
|
|
Which gas is most soluble in plasma?
|
carbon dioxide
|
|
The efficiency of pulmonary ventilation and pulmonary circulation occurs because:
|
blood flow and air flow are coordinated
|
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The Po2 in the blood that travels through a pulmonary capillary and enters the left side of the heart is approximately:
|
95 mm Hg
|
|
Each molecule of hemoglobin has the capacity to carry __________ atoms of oxygen (O2).
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8
|
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What percentage of total oxygen (O2) is carried within red blood cells chemically bound to hemoglobin?
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98%
|
|
What structure marks the beginning of the lower respiratory system?
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larynx
|
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When each hemoglobin molecule binds with four molecules of oxygen, the end product is:
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oxyhemoglobin
|
|
Carbon dioxide is transported in the blood mostly as:
|
a bicarbonate ion
|
|
With an increase in skeletal muscle activity and an increase in body temperature, you would expect to see a(n):
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decrease in the percentage of oxyhemoglobin saturation
|
|
Which of the following statements about the dorsal and ventral respiratory groups is (are) true?
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Both a and b are correct.
|
|
The Hering-Breuer Reflex is important in regulating the forced ventilations that accompany strenuous exercise. This reflex is initiated by:
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stretch receptor stimulation located in the smooth muscle of bronchioles
|
|
The paranasal sinuses include:
|
frontal, sphenoid, ethmoid, and maxillary
|
|
A rise in arterial Pco2 elevates carbon dioxide levels in cerebrospinal fluid and stimulates the chemoreceptive neurons of the medulla to produce:
|
hyperventilation
|
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The primary function of pulmonary ventilation is to maintain adequate:
|
alveolar ventilation
|
|
The purpose of the fluid in the pleural cavity is to:
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reduce friction between the parietal and visceral pleura
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|
When the lungs are in the resting position, the factor that opposes their collapse is:
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an intrapulmonary pressure of 760 mm Hg
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|
If a person is stabbed in the chest and the thoracic wall is punctured but the lung is not penetrated:
|
the lungs will collapse
|
|
The most important factor determining airway resistance is:
|
airway radius
|
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The parasympathetic division of the ANS causes __________ of airway smooth muscle; therefore, resistance is __________.
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constriction; increased
|
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The substance administered during an asthmatic attack to decrease resistance via airway dilation is:
|
epinephrine
|
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With regard to local regulation of gas transport, if the Pco2 in the bronchioles increase, the bronchioles:
|
dilate
|
|
The volume of alveolar air and capillary blood in the right proportion to each alveolus produces:
|
lung efficiency
|
|
If a person is breathing 15 times a minute and has a tidal volume of 500 ml, the totalrespiratory minute volume is:
|
7,500 ml/min
|
|
Residual volume is the volume of air:
|
that remains in the lungs after maximal expiration
|
|
The maximum amount of air moved in and out during a single breath is:
|
vital capacity
|
|
If a person is breathing 12 times per minute and the tidal volume is 500 ml, what is the alveolar ventilation rate?
|
4,200 ml/min
|
|
The most effective means of increasing alveolar ventilation is:
|
breathe slowly and deeply
|
|
In respiratory distress syndrome of the newborn, the administering of adrenal steroid serves to:
|
enhance surfactant-synthesizing maturation
|
|
The partial pressure of O2 at sea level is:
|
104 mm Hg
|
|
It is important that free H+ resulting from dissociation of H2CO3 combine with hemoglobin to reduce the possibility of:
|
an acidic condition within the blood
|
|
In the pulmonary capillaries, the bicarbonate ion is always returned to the:
|
RBC
|
|
If you desired to control the rate of respiration voluntarily you might:
|
hold your breath
|
|
One of the early symptoms of emphysema is:
|
a reduced expiratory volume
|
|
As the number of molecules of gas dissolved in a liquid increases:
|
the pressure of the gas increases
|
|
Movement of air into and out of the lungs is accomplished by the process of __________, while all movement of gases across membranes is by __________.
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bulk flow; passive diffusion
|
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The correct sequential transport of O2 from the tissue capillaries to O2 consumption in cells is:
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erythrocytes, plasma, interstitial fluid, cells
|
|
To which of the following would the immune system not respond?
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decreased levels of blood flow at the kidney
|
|
The anatomical barriers and defense mechanisms that cannot distinguish one potential threat from another are called:
|
nonspecific defenses
|
|
The major componentsof the lymphatic system include:
|
lymphatic vessels, lymph, and lymphatic organs
|
|
An example of a free macrophage is a(n):
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alveolar macrophage
|
|
Lymphocytes that assist in the regulation and coordination of the immune response are:
|
helper T and suppressor T cells
|
|
Normal lymphocyte populations are maintained through lymphopoiesis in the:
|
bone marrow and lymphatic tissues
|
|
The largest collection of lymphoid tissue in the body is contained within the:
|
adult spleen
|
|
Mucous, sweat gland secretions, hairs, and sebaceous secretions all contribute to the effectiveness of which type of nonspecific defense?
|
physical barriers
|
|
The "first line" of cellular defense against pathogenic invasion is:
|
phagocytes
|
|
NK cells contain the proteins perforin and protectin that provide a type of immunity called:
|
immunological surveillance
|
|
The two major ways that the body "carries out" the immune response are:
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direct attack by T cells and attack by circulating antibodies
|
|
A specific defense mechanism is always activated by:
|
an antigen
|
|
The type of immunity that develops as a result of natural exposure to an antigen in the environment is:
|
naturally acquired immunity
|
|
The fact that people are not subject to the same diseases as goldfish describes the presence of:
|
active immunity
|
|
Elephantiasis is
|
a parasite-induced form of lymphedema
|
|
Before an antigen can stimulate a lymphocyte, it must first be processed by a:
|
macrophage
|
|
The T cells that limit the degree of immune system activation from a single stimulus are:
|
suppressor T cells
|
|
Which of the following lymphatic structures does not display the outer cortex/inner medulla pattern?
|
both a and c
|
|
Activated B cells produce plasma cells that are specialized because they:
|
synthesize and secrete antibodies
|
|
An antibody exhibits a high degree of flexibility due to the interchangeability of the:
|
variable segment
|
|
Antibodies may promote inflammation through the stimulation of:
|
basophils and mast cells
|
|
The antigenic determinant site is the certain portion of the antigen's exposed surface where:
|
the antibody attacks
|
|
For a B cell to be activated it must:
|
both a and b
|
|
The effect(s) of tumor necrosis factor (TNF) in the body is (are) to:
|
all of the above
|
|
The ability to demonstrate an immune response after exposure to an antigen is called:
|
immunological competence
|
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A baby developing in the womb has _____________________ immunity because it receives __________ antibodies from its mother.
|
natural passive, IgG
|
|
When an immune response mistakenly targets normal body cells and tissues, the result is:
|
an autoimmune disorder
|
|
Cells of the immune system influence CNS and endocrine activity by:
|
all of the above
|
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Depression of the immune system due to chronic stress may cause:
|
all of the above
|
|
Which of the following is not an effect of aging on the immune system?
|
increased production of pyrogens, leading to a higher general body temperature
|
|
Which type of lymphocyte does not release perforins?
|
both b and d
|
|
The primary effect(s) of complement activation include:
|
all of the above
|
|
Which of the following nonspecific responses is characterized by the use of C3, properdin, factor B, and factor D?
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complement, alternative pathway
|
|
Tissue fluid enters the lymphatic system via the:
|
lymph capillaries
|
|
When an antigen appears, the immune system response begins with:
|
the activation of specific T cells and B cells
|
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In what way do mast cells participate in tissue defense?
|
stimulation and coordination of inflammation by release of histamine and heparin
|
|
Chemical mediators of inflammation include:
|
histamine, kinins, prostaglandins, and leukotrienes
|
|
T cells that are activated by costimulation involving a class I MHC and CD8 markers are called:
|
cytotoxic T cells
|
|
B lymphocytes differentiate into:
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memory and plasma cells
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__________ cells may activate B cells, while _________ cells inhibit the activity of B cells.
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helper T; suppressor T
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The primary response of T-cell differentiation in cell-mediated immunity is the production of __________ cells.
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cytotoxic T
|
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The vaccination of antigenic materials into the body is called:
|
artificially acquired active immunity
|
|
In passive immunity __________ are induced into the body by injection.
|
antibodies
|
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The lymphatic function of the white pulp of the spleen is:
|
initiation of immune responses by B cells and T cells
|
|
A person with type AB blood has:
|
neither anti-A nor anti-B antibodies
|
|
The antibodies produced and secreted by B lymphocytes are soluble proteins called:
|
immunoglobulins
|
|
the genes found in a region called the major histocompatibility complex are called:
|
human leukocyte antigens (HLAs)
|
|
Memory B cells do not differentiate into plasma cells unless they:
|
are exposed to the same antigen a second time
|
|
The three-dimensional "fit" between the variable segments of the antibody molecule and the corresponding antigenic determinant site is referred to as the:
|
antibody-antigen complex
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|
One of the primary nonspecific effects that glucocorticoids have on the immune response is:
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depression of the inflammatory response
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Which of the following vascular layers contains the thick wrapping of smooth muscle that gives arteries their rounded appearance?
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tunica media
|
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an endothelium that appears pleated or rippled is characteristic of:
|
arteries
|
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The unidirectional flow of blood in venules and medium-sized veins is maintained by:
|
the presence of valves
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Of the following blood vessels, the greatest resistance to blood flow occurs in the:
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arterioles
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If the systolic pressure is 120 mm Hg and the diastolic pressure is 90 mm Hg, the mean arterial pressure (MAP) is:
|
100 mm Hg
|
|
The most important determinant of vascular resistance is:
|
friction between the blood and the vessel walls
|
|
The two major factors affecting blood flow rates are:
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pressure and resistance
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|
The formula F = P/R means: (note: F = flow; P = pressure; R = resistance)
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increasing P and decreasing R will increase F
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Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) reduces blood volume and pressure by:
|
all of the above
|
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The central regulation of cardiac output primarily involves the activities of the:
|
autonomic nervous system
|
|
An increase in cardiac output normally occurs during:
|
widespread sympathetic stimulation
|
|
The three primary interrelated changes that occur as exercise begins are:
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increasing vasodilation, increasing venous return, and increasing cardiac output
|
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The only area of the body where the blood supply is unaffected while exercising at maximum levels is the:
|
brain
|
|
A resistance caused by the irregular, swirling movement of blood at high flow rates or over uneven surfaces is called:
|
turbulence
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Because hormones such as LH, FSH, and TSH are produced in the pituitary gland and must be picked up by capillaries serving the pituitary, _________________ capillaries are present in the pituitary gland.
|
fenestrated
|
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As the external iliac artery leaves the body trunk and enters the lower limb, it becomes the:
|
femoral artery
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The link between adjacent arteries or veins that reduces the impact of a temporary or permanent occlusion of a single blood vessel is:
|
an anastomoses
|
|
consider the following pathway: Blood full of nutrients from the digestive system moves through the hepatic portal system to the liver. The hepatic veins then carry blood from the liver to which large vein that carries the blood to the heart?
|
inferior vena cava
|
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Blood from the lower limbs, the pelvis, and the lower abdomen is delivered to the:
|
external iliac veins
|
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Which of the following statements about the liver is false?
|
The presence of continuous capillaries in the liver allows new plasma proteins made in the hepatocytes to enter the capillaries.
|
|
Which type of congenital heart defect most commonly affects children born with Down syndrome (trisomy 21)?
|
atrioventricular septal defect
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In early fetal life, the foramen ovale allows blood to flow freely from the:
|
right atrium to the left atrium
|
|
In the adult, the ductus arteriosus persist as a fibrous cord called the:
|
ligamentum arteriosum
|
|
A few seconds after birth, rising O2 levels stimulate the constriction of the ductus arteriosus, isolating the:
|
pulmonary and aortic trunks
|
|
The primary effect of a decrease in the hematocrit of elderly individuals is:
|
a lowering of the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood
|
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Which of the following events could cause circulatory shock?
|
all of the above
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At any given moment, the systematic circulation contains about __________ of the total blood volume.
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91%
|
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the goal of cardiovascular regulation is:
|
maintenance of adequate blood flow through peripheral tissues and organs
|
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Along the length of a typical capillary, blood pressure gradually falls from about:
|
30 to 18 mm Hg
|
|
Blood supply to the pancreas is essential because the organ is the production site for important hormones used in glucose metabolism. Which of the following arteries does not supply the pancreas?
|
left gastric
|
|
the average pressure in arteries is approximately:
|
100 mm Hg
|
|
The average pressure in veins is approximately:
|
15 mm Hg
|
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When blood flows through capillary beds, its flow is regulated. What structures allow blood to flow into the capillary beds?
|
:
precapillary sphincters |
|
The formula for resistance, R = Ln/r4, where L is the length of the vessel, n is the viscosity of the blood, and r is the radius of the vessel, would confirm which of the following relationships?
|
increasing radius and decreasing friction will increase flow
|
|
increasing radius and decreasing friction will increase flow
|
considering cardiac output (CO), mean arterial pressure (AP), and total peripheral resistance (PR), the relationship among flow, pressure, and resistance could be expressed as:
|
|
To increase blood flow to an adjacent capillary, the local controls that operate are:
|
decreasing O2, increasing CO2, and decreasing pH
|
|
The adrenergic fibers innervating arterioles are __________ fibers that release __________ and cause __________.
|
sympathetic; norepinephrine; vasoconstriction
|
|
A patient visits a doctor for a routine checkup. A nurse uses a sphygmomanometer To measure the patient's pulse at the brachial artery. The nurse raises the pressure to a point where a rhythmic pulsing sound is no longer audible. When the nurse releases pressure, the pulsing sound returns. What pressure is producing this sound?
|
systolic pressure
|
|
The artery that serves the posterior thigh is the:
|
deep femoral
|
|
Which of the following is not a tributary of the hepatic portal vein?
|
inferior vena cava
|
|
when the net hydrostatic pressure (NHP) is less than that of the net colloid osmotic pressure (NCOP), which of the following events occurs?
|
reabsorption
|
|
the veins that drain the head, neck, and upper extremities are the:
|
brachiocephalics
|
|
The veins that drain venous blood from the legs and the pelvis are the:
|
common iliacs
|
|
the vein that drains the knee region of the body is the:
|
popliteal
|
|
The large artery that serves the brain is the:
|
internal carotid
|
|
The "link" between the subclavian and brachial artery is the:
|
axillary
|
|
The three arterial branches of the celiac trunk are the:
|
left gastric, splenic, and hepatic
|
|
The artery that supplies most of the small intestine and the first half of the large intestine is the:
|
superior mesenteric
|
|
the artery that supplies the pelvic organs is the:
|
internal iliac artery
|
|
The subdivision(s) of the popliteal artery is (are):
|
anterior and posterior tibial arteries
|
|
The blood vessels in the cardiovascular system are subdivided into three circuits know as the:
|
coronary, pulmonary, and systemic circuits
|
|
Which statement is true?
|
if the pacemaker of the heart stops, the AV node will take over.
|
|
The left atrium receives blood from the pulmonary circuit and empties it into the:
|
left ventricle
|
|
The "double pump" function of the heart includes the right side, which serves as the __________ circuit pump, while the left side serves as the __________ pump.
|
pulmonary; systemic
|
|
The coronary vessels emerge at the base of the:
|
aorta
|
|
Which blood vessels are known as exchange vessels?
|
capillaries
|
|
Blood from the coronary circuit is collected on the posterior aspect of the heart in a blood vessel known as the:
|
coronary sinus
|
|
During the action potential in a contractile cardiac muscle cell when slow calcium channels open this results in the______ phase.
|
plateau
|
|
When deoxygenated blood leaves the right ventricle through a semilunar valve, it is forced into the:
|
pulmonary arteries
|
|
The passageways between cardiac muscle cells that allow ions to pass freely are called:
|
gap junctions
|
|
Which of the following are characteristics of cardiac muscle cells?
|
striated, single central nucleus, and involuntary
|
|
Cardiac muscle tissue:
|
has its own intrinsic conduction system that can set the pace of the beating heart
|
|
The right coronary artery generally gives rise to:
|
both a and c are correct
|
|
the left coronary artery supplies blood to:
|
both b and c are correct
|
|
The correct sequential path of a normal action potential in the heart is:
|
SA node, AV node, bundle of His, bundle branches, Purkinje fibers
|
|
An above-normal increase in K+ concentrations in the blood would cause:
|
the heart to dilate and become flaccid and weak
|
|
The P wave on the ECG indicates:
|
the electrical events spreading out over both atria
|
|
after the AV node is depolarized and the impulse spreads through the atria, there is a slight delay before the impulse spreads to the ventricles. The reason for this delay is to allow:
|
the atria to contract
|
|
If each heart muscle cell contracted at its own individual rate, the condition would resemble:
|
fibrillation
|
|
The QRS complex of the ECG appears as the:
|
ventricles depolarize
|
|
When a chamber of the heart fills with blood and prepares for the start of the next cardiac cycle the heart is in:
|
diastole
|
|
During the isovolumetric contraction phase, the pressure in the _____ has to rise above aortic pressure for ventricular ejection to occur.
|
left ventricle
|
|
how would you define cardiac output?
|
the amount of blood pumped out of both ventricles in one minute
|
|
The amount of blood pumped out of each ventricle during a single beat is the:
|
stroke volume
|
|
Under normal circumstances, the factor responsible for making delicate adjustments to the heart rate as circulatory demands change are:
|
autonomic activity and circulatory hormones
|
|
The cardiac centers in the medulla oblongata monitor baroreceptors and chemoreceptors innervated by the:
|
glossopharyngeal N IX and vagus N X
|
|
the difference between the end-diastolic volume (EDV) and the end-systolic volume (ESV) is the:
|
stroke volume
|
|
Parasympathetic stimulation from the vagus nerve results in:
|
a decrease in heart rate
|
|
Which of the following statements is part of Starling's law of the heart?
|
All of the above are correct.
|
|
Physicians are interested in cardiac output because it provides a useful indication of:
|
ventricular efficiency over time
|
|
One of the major results of congestive heart failure is:
|
an abnormal increase in blood volume and interstitial fluid
|
|
Which of the following medications serves as a positive ionotropic agent for treatment of congested heart failure?
|
digitalis
|
|
The function of the chordae tendinae is to:
|
anchor the AV valve flaps and prevent backflow of blood into the atria
|
|
Which one of the following would not show up on an electrocardiogram?
|
murmurs
|
|
During ventricular diastole, when the pressure in the left ventricle rises above that in the left atrium:
|
the left AV valve closes
|
|
During ventricular systole, the blood volume in the atria is __________, and the volume in the ventricle is __________.
|
increasing; decreasing
|
|
cardiac muscle cells are nourished via blood supply provided from the:
|
coronary circuit
|
|
Pulmonary arteries carry blood to the:
|
lungs
|
|
Which of the following statements is (are) true?
|
Statements c and d are both true.
|
|
the heart sound associated with S2 occurs after the ventricles ____ and the semilunar valves ______.
|
contract; close
|
|
During isovolumetric systole, pressure is highest in the:
|
left ventricle
|
|
Blood pressure in the large systemic arteries is greatest during:
|
systolic ejection
|
|
Decreased parasympathetic (vagus) stimulation to the heart results in a situation known as:
|
tachycardia
|
|
Serious arrhythmias that reduce the pumping efficiency of the heart may indicate:
|
all of the above
|
|
During exercise the most important control mechanism to increase cardiac output is:
|
increased sympathetic activity to the ventricles
|
|
The diastole phase of the blood pressure relative to the left ventricle indicates that:
|
the ventricles are "resting"
|
|
Which of the following does not control the movement of blood through the heart?
|
size of the atria and ventricles
|
|
Valvular malfunction in the heart:
|
interferes with movement of blood through the heart
|
|
If the bicuspid valve is defective and valvular regurgitation occurs, the end result is:
|
an insufficient amount of blood is available to be moved into the aorta and systemic circulation
|
|
Valvular stenosis refers to:
|
excessive narrowing of a valve
|
|
The major components of the cardiovascular system are the:
|
blood, heart, blood vessels
|
|
the embryonic cardiovascular system:
|
all of the above
|
|
The formed elements of the blood consist of:
|
red and white blood cells, and platelets
|
|
Which of the following is not a component of plasma?
|
elastic fibers
|
|
the "patrol agents" in the blood that defend the body against toxins and pathogens are:
|
white blood cells and antibodies
|
|
When checking the efficiency of gas exchange at the lungs, blood may be required via:
|
arterial puncture
|
|
Blood temperature is roughly _____ °C, and the blood pH averages _____.
|
38 °C; 7.4
|
|
which type of plasma protein serves as a carrier for the hormones T3 and T4?
|
albumins
|
|
In addition to water and proteins, the plasma consists of:
|
electrolytes, nutrients, and organic wastes
|
|
Circulating mature RBCs lack:
|
all of the above
|
|
The primary function of a mature red blood cell is:
|
transport of respiratory gases
|
|
the part of the hemoglobin molecule that directly interacts with oxygen is:
|
the iron ion
|
|
Coloration of urinary and digestive wastes is the result of the presence of which products from the breakdown of red blood cells?
|
urobilins and stercobilins
|
|
The iron extracted from heme molecules during hemoglobin recycling is stored in the protein-iron complexes:
|
ferritin and hemosiderin
|
|
During RBC recycling, each heme unit is stripped of its iron and converted to:
|
biliverdin
|
|
The primary site of erythropoiesis in the adult is the:
|
bone marrow
|
|
Erythropoietin appears in the plasma when peripheral tissues, especially the kidneys, are exposed to:
|
low oxygen concentrations
|
|
Agglutinogens are contained (on, in) the __________, while the agglutinins are found (on, in) the __________.
|
cell membrane of the RBC; plasma
|
|
If you have type A blood, your plasma holds circulating __________ that will attack __________ erythrocytes.
|
anti-B agglutinins; type B
|
|
Which of the following is an agranular leukocyte that becomes a tissue macrophage after approximately 24 hours in circulation?
|
monocytes
|
|
Which type of granular leukocyte can engulf up to two dozen bacteria and also produces a respiratory burst that creates harsh chemical agents like hydrogen peroxide?
|
neutrophils
|
|
Megakaryocytes are specialized cells of the bone marrow responsible for:
|
formation of platelets
|
|
The rate of megakaryocyte activity and platelet formation is regulated by:
|
all of the above
|
|
Which of the following statements is false concerning T cells and B cells?
|
B cells differentiate into T cells and produce antibodies against foreign antigens.
|
|
The process of hemostasis includes five phases. The correct order of the phases as they occur after injury is as follows:
|
vascular, platelet, coagulation, clot retraction, clot destruction
|
|
Because the concentration of dissolved gases is different between the plasma and the tissue fluid:
|
O2 will tend to diffuse from the plasma to the interstitial fluid, and CO2 will tend to diffuse in the opposite direction
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If blood comprises 7 percent of the body weight in kilograms, how many liters of blood would there be in an individual who weighs 85 kg?
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5.95
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The reason liver disorders can alter the composition and functional properties of the blood is:
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the liver is the primary source of plasma proteins
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When plasma O2 concentrations are falling, the rising plasma CO2 binds to the __________ portion of the hemoglobin molecule.
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globin
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Hemoglobin molecules that float in the bloodstream because of the breakdown of RBCs by hemolysis will be excreted in the:
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kidney
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Signs of iron deficiency anemia include:
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hematocrit declines, and hemoglobin content and O2-carrying capacity reduced
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On average, one microliter of blood contains __________ erythrocytes.
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5.2 million
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The process of reintroducing packed RBCs before an athletic event that were earlier removed is called:
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blood doping
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Protein synthesis in a mature RBC occurs primarily in:
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none of the above
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If agglutinogen B meets with agglutinin anti-A, the result is:
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no agglutination occurs
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The precursor of all blood cells in the human body is the:
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hemocytoblast
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Reticulocytes are nucleated immature cells that develop into mature:
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erythrocytes
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In which pregnancy is an Rh-positive mom and an Rh-positive child at risk of developing erythroblastosis fetalis?
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no pregnancy
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In the first pregnancy of an Rh-negative mother with an Rh-positive child, why are there usually no symptoms of erythroblastosis fetalis?
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Blood between mother and child does not mix until birth.
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In hemolytic disease of the newborn:
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the mother's agglutinins cross the placental barrier and destroy fetal red blood cells
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The number of eosinophils increases dramatically during:
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an allergic reaction or a parasitic infection
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A typical microliter of blood contains __________ leukocytes.
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6,000–9,000
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Under "normal" conditions, neutrophils comprise __________ of the circulatory white blood cells.
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50–70 percent
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A noticeable feature of a leukemia is:
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all of the above
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Myeloid stem cells will differentiate into progenitor cells, which give rise to all white blood cells, except:
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lymphocytes
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Clot destruction involves a process that begins with:
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activation of the proenzyme plasminogen, which initiates the production of plasmin
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The major effect of a vitamin K deficiency in the body is that it leads to:
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a breakdown of the common pathway, inactivating the clotting system
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A vitamin B12 deficiency results in the type of anemia known as:
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pernicious
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A change in the amino acid sequence of DNA coding for one of the globin chains of the hemoglobin molecule results in a condition known as:
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sickle-cell anemia
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Jessica has just moved to Denver, Colorado, from Orlando, Florida. What condition is she experiencing now that is stimulating the production of erythropoietin and, consequently, more red blood cells?
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hypoxia caused by an increase in her elevation above sea level
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