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89 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
Hgb males=
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14-18gm/dl
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Hgb females=
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12-16gm/dl
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Hct males=
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39-49gm/dl %
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Hct females
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33-43gm/dl %
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RBC males=
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4.3 - 5.9 x 10^6 mm^3
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RBC females=
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3.5 to 5.0 x10^6 mm^3
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Reticulocyte count=
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0.1-2.4%
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MCV=
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76-100 um^3
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MCH=
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27-33pg
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MCHC=
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33-37gm/dl
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ESR males=
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0-20mm/hr
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ESR females=
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0-30mm/hr
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serum iron=
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60-185ug/dl
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TIBC=
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250-460ug/dl
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%tranferrin saturation
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30%
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Serum ferritin=
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12-200ng/ml
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erythropoietin=
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2-25IU/L
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Folic acid level
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1.8-16 ng/ml
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Vitamin B12 level=
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100-900 pg/ml
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Platelet count=
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140,000 - 440,000/uL
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Relative thrombocytopenia=
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<150,000mm^3
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Absolute thrombocytopenia=
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<20,000mm^3
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Bleeding time=
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2.5 to 7 min
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Prothrombin time (abr)
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PT
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PT =
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12 to 16 sec
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What can prolong PT?
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defeciency in clotting factors II, V, VII, IX, X; low levels of fribrinogen; very high levels of heparin
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What is the goal of anticoagulation therapy for PT?
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maintain the ratio between 1.3-1.5 times the control
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INR stands for...
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International Normalization Ratio
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What is the purpose of the INR system?
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to standardize PT ratio
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An INR of 2-3 is equivalent to what PT ratio?
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1.3-1.5
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aPTT stands for ...
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Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time
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aPTT=
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24 - 36 secs
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What is aPTT used for?
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to monitor heparin therapy
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What factor does aPTT not measure?
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factor VII
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What is the goal of anticoagulation therapy for aPTT?
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to maintain a ratio of 1.5 to 2.0
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Fribrinogen levels =
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200-400mg/dL
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What does decreased circulating levels of fribrinogen suggest?
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a state of active coagulation
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Fribrin Degradation Products=
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<10ug/dL
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An excessive degradation of fibrin and fibrinogen causes an increase in what
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FDP
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Name some risk factors for developing Thromboembolism
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Anti thrombin II deficiency; dysfibrinogenemia; heart disease; immobility; paralysis; obesity; protein C and S deficiency; lupus anticoagulant; trauma; estrgen use; IBD; sickle cell anemia; malignancy; surgery;peripartum period; H/O varicose veins
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What is venous stasis?
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an alteration or decrease in blood flow in the deep veins of the lower extremities that can lead to formation of thrombi
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What is vascular wall injury?
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endothelial damage due to mechanical or chemical trauma
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When does hypercoagulability occur?
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when activation of the coagulation system exceeds the ability of the intrinsic fibrinolytic system to prevent thrombus formation
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DVT stands for...
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Deep Vein Thrombosis
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What are the physical findings of DVT
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pain and tenderness; leg swelling;discoloration; increased skin temp;palpable cord; (+) Homan's sign; leg ulcers/infection
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What are some commonly employed lab studies for DVT?
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doppler ultrasonography; impedance plethysmography; real time ultrasonography; 125I-fibrinogen leg scan; and Venography
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What is doppler ultrasonography?
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a noninvasive test that measures changes in sound waves to detect changes in venous flow
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What is impedance plethysmography?
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a noninvasive test that measures changes in electrical resistance which accompanies changes in blood volume
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What is real time ultrasonography?
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A noninvasive ultrasound which provides a 3-D picture of the deep veins through the use of a transducer
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What is 125I-fibrinogen leg scan?
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a screening tool in high risk patients or as an adjunctive test to impedance plethsymography in patients with suspected DVT
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What is a venography
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the most reliable, radio-opaque contrast dye which is injected into a dorsal foot vein or femoral vein providing an outline of the deep venous system of the lower limbs
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Where do most thromboemboli originate?
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the iliofermoral deep veins
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What are less common sources of thromboemboli?
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vessels below the knee, pelvic veins, upper extremities, mural thrombi arising from the right side of the heart
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What does PE stand for?
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Pulmonary Embolism
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What are the clinical presentations of suspected PE?
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dyspnea, cough, tachypnea, tachycardia, anxiety, sense of impending doom, pleuritic chest pain, hemoptysis, acute right heart failure, cardiovascular collapse, fever
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What techniques are used to confirm or rule out PE?
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ventilation/perfusion scan and pulmonary angiography
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RBC definition is
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an actual count of cell per unit of blood
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Is the rbc elevated or decreased during polycythemia vera?
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elevated
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Hemoglobin is...(def)
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a direct indicator of the oxygen transport capacity of the blood
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Hematocrit is...(def)
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the percentage of blood volume that is occupied by erythrocytes
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Mean Cell Volume is...(def)
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the average volume of the RBC
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Mean Cell Hemoglobin is...(def)
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the average wieght of the hemoglobin in the RBC
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Mean cell hemoglobin concentration is ...(def)
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the percent contribution of hemoglobin volume to the total volume of the cell
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What does the total reticulocyte count represent?
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the total number of circulating immature RBC compared to the RBC
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what does the serum iron represent?
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the conc of the iron bound to transferrin
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What is total iron binding capacity?
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an indirect measurement of the serum transferrin
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What is ferritin?
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the storage form of iron
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What is ESR?
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the rate at which erythrocytes settle to the bottom of a test tube through forces of gravity
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What are some causes of IDA?
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inadequate dietary intake; inadequate absorption; increased demand; excess blood loss or disease induced
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What are some mechanisms of defeciency in meagloblastic anemia
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inadequate intake; malabsorption;inadequate utilization; increased demand
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What is the Schilling's test
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a test used to distinguish pernicious anemia from other causes of Vitamin B12 deficiency anemia
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What is normocytic anemia?
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anemia where iron availability is adequate but there is ineffective utilization
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What is the def. of a normal range?
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where 95% of normal people fall
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What is the critical value?
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a lab result that is far outside the normal range implying morbidity
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Define sensitivity.
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the chances that a person with a particular disease state will have a positive test result
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Define specificity
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the chances that a person without a disease will have a negative test result
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What is megaloblastic anemia?
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Reduced number of cell division with larger then normal RBC
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What is pernicious anemia?
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Sufficient B12 but defects in/or lack of intrinsic factor leads to malabsorption
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What is Romberg's Sign?
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a person can't tell where they are in space when their eyes are closed so they bob around
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What drugs induce Folic Acid Deficiency?
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methotrexate, trimethoprim, triamterene
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How many signs do you need to have to be diagnosed with RA?
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4 of the 7
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What are the 7 criteria for RA
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morning stiffness, arthritis of 3 or more joints, artritis of hand joints, symmetric arthritis, rheumatoid nodules, serum rheumatoid factor, and radiographic changes
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what is SLE?
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multisystemic, chronic inflammatory disease with a course of attenuating exacerbations and remissions
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What drugs can induce SLE?
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hydralazine, procainamide, isonazid, chlorpropamide, methyldopa, phenytonin, carbamazepine, lithium
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how many criteria must a person have to be diagnosed with SLE?
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4 of the 10
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what are the 10 criteria for SLE?
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malar rash, discoid rash, oral ulcers, arthritis, serositis, renal disorder, neurologic disorder, hematologic disorder, immunologic disorder, antinuclear antibody
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What does ANA indicate?
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presence of antibodies to nonspecific neuclear material
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How many criteria must a person have to be diagnosed with gout?
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6 of 11
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What are the 11 criteria for gout?
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exquisite pain involving joint; more then 1 acute attack of arthritis; joint inflammation max w/in 1 day; oligoarthritis; erythrema over involved joint;podagra; tophi; hyperuricemia; complete termination of an acute attack; asymmetrric swelling w/in a joint on radiologic exam
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