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484 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
Pollution can result when which of the
following types of agents is/are introduced into the air, water, or soil? 1. Biological 2. Chemical 3. Physical 4. All of the above |
4. All of the above
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|
Which of the following operations causes
the most pollution? 1. Industrial 2. Municipal 3. Transportation 4. All of the above |
4. All of the above
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Which of the following materials is the
primary municipal pollutant? 1. Raw or inadequately treated sewage 2. Radioactive waste 3. Petroleum products 4. Acids |
1. Raw or inadequately treated sewage
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Which of the following modes of
transportation creates most air pollutants? 1. Trains 2. Waterborne vessels 3. Motor vehicles 4. Aircraft |
3. Motor vehicles
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Which, if any, of the following effects of
pollution is the most serious? 1. Psychological 2. Biological 3. Physical 4. None of the above |
2. Biological
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Steel erodes faster than normal when exposed
to which of the following air pollutants? 1. Pesticides 2. Herbicides 3. Zinc oxides 4. Sulfur oxides |
4. Sulfur oxides
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Most pesticides fall into which of the
following categories? 1. Selective 2. Nonselective 3. Preselective 4. Control selective |
2. Nonselective
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What is the primary pollution concern of Navy
personnel? 1. Noise pollution 2. Shore command wastes 3. Shipboard wastes |
3. Shipboard wastes
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Which of the following terms identifies
abatement? 1. Maintaining 2. Raising 3. Lowering 4. Containing |
3. Lowering
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Under the Clean Air Act, what government
body has the primary responsibility for assuring air quality? 1. Federal government 2. Each state 3. Local municipalities 4. Department of Transportation |
2. Each state
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Virtually all Navy ships have some type of
sanitation device installed. Which of the following types of systems retains sewage on board for discharge ashore or in waters where discharging is allowed? 1. Direct discharge 2. Positive flow 3. Marine sanitation 4. Collection, holding, and transfer |
4. Collection, holding, and transfer
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When operating sanitation devices in foreign
waters, Navy ships comply with which of the following requirements? 1. Status of Forces Agreement 2. Coast Guard instructions 3. NAVFAC guidelines 4. All of the above |
1. Status of Forces Agreement
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Vessels may not discharge unpulped trash
within what minimum distance from the U.S. coastline? 1. 20 nm 2. 25 nm 3. 30 nm 4. 35 nm |
2. 25 nm
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Submarines may discharge negatively buoyant
compacted trash not less than 12 nm from the U.S. coastline only if the water depth is greater than how many fathoms? 1. 1,000 2. 500 3. 100 4. 50 |
1. 1,000
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The Navy’s land management program
involves which of the following efforts? 1. Migratory bird management 2. Production and sale of forest products 3. Soil and water conservation 4. Use of off-road vehicles |
3. Soil and water conservation
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From what part of the world does the U.S.
import most of its crude oil? 1. Southeast Asia 2. Central Europe 3. South America 4. Middle East |
4. Middle East
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What program provides information and
support for Navy personnel who are guests in foreign lands? 1. Navy Sponsor Program 2. Overseas Duty Support Program 3. Navy Assistance Program 4. Navy Relocation Program |
2. Overseas Duty Support Program
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The Military Cash Awards Program
(MILCAP) provides monetary recognition of up to what maximum amount? 1. $ 5,000 2. $10,000 3. $20,000 4. $25,000 |
4. $25,000
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The Navy’s Health and Physical Readiness
Program promotes health and fitness at the command level. As part of this program, naval personnel are required to undergo fitness testing at what interval? 1. Biennially 2. Annually 3. Semiannually 4. Quarterly |
3. Semiannually
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“Informing the public and members of the
naval service about Navy operations and programs” is the mission of 1. BUPERS 2. CNO 3. PAO 4. SECNAV |
3. PAO
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IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 21 THROUGH 23,
SELECT THE TERM USED TO DEFINE THE QUESTION. Extravagant, careless, or needless expenditure of government resources. 1. Fraud 2. Waste 3. Abuse 4. Mismanagement |
2. Waste
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IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 21 THROUGH 23,
SELECT THE TERM USED TO DEFINE THE QUESTION. Intentional misleading or deceitful conduct that deprives the government of its resources or rights. 1. Fraud 2. Waste 3. Abuse 4. Mismanagement |
1. Fraud
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IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 21 THROUGH 23,
SELECT THE TERM USED TO DEFINE THE QUESTION. Intentional wrongful or improper use of government resources. 1. Fraud 2. Waste 3. Abuse 4. Mismanagement |
3. Abuse
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You can report fraud, waste, abuse, and
mismanagement to which of the following offices? 1. The Navy hotline 2. The chain of command 3. The Naval Criminal Investigative Service 4. All of the above |
4. All of the above
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To maintain public confidence in its integrity,
all naval personnel must comply with the Standards of Conduct and Professional Ethics. 1. True 2. False |
1. True
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If you disclose information about a person to
unauthorized personnel, you could be fined up to what maximum amount? 1. $5,000 2. $3,000 3. $2,000 4. $1,000 |
1. $5,000
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The guidance and policy for making sure
that equal opportunity works rests with what office? 1. Command master chief 2. Commanding officer 3. Chief of Naval Operations 4. Secretary of the Navy |
3. Chief of Naval Operations
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Which of the following persons is responsible
for making equal opportunity a reality with a command? 1. Commanding officer 2. Executive officer 3. Operations officer 4. Command master chie |
1. Commanding officer
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Your performance evaluation does not reflect
your attitude toward and your conduct in support of the Navy’s equal opportunity program. 1. True 2. False |
2. False
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If a Sailor takes part in insensitive practices,
he/she receives counseling on treating people equally. If counseling isn’t effective, what action, if any, may take place? 1. Administrative action only 2. Disciplinary action only 3. Administrative or disciplinary action 4. None |
3. Administrative or disciplinary action
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On what basis should supervisors assign
duties such as food service and compartment cleaning? 1. Skills and abilities 2. Seniority 3. A fair, rotational basis 4. Time in service |
3. A fair, rotational basis
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The Department of the Navy sets the
requirements for advancement for paygrades E-1 through E-9. Which of the following is the determining factor in advancement? 1. A vacancy 2. Having a high multiple 3. Passing the advancement-in-rate exam 4. All of the above |
4. All of the above
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Navy personnel are prohibited from taking
part in a civil rights demonstration under which of the following circumstances? 1. When the demonstration occurs during duty hours 2. While they are in uniform 3. When the demonstration occurs on a military reservation 4. Each of the above |
4. Each of the above
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If you cannot resolve a complaint among the
personnel involved, you can attach a written complaint to a special request chit and forward it through the chain of command. You must do this within 5 days? 1. True 2. False |
2. False
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Which of the following personnel can be
victims of sexual harassment? 1. Men only 2. Women only 3. Both 1 and 2 above |
3. Both 1 and 2 above
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Which of the following phrases describes
sexual harassment? 1. Unwelcome sexual advances 2. Requests for sexual favors 3. Verbal or physical conduct that is sexual in nature 4. Each of the above |
4. Each of the above
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Someone in a command position makes
sexual advances towards you, making it impossible to do your job. You are being sexually harassed. 1. True 2. False |
1. True
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Which of the following is a criteria for a
person’s behavior to be considered sexual harassment? 1. Unwelcome 2. Sexual in nature 3. Occur or impact your work 4. Each of the above |
4. Each of the above
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A. Red
B. Yellow C. Green Figure A IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 39 AND 40, REFER TO FIGURE A AND SELECT THE ZONE USED TO DESCRIBE THE QUESTION. Sexually explicit pictures. 1. A 2. C 3. B |
1. A
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A. Red
B. Yellow C. Green Figure A IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 39 AND 40, REFER TO FIGURE A AND SELECT THE ZONE USED TO DESCRIBE THE QUESTION. Suggestive posters, calendars, and off-color jokes. 1. A 2. C 3. B |
3. B
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What person has the responsibility of
appointing the command ombudsman? 1. Commanding officer 2. Executive officer 3. Division officer 4. Command master chief |
1. Commanding officer
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What person determines the content and
priorities of the command ombudsman program? 1. Commanding officer 2. Executive officer 3. Division officer 4. Command master chief |
1. Commanding officer
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Which of the following statements is a
purpose of the Reenlistment Quality Control Program? 1. To provide a personnel management program to control rating manning 2. To issue reenlistment criteria 3. To establish standardized professional growth points 4. All of the above |
4. All of the above
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All first-term Sailors in paygrades E-1 through
E-6 requesting reenlistment must be approved for reenlistment through what program? 1. CREO 2. ENCORE 3. HYT 4. EEO |
1. CREO
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What person directs and supervises the Navy’s
voting program? 1. Chairman, Joint Chiefs of Staff 2. Chief of Naval Operations 3. Chief of Naval Personnel 4. Chief of Naval Information |
3. Chief of Naval Personnel
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Which of the following are sources that set
forth the basic disciplinary laws for the U.S. Navy? 1. U.S. Navy Regulations 2. Standard Organization and Regulations of the U.S. Navy 3. Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) 4. Each of the above |
4. Each of the above
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Which of the following characteristics are
traits of a good Sailor? 1. Puts the good of the ship and the Navy above personal likes and dislikes 2. Obeys the rules of military courtesy and etiquette 3. Demonstrates loyalty, self-control, honesty, and truthfulness 4. All of the above |
4. All of the above
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In what year was the Code of Conduct first
prescribed? 1. 1965 2. 1955 3. 1945 4. 1935 |
2. 1955
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The Code of Conduct was adopted to provide
guidance for service personnel in which of the following circumstances? 1. When stationed on foreign soil 2. When traveling at home and abroad 3. When facing the enemy as prisoners of war 4. All of the above |
3. When facing the enemy as prisoners of war
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In what year was Executive Order 12633
issued amending the Code of Conduct to use neutral-gender language? 1. 1987 2. 1988 3. 1989 4. 1990 |
2. 1988
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How many articles make up the Code of
Conduct? 1. Two 2. Four 3. Six 4. Eight |
3. Six
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When, if ever, may you voluntarily surrender
to the enemy? 1. If alone and completely isolated from friendly troops 2. If no longer able to inflict casualties on the enemy 3. If able to detain the enemy and let others escape capture 4. Never |
4. Never
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Who may be assigned shore patrol duties?
1. Officers only 2. Petty officers only 3. Officers and petty officers 4. All Navy personnel |
3. Officers and petty officers
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In areas where different armed services are
located, the military police from each service may be combined to form one unit. What term identifies this unit? 1. Armed Forces Police Department 2. Armed Forces Police Detachment 3. Armed Forces Police Service 4. Armed Forces Police Group |
2. Armed Forces Police Detachment
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Aboard ship, the master-at-arms (MAA)
force is headed by the chief master-at-arms (CMAA). The CMAA works directly for which of the following officers? 1. Weapons officer 2. Security officer 3. Executive officer 4. Administrative officer |
3. Executive officer
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Discipline training develops which of the
following personal traits? 1. Character 2. Efficiency 3. Self-control 4. All of the above |
4. All of the above
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Discipline is important to the Navy for which
of the following reasons? 1. To instill fear of punishment 2. To decrease command responsibility 3. To provide punishment for wrongdoers 4. To enable personnel to function as a unit with a high degree of efficiency |
4. To enable personnel to function as a unit
with a high degree of efficiency |
|
Punishment is administered in the Navy for
which of the following reasons? 1. To serve as an object lesson to the wrongdoer and others 2. To pacify those who have suffered a wrong 3. To correct a wrong 4. To avenge a wrong |
1. To serve as an object lesson to the
wrongdoer and others |
|
What chapter of the United States Navy
Regulations describes the rights and responsibilities of all Navy members? 1. 12 2. 11 3. 10 4. 9 |
2. 11
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What person is responsible for making sure
that the Navy Regs conforms to the current needs of the Department of the Navy? 1. The Secretary of the Navy 2. The Judge Advocate General 3. The Chief of Naval Operations 4. The Commandant of the Marine Corps |
1. The Secretary of the Navy
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Failure to obey any regulation subjects the
offender to charges under what UCMJ article? 1. 91 2. 92 3. 93 4. 94 |
2. 92
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What article of the Navy Regs lists the
publications that must be made available upon request by any active-duty person? 1. 1020 2. 1010 3. 0917 4. 0818 |
4. 0818
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What article of the Navy Regs gives officers
the authority necessary to perform their duties? 1. 1021 2. 1023 3. 1025 4. 1033 |
1. 1021
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Navy Regs, article 1033, Authority in a Boat,
provides which of the following officers the authority and responsibility over all persons embarked? 1. The senior line officer eligible for command at sea 2. The junior line officer eligible for command at sea 3. The senior staff officer 4. The junior staff officer |
1. The senior line officer eligible for
command at sea |
|
Which of the following Navy Regulations
articles outlines the authority of a sentry? 1. 1037 2. 1038 3. 1052 4. 1053 |
2. 1038
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You may not be ordered to active duty without
the permission of which of the following persons? 1. Commandant of the Marine Corps 2. Commandant of the Coast Guard 3. Chief of Naval Operations 4. Chief of Naval Personnel |
3. Chief of Naval Operations
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|
Navy Regulations, article 1104, Treatment and
Release of Prisoners, prohibits cruel and/or unusual treatment. According to this article, prisoners must be checked on at what minimum interval? 1. 10 hours 2. 8 hours 3. 6 hours 4. 4 hours |
4. 4 hours
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During a Saturday duty day, one of your
shipmates asks you to change watches with him/her. You agree but fail to get permission from proper authority. Under what article of Navy Regs could you be charged? 1. 1138 2. 1134 3. 1133 4. 1129 |
2. 1134
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Sexual harassment is offensive and illegal.
Under what article of Navy Regs may a person be charged with sexual harassment? 1. 1166 2. 1164 3. 1162 4. 1160 |
1. 1166
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A ship maintains a watch for which of the
following reasons? 1. Communications 2. Security 3. Safety 4. All of the above |
4. All of the above
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A ship’s plan for action is contained in what
type of bill? 1. Battle bill 2. Admin bill 3. Organization bill 4. Watch, quarter, and station bill |
1. Battle bill
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Qualified personnel are assigned to stations
by which of the following persons? 1. Division officer and division chief 2. Leading petty officer 3. Leading chief petty officer 4. Executive officer |
1. Division officer and division chief
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A. CONDITION I
B. CONDITION II C. CONDITION III Figure A INANSWERINGQUESTIONS4AND5, REFER TO FIGUREAAND SELECT THE CONDITION USED TO DEFINE THE QUESTION. 4. General quarters—all battle stations are manned. 1. A 2. B 3. C |
1. A
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A. CONDITION I
B. CONDITION II C. CONDITION III Figure A Normal wartime cruising watch—4 hours on, 8 hours off. 1. A 2. B 3. C |
3. C
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If you are scheduled to stand the second
dog watch, you should report at which of the following times? 1. 1745 2. 1750 3. 1755 4. 1800 |
1. 1745
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If you are told to report to your duty station
at 0745 (24-hour clock), you should arrive at what time? 1. 6:45 am 2. 7:45 am 3. 6:45 pm 4. 7:45 pm |
2. 7:45 am
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What watch are you standing between
2000 and 2400 hours? 1. Midwatch 2. Forenoon watch 3. First dog watch 4. Evening watch |
4. Evening watch
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Watches are split into port and starboard
for what reason? 1. For convenience 2. For security 3. To rotate personnel 4. To allow extra liberty |
2. For security
|
|
What type of watch do most Sailors stand?
1. Phone 2. Security 3. Admin 4. Division |
2. Security
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Which of the following is a type of a security
watch? 1. Sentry duty 2. Barracks watch 3. Fire watch 4. Each of the above |
4. Each of the above
|
|
Which of the following is a key assignment
for officers in the watch organization? 1. CDO 2. OOD 3. JOOD 4. Each of the above |
1. CDO
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Which of the following is a duty of the
QMOW? 1. To maintain the ship’s deck log 2. To make sure all bells are correctly answered 3. To stand watch in the bridge and deliver messages 4. To line up and operate the steering engines |
1. To maintain the ship’s deck log
|
|
What person makes sure all deck watch
stations are manned with qualified personnel and all watch standers from previous watches are relieved? 1. BMOW 2. QMOW 3. JOOW 4. JOOD |
1. BMOW
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|
Where is the fog lookout watch usually stood?
1. Helm 2. Aftermast 3. In the bow where approaching ships can be heard 4. CIC |
3. In the bow where approaching ships
can be heard |
|
For what reason does the fog lookout watch
normally consist of two Sailors? 1. In case there is a man overboard 2. To allow the lookout to work without having his/her hearing impaired by wearing sound-powered phones 3. The two-man security rule 4. To verify visual and sound contact |
2. To allow the lookout to work without
having his/her hearing impaired by wearing sound-powered phones |
|
What type of watch is set when positive
steering control must be maintained? 1. Helmsman 2. Lee helmsman 3. After steering 4. QMOW |
4. QMOW
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|
What is the purpose of the security watch?
1. To minimize damage to equipment 2. To control contact with the CIC 3. To increase the physical security of the ship |
3. To increase the physical security
of the ship |
|
Which of the following is a duty of security
watches and patrols? 1. To be alert for fire hazards 2. To check the security of weapons magazines 3. To inspect damage control closures 4. Each of the above |
4. Each of the above
|
|
You are a member of a security patrol, and
you detect a fire hazard that affects the safety of the ship. What action should you take? 1. Note it on the security log 2. Inform your LCPO 3. Investigate it 4. Report it to the OOD immediately |
4. Report it to the OOD immediately
|
|
What is the purpose of a shipboard fire watch?
1. To immediately extinguish fires caused by welding or burning operations 2. To make sure the welder strikes the welding surface 3. To relay messages from the work site 4. To make sure there is a controlled burn of material at the work site |
1. To immediately extinguish fires caused
by welding or burning operations |
|
When standing a barracks security watch, you
have which of the following responsibilities? 1. Knowing and carrying out provisions of the fire bill 2. Knowing and carrying out provisions of the emergency bill 3. Knowing barracks regulations 4. All of the above |
4. All of the above
|
|
When standing a barracks security watch,
which of the following is the first action to take if there is a fire? 1. Report the fire 2. Spread the alarm 3. Close doors and windows 4. Fight the fire, if possible, if you have the proper equipment |
1. Report the fire
|
|
Sentries are governed by what two types
of orders? 1. Understood and general 2. Special and verbal 3. General and special 4. General and verbal |
3. General and special
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You are required to know the general orders of
a sentry. How many general orders are there? 1. 11 2. 14 3. 16 4. 18 |
1. 11
|
|
When aboard ship, you should refer to what
publication for the procedures used to relieve an armed watch? 1. SOP 2. FOD 3. Watch bill 4. Battle bill |
1. SOP
|
|
Which of the following is a precaution to follow
when standing an armed watch with a pistol? 1. When relieved, unload the pistol in a safe area 2. Don’t surrender the pistol to an unauthorized person 3. Keep the pistol (which is loaded with one round in the chamber) in its holster unless you have to use it 4. Each of the above |
4. Each of the above
|
|
Why is a lookout posted?
1. To prevent blind spots caused by metal objects 2. To search for objects radar can’t detect 3. To detect objects low in the water 4. To search for air attacks |
2. To search for objects radar can’t detect
|
|
The peacetime lookout organization has how
many Sailors in each watch station? 1. One 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four |
3. Three
|
|
Which of the following is/are types of bearings?
1. Relative only 2. True only 3. Magnetic only 4. Relative, true, and magnetic |
4. Relative, true, and magnetic
|
|
Which of the following is Navy phraseology
for reporting a bearing of 038º? 1. O, three, eight 2. O, three, ate 3. Zero, tree, ate 4. Zero, tree, eight |
3. Zero, tree, ate
|
|
Lookouts report what type of bearing?
1. Magnetic 2. Relative 3. True |
2. Relative
|
|
Which of the following statements describes
a target angle? 1. The magnetic north pole is used as the reference point 2. True north is used as the reference point 3. An object in the sky 4. The relative bearing of your ship from another ship |
4. The relative bearing of your ship from
another ship |
|
A position angle can never be more than
what number of degrees? 1. 0º 2. 45º 3. 90º 4. 180º |
3. 90º
|
|
How are position angles reported?
1. Three digits, spoken digit by digit 2. Two digits, spoken digit by digit 3. Three digits, spoken as a whole 4. Two digits, spoken as a whole |
4. Two digits, spoken as a whole
|
|
How should you report objects that are
low in the water? 1. By feet above the surface 2. By the object’s approximate distance 3. In feet from the ship 4. From the object to the horizon |
2. By the object’s approximate distance
|
|
Ranges are reported in what unit of
measurement? 1. Feet 2. Yards 3. Rods 4. Miles |
2. Yards
|
|
When using binoculars, what adjustments
should you make? 1. One for focus 2. Two for focus and one for proper distance between the lenses 3. One for proper distance between the lenses 4. Two for eyepiece and lens |
2. Two for focus and one for proper
distance between the lenses |
|
When should you use binoculars?
1. In foggy and rainy conditions 2. When identifying objects at night 3. When scanning sectors in the daytime 4. Both 2 and 3 above |
2. When identifying objects at night
|
|
How long does it take for you to reach your
best night vision? 1. 10 minutes 2. 15 minutes 3. 25 minutes 4. 30 minutes |
4. 30 minutes
|
|
What is meant by the term dark adaptation?
1. The improvement of vision in dim light 2. The inability to see in bright light 3. The red light requirement 4. Shadows that can’t be seen clearly |
1. The improvement of vision in dim light
|
|
When should you use “off-center vision”?
1. Below decks 2. When wearing glasses 3. When it’s dark 4. In broad daylight |
3. When it’s dark
|
|
What information is contained in an initial
report? 1. The object only 2. The object’s bearing from the ship only 3. The object and its bearing from the ship 4. What the object might be |
3. The object and its bearing from the ship
|
|
To report serial number 23NCI16 over the
sound-powered telephone circuit, you would report the serial number in what way? 1. Too, three, november, charlie, india, wun, six 2. Too, tree, november, charlie, india, wun, six 3. Two, tree, november, charlie, india, wun, six 4. Two, tree, november, charlie, india, wun, sics |
2. Too, tree, november, charlie, india,
wun, six |
|
It’s important for you to remember that the
mouthpiece and earpiece of sound-powered telephones are interchangeable for which of the following reasons? 1. Two people can talk at once 2. They can be interchanged if a piece breaks 3. Undesirable noises can be fed into the system 4. Both 2 and 3 above |
2. They can be interchanged if a piece breaks
|
|
The headset of sound-powered telephones is
picked up as a unit for which of the following reasons? 1. To make sure you have all the parts 2. To avoid breaking them 3. Both 1 and 2 above 4 In case the earpiece is missing |
3. Both 1 and 2 above
|
|
When using the mouthpiece of a
sound-powered phone set to report contacts, how far from your mouth should you position the mouthpiece? 1. 1/2 to 1 inch 2. 1 to 2 inches 3. 2 to 3 inches 4. 3 to 4 inches |
1. 1/2 to 1 inch
|
|
Why should you unplug a phone’s headset
when it’s not in use? 1. To keep the user costs down 2. Earpieces will pick up noise and transmit it over the circuit 3. Carbon will build up at the connectors 4. Calls from other circuits won’t go through |
2. Earpieces will pick up noise and transmit
it over the circuit |
|
Aboard ship, there are how many categories
of shipboard sound-powered phone circuits? 1. One 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four |
3. Three
|
|
What category of shipboard telephone circuits
is designed to maintain vital communications and are preceded by the letter X? 1. Primary system 2. Auxiliary system 3. Supplementary system 4. Command circuit |
2. Auxiliary system
|
|
Which of the following sound-powered phone
circuits is used as the CO’s battle circuit? 1. JA 2. JC 3. JL 4. 1JV |
1. JA
|
|
To keep the meaning of a message intact when
standing duty as a telephone talker, what action should you take? 1. Speak loudly 2. Repeat the message word for word 3. Paraphrase what you hear 4. Speak rapidly to transmit the message quickly |
2. Repeat the message word for word
|
|
Which of the following statements is a rule for
circuit discipline? 1. Transmit only official messages 2. Keep the button in the OFF position when not transmitting 3. Use only standard words and phrases 4. All of the above |
4. All of the above
|
|
Which of the following elements is included
when taking a message? 1. Name of caller 2. Message 3. Time and date 4. Each of the above |
2. Message
|
|
The IVCS has which of the following
components? 1. Terminals 2. Accessories 3. ICSCs 4. All of the above |
4. All of the above
|
|
Within the IVCS, what is the purpose of the
ICSCs? 1. To perform switching actions 2. To keep lines clear 3. To give multi-access to lines 4. To ensure automatic cutoff for security purposes |
1. To perform switching actions
|
|
Which of the following shipboard announcing
systems is called the general announcing system? 1. 1MC 2. 2MC 3. 3MC 4. 4MC |
1. 1MC
|
|
Which of the following shipboard announcing
systems is used for intership communications? 1. 5MC 2. 6MC 3. 7MC 4. 8MC |
2. 6MC
|
|
Which of the following shipboard announcing
systems is used for hangar deck damage control? 1. 39MC 2. 51MC 3. 53MC 4. 58MC |
4. 58MC
|
|
Which of the following persons is authorized
to pass calls over the 1MC? 1. OOD 2. XO 3. CO 4. Each of the above |
4. Each of the above
|
|
What is the purpose of the 20MC announcing
system? 1. Radio room announcing system 2. Flag officer’s command announcing system 3. Combat information announcing system 4. Captain’s command announcing system |
3. Combat information announcing system
|
|
Which of the following types of flags and
pennants is/are used by the Navy? 1. Substitute flags 2. Numeral pennants 3. International alphabet flags 4. All of the above |
4. All of the above
|
|
Aboard ship, a man overboard is indicated
by what emergency/warning flag? 1. Code Alfa 2. Oscar 3. November Charlie 4. Bravo |
2. Oscar
|
|
What administrative flag is used to recall
all personnel to the ship? 1. Hotel 2. Juliett 3. Romeo 4. Papa |
4. Papa
|
|
What administrative flag is flown in port to
indicate the ship has ready duty? 1. Hotel 2. India 3. Romeo 4. Quebec |
3. Romeo
|
|
When under way, the national ensign is
normally flown from what location? 1. The gaff 2. The aftermast 3. The flagstaff 4. The jackstaff |
1. The gaff
|
|
Which of the following statements defines
the term “colors”? 1. Colors give recognition of codes 2. Colors consist of our national ensign along with the union jack 3. Colors are lights on the flagstaff 4. Colors are the flags of foreign ships |
2. Colors consist of our national ensign
along with the union jack |
|
When a naval ship is in port or at anchor, the
union jack is flown from what location? 1. The gaff 2. The jackstaff 3. The aftermast 4. The flagstaff |
2. The jackstaff
|
|
The U.S. Navy flag is flown in which of the
following situations? 1. At official ceremonies or official public gatherings when the Navy is officially a participant 2 In parades 3. In official Navy occasions 4. Each of the above |
4. Each of the above
|
|
Which of the following flags are half-masted
at the death of the CO? 1. National ensign 2. Union jack 3. Commission pennant 4. Each of the above |
3. Commission pennant
|
|
On small ships, personnel from what watch
are responsible for hoisting and hauling down absentee pennants? 1. Security watch 2. Quarterdeck watch 3. Roving watch 4. DC central watch |
2. Quarterdeck watch
|
|
On large ships, what person is responsible for
making sure that special flags or pennants are displayed to indicate changing events aboard ship? 1. Boatswain’s mate 2. Quarterdeck watch 3. Duty signalman 4. Topside watch |
3. Duty signalman
|
|
Where is a list of special flags and pennants
normally posted as a ready reference for watch standers? 1. Combat information center (CIC) 2. After deck 3. Quarterdeck area 4. Half deck |
3. Quarterdeck area
|
|
An officer in command entitled to a personal
flag is embarked in a boat on an official mission. Where should the pennant be flown? 1. Amid ship 2. In the bow 3. In the stern 4. Yardarm, port |
2. In the bow
|
|
What date commemorates the birthday
of the United States Navy? 1. 5 Sep 1774 2. 13 Oct 1775 3. 4 Jul 1776 4. 14 Feb 1778 |
2. 13 Oct 1775
|
|
The Second Continental Congress approved
the purchase of how many vessels? 1. Eight 2. Six 3. Four 4. Two |
4. Two
|
|
Which of the following were naval vessels
in the early 19th century? 1. Frigates 2. Sloops of war 3. Ships of the line 4. All of the above |
4. All of the above
|
|
What category of ship carried the largest
number of guns? 1. Ships of the line 2. Sloops of war 3. Schooners 4. Frigates |
1. Ships of the line
|
|
What type of ships did privateers typically sail?
1. Ships of the line 2. Sloops of war 3. Schooners 4. Frigates |
3. Schooners
|
|
What ship was the first warfare submarine?
1. Turtle 2. Hornet 3. Alfred 4. Wasp |
1. Turtle
|
|
Which of the following ships has the
distinction of being the U.S. Navy’s first flagship? 1. Providence 2. Hornet 3. Alfred 4. Wasp |
3. Alfred
|
|
What country was the first to recognize
the “Stars and Stripes”? 1. Germany 2. France 3. Spain 4. Portugal |
2. France
|
|
John Paul Jones is often referred to as the
“father of our highest naval traditions” because of the example he set as an officer during the Revolutionary War. He is also famous because of which of the following accomplishments? 1. His appointment as the first U.S. Navy admiral 2. His selection as the first commander in chief 3. His victory over the HMS Serapis 4. His capture of the HMS Nancy |
3. His victory over the HMS Serapis
|
|
At various times during the Revolutionary
War, the U.S. Navy had 56 vessels. What was the peak number of vessels that were operating at any one time? 1. 45 2. 32 3. 27 4. 15 |
3. 27
|
|
Approximately how many ships did the
British loose to privateers? 1. 1,000 2. 1,500 3. 2,000 4. 2,500 |
3. 2,000
|
|
What is the oldest U.S. Navy ship still
in commission? 1. Lexington 2. Constitution 3. Constellation 4. Bonhomme Richard |
3. Constellation
|
|
Who was president when the U.S. Navy
Department was established? 1. George Washington 2. Thomas Jefferson 3. James Madison 4. John Adams |
4. John Adams
|
|
When did the expression “Millions for defense,
but not one cent for tribute” originate? 1. During the Revolutionary War 2. During the “Quasi” War 3. During the War of 1812 4. During the Barbary States War |
2. During the “Quasi” War
|
|
Who led the naval forces into Tripoli Harbor
and destroyed the captured US frigate USS Philadelphia? 1. Stephen Decatur 2. James Lawrence 3. Thomas Truxtun 4. Edward Preple |
1. Stephen Decatur
|
|
The War of 1812 was caused, in part, by the
efforts to accomplish which of the following goals? 1. Establishing a naval base in the Mediterranean 2. Paying ransom payments to the Barbary States 3. Stopping forced service of American seamen in the British navy 4. Forcing France to establish trade relations with the United States |
3. Stopping forced service of American
seamen in the British navy |
|
During the War of 1812, what ship earned
the nickname “Old Ironsides”? 1. Chesapeake 2. Constitution 3. Constellation 4. Enterprise |
2. Constitution
|
|
On which of the following Great Lakes did
Captain Oliver Hazard Perry defeat a British squadron, cutting British supply lines? 1. Lake Superior 2. Lake Michigan 3. Lake Huron 4. Lake Erie |
4. Lake Erie
|
|
What ship was one of the first ships-of-the line?
1. Constitution 2. Enterprise 3. Philadelphia 4. North Carolina |
4. North Carolina
|
|
The first half of the 19th century saw a
development that was to change navies all over the world. What was that development? 1. Task forces 2. Steam power 3. Steel hulls 4. Practical submarines |
2. Steam power
|
|
In 1843, what invention incorporated in the
USS Princeton paved the way for progress in the development of propulsion systems? 1. The screw propeller 2. The diesel engine 3. The coal-fired boiler 4. The stern paddle wheel |
1. The screw propeller
|
|
In 1854, Commodore Perry signed a treaty
that opened up what market to American trade? 1. China 2. Japan 3. Russia 4. India |
2. Japan
|
|
Although neither side could claim victory, the
battle between the USS Monitor and the Virginia (Merrimack) was important for which of the following reasons? 1. Steam engines were used in battle for the first time 2. The Dahlgren gun was used 3. The battle began the era of the ironclads 4. The Union and Confederate navies fought each other |
3. The battle began the era of the ironclads
|
|
The first true submarine attack was conducted
against what Union ship? 1. USS New Ironsides 2. USS Housatonic 3. USS Hunley 4. USS Custis |
2. USS Housatonic
|
|
During what Civil War battle was the order
“Damn the torpedoes! Full speed ahead!” given? 1. Vicksburg 2. Mobile Bay 3. New Orleans Orleans 4. Kings Bay |
2. Mobile Bay
|
|
What person defined sea power, showed the
importance of knowing naval needs, and advocated a large, powerful Navy? 1. Commodore Perry 2. Admiral Farragut 3. Andre Foote 4. Alfred T. Mahan |
4. Alfred T. Mahan
|
|
What ship has been labeled as the first modern
cruiser in the U.S. Fleet? 1. USS Boston 2. USS Atlanta 3. USS Newark 4. USS Chicago |
3. USS Newark
|
|
“Remember the Maine,” referring to the USS
Maine, was the battle cry for which of the following wars? 1. The Quasi War 2. The Civil War 3. The Spanish-American War 4. World War I |
3. The Spanish-American War
|
|
In what year did the Navy accept its first
operational submarine? 1. 1895 2. 1898 3. 1900 4. 1902 |
3. 1900
|
|
Construction of our first destroyer began in
what year? 1. 1895 2. 1899 3. 1902 4. 1905 |
2. 1899
|
|
What ship was considered our first
“first-class” battleship? 1. USS Indiana 2. USS New York 3. USS Texas 4. USS California |
1. USS Indiana
|
|
Who was the Navy’s first aviator?
1. Lt. Ellyson 2. Lt. Towers 3. Lt. Corry 4. CAPT Chambers |
1. Lt. Ellyson
|
|
Destroyers were first used effectively for
antisubmarine warfare during what war? 1. Civil War 2. Spanish-American War 3. World War I 4. World War II |
3. World War I
|
|
In what war did women first serve as members
of the Navy? 1. Civil War 2. Spanish-American War 3. World War I 4. World War II |
3. World War I
|
|
In what capacity did women first serve as
members of the Navy? 1. Nurse 2. Yeoman 3. Radio operator |
2. Yeoman
|
|
What was the first aircraft carrier designed
from the keel up? 1. USS Ranger 2. USS Hornet 3. USS Yorktown 4. USS Enterprise |
1. USS Ranger
|
|
What was the first naval battle of World War II
in which two opposing fleets didn’t see each other during combat? 1. The Battle of Midway 2. The Battle of Okinawa 3. The Battle of Guadalcanal 4. The Battle of the Coral Sea |
4. The Battle of the Coral Sea
|
|
What was the decisive battle of World War II
that became the turning point of the war in the Pacific? 1. The Battle of Midway 2. The Battle of Okinawa 3. The Battle of Guadalcanal 4. The Battle of the Coral Sea |
1. The Battle of Midway
|
|
During World War II, the Japanese loss/losses
of what island(s) heralded the end of the war in the Pacific? 1. Philippines 2. Solomons 3. Guadalcanal 4. Iwo Jima |
4. Iwo Jima
|
|
During World War II, the Navy was heavily
involved in which of the following Atlantic (European) actions? 1. The invasion of Normandy 2. The capture of Navaronne 3. The Battle of Britain 4. The fall of Berlin |
1. The invasion of Normandy
|
|
Which of the following were types of ships
built during World War II? 1. Net tenders 2. Mine sweepers 3. Repair ships 4. All of the above |
4. All of the above
|
|
Which of the following combat systems came
into full use during World War II? 1. Radar 2. Sonar 3. Both 1 and 2 above 4. SATNAV |
3. Both 1 and 2 above
|
|
During World War II, WAVES were eligible
for how many ratings? 1. 28 2. 30 3. 34 4. 40 |
3. 34
|
|
In what year was the Women’s Armed
Services Integration Act passed? 1. 1942 2. 1945 3. 1948 4. 1951 |
3. 1948
|
|
The first extensive use of jet aircraft and
helicopters occurred during what war? 1. World War I 2. World War II 3. The Korean Conflict 4. The Vietnam Police Action |
3. The Korean Conflict
|
|
The first U.S. Navy nuclear-powered vessel
was what type of ship? 1. Carrier 2. Submarine 3. Merchant ship 4. Guided-missile cruiser |
2. Submarine
|
|
In what year did the USS Nautilus make its
history-making transpolar voyage? 1. 1952 2. 1955 3. 1958 4. 1961 |
3. 1958
|
|
In what year were the first nuclear-powered
surface ships launched? 1. 1952 2. 1955 3. 1958 4. 1961 |
4. 1961
|
|
In what year was the first American satellite
placed in orbit? 1. 1952 2. 1955 3. 1958 4. 1961 |
3. 1958
|
|
America’s first suborbital flight was made
by what Navy officer? 1. Commander Conrad 2. Commander Gordan 3. Commander Shepard Jr 4. Commander Kerwin |
3. Commander Shepard Jr
|
|
Which of the following warfare tactics was
used during the Vietnam Police Action? 1. Gunfire support 2. Riverine operations 3. Coastal interdiction 4. Each of the above |
4. Each of the above
|
|
Which of the following ships was the world’s
first nuclear-powered carrier? 1. USS Nimitz 2. USS Carl Vinson 3. USS Enterprise 4. USS Abraham Lincoln |
3. USS Enterprise
|
|
What moon mission was completely manned
by Navy personnel? 1. Apollo 5 2. Apollo 7 3. Apollo 11 4. Apollo 12 |
4. Apollo 12
|
|
In what year was the Alvin, a deep diving
vehicle, tested at 6,000-foot depths? 1. 1961 2. 1965 3. 1969 4. 1971 55. In what year was the first nuclear-powered, deep-submergence research and ocean-engineering vehicle launched? 1. 1961 2. 1965 3. 1969 4. 1971 |
2. 1965
|
|
In what year was the first nuclear-powered,
deep-submergence research and ocean-engineering vehicle launched? 1. 1961 2. 1965 3. 1969 4. 1971 |
3. 1969
|
|
Which of the following is/are principle
development(s) of the Trident system? 1. A nuclear-powered fleet ballistic missile submarine 2. A strategic weapons system 3. An integrated logistics support system 4. All of the above |
4. All of the above
|
|
Which of the following are the most recent
additions to the surface fleet? 1. Ticonderoga-class cruisers 2. Arleigh Burke-class destroyers 3. Both 1 and 2 above 4. LHAs |
3. Both 1 and 2 above
|
|
The Navy helped move approximately how
many pounds of equipment and supplies during Dessert Shield/Desert Storm? 1. 12.4 billion tons 2. 15.8 billion tons 3. 18.3 billion tons 4. 21.6 billion tons |
3. 18.3 billion tons
|
|
Which of the following is NOT a DoD
military department? 1. Army 2. Coast Guard 3. Navy 4. Air Force |
2. Coast Guard
|
|
By law, what person heads the Department of
the Navy (DoN)? 1. Secretary of Defense 2. Joint Chief of Staff 3. Secretary of the Navy |
3. Secretary of the Navy
|
|
Title 10 of the U.S. Code states that which of
the following actions is/are part of the Navy’s mission? 1. Oversee construction, outfitting, and repair of naval ships, equipment, and facilities 2. Station troops in forward positions 3. Commands U.S. forces in CONUS 4. Commander and chief of all sea commands |
1. Oversee construction, outfitting, and repair
of naval ships, equipment, and facilities |
|
What are the three principal components of
the DoN? 1. The Navy Department executive offices, the operating forces including the Marine Corps, and the Shore Establishment 2. The Navy Department executive offices, the operating forces excluding the Marine Corps, and the Shore Establishment 3. The Navy Department excluding the executive offices, the operating forces excluding the Marine Corps, and the Shore Establishment 4. The Navy Department excluding the executive offices, the operating forces including the Marine Corps, and the fleet commands |
1. The Navy Department executive offices,
the operating forces including the Marine Corps, and the Shore Establishment |
|
The operating forces are under the command
of the 1. Secretary of Defense 2. Secretary of the Navy 3. Chief of Naval Operations 4. Chief of Naval Personnel |
3. Chief of Naval Operations
|
|
What is the purpose of the Shore
Establishment? 1. A last line of defense 2. To provide support to the operating forces 3. To provide a supply line 4. To support the front line |
2. To provide support to the operating forces
|
|
Aboard ship, what publication contains
information about the ship’s organization? 1. Standard Organization and Regulations of the U.S. Navy only 2. Shipboard Organization and Regulations Manual only 3. Standard Organization and Regulations of the U.S. Navy and Shipboard Organization and Regulations Manual 4. Uniform Code of Military Justice |
2. Shipboard Organization and Regulations
Manual only |
|
A ready source of information about the
duties, responsibilities, and authority of personnel assigned to a ship is stated in which of the following documents? 1. United States Navy Regulations 2. Watch, Quarter, and Station Bill 3. Standard Organization and Regulations Manual 4. Ship’s Organization and Regulations Manual |
4. Ship’s Organization and Regulations
Manual |
|
What are the two elements of a ship’s
organization? 1. Battle organization and damage control organization 2. Battle organization and administrative organization 3. Administrative organization and training organization 4. Administrative organization and damage control organization |
2. Battle organization and administrative
organization |
|
Each ship is organized into what minimum
number of departments? 1. Five 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four |
1. Five
|
|
Which of the following is a responsibility
of the operations department? 1. Piloting the ship 2. Forecasting weather 3. Conducting and analyzing intelligence information 4. Both 2 and 3 above |
4. Both 2 and 3 above
|
|
The damage control assistant is a member
of what department on a ship? 1. Deck 2. Supply 3. Operations 4. Engineering |
4. Engineering
|
|
If a ship doesn’t have a deck department, what
department is responsible for inspection and maintenance of survival equipment? 1. Supply 2. Weapons 3. Navigation 4. Engineering |
2. Weapons
|
|
Which of the following officers is ultimately
responsible for the safe navigation of the ship? 1. Navigator 2. Operations officer 3. Executive officer 4. Commanding officer |
4. Commanding officer
|
|
When a ship is abandoned, custom and
regulation require which of the following actions by the commanding officer? 1. To be the first person to leave the ship 2. To be the last person to leave the ship 3. To exert every effort to destroy the ship before it sinks 4. To inform all personnel that they are on their own |
2. To be the last person to leave the ship
|
|
What is the function of the command master
chief? 1. To take charge of and be responsible for the training of enlisted personnel 2. To assign enlisted personnel to their duties according to their qualification 3. To relieve the commanding officer of the responsibility for the welfare and morale of enlisted personnel 4. To transmit ideas and recommendations directly to the commanding officer |
3. To relieve the commanding officer of the
responsibility for the welfare and morale of enlisted personnel |
|
Of the following duties, which is NOT one
of the executive officer’s? 1. Assignment of personnel 2. Coordination of ship’s drills 3. Assignment of punishment to offenders 4. Coordination of policing and inspection of the ship |
3. Assignment of punishment to offenders
|
|
If the executive officer becomes incapacitated,
what person normally takes over his/her duties? 1. The next senior line officer assigned to the ship 2. An officer appointed by the ship’s captain 3. The next senior staff officer on board 4. The first lieutenant |
1. The next senior line officer assigned to
the ship |
|
For what reason do commanding officers and
executive officers usually have separate battle stations aboard ship? 1. To decrease the likelihood of their being disabled at the same time 2. To maintain a high degree of control over personnel 3. To provide maximum coordination of operations throughout the ship 4. To divide the areas of responsibility between the executive officer and the commanding officer |
1. To decrease the likelihood of their being
disabled at the same time |
|
The department head is responsible for
which of the following functions within a department? 1. General condition of equipment 2. Administrative matters 3. Operational readiness of the department 4. All of the above |
4. All of the above
|
|
The division officer has the responsibility of
carrying out which of the following duties? 1. Making frequent inspections of division spaces, equipment, personnel, and supplies 2. Maintaining copies of division orders and bills and displaying them conspicuously 3. Training division personnel and preparing them for battle 4. Each of the above |
4. Each of the above
|
|
Most of the jobs that are done by the XO’s
assistants aboard ship are the responsibility of what department in an aircraft squadron? 1. Administrative department 2. Maintenance department 3. Operations department 4. Safety department |
1. Administrative department
|
|
Which of the following is a responsibility
of the operations department of an aircraft squadron? 1. Overall maintenance of the ship’s aircraft 2. Operational readiness and tactical efficiency 3. Squadron safety program 4. All of the above |
2. Operational readiness and tactical
efficiency |
|
Which of the following is the definition of
the term job accountability? 1. Taking command under duress 2. Accepting credit for your job 3. Answering to seniors in the chain of command for the way you do your job 4. Answering only for personal mistakes |
3. Answering to seniors in the chain of
command for the way you do your job |
|
What is meant by effective communications
in the chain of command? 1. The ability to speak clearly 2. The use of proper terminology 3. The proper use of reports, messages, and other types of correspondence 4. The action of seniors informing juniors about matters that affect the juniors, and the action of juniors informing seniors of existing problems |
4. The action of seniors informing juniors
about matters that affect the juniors, and the action of juniors informing seniors of existing problems |
|
You need help in solving a work-related
problem. Which of the following personnel should contact first? 1. Your supervisor 2. Your department head 3. Your division officer 4. Your executive officer |
1. Your supervisor
|
|
A. DECK SEAMANSHIP
B. BOAT SEAMANSHIP C. MARLINESPIKE SEAMANSHIP IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 27 THROUGH 30, REFER TO FIGURE A AND SELECT THE TERM USED TO DEFINE THE QUESTION. General boat handling. 1. A 2. B 3. C |
2. B
|
|
A. DECK SEAMANSHIP
B. BOAT SEAMANSHIP C. MARLINESPIKE SEAMANSHIP IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 27 THROUGH 30, REFER TO FIGURE A AND SELECT THE TERM USED TO DEFINE THE QUESTION. The general work on the ship’s deck and the equipment used. 1. A 2. B 3. C |
1. A
|
|
A. DECK SEAMANSHIP
B. BOAT SEAMANSHIP C. MARLINESPIKE SEAMANSHIP IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 27 THROUGH 30, REFER TO FIGURE A AND SELECT THE TERM USED TO DEFINE THE QUESTION. Anchoring, mooring, cargo handling, and towing are examples of this type of seamanship. 1. A 2. B 3. C |
1. A
|
|
A. DECK SEAMANSHIP
B. BOAT SEAMANSHIP C. MARLINESPIKE SEAMANSHIP IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 27 THROUGH 30, REFER TO FIGURE A AND SELECT THE TERM USED TO DEFINE THE QUESTION. Care and use of line. 1. A 2. B 3. C |
3. C
|
|
It is important for you to know shipboard
equipment terminology for which of the following reasons? 1. Equipment changes all the time 2. You will have to inventory the equipment once each month 3. You will probably assist the deck force in various seamanship evolutions 4. There are different names for the same equipment |
3. You will probably assist the deck force
in various seamanship evolutions |
|
What is ground tackle?
1. Equipment bolted to the deck 2. Equipment used to anchor and moor with anchors 3. Equipment electrically connected to ground 4. Equipment used to refuel the ship |
2. Equipment used to anchor and moor
with anchors |
|
Which of the following is/are the most
commonly used anchors aboard Navy ships? 1. Lightweight 2. Stockless 3. Both 1 and 2 above 4. Locking pin |
2. Stockless
|
|
How long is a standard shot of anchor chain?
1. 15 fathoms 2. 20 fathoms 3. 25 fathoms 4. 30 fathoms |
1. 15 fathoms
|
|
What device is used to secure shots of anchor
chain together? 1. Link pins 2. Bending shackles 3. Detachable links 4. Securing shackles |
3. Detachable links
|
|
What types of anchor windlasses are used
for lifting the ship’s anchor? 1. Vertical shaft type only 2. Horizontal shaft type only 3. Vertical shaft and horizontal shaft types 4. Lateral shaft type |
3. Vertical shaft and horizontal shaft types
|
|
What device engages the chain links when
hauling anchors on board ship? 1. Wildcat 2. Capstan 3. Gypsy heads 4. Bending shackles |
1. Wildcat
|
|
Which of the following platforms is/are used
in the construction of an accommodation ladder? 1. Middle platform 2. Upper platform 3. Lower platform 4. Both 2 and 3 above |
4. Both 2 and 3 above
|
|
What is the Navy term for gangplank?
1. Brow 2. Ramp 3. Platform 4. Accommodation ladder |
1. Brow
|
|
What lines are used to prevent the ship from
drifting forward or aft? 1. The bowline and the forward spring lines 2. The stern line and after spring lines 3. The forward and after spring lines 4. The bow and stern lines |
3. The forward and after spring lines
|
|
What means are used to protect the sides
of a ship when it is alongside a pier? 1. Doubled lines 2. Camels only 3. Fenders only 4. Camels and fenders |
4. Camels and fenders
|
|
What is the main purpose for deck fittings
aboard ship? 1. To secure mooring lines 2. To connect electrical power 3. To replace stanchions 4. To secure the anchor |
1. To secure mooring lines
|
|
Which of the following is NOT a deck fitting
found aboard ships? 1. Bitts 2. Cleats 3. Bollards 4. Pad eyes |
3. Bollards
|
|
Which of the following is the purpose of boat
booms when ships are at anchor or moored to a buoy? 1. To raise and lower supplies 2. To moor their boats well clear of the side 3. Both 1 and 2 above 4. To raise and lower personnel |
2. To moor their boats well clear of the side
|
|
Which of the following is/are types of boats
used by the Navy? 1. Service craft 2. Combatant craft 3. Boats in general 4. All of the above |
4. All of the above
|
|
A boat is defined as a non-commissioned
waterborne vessel that isn’t designated as a service craft. According to this definition, which of the following are types of boats? 1. Personnel boats 2. Motor whaleboats 3. Utility boats 4. All of the above |
4. All of the above
|
|
Which of the following is a type of service
craft? 1. Riverine craft 2. Patrol craft 3. Ship’s boats 4. Harbor tugs |
4. Harbor tugs
|
|
Which of the following is a type of combatant
craft? 1. Patrol craft 2. Ship’s boats 3. Ferryboats |
1. Patrol craft
|
|
A. AFTER END
B. AMIDSHIP C. FORWARD END D. OUTBOARD E. STARBOARD F. PORT IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 49 THROUGH 53, REFER TO FIGURE B AND SELECT THE TERM DESCRIBED BY THE QUESTION. When facing forward of the boat, your right-hand side is in this direction. 1. C 2. D 3. E 4. F |
3. E
|
|
A. AFTER END
B. AMIDSHIP C. FORWARD END D. OUTBOARD E. STARBOARD F. PORT IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 49 THROUGH 53, REFER TO FIGURE B AND SELECT THE TERM DESCRIBED BY THE QUESTION. The stern of the boat. 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D |
1. A
|
|
A. AFTER END
B. AMIDSHIP C. FORWARD END D. OUTBOARD E. STARBOARD F. PORT IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 49 THROUGH 53, REFER TO FIGURE B AND SELECT THE TERM DESCRIBED BY THE QUESTION. The area furthermost from the boat’s centerline. 1. B 2. C 3. D 4. E |
3. D
|
|
A. AFTER END
B. AMIDSHIP C. FORWARD END D. OUTBOARD E. STARBOARD F. PORT IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 49 THROUGH 53, REFER TO FIGURE B AND SELECT THE TERM DESCRIBED BY THE QUESTION. When facing forward of the boat, your left-hand side is facing this direction. 1. A 2. B 3. E 4. F |
4. F
|
|
A. AFTER END
B. AMIDSHIP C. FORWARD END D. OUTBOARD E. STARBOARD F. PORT IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 49 THROUGH 53, REFER TO FIGURE B AND SELECT THE TERM DESCRIBED BY THE QUESTION. The bow of the boat. 1. B 2. C 3. D 4. F |
2. C
|
|
Nylon line is about how many times stronger
than manila line of the same size? 1. 1 1/2 2. 2 1/2 3. 3 1/2 4. 4 1/2 |
2. 2 1/2
|
|
How is line termed small stuff identified?
1. By the length of the line 2. By the number of threads in the line 3. By the number of strands in the line 4. By the number of cables twisted together |
2. By the number of threads in the line
|
|
Under safe working conditions, nylon line will
stretch what maximum fraction of its length? 1. 1/4 2. 1/3 3. 1/2 4. 2/3 |
2. 1/3
|
|
Nylon line will stretch what maximum
percentage of its length before it will break? 1. 20% 2. 33% 3. 50% 4. 66% |
3. 50%
|
|
A wire rope designated as 5 by 12 has (a) what
number of strands and (b) what number of wires per strand? 1. (a) 5 (b) 12 2. (a) 12 (b) 12 3. (a) 12 (b) 5 4. (a) 5 (b) 5 |
1. (a) 5 (b) 12
|
|
The most secure line whipping is made with
which of the following pieces of equipment? 1. Small needle and palm 2. Wire cutters 3. Hammer 4. Pliers |
1. Small needle and palm
|
|
A. KNOTS
B. HITCHES C. BENDS IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 60 AND 61, REFER TO FIGURE C AND SELECT THE TERM DESCRIBED BY THE QUESTION. 60. Used to bend a line to or around an object. 1. A 2. B 3. C |
2. B
|
|
A. KNOTS
B. HITCHES C. BENDS IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 60 AND 61, REFER TO FIGURE C AND SELECT THE TERM DESCRIBED BY THE QUESTION. Used to form eyes or to secure a cord or line around an object. 1. A 2. B 3. C |
1. A
|
|
The square knot is also known as a
1. granny knot 2. seaman’s knot 3. reef knot 4. top knot |
3. reef knot
|
|
The bowline can be used for which of the
following purposes? 1. To form an eye 2. To bend two lines together 3. To secure a line to a pad eye 4. Each of the above |
4. Each of the above
|
|
The main value of the becket bend is that it
can be used to bend together two lines of different sizes. 1. True 2. False |
1. True
|
|
If there is a great strain on a line, what type
of bend should be used? 1. Becket bend 2. Double becket bend 3. Bowline 4. Double bowline |
2. Double becket bend
|
|
What type of hitch will hold as long as
there’s a strain on it? 1. Two half hitches 2. Two underhanded loops 3. Round and turn and two half hitches 4. Clove hitch |
4. Clove hitch
|
|
Which of the following actions would you
perform to “coil down” a line? 1. Lay line in successive circles with the bitter end in the center 2. Lay line in circles, one on top of the other 3. Lay line in long, flat bights 4. Lay line out in full |
2. Lay line in circles, one on top of the other
|
|
Which of the following actions would you
take to “flemish down” a line? 1. Lay line in successive circles with the bitter end in the center 2. Lay line in circles, one on top of the other 3. Lay line in long, flat bights 4. Lay line out in full |
1. Lay line in successive circles with the
bitter end in the center |
|
When making an eye splice, you should unlay
what number of line strands? 1. 2 to 4 2. 4 to 6 3. 6 to 8 4. 8 to 10 |
4. 8 to 10
|
|
Which of the following procedures is used to
prevent the strands of synthetic line from frazzling after a splice has been made? 1. They are whipped 2. They are melted together 3. They are cut off even with the standing part 4. Each of the above |
2. They are melted together
|
|
Which of the following is the purpose of using
a short splice? 1. To temporarily join two lines together 2. To permanently join two lines together 3. To form an eye 4. Each of the above |
2. To permanently join two lines together
|
|
Which of the following structural components
is the backbone of a ship? 1. Stringer 2. Prow 3. Stem 4. Keel |
4. Keel
|
|
Which of the following structural components
divides the interior of a ship into compartments? 1. Longitudinals 2. Bulkheads 3. Strakes 4. Gunwales |
2. Bulkheads
|
|
Which of the following structural components
form the ship’s hull? 1. Longitudinals 2. Bulkheads 3. Strakes 4. Gunwales |
3. Strakes
|
|
The vertical distance fromthe bottomof the keel
to the waterline of the ship is identified by what nautical term? 1. Freeboard 2. Strake 3. Draft 4. Void |
3. Draft
|
|
Which of the following structural components
support decks? 1. Athwartships deck beams 2. Fore-and-aft deck girders 3. Stanchions 4. All of the above |
4. All of the above
|
|
The freeing ports that let water run off during
heavy weather are identified by which of the following terms? 1. Companionways 2. Bulwarks 3. Scuppers 4. Flats |
3. Scuppers
|
|
Which of the following terms defines the
first complete deck below the main deck? 1. First deck 2. Second deck 3. Third deck 4. Fourth deck |
2. Second deck
|
|
The device that bears up tight on wedges and
holds watertight doors closed is identified by which of the following terms? 1. Dogs 2. Scuttle 3. Coamings 4. Belaying pins |
1. Dogs
|
|
Which of the following terms defines the
horizontal openings for access through decks? 1. Hatches 2. Doors 3. Manholes 4. Scuttles |
1. Hatches
|
|
Which of the following terms defines the
solid part of a ship above the main deck? 1. Superstructure 2. Upper deck 3. Forecastle |
1. Superstructure
|
|
Which of the following is a type of mast?
1. Mizzenmast 2. Mainmast 3. Foremast 4. All of the above |
4. All of the above
|
|
What is the purpose of running rigging?
1. For stays and shroud support 2. To support stacks 3. To hoist, lower, or control booms or boats 4. To support the mast |
3. To hoist, lower, or control booms or boats
|
|
Commissioned ships of the U.S. Navy fly a
commission pennant that is secured to what point? 1. The forecastle 2. Aft of the fantail 3. To a pigstick and hoisted to a truck 4. Level adjacent to the bridge |
3. To a pigstick and hoisted to a truck
|
|
What term identifies the port and starboard
halves of a yard? 1. Yardarms 2. Pigstick 3. Gaff 4. Peak |
1. Yardarms
|
|
The national ensign is flown from what part of a
ship when it is anchored or moored? 1. Jackstaff 2. Flagstaff 3. Pigstick 4. Peak |
2. Flagstaff
|
|
What is the additional ship control space used
by the squadron commander or admiral called? 1. Signal bridge 2. Main control 3. Flag bridge 4. Bridge wind |
3. Flag bridge
|
|
Ships of the U.S. Navy are divided into how
many categories? 1. One 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four |
4. Four
|
|
How many types of ships are included in the
warship category? 1. Five 2. Six 3. Seven 4. Eight |
2. Six
|
|
What type of ship is the center of a modern
naval task force or task group? 1. Aircraft carrier 2. Destroyer 3. Cruiser 4. Submarine |
1. Aircraft carrier
|
|
Approximately how many aircraft are
embarked on Nimitz class CVs? 1. 70 2. 75 3. 80 4. 85 |
4. 85
|
|
What class of cruiser is designated as battle
force capable? 1. Ticonderoga 2. Spruance 3. Arleigh Burke |
1. Ticonderoga
|
|
Which of the following is a principle mission
of a destroyer? 1. Operate offensively against submarines and surface ships 2. Operate defensively against submarines and surface ships 3. Both 1 and 2 above 4. Operate short-range attack against all aircraft |
3. Both 1 and 2 above
|
|
What class destroyer represents a return to
all-steel construction? 1. Kidd class 2. Spruance class 3. Arleigh Burke class |
3. Arleigh Burke class
|
|
Which of the following is the mission of
frigates? 1. Protective screens 2. Open ocean escort and patrol 3. Defensive operations against surface ships 4. Offensive operations against subsurface ships |
2. Open ocean escort and patrol
|
|
What class of submarines has the quietest
operation? 1. Sturgeon 2. Ohio 3. Seawolf |
3. Seawolf
|
|
The Ohio class ballistic submarine has how
many Trident missile tubes? 1. 16 2. 20 3. 24 4. 26 |
3. 24
|
|
The LHA carries what means of defense
against surface and air attack? 1. 5-inch guns only 2. Mk 38 machine guns only 3. 5-inch guns and Mk 38 machine guns |
3. 5-inch guns and Mk 38 machine guns
|
|
How many troops can be embarked in,
transported by, and landed by the Wasp class LHDs? 1. 1,500 2. 2,000 3. 2,500 4. 3,000 |
2. 2,000
|
|
What is the purpose of dock landing ships?
1. To transport amphibious craft only 2. To transport vehicles only 3. To transport troops only 4. To transport a variety of amphibious craft and vehicles with embarked crews and troops |
4. To transport a variety of amphibious craft
and vehicles with embarked crews and troops |
|
Which of the following means is/are used by
Avenger class MCMs to find, classify, and destroy moored and bottom mines? 1. Sonar and video systems 2. Cable cutters 3. A mine-detonating device 4. Each of the above |
4. Each of the above
|
|
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 32 THROUGH 34,
SELECT THE TYPE OF AUXILIARY SHIP DEFINED BY THE QUESTION. An ammunition supply ship. 1. AOE 2. ASR 3. AE 4. AO |
3. AE
|
|
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 32 THROUGH 34,
SELECT THE TYPE OF AUXILIARY SHIP DEFINED BY THE QUESTION. Supply dry and refrigerated stores. 1. AOE 2. ASR 3. AE 4. AO |
1. AOE
|
|
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 32 THROUGH 34,
SELECT THE TYPE OF AUXILIARY SHIP DEFINED BY THE QUESTION. Combat support ship 1. AOE 2. ASR 3. AE 4. AO |
1. AOE
|
|
Which of the following terms applies to the
transfer of fuel, munitions, supplies, and personnel from one vessel to another while ships are under way? 1. Vertical replenishment 2. Horizontal replenishment 3. Replenishment at sea 4. Replenishment while under way |
3. Replenishment at sea
|
|
A separation of what approximate distance is
maintained between the replenishment ship and the ship it’s replenishing? 1. 50 feet 2. 75 feet 3. 100 feet 4. 125 feet |
3. 100 feet
|
|
The AOE is designed to operate at what
approximate distance between itself and the ship it’s replenishing? 1. 150 feet 2. 175 feet 3. 200 feet 4. 225 feet |
3. 200 feet
|
|
Most fleet tugs are operated by which of the
following organizations? 1. U.S. Navy 2. U.S. Coast Guard 3. Army Corps of Engineers 4. Military Sealift Command |
4. Military Sealift Command
|
|
Combatant craft usually operate in what areas?
1. In open waters 2. In coastal waters 3. In intercontinental waters 4. In the deep sea |
2. In coastal waters
|
|
Support craft designations start with what
letter? 1. S 2. T 3. Y 4. Z |
3. Y
|
|
Fixed-wing aircraft are divided into how many
basic parts? 1. One 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four |
3. Three
|
|
What is the primary lifting device of an
aircraft? 1. Tail 2. Wings 3. Ailerons 4. Fuselage |
2. Wings
|
|
What are the three main parts of a helicopter?
1. Tail, rotors, and empennage 2. Tail, rotors, and fuselage 3. Main rotor, fuselage, and tail rotor 4. Main rotor, empennage, and tail rotor |
3. Main rotor, fuselage, and tail rotor
|
|
Attack class planes are used in which of the
following roles? 1. Nuclear strikes 2. Ground support 3. Low-level bombing 4. Each of the above |
4. Each of the above
|
|
What class of aircraft is generally used to gain
air superiority? 1. Attack 2. Fighter 3. Patrol 4. Warning |
2. Fighter
|
|
What helicopter operates and tows mine
countermeasures devices? 1. CH-46 Sea Knight 2. SH-60B Seahawk 3. CH-53D Sea Stallion |
3. CH-53D Sea Stallion
|
|
Which of the following characteristics define
a custom? 1. An act that is continued consistently over a long period of time 2. A well-defined and uniformly followed act 3. A generally accepted act not opposed to a statute, lawful regulation, or order 4. All of the above |
4. All of the above
|
|
Of the following salutes, which one is the
most common? 1. Gun 2. Hand 3. Rifle 4. Ruffles and flourishes |
2. Hand
|
|
When in uniform, Navy personnel are
required to salute when which of the following situations occurs? 1. Meeting officers 2. Hearing the national anthem 3. Approaching the national ensign 4. Each of the above |
4. Each of the above
|
|
In a normal situation, how many paces from
the person being saluted should the hand salute be rendered? 1. Two 2. Four 3. Six 4. Eight |
3. Six
|
|
You may salute with your left hand when
which of the following situations occurs? 1. When in civilian dress 2. When in uniform but uncovered 3. When in complete uniform and your right hand is injured 4. Each of the above |
3. When in complete uniform and
your right hand is injured |
|
Salutes are rendered to all officers of the U.S.
and foreign armed services. Officers belonging to which of the following organizations are also entitled to salutes? 1. Local police departments 2. National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration 3. Public Health Service 4. Both 2 and 3 above |
4. Both 2 and 3 above
|
|
When going aboard ship that’s flying the
national ensign, you must stop on the upper platform on the accommodation ladder or the shipboard end of the brow and take which of the following actions first? 1. Face the national ensign and salute 2. Face the brow of the ship and salute 3. Face the officer of the deck and salute 4. Face the petty officer of the watch and salute |
1. Face the national ensign and salute
|
|
While standing a sentry box, you are
approached by an officer. What type of rifle salute should you render? 1. Present arms 2. At order arms 3. At shoulder arms |
1. Present arms
|
|
You are not required to salute in which
of the following situations? 1. When standing and talking with an officer and a senior officer approaches 2. When guarding prisoners and an officer passes within saluting distance 3. When standing at a bus stop and a car passes carrying officers 4. When walking and passing an officer going in the same direction |
2. When guarding prisoners and an officer
passes within saluting distance |
|
The term honors is defined by which of the
following statements? 1. Formal acts performed on public occasions 2. Hand salutes rendered to high-ranking officials 3. Forms of recognition and respect from one person to another 4. Salutes rendered by a ship, unit, post, station, or an individual to high-ranking individuals, other ships, or nations |
4. Salutes rendered by a ship, unit, post,
station, or an individual to high-ranking individuals, other ships, or nations |
|
Passing honors for ships are exchanged when
ships pass within what distance? 1. 200 yards 2. 400 yards 3. 600 yards 4. 800 yards |
3. 600 yards
|
|
Passing honors for boats are exchanged
when boats pass within what distance? 1. 200 yards 2. 400 yards 3. 600 yards 4. 800 yards |
2. 400 yards
|
|
Your ship is about to render honors to another
ship passing close aboard to starboard. In what order are the appropriate whistle signals given? 1. One blast, one blast, two blasts, three blasts 2. One blast, one blast, three blasts, one blast 3. Two blasts, two blasts, two blasts, three blasts 4. Two blasts, two blasts, three blasts, three blasts |
1. One blast, one blast, two blasts, three
blasts |
|
A crew is paraded at quarters on which of the
following occasions? 1. When the ship is entering a U.S. port for an operational visit 2. When the ship is returning from an extended deployment 3. When the ship is entering home port from a local operation 4. Each of the above |
4. Each of the above
|
|
Gun salutes are normally fired at what time
interval? 1. 5 seconds 2. 10 seconds 3. 15 seconds 4. 20 seconds |
1. 5 seconds
|
|
On which of the following special occasions
is a 21-gun salute fired at 1-minute intervals? 1. Memorial Day 2. President’s Day 3. Independence Day 4. Each of the above |
4. Each of the above
|
|
Which of the following phrases defines
the term ceremony? 1. A regular, expected action 2. A way of acting 3. A formal act performed on a public occasion 4. Each of the above |
3. A formal act performed on a public
occasion |
|
Aboard ship, how many minutes before
morning and evening colors is the PREP pennant hoisted? 1. 1 minute 2. 3 minutes 3. 5 minutes 4. 7 minutes |
3. 5 minutes
|
|
On Navy ships not under way, where is
the union jack displayed? 1. The highest possible point 2. The flagstaff on the stern 3. The jack staff on the bow 4. The gaff |
3. The jack staff on the bow
|
|
A commissioning or command pennant is
half-masted only under which, if any, of the following conditions? 1. When passing Washington’s tomb between sunrise and sunset 2. When passing the Arizona Memorial 3. When the commanding officer or unit commander dies 4. None of the above |
3. When the commanding officer or unit
commander dies |
|
Which of the following naval customs is
observed in the U.S. Navy by ships that are under way? 1. Only the union jack is flown 2. The national ensign is flown day and night 3. Morning and evening colors are held each day 4. Both the national ensign and the union jack are flown |
2. The national ensign is flown day and night
|
|
The national ensign is hoisted and lowered
in which of the following ways? 1. Hoisted ceremoniously, lowered ceremoniously 2. Hoisted ceremoniously, lowered smartly 3. Hoisted smartly, lowered smartly 4. Hoisted smartly, lowered ceremoniously |
4. Hoisted smartly, lowered ceremoniously
|
|
If you are in uniform and covered, how do you
render honors when the national anthem is played indoors but the flag is not displayed? 1. Face the music and uncover 2. Stand at attention while facing the music 3. Hand salute at attention while facing the music 4. Face the music and hold your hat next to your left shoulder |
3. Hand salute at attention while facing the
music |
|
When the national anthem is being played,
Sailors in a boat must adhere to which of the following rules? 1. All persons remain seated or standing and salute 2. Only the coxswain salutes; all others remain seated but uncovered 3. All persons standing salute; all others remain seated at attention 4. Only the boat officer (or, if absent, the coxswain) salutes; all others remain seated at attention |
4. Only the boat officer (or, if absent, the
coxswain) salutes; all others remain seated at attention |
|
What march does the Navy band play to honor
the President of the United States? 1. “Hail, Columbia!” 2. “Admiral’s March” 3. “Hail to the Chief” 4. “Stars and Stripes Forever” |
3. “Hail to the Chief”
|
|
Upon entering an area where Christian divine
services are being held, you, as messenger of the watch, should take which of the following actions? 1. Uncover only 2. Remove you duty belt only 3. Remove you duty belt and uncover 4. Request permission from the chaplain to enter |
1. Uncover only
|
|
An enlisted person and two officers are about
to board a boat. Which of the following procedures should the enlisted person follow in entering the boat? 1. Board first and sit aft 2. Make way for the officers to board, then board and sit in the stern of the boat 3. Make way for the officers to board, then board and sit in the bow of the boat 4. Board first and sit forward, leaving room aft for the officers |
1. Board first and sit aft
|
|
The neckerchief is made from which of the
following materials? 1. Black silk 2. Black acetate 3. Both 1 and 2 above 4. Black cotton |
3. Both 1 and 2 above
|
|
What kind of knot is used to tie a neckerchief?
1. Granny knot 2. Square knot 3. Sheep shank 4. Bowline |
2. Square knot
|
|
What material is used to make
government-issue dress blue jumpers and trousers? 1. Navy twill 2. Wool serge 3. Nylon 4. Rayon |
2. Wool serge
|
|
What material is used to make governmentissue
dress white jumpers and trousers? 1. Navy twill 2. Wool serge 3. Nylon 4. Rayon |
1. Navy twill
|
|
Which of the following uniforms is/are
considered working uniforms? 1. Dungarees 2. Winter blues 3. Both 1 and 2 above 4. Navy twill |
3. Both 1 and 2 above
|
|
When large medals are prescribed for wear
with the dress blue uniform, the uniform is known as 1. mess dress 2. full dress 3. field dress 4. service dress |
2. full dress
|
|
Which of the following uniforms is/are
considered the working uniforms for female Sailors? 1. Belted blue slacks and blue winter shirt 2. Belted blue skirt and blue winter shirt 3. Dungarees 4. Each of the above |
4. Each of the above
|
|
Enlisted Sailors, E-6 and below, are authorized
to wear command or Navy ball caps with what type of uniform? 1. Dungaree 2. Navy twill 3. Wool serge |
1. Dungaree
|
|
Where can you find information on what
is the prescribed uniform of the day? 1. Plan of the Day (POD) only 2. Plan of the Week (POW) only 3. POD or POW 4. Pass down log |
3. POD or POW
|
|
Division officers are required to inspect the
uniforms of nonrated personnel at regular intervals for what reason? 1. As a part of PQS 2. To justify clothing allowance 3. To see if enlisted personnel know what uniforms are prescribed 4. To make sure that each person has the prescribed uniform |
4. To make sure that each person has
the prescribed uniform |
|
Which of the following information is
marked on uniforms? 1. Name 2. Social security number 3. Both 1 and 2 above 4. Rank |
3. Both 1 and 2 above
|
|
What is the largest size stencil authorized
for marking clothing? 1. 1/2 inch 2. 1 inch 3. 1 1/2 inches 4. 2 inches |
2. 1 inch
|
|
The transfer or exchange of enlisted personnel
uniform items must be authorized by which of the following persons? 1. Chief master-at-arms 2. Division officer 3. Executive officer 4. Commanding officer |
4. Commanding officer
|
|
Military personnel may wear authorized
military uniform articles of clothing with civilian clothing including shoes, gloves and the knit watch cap. 1. True 2. False |
1. True
|
|
Occupational groups are identified by what
means? 1. A group mark, which is worn on all uniforms 2. A rate mark, which is worn on the left sleeve of jumpers and white summer shirts 3. A group mark, which is worn on the left sleeve of jumpers and white summer shirts 4. A rate mark, which is worn on all uniforms |
3. A group mark, which is worn on the left
sleeve of jumpers and white summer shirts |
|
What is a striker mark?
1. A specialty designator for seamen only 2. A rating badge for emergencies 3. A specialty mark of a particular rating, worn by personnel in paygrades E-1, E-2, and E-3 who have qualified for the rating 4. A specific date for the air community |
3. A specialty mark of a particular rating,
worn by personnel in paygrades E-1, E-2, and E-3 who have qualified for the rating |
|
How many years of service must a person
complete to be eligible to wear one service stripe (hash mark)? 1. 5 2. 2 3. 3 4. 4 |
4. 4
|
|
How many years of continuous good conduct
are required before a person becomes eligible to wear gold service stripes? 1. 12 2. 10 3. 8 4. 6 |
1. 12
|
|
How can you determine whether an officer
is a line officer or a staff corps officer? 1. By title on the name tag 2. A star is worn on the sleeve or shoulder board of the line officer 3. By the collar devices 4. A designator stripe for the rank |
2. A star is worn on the sleeve or shoulder
board of the line officer |
|
What insignia is worn by officers and enlisted
personnel who have qualified in all phases of surface warfare? 1. Surface warfare 2. Submarine warfare 3. Aviation warfare 4. Special warfare |
1. Surface warfare
|
|
What insignia is worn by personnel who
have qualified to serve in submarines? 1. Surface warfare 2. Submarine warfare 3. Aviation warfare 4. Special warfare |
2. Submarine warfare
|
|
What insignia is worn by personnel
qualified to serve in flight? 1. Surface warfare 2. Submarine warfare 3. Aviation warfare 4. Special warfare |
3. Aviation warfare
|
|
There are how many broad categories
of awards? 1. Four 2. Five 3. Six 4. Seven |
4. Seven
|
|
In what year was the Purple Heart founded
by President Washington? 1. 1776 2. 1780 3. 1782 4. 1786 |
3. 1782
|
|
Which of the following is an example
of a campaign or a service award? 1. Medical Scientific Societies 2. Silver Life Saving Medal 3. Good Conduct Medal 4. Navy “E” |
3. Good Conduct Medal
|
|
What is the maximum number of ribbons
that may be worn in each row? 1. Five 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four |
3. Three
|
|
What means of identification must you
carry with you at all times? 1. Driver’s license 2. Armed forces identification card 3. Liberty card 4. Copy of present set of orders |
2. Armed forces identification card
|
|
Under which of the following circumstances
may you surrender (give up) your ID card? 1. To show a change in rank 2. To correct an error 3. To effect a name change 4. Each of the above |
4. Each of the above
|
|
Which of the following is the purpose of the
armed forces ID card under article 17 of the Geneva Convention? 1. As a means of identification and casualty reporting 2. As a means of grave registration for members who die in a combat zone 3. Both 1 and 2 above 4. As a means of identification for POWs |
4. As a means of identification for POWs
|
|
While on active duty, you must wear your ID
tags under which of the following conditions? 1. In time of war 2. When engaged in flight operations 3. When prescribed by the CNO 4. All of the above |
4. All of the above
|
|
What type of information is found on ID tags?
1. Last name, first name, and middle initial 2. SSN, blood type, and Rh factor 3. Religious preference 4. All of the above |
4. All of the above
|
|
According to grooming standards for men,
how many rings per hand may be worn ? 1. One 2. Two 3. Three 4. As many as they wish |
1. One
|
|
According to grooming standards for women,
what is the maximum length of fingernails (as measured from the tip of the finger)? 1. 1 inch 2. 1/2 inch 3. 3/4 inch 4. 1/4 inch |
4. 1/4 inch
|
|
Enlisted women, E-6 and below, are
authorized to wear ball-type earrings of what (a) size and (b) what color? 1. (a) 6mm (b) gold 2. (a) 6mm (b) silver 3. (a) 5mm (b) gold 4. (a) 5mm (b) silver |
2. (a) 6mm (b) silver
|
|
When personnel are in ranks, the chest of
one person and the back of the person ahead should be what distance apart? 1. 20 inches 2. 30 inches 3. 40 inches 4. 50 inches |
3. 40 inches
|
|
A pace consists of a full step of what length
for (a) men and (b) women? 1. (a) 18 inches (b) 16 inches 2. (a) 24 inches (b) 18 inches 3. (a) 30 inches (b) 24 inches 4. (a) 36 inches (b) 30 inches |
3. (a) 30 inches (b) 24 inches
|
|
Which of the following drill positions is
the basic military position? 1. Rest 2. At ease 3. Attention 4. Parade rest |
3. Attention
|
|
Talk is permitted when you are in which
of the following formation positions? 1. Rest 2. Parade rest 3. At ease |
3. At ease
|
|
How many movements are used to perform
the ABOUT FACE command? 1. Five 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four |
2. Two
|
|
When executing the command FALL IN, the
squad forms in line on which of the following persons? 1. Instructor 2. Squad leader 3. Standard bearer 4. Company commander |
2. Squad leader
|
|
Personnel in formation align themselves
with which of the following persons? 1. Guide 2. Leader 3. Each other 4. Formation director |
3. Each other
|
|
After the command DRESS RIGHT DRESS,
a formation returns to the attention position on which of the following commands? 1. Cover 2. Extend 3. Attention 4. Ready, on the word FRONT |
4. Ready, on the word FRONT
|
|
When the command CLOSE RANKS is
given to members in formation, the fourth rank moves how many paces forward? 1. One 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four |
3. Three
|
|
Every firearm used by Navy personnel has
some type of safety device built in. 1. True 2. False |
1. True
|
|
Which of the following is the prime cause
of accidental shootings? 1. Faulty gun 2. Faulty ammunition 3. Alcohol or drug use by the user 4. Negligence or carelessness of the user |
4. Negligence or carelessness of the user
|
|
Which of the following are acceptable ear
protective devices? 1. Insert type 2. Circumaural type 3. Both 1 and 2 above 4. Cotton type |
3. Both 1 and 2 above
|
|
The M14 rifle is best described by which of
the following groups of characteristics? 1. Medium weight, recoil-operated, magazine-fed, and fully automatic 2. Medium weight, gas-operated, clip-fed, and capable of semiautomatic and fully automatic fire 3. Lightweight, recoil-operated, clip-fed, and semiautomatic 4. Lightweight, gas-operated, magazine-fed, and capable of semiautomatic or automatic fire |
4. Lightweight, gas-operated, magazine-fed,
and capable of semiautomatic or automatic fire |
|
Which of the following types of ammunition
is used with the M14 rifle? 1. 7.62-mm NATO cartridge 2. 20-round magazine 3. M76 grenade launcher 4. Each of the above |
1. 7.62-mm NATO cartridge
|
|
What is the maximum range of the M14 rifle?
1. 2,500 yards 2. 3,250 yards 3. 4,075 yards 4. 5,250 yards |
3. 4,075 yards
|
|
The M16A1 and M16A2 rifles are best
described by which of the following groups of characteristics? 1. Clip-fed, recoil-operated weapons 2. Magazine-fed, recoil-operated shoulder weapons 3. Magazine-fed, gas-operated shoulder weapons 4. Clip-fed, gas-operated weapons |
3. Magazine-fed, gas-operated shoulder
weapons |
|
For what size cartridge is the M16A1
rifle chambered? 1. .38 caliber 2. .45 caliber 3. 5.56 mm 4. 7.62 mm |
3. 5.56 mm
|
|
What is the maximum magazine capacity
of the M16A1 rifle? 1. 15 rounds 2. 25 rounds 3. 30 rounds 4. 35 rounds |
3. 30 rounds
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|
What is the muzzle velocity of the M16A1
and M16A2 rifles? 1. 2,500 feet per second 2. 3,000 feet per second 3. 3,500 feet per second 4. 4,000 feet per second |
2. 3,000 feet per second
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|
What means is used to adjust the rear sights
of the M16A2 rifle? 1. A windage drum 2. A windage knob and an elevation knob 3. A clip lever marked range 4. A slide adjust to windage |
2. A windage knob and an elevation knob
|
|
What is the first step to take when handling
any weapon? 1. Point the selector lever toward SAFE 2. Remove the magazine 3. Visual check of the chamber 4. Lock the bolt open |
1. Point the selector lever toward SAFE
|
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Why should the selector be on SAFE during
assembly and disassembly? 1. To prevent damage to the automatic sear 2. To prevent damage to the firing pin 3. To prevent the barrel from releasing 4. To prevent the rear slide from disengaging |
1. To prevent damage to the automatic sear
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|
When the selection lever is in the burst
position, the M16A1 rifle fires in what way? 1. In short bursts of two rounds 2. In short bursts of three rounds 3. Four rounds each time the trigger is pulled 4. Six rounds each time the trigger is pulled |
2. In short bursts of three rounds
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|
The M16A1 rifle is clear when which of the
following conditions are met? 1. No case or round is in the chamber and the magazine is out 2. The bolt carrier is to the rear 3. The selector lever is on the SAFE position 4. All of the above |
4. All of the above
|
|
When cleaning the barrel bore and chamber
of the M16A1 rifle, you should not reverse the brush while in the bore for what reason? 1. The barrel slide will be damaged 2. The bore may jam 3. The trigger pin will need to be replaced 4. The bore cleaner will not work |
2. The bore may jam
|
|
What parts of the barrel bore and chamber
should you lubricate after you’ve finished cleaning them? 1. The locking lugs 2. The extractor ejector 3. The lugs in the barrel extension 4. The magazine springs |
3. The lugs in the barrel extension
|
|
When cleaning ammunition magazines, you
need to make sure the magazine is dry for what reason? 1. The magazine and ammunition can corrode and become dangerous to use 2. The spring action will tighten up 3. The ammunition will jam 4. The magazine won’t load |
1. The magazine and ammunition can
corrode and become dangerous to use |
|
The .38-caliber revolver is best described
by which of the following groups of characteristics? 1. Cylinder-loading, single- or double-action, manually operated hand gun 2. Semiautomatic, recoil-operated, magazine-fed hand gun 3. Semiautomatic, cylinder-loading double-action hand gun 4. Cylinder-loading, recoil-operated, manually operated hand gun |
1. Cylinder-loading, single- or double-action,
manually operated hand gun |
|
The .45-caliber service pistol is best described
by which of the following groups of characteristics? 1. Cylinder-loading, single- or double-action, manually operated hand gun 2. Semiautomatic, recoil-operated, magazine-fed hand gun 3. Semiautomatic, cylinder-loading double-action hand gun 4. Cylinder-loading, recoil-operated, manually operated hand gun |
2. Semiautomatic, recoil-operated,
magazine-fed hand gun |
|
The .45-caliber revolver has what maximum
range and maximum effective range, respectively? 1. 1,800 yards, 75 yards 2. 1,500 yards, 50 yards 3. 1,450 yards, 45 yards 4. 1,250 yards, 30 yards |
2. 1,500 yards, 50 yards
|
|
The magazine capacity of the 9mm service
pistol can hold how many rounds in the magazine? 1. 5 rounds 2. 10 rounds 3. 15 rounds 4. 20 rounds |
3. 15 rounds
|
|
The 9mm service pistol is best described
by which of the following groups of characteristics? 1. Semiautomatic, recoil-operated, magazine-fed hand gun 2. Semiautomatic, magazine-fed, recoil-operated, double-action pistol 3. Semiautomatic, cylinder-loading double-action hand gun 4. Semiautomatic, magazine-fed, single-action pistol |
2. Semiautomatic, magazine-fed,
recoil-operated, double-action pistol |
|
Which of the following are safety features
incorporated in the 9mm service pistol? 1. Ambidextrous safety 2. Firing pin block 3. Half cock notch 4. All of the above |
4. All of the above
|
|
What safety feature of the 9mm pistol
prevents accidental discharge? 1. Firing pin block 2. Half cock notch 3. Muzzle pressure 4. Rear trigger guard |
2. Half cock notch
|
|
The advantage of shotguns over pistols
is that sight alignment is not as critical. 1. True 2. False |
1. True
|
|
What maximum number of rounds of
12-gauge, 2 3/4-inch ammunition will the magazine of the M870 shotgun hold? 1. One 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four |
4. Four
|
|
QUESTIONS 28 THROUGH 33 REFER TO RIFLE
FIRING TECHNIQUES. When firing a rifle, what factors make up the sight picture? 1. Rear sight 2. Correct aiming point only 3. Sight alignment only 4. Correct aiming point and sight alignment |
4. Correct aiming point and sight alignment
|
|
QUESTIONS 28 THROUGH 33 REFER TO RIFLE
FIRING TECHNIQUES. What is meant by the term “eye relief”? 1. The different distance from the rear sight of your aiming eye, depending on your firing position 2. The distance of your eye from the peep sight in any particular firing position 3. The height of the rear sight 4. The height of the front sight |
1. The different distance from the rear sight
of your aiming eye, depending on your firing position |
|
QUESTIONS 28 THROUGH 33 REFER TO RIFLE
FIRING TECHNIQUES. What is meant by the terms “spot weld” or “anchor”? 1. The distance of your eye from the peep sight in any particular firing position 2. Holding your rifle in the exact same position to make sure your eye stays the same distance from the peep hole 3. The distance of your eye from the peep sight, depending on your firing position |
2. Holding your rifle in the exact same
position to make sure your eye stays the same distance from the peep hole |
|
QUESTIONS 28 THROUGH 33 REFER TO RIFLE
FIRING TECHNIQUES. What is the focus for the eye? 1. The front sight 2. The rear sight 3. The aiming point 4. The sight picture |
1. The front sight
|
|
QUESTIONS 28 THROUGH 33 REFER TO RIFLE
FIRING TECHNIQUES. What is the correct aiming point on a type “A” target? 1. 3 o’clock 2. 6 o’clock 3. 9 o’clock |
2. 6 o’clock
|
|
QUESTIONS 28 THROUGH 33 REFER TO RIFLE
FIRING TECHNIQUES. What elements do you need to align to get a correct sight picture? 1. The rear sight only 2. The front sight only 3. The bull’s eye only 4. The rear sight, front sight, and bull’s eye |
4. The rear sight, front sight, and bull’s eye
|
|
How many standard firing positions are taught
in the Navy? 1. Two 2. Three 3. Four 4. Five |
2. Three
|
|
Which of the following firing positions is most
useful when you are constantly firing and moving? 1. Sitting 2. Standing 3. Kneeling |
2. Standing
|
|
Which of the following firing positions is most
useful when you are on level ground or firing uphill? 1. Sitting 2. Standing 3. Kneeling |
3. Kneeling
|
|
Which of the following firing positions is most
useful when you are firing downhill? 1. Sitting 2. Standing 3. Kneeling |
1. Sitting
|
|
What is the key to trigger control?
1. Squeeze the trigger smoothly, gradually, and evenly straight to the rear 2. Placing the finger at the very tip of the trigger 3. Constant pressure on the trigger 4. Squeeze the trigger quickly and evenly straight to the rear |
1. Squeeze the trigger smoothly, gradually,
and evenly straight to the rear |
|
Remembering which of the following
acronyms will help you remember correct shooting techniques? 1. AIM 2. RELAX 3. BRASS 4. SLACK |
3. BRASS
|
|
You should take a breath, let out a little air,
and then hold your breath until you fire your rifle. However, if you haven’t fired within 10 seconds, what should you do? 1. Breath normally and continue squeezing the trigger 2. Take another breath and start the aiming procedure over 3. Let out more air and firmly jerk the trigger 4. Continue holding your breath and start the aiming procedure over |
2. Take another breath and start the aiming
procedure over |
|
QUESTIONS 41 THROUGH 43 REFER TO FIRING
TECHNIQUES FOR THE 9mm SERVICE PISTOL. What is a correct sight picture? 1. Correct sight alignment and correct aiming point 2. Off center to the target 3. Bottom of the picture 4. Top of the picture |
1. Correct sight alignment and correct aiming
point |
|
QUESTIONS 41 THROUGH 43 REFER TO FIRING
TECHNIQUES FOR THE 9mm SERVICE PISTOL. The pistol can be accurately fired from how many positions? 1. Two 2. Three 3. Four 4. Five |
2. Three
|
|
QUESTIONS 41 THROUGH 43 REFER TO FIRING
TECHNIQUES FOR THE 9mm SERVICE PISTOL. Missing the target is most often caused by 1. sight misalignment 2. bent barrel 3. improper trigger squeeze 4. bad ammunition |
3. improper trigger squeeze
|
|
The damage control organization is divided
into how many parts? 1. One 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four |
2. Two
|
|
QUESTIONS 2 THROUGH 13 REFER TO THE
ADMINISTRATIVE ORGANIZATION OF DAMAGE CONTROL. What person coordinates the efforts of repair parties to control damage? 1. The damage control assistant 2. The operations officer 3. The executive officer 4. The weapons officer |
1. The damage control assistant
|
|
QUESTIONS 2 THROUGH 13 REFER TO THE
ADMINISTRATIVE ORGANIZATION OF DAMAGE CONTROL. Which of the following are duties of the administrative organization of damage control? 1. Records and schedules for maintenance 2. Written doctrine and procedures relating to damage control 3. Ship’s bills 4. All of the above |
4. All of the above
|
|
QUESTIONS 2 THROUGH 13 REFER TO THE
ADMINISTRATIVE ORGANIZATION OF DAMAGE CONTROL. Which of the following are duties of the executive officer? 1. Ship’s survivability training 2. Readiness to manage casualties 3. Control and recover from damage 4. Each of the above |
4. Each of the above
|
|
QUESTIONS 2 THROUGH 13 REFER TO THE
ADMINISTRATIVE ORGANIZATION OF DAMAGE CONTROL. What officer is designated as the ship’s damage control officer? 1. The commanding officer 2. The executive officer 3. The engineer officer 4. The operations officer |
3. The engineering officer
|
|
QUESTIONS 2 THROUGH 13 REFER TO THE
ADMINISTRATIVE ORGANIZATION OF DAMAGE CONTROL. The DCA is the primary assistant to the damage control officer. As such, the DCA has which of the following responsibilities? 1. Training the ship’s DC personnel 2. Administration of the ship’s DC organization 3. Maintain records of DC personnel PQS accomplishment for all hands 4. All of the above |
4. All of the above
|
|
QUESTIONS 2 THROUGH 13 REFER TO THE
ADMINISTRATIVE ORGANIZATION OF DAMAGE CONTROL. What requirements must a petty officer have to be designated as the damage control petty officer (DCPO)? 1. Be a PO2 or above 2. Complete the PQS 3. Complete the fire-fighting school 4. Be designated by the LCPO |
2. Complete the PQS
|
|
QUESTIONS 2 THROUGH 13 REFER TO THE
ADMINISTRATIVE ORGANIZATION OF DAMAGE CONTROL. Normally, the job of DCPO is held for what period of time? 1. 12 months 2. 9 months 3. 3 months 4. 6 months |
4. 6 months
|
|
QUESTIONS 2 THROUGH 13 REFER TO THE
ADMINISTRATIVE ORGANIZATION OF DAMAGE CONTROL. Which of the following is/are responsibilities of the DCPO? 1. Assist in the instruction of division personnel in damage control 2. Prepare and maintain damage control checkoff lists for their spaces 3. Make required reports 4. All of the above |
4. All of the above
|
|
QUESTIONS 2 THROUGH 13 REFER TO THE
ADMINISTRATIVE ORGANIZATION OF DAMAGE CONTROL. What person is responsible for determining the safe entry of personnel into closed or poorly ventilated spaces? 1. The gas free engineer 2. The fire marshal 3. The DCA 4. The XO |
1. The gas free engineer
|
|
QUESTIONS 2 THROUGH 13 REFER TO THE
ADMINISTRATIVE ORGANIZATION OF DAMAGE CONTROL. What person is designated to aid the DCA train personnel and to prevent and fight fires? 1. The gas free engineer 2. The fire marshal 3. The DCPO 4. The LCPO |
2. The fire marshal
|
|
QUESTIONS 2 THROUGH 13 REFER TO THE
ADMINISTRATIVE ORGANIZATION OF DAMAGE CONTROL. What action is taken if the fire marshal finds hazards that relate to poor housekeeping during a daily inspection? 1. Record and advise the responsible division 2. Submit discrepancy report to DCA with copies to XO and department head 3. Have the division LCPO schedule corrective action 4. Report the hazard to the safety department |
2. Submit discrepancy report to DCA with
copies to XO and department head |
|
QUESTIONS 2 THROUGH 13 REFER TO THE
ADMINISTRATIVE ORGANIZATION OF DAMAGE CONTROL. The fire marshal has which of the following responsibilities? 1. Submitting reports citing hazards and recommendations for their correction 2. Setting up a fire watch team before regular overhauls 3. Both 1 and 2 above 4. Inspecting the engineering department |
3. Both 1 and 2 above
|
|
QUESTIONS 14 THROUGH 17 REFER TO THE
BATTLE ORGANIZATION OF DAMAGE CONTROL. What is the purpose of the ship’s damage control battle organization? 1. To stand at ready for the battle to be over 2. To restore the ship to as near normal operation as possible 3. To comfort injured crew members 4. When directed, to take charge of the weapons |
2. To restore the ship to as near normal
operation as possible |
|
QUESTIONS 14 THROUGH 17 REFER TO THE
BATTLE ORGANIZATION OF DAMAGE CONTROL. In the damage control battle organization, what person is responsible for controlling damage; fighting fires; CBR countermeasures; and control of stability, list, and trim? 1. The DCPO 2. The DCA 3. The XO 4. The CO |
2. The DCA
|
|
QUESTIONS 14 THROUGH 17 REFER TO THE
BATTLE ORGANIZATION OF DAMAGE CONTROL. What are the primary damage control battle organization unit(s)? 1. Repair parties 2. Navigation crew 3. Deck crews 4. Engineering personnel |
1. Repair parties
|
|
QUESTIONS 14 THROUGH 17 REFER TO THE
BATTLE ORGANIZATION OF DAMAGE CONTROL. What is the nerve center of the directing force for directing the damage control organization? 1. DCC or CCS 2. Bridge 3. Aft steering 4. DC locker 5 |
1. DCC or CCS
|
|
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 18 THROUGH 21,
SELECT THE REPAIR PARTY THAT IS IDENTIFIED BY THE FUNCTION USED AS THE QUESTION. Main deck repair. 1. Repair 1 2. Repair 3 3. Repair 5 4. Repair 7 |
1. Repair 1
|
|
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 18 THROUGH 21,
SELECT THE REPAIR PARTY THAT IS IDENTIFIED BY THE FUNCTION USED AS THE QUESTION. Propulsion repair. 1. Repair 1 2. Repair 3 3. Repair 5 4. Repair 7 |
3. Repair 5
|
|
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 18 THROUGH 21,
SELECT THE REPAIR PARTY THAT IS IDENTIFIED BY THE FUNCTION USED AS THE QUESTION. Ordnance. 1. Repair 2 2. Repair 4 3. Repair 6 4. Repair 8 |
3. Repair 6
|
|
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 18 THROUGH 21,
SELECT THE REPAIR PARTY THAT IS IDENTIFIED BY THE FUNCTION USED AS THE QUESTION. Electronic casualty control. 1. Repair 2 2. Repair 4 3. Repair 6 4. Repair 8 |
4. Repair 8
|
|
Each repair party should be capable of
performing which of the following functions? 1. Rigging casualty power 2. Controlling flooding 3. Extinguishing all types of fires 4. Each of the above |
4. Each of the above
|
|
When in port, the ship has which of the
following duty section components available to respond to any type of casualty? 1. In port emergency teams 2. Salvage teams 3. Duty DC watch 4. Deck department |
1. In port emergency teams
|
|
The rescue and assistance detail must have
which of the following qualifications? 1. Be qualified as an emergency team member 2. Be qualified in first aid 3. Both 1 and 2 above 4. Have passed the PRT |
3. Both 1 and 2 above
|
|
General quarters is an all hands evolution—it
is the highest state of readiness of the ship. 1. True 2. False |
1. True
|
|
Which of the following statements describes a
correct GQ route to follow? 1. Forward in the passageways and down ladders on the starboard side 2. Aft in the passageways and down ladders on the port side 3. Forward in the passageways and up ladders on the port side 4. Aft in the passageways and up ladders on the starboard side |
1. Forward in the passageways and down
ladders on the starboard side |
|
Which of the following is an emergency
damage control communications system? 1. 2JZ 2. 6JZ 3. X40J 4. X24J |
3. X40J
|
|
What system signals override microphone
control stations to notify the ship’s crew of imminent danger? 1. Alarms for collision, chemical attack, general, and flight crash 2. General announcing system 3. DC controls 4. Bridge alarms |
1. Alarms for collision, chemical attack,
general, and flight crash |
|
A. COLLISION
B. CHEMICAL ATTACK C. GENERAL D. FLIGHT CRASH IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 29 THROUGH 31, REFER TO FIGURE A AND SELECT THE TERM USED TO DEFINE THE QUESTION. This alarm is sounded by the OOD or PreFly notifying ship’s company of a pending or actual flight deck emergency. 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D |
4. D
|
|
A. COLLISION
B. CHEMICAL ATTACK C. GENERAL D. FLIGHT CRASH IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 29 THROUGH 31, REFER TO FIGURE A AND SELECT THE TERM USED TO DEFINE THE QUESTION. This alarm is sounded when there is a possibility that the ship will be struck by another waterborne unit. 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D |
1. A
|
|
A. COLLISION
B. CHEMICAL ATTACK C. GENERAL D. FLIGHT CRASH IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 29 THROUGH 31, REFER TO FIGURE A AND SELECT THE TERM USED TO DEFINE THE QUESTION. When this alarm is sounded, all hands report to their preassigned stations and set material condition ZEBRA. 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D |
1. A
|
|
Which of the following means of
communications is used when all other methods have failed? 1. Messengers 2. Sound-powered telephones 3. Morse Code 4. Bullhorn |
1. Messengers
|
|
All Navy ships have how many material
conditions of readiness? 1. One 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four |
3. Three
|
|
What material condition sets the highest
degree of watertight integrity? 1. ZEBRA 2. YOKE 3. XRAY |
1. ZEBRA
|
|
Which of the following fittings are closed
when condition ZEBRA is set? 1. DOG Z fittings 2. Circle X fittings 3. Y fittings 4. All of the above |
4. All of the above
|
|
What means, if any, is used by repair parties to
find damage control fittings and closures in each compartment? 1. Master alfa list 2. Compartment checkoff lists 3. DC compartment checks 4. None |
2. Compartment checkoff lists
|
|
The Damage Control Closure Log is
maintained in which of the following locations? 1. DCC 2. Quarterdeck 3. Both 1 and 2 above 4. Engineering spaces |
1. DCC
|
|
Which of the following logs is a list of all
DC-related fittings that don’t work properly? 1. Damage Control Closure Log 2. Fire marshal pass down log 3. Inoperative Fittings and Closures Log 4. Bridge log |
3. Inoperative Fittings and Closures Log
|
|
What fittings are secured when the ship is set
for “darken ship”? 1. WILLIAM 2. Circle WILLIAM 3. DOG ZEBRA 4. Circle ZEBRA |
3. DOG ZEBRA
|
|
The emergency escape breathing device
(EEBD) supplies breathable air for what maximum period of time? 1. 10 minutes 2. 15 minutes 3. 20 minutes 4. 25 minutes |
2. 15 minutes
|
|
With training, you should be able to activate
the EEBD within what maximum period of time? 1. 10 seconds 2. 20 seconds 3. 30 seconds 4. 40 seconds |
3. 30 seconds
|
|
Which of the following breathing devices
should NOT be worn for fire-fighting purposes? 1. OBA 2. SEED 3. SCBA |
2. SEED
|
|
Which of the following is the primary fire
fighting tool for respiratory protection? 1. EEBD 2. SEED 3. OBA 4. SCBA |
4. SCBA
|
|
From the time it is activated, each cylinder
used in the self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) will last approximately what length of time? 1. 15 minutes 2. 30 minutes 3. 45 minutes 4. 60 minutes |
2. 30 minutes
|
|
Which of the following substances must be
present to start a fire? 1. Oxygen 2. Heat 3. Fuel 4. All of the above |
4. All of the above
|
|
In the fire tetrahedron, how many components
are necessary for combustion? 1. One 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four |
4. Four
|
|
Flammable materials give off vapors. What is
the lowest temperature that these vapors burn when a spark is applied? 1. Ambient temperature 2. Room temperature 3. Flash point 4. Ignition point |
3. Flash point
|
|
What term is used to describe the lowest
temperature at which spontaneous combustion occurs? 1. Flash point 2. Ignition point 3. Ambient temperature 4. Room temperature |
2. Ignition point
|
|
Heat from fire can be transferred by how many
methods? 1. One 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four |
3. Three
|
|
What method of heat transfer occurs when
heat moves from one body to another by direct contact? 1. Conduction 2. Convection 3. Radiation 4. Reflection |
1. Conduction
|
|
What method of heat transfer occurs through
the motion of smoke, hot air, and heated gases? 1. Conduction 2. Convection 3. Radiation 4. Reflection |
2. Convection
|
|
What type of heat transfer occurs when heat
moves in all direction unless blocked? 1. Conduction 2. Convection 3. Radiation 4. Reflection |
3. Radiation
|
|
Which of the following agents should be used
to extinguish a class B fire? 1. Water 2. AFFF 3. PKP 4. Both 2 and 3 above |
4. Both 2 and 3 above
|
|
Which of the following agents should be used
to extinguish class A or D fires? 1. Water 2. AFFF 3. PKP 4. Both 2 and 3 above |
1. Water
|