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180 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
How soon after injury is wound healing initiated |
immediately |
|
upon injury, a significant increase in wound strenght begins to occur |
within 3 to 5 days |
|
granulation tissue is made up of new capillaries, ___, and ____ |
fibroblast; endothelial cells |
|
if the skin surrounding a wound is very tight and under tension |
wound contraction will be limited |
|
a ___ drain is the most commonly used passive drain in small animal practice and is generally placed into smaller wounds with dead space |
penrose |
|
which of the following statements concerning the final phase of wound healing is most accurate |
the final phase of wound healing is maturation, which may occur for several years but does not ever regain normal tissue strength |
|
in addition to casts, what type of external fixation is often used in cattle with tibial or radial fractures |
modified thomas splint |
|
you see a coworker apply a wooden block to an unaffected dewclaw on a horse. what might be the reason |
both b and c are possible reasons |
|
which of the following is not a factor when choosing the type of wound closure to use on an injured patient |
past inoculations or vaccinations |
|
allowing a wound to heal completely without surgical closure is known as ___ healing |
second-intention |
|
you are applying an occlusive nonadherent primary layer bandage, which |
will retain moisture and remain impermeable to air |
|
the ___is the most commonly applied distal limb bandage in small animals |
modified robert jones |
|
when discharging a patient wearing a cast, client education is essential but may not include which of the following |
giving diet restrictions |
|
a foul odor emanating from any part of a cast indicates |
tissue damage |
|
blistering at the site of a burn indicates a _____ -degree burn |
second |
|
abrasions should be treated by |
no surgical intervention; healing should be allowed to occur by reepithelialization |
|
a patient arrives in the emergency are with a severe full-thickness burn in the inflammatory stage. the wound is heavily contaminated. you will apply |
a sterile wet to dry primary bandage layer |
|
an injury in which skin and varying amounts of ligaments, tendons, muscles, and bone are torn off the underlying tissue of a limb would be described as a |
degloving injury |
|
which of the following statements about decubital ulcers is most accurate |
decubital ulcers form over bony prominences |
|
when removing an equine limb cast, the cuts in the cast should be made longitudinally along |
the medial and lateral surfaces |
|
proud flesh is |
exuberant granulation tissue that can form on the limbs of horses during wound healing |
|
when applying a bandage on the lower limb of a horse, apply topical medication, nonadhearing dressing, and then |
rolled conforming gauze, a padded layer, conforming gauze, and elastic wrap |
|
how does an equine lower-limb support bandage differ from a lower-limb wound bandage |
with a support bandage, the underlying wound dressing and inner conforming gauze layers are not used |
|
why must the thick bandage placed under a larger animal limb splint extend well above and below the ends of the splint |
to prevent pressure sores |
|
how often should a splint be reset in a foal |
daily |
|
you are incorporating a cast into a modified robert jones bandage, placing it between the elastic gauze layer and outer protective layer. you are careful to avoid folds or wrinkles in the bandage because otherwise |
it can cause pressure necrosis (tissue death) |
|
how might a broom handle be used in the application of an equine limb cast |
it is threaded through a loop of wire attached to the hoof wall to apply traction to the limb to keep it perpendicular to the body |
|
when casting an equine limb, after the initial layer of casting material is applied, external traction to the limb is often removed and an assistant is asked to support the leg at the metacarparl or metatarsal bone. what is the best way for the assistant to hold the limb |
gently with the limb resting on the palms of both hands, which are under the metacarpus or metatarsus region |
|
when applying casting materials around the limb, overlap successive layers by |
one-third to one-half |
|
the exercise program for an equine in a limb cast is best described as |
stall rest only |
|
which of the following is a non-weight-bearing sling applied to the pelvic limb to protect the hip joint |
ehmer sling |
|
which of the following is an effective technique for controlling exuberant granulation tissue |
all of the above |
|
according to the FDA center for veterinary medicine (CVM), an ADE is |
any adverse event associated with a drug that may or may not be drug related and that resulted regardless of whether the drug was used according to the "FDA-approved" labeling |
|
a drug that exactly produces the actions of a natural body substances when it binds to its receptor is called |
agonist |
|
what organ is the pirmary site for drug metabolism |
liver |
|
highly irritating drugs can severely damage blood vessels and surrounding tissues if |
injected outside the vein |
|
a veterinarian who has a patient with congestive heart failure (CHF) administers ____ in hopes of improving the heart's ability to pump blood by increasing the calcium concentration |
digoxin |
|
some collie breeds and collie breed mixes may have increased sensitivity to which of the following parasiticides |
ivermectin |
|
the clinical uses of ____ are for systemic vasodilation and to decrease circulating levels of aldosterone, which facilitates sodium excretion and diuresis |
angiotensin-coverting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors |
|
which of the following drugs are you most likely to give to a patient with edema |
diuretics |
|
your patient is being administered an antiemetic, which is needed to |
prevent vomiting |
|
a 10% concentration of solution contains ____ of a drug per ____ of solution |
10mL; 100mL |
|
drugs that stimulate bile flow in the liver are called |
choleretics |
|
if 480ml of 0.9% sodium chloride is to be infused intravenously over 24 hours, what is the correct infusion rate if the set delivers 60 drops/ml |
20 drops/min |
|
both intermediate-acting insulin and long-acting insulin for treatment of diabetes mellitus (DM) are administered |
subcutaneously |
|
which of the following statements is true concerning veterinary use of controlled substances |
a controlled substance is a substance of high abuse potential for which detailed written records of amounts used and amounts on hand are required |
|
an example of a nutraceutical used in veterinary medicine includes |
glucosamine/ chondroitin sulfate |
|
medications dispensed that are considered unsafe for laypersons to administer without monitory by a licensed veterinarian are called ____ drugs and bear the "caution" sign, which restricts the use of the drugs |
legend |
|
what certification identifies to the public those online pharmacy sites that are appropriately licensed and legitimately operating over the internet |
VIPPS |
|
syncope is |
fainting |
|
while waiting for culture and sensitivity testing, empiric antibacterial therapy involves choosing a specific antibacterial based on |
the most likely infecting organism, the antimicrobial's spectrum of activity, the site of infection, and the risk of toxicity |
|
hypoadrenocorticism is |
due to a decrease in adrenal gland function |
|
the ____ act was introduced in 1970 to regulate the manufactureing, distribution, and dispensing of controlled substances |
controlled substances |
|
which of the following is true regarding the impact of disease on pharmacokinetics |
cardiovascular disease increases the risk of toxicity to the heart and brain due to increased blood distribution to those organs |
|
therapeutic drug monitoring is |
all of the above |
|
which of the following medication routes has the highest bioavailability |
intravenous |
|
which of the following statements concerning transduction is most accurate |
transduction is the conversion of energy into electrical impulses in specialized nerve endings in response to pain that exceeds the nociceptor's threshold |
|
one common physiologic response to pain is |
an increased heart rate and blood pressure level |
|
a new horse owner calls to say her 6-year-old quarter horse gelding is sweating, kicking at his abdomen, pawing, and rolling. this horse is exhibiting signs of |
abdominal pain (colic) |
|
a 2-year-old bernese mountain dog is biting, licking, and scratching at the bandage placed over the site of a recent surgical cranial cruciate-ligament repair. the best way to handle him is to |
evaluate him for pain, treat his pain as necessary, and then restrain him from chewing |
|
in small animals, loud, persistent vocalizing after an operation is generally considered a |
sign of significant pain and or anxiety that needs attention |
|
the analgesic effect of opiod is due to their |
interaction with specific opiod receptors in the brain and spinal cord |
|
at high doses, narcotics can cause excitement in |
horses |
|
the analgesic effect of NSAIDs is due to |
modification of the inflammatory response |
|
the term antipyretic is used to describe a drug that relieves |
fever |
|
___ refers to an increased response to a stimulus that is normally painful so that less and less stimulation is required to produce pain, whereas ___ refers to the production of pain in response to a stimulus that does not normally provoke pain |
hyperalgesia; allodynia |
|
you are unsure whether a ferret that has received an adreanalectomy is experiencing a significant amount of pain. what is the best way to determine whether this patient needs analgesics |
the rule of thumb is that if a procedure would be painful for you to endure, it is likely that it is painful for the animal |
|
in both the horse and dog, what is the most commonly encountered adverse reaction to NSAIDs |
gastrointestinal upset |
|
pain is considered to play such an important role in overall health and well-being that it is now considered a fifth |
vital sign |
|
kappa and mu are |
types of opioid receptors in the central nervous system |
|
multimodal analgesia takes advantage of the ____ obtained by combining two or more classes of anaglesic drugs to alter more than one phase |
synergistic effects |
|
which trait of siberian huskies and dobermans make people think of them as more "sensitive" to pain than other breeds |
vocalizing regularly |
|
the presence of both hyperalgesia and allodynia collectively is called |
the wind-up phenomenon |
|
elective soft tissue procedures for dogs, such as spaying or castration, usually require how many days of postoperative treatment with NSAIDs |
3 to 4 days |
|
joint supplements are used more commonly in ____than in any other species |
horses |
|
which of the following is a normal finding when using a2-agonists |
bradycardia |
|
which is the correct order of the phases of nociception |
transduction, transmission, modulation |
|
which of the following best describes the concept of preemptive analgesia |
the best way to treat pain is to prevent it |
|
lidocaine and bupivacaine are examples or which drug class |
local anesthetics |
|
you are about to administer medication to a 24-month-old dairy cow. you understand that one drug that is prohibited for this patient is |
phenylbutazone |
|
which of the following describes the transduction phase of nociception |
the conversion of energy into an electrical impulse |
|
based on his interactions and observations with a patient, a rottweiler named hank, a veterinary technician wants to increase the dose of analgesia to respond to hank's pain. when discussing with the clinician, which of the following is best way to phrase the technician's concern |
hank's pain seems to be causing him quite a bit of distress. he's gnawing at his leg until it bleeds, and he hasn't slept for more than a few hours at a time. may i increase his analgesic dosage to see if it makes him more comfortable |
|
a balanced anesthetic protocol might include |
tranquilizer |
|
the cole endotracheal tube, which is tapered and has no cuff, is used for birds because |
they do not have an expandable trachea |
|
cylinders containing ____ are white or green, and cylinders containing ___ are blue |
oxygen; nitrous oxide |
|
which of the following should be followed to reduce heat loss during anesthetic procedures |
warm iv fluids before administration |
|
prior to the induction of anesthesia, small animals should have food and water withheld for ___ hours and ___ hours, respectively |
8 to 12; 2 to 4 |
|
an esophageal stethoscope is used to monitor the |
heart rate |
|
an electrocardiogram yields information about |
the heart's electrical activity |
|
the respiratory rate and adequacy of ventilation may be measured using |
capnograph |
|
in horses, what are indications of light anesthesia |
nystagmus |
|
excessive anesthetic depth may be indicated by |
loss of muscle tone |
|
which of the following can be administered epidurally |
opiods |
|
after intubation, what must be done before inflating the cuff to its proper level |
connect the tube connector to the breathing circuit |
|
an animal's endotracheal tube may be removed once the ____ reflex returns |
swallowing |
|
while ruminants are recovering from anesthesia, they should be placed in the ____position |
sternal recumbent |
|
a preanesthetic agent is used to |
calm and prepare the patient for anesthetic induction |
|
when is atropine of glycopyrrolate included in a preanesthetic regimen |
when bradycardia or excessive salivation is anticipated |
|
your patient has been intubated, but begins to experience ____, a complication in which the glottis forcibly closes during intubation |
laryngospasm |
|
anesthetic induction is best defined as |
the process used to take the patient from a state of consciousness to general anesthesia |
|
arf is a healthy mixed-breed dog undergoing anesthesia. you will assess and record arf's vital signs every |
5 minutes |
|
you are monitoring anesthesia for a miniture schnauzer undergoing radial fracture repair. the surgeon ask you to "sigh" the patient. what do you do |
apply gentle inflation manually every few minutes |
|
what agent is used to desensitize the larynx for endotracheal tube placement |
topical lidocaine |
|
hypoventilation can lead to atelectasis, which can result in |
decreased gas exchange and hypoxemia |
|
the focus of the physical assessemnt before anesthesia administration should be on the nervous, ____, and pulmonary systems |
cardiovascular |
|
which of the following is a common acepromazine combination |
BAG (butorphanol, acepromazine, glycopyrrolate) |
|
which of the following is not a potential adverse effect of anticholinergics |
bradycardia |
|
oxygen cylinders should be changed when either the pressure reaches ____ psi, or when it does not have enough gas to last the anticipated length of the procedure |
500 |
|
in a rebreathing system, the ____ allows excess gases to exit the breathing circuit and transfers these waste gases to the scavenging system |
pop-off valve |
|
oxygen saturation of less than ____ indicates hypoxemia that requires treatment |
90% |
|
four unique patients are assigned the following american society of anesthesiologists (ASA) physical status classifications. which of the following is most urgent |
p2e |
|
opioid ____ are used to wake patients following opiod sedation |
antagonists |
|
part of your decision to use a non-rebreathing system for a particular patient is the fact that this patient weighs less than ___ kg |
7 |
|
the patient will be predisposed to ___ if the endotracheal tube is inserted to far |
both a and c |
|
which of the following is a non-bearing circuit in the mapleson classification system |
all of the above |
|
which of the following types of ventilation includes the following steps: 1. ventilate at rate of 8 to 20 until spontaneous breathing ceases 2. lower rate to 6 to 12 bpm 3. adjust the rate based on monitoring parameters 4. when ready for patient to resume breathing, reduce the rate to 4 bmp (SA) or 2 bpm (LA) |
intermittent mandatory ventilation |
|
trocar, sleeve, blunt obturator, triangulation, and light cable are all terms used in ____ surgery |
arthroscope |
|
which of the following is a pair of heavy operating scissors with a straight or curved blade used to cut tough tissue |
mayo scissors |
|
needle holders are designed for |
holding curved suture needles and guiding them through tissue |
|
the ____ thumb forceps has large interdigitating teeth and is primarily used for skin or fascia |
rat-tooth |
|
you are assisting a bovine practitioner with the repair of a left-displaced abomasum. he asks you to hand him the rochester ochsner forceps. you hand him a |
large, transversely grooved forceps with interdigitating teeth at the tips |
|
dr. b asks you to hand her the "gelpi's" while surgically repairing a diaphragmatic hernia. for what is she asking |
a pair of retractors |
|
which antiseptic and disinfectant is bactericidal but does not kill spores or fungi; it has no residual effect; and it is both painful and cytotoxic when used in open wounds |
alcohol |
|
arthroscopy is used in veterinary medicine to examine and perform surgery on the |
joints of horses |
|
which of the following types of fluids is most often used for arthroscopic procedures to aid in visualizing the intraarticular space |
any sterile, balanced electrolyte solution |
|
the surgeon asks you for a ____, which has sharp, cupped tips to cut small pieces of dense tissue such as bone, cartilage, or connective tissue |
rongeur |
|
which disinfectant is effective against bacteria, but not against spores or some viruses and is very bland and nontoxic |
quaternary ammonium |
|
most surgical instruments are made of |
stainless steel |
|
during surgery, you hand the veterinary surgeon a ____, which she uses to cut bone by applying the blade end to the area to be cut before pounding on the flared end of the handle with a mallet |
osteotome |
|
aspetic technique |
includes all steps taken to prevent contamination of the surgical site by infectious agents |
|
dry heat kills by _____, and moist heat kills by _____ |
protein oxidation, coagulation of critical cellular proteins |
|
which antiseptic and disinfectant is effective against bacteria, viruses, fungi, and yeast and has a rapid onset and is nonirritating to tissues |
chlorhexidine |
|
which of the following practices helps ensure adequate steam penetration in the autoclave |
keeping the pack size smaller than 30 cm by 30 cm by 50 cm |
|
the safe, minimal standard for autoclave sterilization is ____minutes |
121 degree C (250F) for 13 |
|
the "flash" sterilization setting on the autoclave is used for |
emergency (very rapid) sterilization of instruments |
|
after ethylene oxide sterilization, materials should be |
quarantined in a well-ventilated area for at least 7 days |
|
how is an antiseptic different from a disinfectant |
the former kills or inhibits infectious agents on living tissues and the latter on inanimate objects |
|
which of the following statements concerning cold sterilization is most accurate |
most cold-sterilized instruments should be used only for minor procedures |
|
because the power equipment you need to sterilize cannot tolerate the high temperatures or steam associated with autoclaving, you are choosing to use gas sterilization with |
ethylene oxide |
|
____, you give the operating room a through cleaning that includes all permanent structures, floors, and cabinets, as well as removing, cleaning, and disinfecting all movable equipment |
once a week |
|
a surgical site should be scrubbed and rinsed a minimum of ___times |
three |
|
you are asked to prepare brownie, a 6-months-old, brown-tabby domestic shorthair cat, for castration. he will be restrained in the dorsal recumbent position with his hind legs tied cranially to expose the scrotal region. how do you prepare his scrotum |
pluck hair and perform a surgical scrub |
|
brownie, the cat in question 26 will be restrained in the dorsal recumbent position with his hind legs tied cranially to expose the scrotal region. dorsal recumbency means brownie is on his |
back (face up) |
|
a surgeon's or surgical assistant's initial surgical scrub of the day ___ their hands and arms and should involve a skin-soap contact time of ____ minutes |
disinfects; 5 |
|
the veterinarian uses a ___ to stabilize a fracture, placing pins through the skin and bone |
external fixator |
|
the total hip prosthesis consists of a long stem that fits inside the proximal ___; a special cup replaces the ____ |
femur, acetabulum |
|
gloved hands may be rested on a sterile drape or clasped in front of the body in the zone between the ___ and ____ |
shoulder, waist |
|
during surgery, the veterinarian wants to remove a core of bone for biopsy. he asks you for a t-shaped, tubular instrument with a cylindrical cutting blade called a |
trephine |
|
one of the most popular agents used in veterinary medicine as a surgical scrub, which agent can be irritating to tissues, causing skin irritation or acute contact dermatitis in up to 50% of all canine patient |
povidone- iodine |
|
in arthroscopic surgery, burs (or burrs) are |
often referred to as a motorized arthroplasty system |
|
which of the following is not used to help maintain patient positioning during surgery |
heating pads |
|
the minimum number of people required to position a horse on a surgery table is |
three |
|
a horse is kept in the dorsal recumbent position by |
side poles and padding |
|
what covers the feet of horses to help decrease contamination in the surgical suite |
obstetric sleeves |
|
which of the following is not one of the three physical sterilization methods |
water |
|
which of the following surgical instruments and supplies are not routinely included in general and emergency surgical packs for large and small animals alike |
hosit system |
|
___ suture material is less reactive than ____ suture material |
synthetic monofilament; synthetic multifilament |
|
what is the last step in draping a patient before equine orthopedic surgery |
an adhesive, impervious plastic, iodine-impregnated drape is wrapped over site |
|
surgically prepared skin is considered ____, not ____ |
aseptic; sterile |
|
low-pressure bleeding from small vessels can be controlled by |
sustained pressure through a gauze sponge |
|
using oversized suture material can lead to ___ and ____ tissue |
increased trauma during placement; more foreign debris is |
|
absorbable suture, in general, is broke down either by enzymatic degradation or by |
hydrolysis |
|
which of the following is a characteristic of monofilament sutures |
less resistance |
|
the veterinary technician's role in surgery can include all of the following except |
performing minor surgical procedures under direct veterinary supervision |
|
when passing sharp insturments or scalpel blades, the sharp components should be passed |
away from the surgeon's hand |
|
taper needles are most commonly used to pierce ___tissue |
intestinal, subcutaneous, and fascia |
|
which of the following means of hemostasis is avoided during equine abdominal surgery |
sponge |
|
catgut is suture material made from |
sheep intestine |
|
if the contents of a horse's large intestine are to be evacuated, a sterile-draped try is prepared on which the ____is to be placed |
colon |
|
nylon is a ____suture material |
synthetic nonabsorbable |
|
surgical catgut is a ___suture material |
natural absorbable |
|
stainless steel is a ____suture material |
natural nonabsorbable |
|
polydioxanone is a ___ suture material |
synthetic absorbable |
|
for which of the following procedures would it be most beneficial to count the gauze sponges used for hemostasis |
feline gastrointestinal surgical repair |
|
sterile towels are attached around an incision after the surgical scrub to prevent contamination of deeper tissues from the nonsterile |
skin |
|
during surgery, you place gelatin foams into the surgical site to proved effective |
hemostasis |
|
the scientific name for vicryl is |
polyglactin 910 |
|
which of the following terms describes the presence of an opening in a surgical drape to allow exposure to a specific area while covering a broader area |
fenstration |
|
which of the following is an example of a temporary surgical implant |
drains |
|
which of the following may fall under the role of a surgical assistant in the postoperative management or a patient |
all of the above are correct |