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229 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

OBSTRUCTED AIRWAY
standing orders

(1) Larygoscopy/Magills
(2) Intubate
(3) Right Mainstem Push

VF/PULSLESS VT
standing orders

(1) CPR
(2) DEFIBRILLATION
(3) TUBE
(4) IV


(6) EPI
(7) AMIO


(8) EPI

VF/PULSLESS VT
standing order drugs

Amiodarone


Epinephrine

VF/PULSLESS VT
medical control drugs

(1) Amiodarone
(2) Bicarb
(3) Magnesium
(4) Calcium

PEA/ASYSTOLE
standing orders

(1) CPR
(2) Tension Pneumo
(3) Tube
(4) IV


(5) Epi


(6) Dextrose
(7) Epi

PEA/ASYSTOLE
standing order drugs

(1) Epi
(2) Dextrose

PEA/ASYSTOLE
medical control options

(1) Sodium Bicarb
(2) Calcium Chloride
(3) Fluid

Name the two drugs that are in both PEA and VF medical control options.
(1) Sodium Bicarb
(2) Calcium Chloride

Name the five initial steps taken with suspected AMI patients.

(1) Monitor
(2) Twelve Lead


(3) Transport
(4) IV
(5) Vital Signs

AMI/MYOCARDIAL ISCHEMIA
standing order drugs

(1) Aspirin
(2) Nitro

AMI/MYOCARDIAL ISCHEMIA
medical control drugs

no medical control options

AMI/CARDIOGENIC SHOCK
standing orders

(1) Fluid


(2) Norepinephrine


(3) Dopamine

AMI/CARDIOGENIC SHOCK
medical control options

none

Name the three initial steps taken for patients presenting with dysrhythmias.

(1) Monitor
(2) IV
(3) Vitals

SUPRAVENTRICULAR TACHYCARDIA
standing orders

(1) Cardiovert (unstable)
(2) Adenosine (stable)

SUPRAVENTRICULAR TACHYCARDIA
medical control options

(1) Diltiazem
(2) Cardiovert
(3) Amiodarone

True or False:
Amiodarone is given for SVT under standing orders.
False.
But it can be given as a medical control option.
True or False:
Diltiazem can be administered under medical control options for SVT.
True.
True or False:
Adenosine may be used under standing orders to control a stable case of Rapid A-fib.
False.
Adenocard is not indicated for A-fib or A-flutter.
True or False:
Amiodarone can be used for A-flutter under medical control options.
True.
ATRIAL FIB/ ATRIAL FLUTTER
standing orders

Cardiovert (unstable)

ATRIAL FIB/ ATRIAL FLUTTER
medical control options

(1) Diltiazem
(2) Amiodarone

True or False:
Medical control options for A-fib/flutter include calling for repeat cardioversion.

False.

True or False:
Medical control options for SVT include calling for repeat cardioversion.

True.

What are the two drugs that can be used for controlling both SVT and A-fib/flutter under medical control options?

(1) Diltiazem
(2) Amiodarone

Besides Diltiazem and Amiodarone, what other drug can be used to control SVT?
Adenocard
Besides Diltiazem and Amiodarone, what other drug can be used to control A-fib/A-flutter?
none.
True or False:
You can call for fluids for VF under medical control options.

False.

V-TACH / WIDE COMPLEX TACH w/PULSE
standing orders

(1) Cardioversion
(2) Amiodarone

Name the standing order drug that can be used to treat V-tach with a pulse.

Amiodarone

V-TACH / WIDE COMPLEX TACH w/PULSE
medical control options

(1) Cardioversion
(2) Magnesium Sulfate
(3) Calcium Chloride
(4) Bicarb

True or False:
Sodium Bicarbonate may be given for V-tach with a pulse under medical control options.

True.

True or False.
You may call for Amiodarone under medical control options for V-tach with a pulse.
False.
Amio is a standing order only for V-tach with pulse.

Besides sodium bicarb, name the drugs that can be given to V-tach with a pulse under medical control options.

(1) Magnesium Sulfate
(2) Calcium Chloride

BRADYDYSRHYTHMIAS/COMPLETE HEART BLOCK
standing orders
(1) Atropine
(2) Pacing
BRADYDYSRHYTHMIAS/COMPLETE HEART BLOCK
medical control options

(1) Atropine
(2) Dopamine
(4) Calcium Chloride
(5) Sodium Bicarb

True or False:
Medical control options for Bradycardia include epinephrine.

False.

ACUTE PULMONARY EDEMA
standing order interventions

(1) Nitro
(2) CPAP

ACUTE PULMONARY EDEMA
medical control options

(1) Lorazepam or Midazolam


(2) Furosemide

True or False:
Furosemide can be requested under medical control options for acute pulmonary edema.

True.

ASTHMA/WHEEZING


standing orders drugs

(1) Abuterol


(2) Ipratropium


(3) Epi


(4) Magnesium


(5) Methylprednisolone


(6) Dexamethazone

ASTHMA/WHEEZING
medical control drugs

Epinephrine

COPD


standing order drugs

(1) Combivent


(2) Methylprednisolone


(3) Dexamethazone

What two drugs are present in the standing orders for Asthma but not COPD?
(1) Epi
(2) Magnesium
COPD
medical control options

none

ANAPHYLACTIC REACTION
standing order interventions

(1) Tube
(2) Epi IM


(3) Fluid
(4) Methylprednisolone
(5) Dexamethasone
(6) Diphenhydramine
(7) Albuterol (not Combivent)

ANAPHYLACTIC REACTION
medical control drugs

Norepinephrine


Dopamine

True or False:
Dopamine and norepinephrine are under medical control options for anaphylaxis.

True.

ALTERED MENTAL STATUS
standing order drugs

(1) Dextrose
(2) Glucagon
(3) Naloxone

ALTERED MENTAL STATUS
medical control options

Repeat standing.

SEIZURES
standing order drugs

(1) Dextrose


(2) Glucagon
(2) Lorazepam
(3) Diazepam
(4) Midazolam

SEIZURES
medical control drugs

(1) Lorazepam
(2) Diazepam
(3) Midazolam

NON-CARDIOGENIC SHOCK
standing orders

(1) Tension Pneumo
(2) IV/IO
(3) Fluids
(4) Monitor

True or False:
You should place a cardiac monitor on non-cardiogenic shock patient per standing orders.
True.
NON-CARDIOGENIC SHOCK
medical control options

none

TRAUMATIC ARREST


standing orders

(1) Transport


(2) Tension Pneumo


(3) Tube


(4) Monitor (non-penetrating)


(5) IV Fluids

TRAUMATIC ARREST
medical control options

none

HEAD INJURIES
standing order drugs

(1) Lorazepam


(2) Diazepam


(3) Midazolam

HEAD INJURIES
medical control drugs

(1) Lorazepam


(2) Diazepam


(3) Midazolam

CHEMICAL EYE INJURIES
medical control options
none
CHEMICAL EYE INJURIES
standing orders
(1) remove contacts
(2) Proparacaine/Tetracaine

BURNS


standing orders

(1) Tube (airway burns)


(2) Monitor (electrical)


(3) Oximetry


(4) IV


(5) Fluids


(6) Morphine or Fentanyl

BURNS
medical control options

Transport decision

PAIN MANAGEMENT
medical control options

Transport decision

PAIN MANAGEMENT
standing orders

(1) monitor
(2) oximetry
(3) IV
(4) Vitals
(5) Morphine or Fentanyl

EXCITED DELIRIUM


standing orders

(1) Midazolam


(2) IV


(3) Fluid


(4) Monitor


(5) Oximetry


(6) BGL

EXCITED DELIRIUM


medical control drugs

(1) Ketamine


(2) Lorazepam


(3) Diazepam


(4) Midazolam

True or False:
You may chemically restrain an EDP without consulting medical control.

True.
OBSTETRIC COMPLICATIONS
standing orders

IV

OBSTETRIC COMPLICATIONS
medical control options

Magnesium Sulfate

NEONATE RESUSCITATION
standing orders

(1) CPR
(2) TUBE
(3) Transport
(4) NG/OG
(5) Epi ET


(6) IV/IO Fluid


(7) Epi Q 3-5

Name the one drug given during a neonate resuscitation.
Epinephrine
True or False:
An IV/IO may be established on standing orders in the case of a neonate resuscitation.

True.

PEDIATRIC RESPIRATORY ARREST
standing orders
(1) Tube
(2) Tension Pneumo
(3) Transport
(4) Naloxone
(5) NG/OG tube PRN
What drug is given on standing orders for pediatric respiratory arrest cases?
Naloxone
PEDIATRIC RESPIRATORY ARREST
medical control options

IV/IO

True or False:
An IV/IO may be established on standing orders in pediatric respiratory arrest.
False.
It is a medical control option.
What is the only drug in the pediatric respiratory arrest protocol?
Naloxone
PEDIATRIC OBSTRUCTED AIRWAY
medical control options
none
(all standing orders)
PEDIATRIC OBSTRUCTED AIRWAY
standing orders

(1) Direct Laryngoscopy (Magills)
(2) Tube (if no epiglottitis)
(3) Right mainstem push

PEDIATRIC CROUP/EPIGLOTTITIS
standing orders
(1) Do NOT intubate
(2) Transport
(3) NG/OG Tube PRN
True or False:
Passage of an NG/OG Tube is contraindicated in cases of pediatric epiglottitis.
False.
It's a standing order.
PEDIATRIC NON-TRAUMATIC ARREST
standing orders

(1) Monitor
(2) Shock
(3) CPR
(4) Tube
(5) Transport
(6) Epi (ET)
(7) NG/OG
(8) IV/IO


(9) Shock
(10) Amio
(11) Epi

PEDIATRIC NON-TRAUMATIC ARREST
standing order drugs

(1) Epinephrine
(2) Amiodarone

PEDIATRIC NON-TRAUMATIC ARREST
medical control options

(1) Repeat Standing
(2) Naloxone
(3) Dextrose
(4) Bicarb
(5) Magnesium
(6) Fluids

True or False:
Magnesium sulfate is in the medical control options for pediatric non-traumatic arrest.
True.
It is used for Torsades de Points
What is Magnesium used for in the pediatric arrest protocol?

Torsades

PEDIATRIC ASTHMA/WHEEZING
standing order drugs

(1) Combivent
(2) Epi

PEDIATRIC ASTHMA/WHEEZING
medical control options

(1) Albuterol
(2) Epi
(3) IV/IO

True or False:
You can start an IV/IO on standing orders in cases of pediatric asthma.
False.
You must call medical control for IV/IO in cases of pediatric asthma.

PEDIATRIC ANAPHYLACTIC REACTION


standing orders

(1) Tube


(2) Epi (ET or IM)


(3) Transport


(4) NG/OG

What is the one drug given for pediatric anaphylaxis?

Epinephrine

PEDIATRIC ANAPHYLACTIC REACTION
medical control options

(1) Repeat Standing (Epi)
(2) IV/IO
(3) Fluid (20 ml/kg)

True or False:
It is permissible to start an IV/IO on standing orders for a pediatric patient in anaphylactic shock.
False.
You must call medical contol.
PEDIATRIC ALTERED MENTAL STATUS
standing orders

(1) Transport
(2) Glucagon
(3) IV/IO
(4) Dextrose
(5) Naloxone

PEDIATRIC ALTERED MENTAL STATUS
standing order drugs

(1) Glucagon
(2) Dextrose
(3) Naloxone

True or False:
It is permissible to start an IV/IO on a pediatric altered mental status on standing orders.

True
True or False:
Albuterol is used for bronchospasm in pediatric anaphylactic reactions.
False.
Albuterol is used only for adult anaphylaxis.
PEDIATRIC ALTERED MENTAL STATUS
medical control options
repeat standing orders
PEDIATRIC SEIZURES
standing orders

(1) Glucagon


(2) Midazolam


(3) Transport
(4) IV/IO
(5) Dextrose

True or False:
You can start an IV/IO on a pediatric stat-ep without contacting medical control.

True.
Standing order enroute.

True or False:
You can administer Midazolam on standing orders in the case of a pediatric stat-ep.

True

PEDIATRIC SEIZURES
medical control options

(1) Lorazepam


(2) Diazepam


(3) Midazolam


PEDIATRIC DECOMPENSATED SHOCK
standing orders
(1) monitor (if no hypovolemia)
(2) transport
(3) IV/IO Fluid (20 ml/kg)
(4) Fluid repeat (to 40 ml/kg)

True or False:
It is permissible to start an IV/IO on a pediatric patient in decompensated shock without contacting medical control.

True.
PEDIATRIC DECOMPENSATED SHOCK
medical control options
(1) Fluid (20 ml/kg)
(2) Cardiovert and SVT
(3) Adenocard

PEDIATRIC TRAUMATIC CARDIAC ARREST


standing orders

(1) Transport


(2) Tube


(3) Tension Pneumo


(4) IV/IO Fluid


(5) NG/OG


(6) Fluid

In pediatric patients with craniofacial trauma, pass an ______ tube.



(NG / OG)

OG

PEDIATRIC TRAUMATIC CARDIAC ARREST
medical control options

Fluid
True or False:
You must call for IV/IO in pediatric traumatic cardiac arrest.
False.

Name the six pediatric protocols in which IV/IO may be established on standing orders.

(1) Non-Traumatic Cardiac Arrest


(2) Traumatic Cardiac Arrest


(3) Neonate Resuscitation
(4) Altered Mental Status
(5) Seizures
(6) Decompensated Shock



(circulatory/CNS protocols)

Name the three pediatric protocols in which you must call medical control to obtain permission to establish IV/IO access.


(1) Respiratory Arrest
(2) Asthma
(3) Anaphylaxis



(respiratory protocols)

True or False:
For both pediatric "cardiac arrests" (traumatic and non-traumatic), it is permissible to establish an IV/IO on standing orders.
True
True or False:
For neonate resuscitation, it is permissible to start an IV/IO on standing orders.

True

True or False:
For the "big three" pediatric respiratory emergencies,
(1) Respiratory Arrest
(2) Asthma
(3) Anaphylaxis
you must call medical control before starting an IV/IO.

True
What are the "Three C's" of pediatric decompensated shock?

(1) Coma or AMS
(2) Cyanotic Extremities
(3) Central Pulses Weak

What are the four signs of pediatric decompensated shock?

(1) Systolic BP below 70 mm Hg +2Xage
OR
"The Three C's"
(1) Coma or AMS
(2) Cyanotic Extremities
(3) Central Pulses Weak

In the pediatric patient, a systolic BP of below ______ OR signs of inadequate ______ pefusion indicate decompensated shock.
70 + (2xage)

central

CYANIDE TOXICITY / SMOKE INHALATION
Medical control options

None besides "Transport Decision."


(all standing orders)

CYANIDE TOXICITY / SMOKE INHALATION


standing orders

(1) Tube


(2) Monitor/Pulse Ox


(2a) CO (smoke inh. only)


(3) IV x2 and Bloods


(4) Hydroxocobalamin


(5) Sodium Thiosulfate


(6) Norepinephrine or Dopamine

True or False:
Norepinephrine and Dopamine are medical control options in the Cyanide/Smoke inhalation protocols.

False.


Standing orders.

In suspected cyanide poisonings, prior to administration of Hyroxocobalamin, if possible, obtain ______.
three blood samples
(tubes in cyanide kit)

For suspected cyanide poisoning, in the event that only one IV line is established, administer ______ first, followed by a ______ flush.

Hydroxocobalamin



20ml

True or False.


Sodium Thiosulfate, Dopamine, and Diazepam may not be administered via the same line as Hydroxocobalamin.

False.



Follow Hydroxocobalamin with a 20ml flush.

You've exhausted standing orders for PEA/Asystole and are about to call medical control. What are three conditions that should cross your mind that may be treatable under medical control options?

(1) Acidosis
(2) Hyperkalemia/Calcium Channel Blocker OD
(3) Hypovolemia (Fluid Loss)

You've exhausted standing orders for a refractory V-fib. What three conditions should cross your mind as potentially treatable through medical control options?

(1) Acidosis
(2) Hypomagnesemia (Torsades)
(3) Hyperkalemia/Calcium Channel Blocker OD

______ must be treated prior to initiation of a 12 lead EKG.

An unstable dysrhythmia

"12-lead EKG" only appears in what protocol?

504 Suspected Myocardial Infarction



subprotocols:


(A) Therapy of Myocardial Ischemia


(B) Cardiogenic Shock

Before each administration of Nitroglycerin, check the patient's ______ and ______ to ensure the patient is ______.
pulse
BP
hemodynamically stable
Nitro may NOT be administered to patients with a systolic BP of less than ______ unless...

100 mm Hg

...otherwise directed by medical control.

Following Morphine or Fentanyl administration, if ______ developes, administer Naloxone.

hypoventilation

Each time Etomidate is used for intubation, it can be followed by ______ or ______ for continued sedation.

Diazepam

Lorazepam

When administering Norepinephrine or Dopamine, if there is ______ in hemodynamic status, the infusion rate may be increased until ______ or ______.

insufficient improvement

desired therapeutic effects

adverse effects appear

State the two components ("HA") for identifying unstable arrhythmias in adults.

Hypotension (<90mmHg)


AMS

List the three components ("HAP") for identifying unstable arrhythmias in pediatrics.

Hypotension (<70+2Xage)
AMS (depressed)
Peripheral Pulses Absent

What are the only two differences between the SVT and A-fib/A-flutter protocols?

SVT only:
(1) Adenocard
(2) Cardioversion reattempt PPMC

True or False:
Stable A-fib/flutter can only be treated under medical control options.
True.
Name the two methods of treating STABLE A-fib/flutter.
(1) Diltiazem
(2) Amiodarone
What is the first treatment option for Bradycardia/Complete Heart Block with decompensated shock?

atropine

What is the second treatment option for Bradycardia/Complete Heart Block wih decompensated shock?

transcutaneous pacing

In cases of adult asthma, administer epinephrine on standing orders to patients with signs of ______.
impending respiratory failure
True or False:
Magnesium sulfate is given on standing orders in cases of adult asthma.
True.
(to patients with persistent, severe respiratory distress)
True or False:
Methylprednisolone and Dexamethazone are in the medical control options in the adult asthma protocol.

False.
Standing orders.

True or False:
Epi may be given on standing orders to patients with excacerbation of COPD.

False.
No epi is in the protocol for COPD.

In adult anaphylaxis, what can be done under standing orders for the patient with bronchospasms?
nebulized Albuterol

If the glucometer reading is ______, dextrose and glucagon should be withheld.

above 60 mg/dl




(Treat symptomatic diabetics at 60-80)

In Adult Altered Mental Status, Naloxone may be administered ____ or ____ if IV/IO access has not been established.

IM
IN

True or False:
Naloxone IN is in the Pediatric Respiratory Arrest protocol.

True.

What three pediatric protocols contain Naloxone as an intervention (excluding post-Morphine)?

(1) Ped Non-traumatic Cardiac Arrest


(2) Ped Resp Arrest


(3) Ped AMS

Explain how Naloxone is administered in the Ped Non-traumatic Cardiac Arrest.

PPMC


2mg IV/IO/ET (2 or older)


1mg IV/IO/ET (under 2)


no titration

True or False:
Midazolam IV may be given for ongoing seizures under standing orders.

False.
In the adult seizure protocol, Midazolam may be given IM/IN (not IV) under both standing orders and medical control options.

For ongoing seizures, when is Midazolam given and by what route?

In the Seizure protocol, Midazolam is given IM/IN when IV access cannot be established for Lorazepam or Diazepam.

True or False.
In adult seizures, Lorazepam may be given IV/IN/IM.

True

True or False.
In pediatric seizures, Lorazepam may be given IN/IM.

False.


IV/IO/IN only. The IM option for Lorazepam does not appear in the pediatric seizure protocol.

True or False.
In pediatric seizures, Midazolam may be given IN/IM.

True.

In cases of traumatic arrest, excluding patients with ______, begin cardiac monitoring.
penetrating chest trauma
If V-fib or pulseless V-tach are present in traumatic cardiac arrest, you would...

treat them medically under VT/VF protocols, as long as there is no penetrating chest trauma.

The Head Injuries protocol applies to patients with head trauma who have a Glascow Coma Scale score of ___ or lower.
13
According to the Head Injuries protocol, you should intubate patients with a Glascow Coma Score of less than ___, if less invasive methods of airway management are ineffective.

8

In the Chemical Eye Injury protocol, Proparacaine or Tetracaine is administered for the purpose of...

facilitating irrigation in the patient who is agitated or unable to hold his eyelid open.

In the Burns protocol, perform cardiac monitoring for patients with ______.

electrical burns

True or False:
In the Burns protocol, Morphine and Fentanyl are given on standing orders.

True.

Morphine may be administered for pain management of an isolated extremity injury provided the systolic BP is greater than ______ mm Hg.

110

Severe pre-eclampsia is characterized by a systolic BP of ______ mm Hg or higher and a diastolic BP of ______ mm Hg or higher.
160
110
Name the drug used to treat pre-eclampsia.
Magnesium Sulfate
In neonate resuscitation, if CPR has been initiated, and the heart rate remains less than ___ beats per minute and not rapidly increasing after ___ seconds of CPR, perform ___.

60
30
endotracheal intubation

What is the only drug used in neonate resuscitation?

epinephrine

What is the first drug and route administered on standing orders for neonate resuscitation?

epi by ET

Summarize the essence of the medical control options for neonate resuscitation.

There are no medical control options.

The pediatric respiratory arrest protocol applies to pediatric patients in actual or impending respiratory arrest, OR those who are ______ and ____.
unconscious

cannot be adequately ventilated
What is the only drug used in the Pediatric Respiratory Arrest protocol?
Naloxone

True or False:
You must call for sedation to intubate a pediatric respiratory arrest.

False.
There is no mention of Prehospital Sedation in the pediatric respiratory arrest protocol.

True or False:
There is no mention of Prehospital Sedation for intubation, cardioversion or pacing in any of the pediatric protocols.

True.

A pediatric patient has SVT. What can be done?

Cardioversion or Adenosine. Under Pediatric Decompensated Shock, call for orders to administer adenosine if the defibrillator cannot deliver a calculated dose. Do not cardiovert if the monitor cannot deliver a calculated dose.

Can a pediatric patient be paced?

There is no reference to pediatric pacing in any of the protocols.

A pediatric patient has V-tach with a pulse. What can be done?

Cardiovert under Pediatric Decompensated Shock protocol at calculated dose.



There is no mention of sedation. Amio is not in this protocol.

Since there is no bradyarrhythmia protocol for children, what should be done for a child with a hemodynamically unstable bradyarrhythmia?
Perform CPR in children under the age of 9 with a rate below 60 and signs of decompensated shock; treat as an arrest.
For infants and children under 9 years of age with a heart rate of less than 60 and signs of inadequate central perfusion...
perform CPR.

In cases of croup/epiglottitis, do NOT attempt ______. Use ______ ventilation.

advanced airway management



high pressure BVM


or mouth-to-mask

In cases of croup/epiglottitis, pass an NG/OG tube if distention occurs, but do NOT attempt to pass an NG/OG tube in a ______ patient.
conscious
In pediatric non-traumatic cardiac arrest, if the defibrillator is unable to deliver the recommended dose...
...use the lowest available setting.

What is the first drug/route administered in pediatric non-traumatic arrest?

Epi via ET

Name the five conditions you would be looking to treat under medical control options for pediatric non-traumatic arrest.

(1) Narcotic OD
(2) Hypoglycemia
(3) Acidosis
(4) Hypomagnesemia/Torsades
(5) Hypovolemia

In the Pediatric Asthma protocol, epinephrine may be administered to patients ___ year of age and older with _____, _____ or _____.
1

severe respiratory distress
respiratory failure
decreased breath sounds

Name the four findings ("TADS") that characterize severe respiratory distress in children.

(1) Tripod position
(2) Agitation (severe)
(3) Dyspnea
(4) Supra/substernal retractions

In a child, ______ is an ominous sign that indicates that respiratory failure and arrest are imminent.

a silent chest

True or False:
A Bradycardic and decompensated pediatric being treated as an arrest can be given Atropine to increase the heart rate.
False.
Atropine is not in the pediatric arrest protocol, but Epinephrine may be given.
What is the first drug administered in Pediatric Anaphylaxis?

Epi ET
(IM if no ET)

Epi also happens to be THE ONLY drug in this protocol.

When is diphenhydramine administered in pediatric anaphylaxis?
Never.

What are the medical control options for pediatric anaphylaxis?

(1) IV/IO


(2) Fluid

The Pediatric Altered Mental Status protocol applies to pediatric patients in a ______, with evolving ______, or with ______ of unknown etiology.

coma
neurological deficits
altered mental status
What is always the first priority, according to the Pediatric Altered Mental Status protocol?
maintenance of normal respiratory and circulatory function

Any AMS secondary to what six conditions does the Pediatric AMS protocol state should be treated under other protocols?

(1) Shock


(2) Trauma


(3) Resp. Failure/Arrest


(4) Obstructed Airway


(5) Other Anoxic Injury


(6) Near Drowning



STROON

What pharmocologic trio forms the basis for the pediatric AMS protocol?
(1) Glucagon
(2) Dextrose
(3) Naloxone

What drugs/routes can be given in a Pediatric AMS case with no IV access?

(1) Glucagon IM
(2) Naloxone IM/IN

Describe the medical control options for Pediatric AMS.
Repeat standing orders.

What is the first standing order drug/route administered to a pediatric seizure patient if indicated by BGL?

Glucagon IM

What is the second standing order drug/route administered to a pediatric seizure patient?

Midazolam IM/IN


(IN preferred)

By which route(s) may Lorazepam be administered to a pediatric seizure patient?

IV/IO/IN



(not IM)

By which route(s) may Diazepam be administered to a pediatric seizure patient?
IV/IO
By which route(s) may Midazolam be administered to a pediatric seizure patient?

IM/IN

In pediatric patients, do not administer Lorazepam, Diazepam, or Midazolam if...
...the seizures have stopped.
In cases of pediatric decompensated shock, if signs of hemorrhage or dehydration are NOT present, begin ______.
cardiac monitoring
What two possible situations may be treated under the medical control options for Pediatric Decompensated Shock?

(1) hypovolemia (hemorrhage/dehydration)
(2) tachydysrythmias

Do not perform cardioversion in pediatric patients unless...
the defibrillator is able to deliver a calculated dose.
What is the highest priority for the pediatric patient in traumatic cardiac arrest?
rapid transport
True or False:
A needle decompression can be performed on children and infants under standing orders.
True.
According to the Pediatric Traumatic Arrest protocol, do NOT pass an NG tube in patients with ______.
craniofacial trauma

In Pediatric Traumatic Arrest, attempt vascular access no more than ______.

twice
Use one world to describe the Pediatric Traumatic Arrest medical control options.

Fluid.

What is the appropriate joule setting for neonate defibrillation?
Neonates are not defibrillated.
What is the difference between the treatment of PEA/Asystole versus VF/VT in the neonate?
Nothing. Cardiac rhythm is of no consequence in neonate resuscitation.

True or False:
There is no cardiac monitoring listed in the neonate resuscitation protocol.

True.

Obstructed Airway


"right mainstem push"


(Steps a-f)

Note. Deflate.


Advance. Return.


Reinflate. Ventilate.


Transport.

If BLS care is already being provided, transition from AED use to ALS monitor must occur...

...only after the completion of the next analysis/shock decision.

Non-Traumatic Cardiac Arrest root protocol (503) addresses these three things.

BLS


Cardiac Monitor


Transfer from AED

Name the four protocols in which the potential for hyperkalemia is a concern.

VF/VT Arrest


PEA/Asystole Arrest


Wide/VT with Pulse


Brady/Heart Block

Name the four protocols in which the potential for calcium channel blocker overdose is a concern.
VF/VT Arrest

PEA/Asystole Arrest


Wide/VT with Pulse


Brady/Heart Block

True or False

Calcium chloride is administered in cases of hypokalemia.

False.


Calcium is indicated in the protocols in cases of HYPERkalemia.

For VT/Wide Complex with Pulse and Brady Dysrhythmias, administer sodium bicarb for cases of...

...pre-existing acidosis.

In the adult protocols tension pneumo decompression comes (before/after) intubation.

before

In the pediatric protocols tension pneumo decompression comes (before/after) intubation.

after

In all adult protocols in which it appears, how many times may sodium bicarbonate be repeated at 44 mEq.
It may be repeated every 10 minutes.(no max specified in adult protocols)
For protocols in which norepinephrine and dopamine appear together, administration is indicated in the event of...

...continued hypotension (SBP <90mmHg).

Name the protocols in which norepinephrine and dopamine appear together.

Smoke Inhalation


Cyanide Exposure


Cardiogenic Shock


Anaphylaxis

Norepinephrine appears without dopamine in this protocol.

Septic Shock

True or False.


Dopamine is in the Septic Shock protocol.

False.

BP threshold for administration of Norepi.

SBP Below 90

True or False



Pain Management for Isolated Extremity injuries may be selectively applied to patients with other injuries.

True.



"If mechanism of injury suggests that there may be other injuries, transport should begin and pain management be done enroute after consultation with OLMC."