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324 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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blood is made of connective tissue in which ___ are suspended in ___.
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formed elements, plasma
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red blood cells
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erythrocytes
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found in buffy coat between plasma and RBC layers in hematocrit
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leukocytes
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cell fragments that help in blood clotting, also found in buffy coat in hematocrit
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platelets
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% of RBC's in sample of blood
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hematocrit
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normal % of RBC's in total blood volume
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45%
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plasma is __% of the whole blood volume
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55%
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sticky, opaque, with a metallic taste
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blood
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blood has a pH of __
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7.35-7.45 (fairly neutral)
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blood is __% of body weight
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8%
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there are __ L of blood in men and __ liters of blood in women
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5-6, 4-5
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functions of blood
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-distribution
-regulation -protection |
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what does blood distribute?
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-oxygen and nutrients
-wastes to lungs and kidneys -hormones to target tissue |
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what does blood regulate
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-body temperature
-pH -fluid volume; minerals, blood protiens |
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how does blood regulate pH?
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proteins, etc. act as buffers; "alkaline reserve" of bicarbonate ions
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blood protiens
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albumin
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how does blood protect the body?
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-clot formation to prevent blood loss
-preventing infection (Ab's, WBC's) |
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blood plasma is __% water
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90%
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made up of mostly water; 100+ solutes including nutrients, gases, hormones, wastes, ions, and proteins
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plasma
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plasma proteins are __% volume by weight.
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8
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60% of plasma proteins; carrier molecule, buffer, plasma osmotic pressure with Na+
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albumin
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albumin is __% of proteins in blood
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60
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blood plasma contains __ kinds of protein
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-albumin
-clotting proteins -globulins |
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proteins that are antibodies (fight infection). found in plasma
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globulins
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only __ are complete cells in blood
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leukocytes
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most formed elements (cells) survive only for a few days because ___
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most are macrophages
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most formed elements (cells) do not divide. how are they reproduced?
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in the red bone marrow
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-biconcave disk
-anucleate with essentially no organelles -flexible, stackable -lack mitochondria -major factor in blood viscosity |
Erythrocytes
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fills 97% of available space in a erythrocyte (RBC), responsible for gas transport
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hemoglobin
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each heme group has an __ that can combine with O2
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iron set
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there are 250 million Hb molecules per RBC and each can carry four oxygen molecules so each RBC can carry __ molecules of O2
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1 billion
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why is hemoglobin in the RBC's instead of free in the plasma?
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to make blood more efficient with movement
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hemoglobin bonded to oxygen (bright red)
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oxygemoglobin
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hemoglobin without oxygen, dark red
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deoxyhemoglobin
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CO2 bound to amino acids (not Hb)
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carbaminohemoglobin
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has a greater affinity for the O2 binding molecule on hemoglobin and therefore displaces oxygen
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Carbon monoxide (CO)
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-must be placed in a hyperbaric chamber to rid the body of this.
-if not, death due to lack of oxygen to the tissues |
Carbon Monoxide (CO)
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RBC formation
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erythropoiesis
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occurs in the red bone marrow of the bones of the axial skeleton, girdles, and proximal epiphyses of femur and humerous
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eythropoiesis (RBC formation)
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where is tissue taken for a bone marrow transplant?
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coxal (hip) bones
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hemocytoblasts (hematopoietic stem cells) are found in the __
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red bone marrow
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Erythropoiesis takes __
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3-5 days
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What hormone controls eyrthropoiesis?
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eyrthropoietin (EPO)
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__ and __ produce erythropoietin when oxygen is low
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kidneys and liver
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EPO stimulates red marrow RBC's to __
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mature more rapidly
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__% of iron is in hemoglobin
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65
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what three substances are required for EBO? (also recommended for pregnant women)
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-iron
-vitamin B12 -folic acid |
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what is the lifespan of a RBC?
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100-120 days
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the __ traps many dead or dying RBC's
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spleen
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most iron from dead/dying RBC's is __
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recycled
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abnormally low O2 carrying capacity; symptom of a disorder
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anemias
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low RBC numbers due to bone marrow destruction
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aplastic anemia
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low RBC numbers due to blood loss
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hemorhagic anemias
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low RBC numbers due to rupture b/c they are defective
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hemolytic anemias (sickle cell)
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tiredness, headaches, fatigue, sleepiness are all symptoms of what?
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anemia
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decreased Hb counts due to lack/loss of iron
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iron-deficiency anemia
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decreased Hb counts due to increased blood volume following exercise
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athletes anemia
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decreased Hb counts due to vitamin B12/intrinsic factor (something produced in the stomach)
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pernicious anemia
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decreased Hb counts due to genetics
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abnormal hemoglobin
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HbS is formed and becomes spiky when O2 deprived; very painful. treated with blood tranfusions
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sickle-cell anemia
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-less than 1% of blood volume
-diapedesis -move in amoeboid motion -positive chemotaxis -seperated in to granulocytes and agranuloctyes |
leukocytes
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means WBC's have the ability to permeate into capillaries
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Diapedesis
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means WBC's are attracted to certain chemicals released by damaged cells or other WBC's
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positive chemotaxis
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when WBC count >11,000/mm3; normal response to invasions/infections
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leukocytosis
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types of granulocytes
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-neutrophils
-eosinophis -basophils |
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types of agranuloctyes
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-lymphocytes
-monocytes |
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-most numerous kind of WBC
-granuloctyes, two types of granules; difficult to see -defensins -polymorphonuclear (3-6 lobes in nucleus) -chemically attracted to areas of inflammation; active phagocytes -very effective against bacteria |
neutrophils
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antibiotic-like proteins in smaller granules
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defensins
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1-4% of WBC's
-blue-red nucleus with two lobes and large coarse red granules -digestive enzymes in granules -destroy parasitic worms (flat worms, round worms) increased #'s with asthma, hayfevor |
eosinophils
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-most rare kind of WBC
-large purple granules that contain histamine (used for allergies) |
basophils
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-second most numerous WBC (25%)
-nucleus fills most of the cytoplasm -small percentage in blood; most in lymphoid tissues |
lymphocytes
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-largest WBC
-U shaped nucleus -become macrophages in tissues (destroy foreign entities |
monocytes
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the production of WBC's stimulated by chemicals from other cells
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leukopoiesis
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-WBC's that have a shorter lifespan (1/2 to 9 days)
-production hormonally stimulated by chemicals from T cells and others |
granulocytes
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why do granulocytes have a shorter lifespan then agranulocytes?
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b/c its in response to something that is short term
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WBC that may live for months to years
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agranulocytes
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why is it important that agranulocytes live a long time?
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they are memory cells and create immunity
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-cancer of WBC's
-WBC's remain unspecialized and mitotic and suppress normal bone marrow functions -acute and chronic types |
leukemias
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what is the probable cause of an increased number of neutrophils?
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bacterial infection
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what is the probable cause of an increased number of basophils?
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allergies
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what is the probable cause of a decreased number of monocytes?
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healthiness
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-cytoplasmic fragments
-contain chemicals that act in clotting process |
platelets
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hormone that stimulates production of platelets
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thrombopoietin
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the three phases of hemostasis
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1. vascular spasm
2. platelet plug formation 3. coagulation |
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constriction of blood vessels
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vasoconstriction
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what causes vasoconstriction
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injury to smooth muscle of vessel walls
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what kind of feedback is platelet plug formation?
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positive
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steps of platelet plug formation
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1.endothelium damage exposes collagen fibers
2. platelets swell and form spiked processes, bocome sticky and adhere to collagen 3. serotonin enhances vascular spasm |
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-many steps
-involves more then 30 substances -procoagulants (I-XIII) and anitcoagulants (normally dominate) |
coagulation (blood clotting)
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Phase 1 of coagulation
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Intrinsic pathway: (contact activation) triggered by negatively charged surfaces (platelets, collagen, glass)
Extrinsic pathway: triggered by exposure to tissue factor in damaged endothelium |
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phase 2: (common pathway)
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prothrombin activator catalyzes prothrobin-------->thrombin
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phase 3: (common pathway)
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fibrinogen (from liver)------->fibrin
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clot formation completes in __ min; extrinsic pathway is __
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3-6, faster
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contractile protein complex in platelets that contracts and pulls on fibrin strands, squeezing serum from mass
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actomyosin
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released by degranulation stimulates smooth muscle and fibroblasts to divide and rebuild wall
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platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF)
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fibrin-digesting enzyme produced when plasminogen (blood protein) is activated
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plasmin
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__ is inactive until signal from tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA)
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plasminogen
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begins within two days of clot retraction and repair and continues over several days
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fribrinolysis
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what are two primary factors limiting clot growth
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-removal of coagulation factors
-inhibition of activated factors |
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clotting factors must __ before clotting can occur (so it does not occur in moving blood, where factors are diluted and washed away)
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accumulate
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thromboembolytic condition where there is a clot in an intact vessel
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thrombus
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thromboembolytic condition where there is a free floating clot
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embolus
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what does asprin and warfarin (coumadin) do?
|
thin blood
|
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bleeding disorder due to platelet deficiency
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thrombocytopenia
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-bleeding disorder
-types A and B -deficiency of clotting factors VIII and IX -sex-linked recessive |
hemophilia
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RBC's have __ on the surface
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antigens
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__ and __ are most important in transfusions
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ABO and Rh
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preformed antibodies that act RBC's carrying agglutinogens when pressent on the RBC
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agglutinins
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-universal recipiant
-1-4% of population |
type AB blood
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11-20% of whites and blacks
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type B blood
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27% of whites, 40% of blacks
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type A blood
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-universal donar
-45% whites, 49% blacks, 79% native americans |
type O blood
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where does Rh come from?
|
the rhesus monkeys
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__% of the population are Rh+
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85
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__ antibodies are only formed in blood upon exposure
|
Rh
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-a condition in which a baby is born anemic and hypoxic due to mothers Rh antibodies crossing placenta and attacking the babies blood
-tranfusions should be done before birth and one or two exchange transfusions after birth |
erythroblastosis fetalis
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-donor RBC's attacked by recipients agglutinins
-clumping of RBC's leads to RBC rupture and Hb release -may cause decreased O2-carrying capacity and clumping of RBC's may hinder blood flow -Hb in bloodstream passes into kidney tubules, precipitating and blooking---->renal shutdown -fever, chills, nausea, vomiting, toxicity (not lethal) |
transfusion reactions
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__ is done prior to blood transfusions
|
blood typing
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what can tell you a person might be anemic?
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pale, low hematocrit
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what can tell you a person might be suffering from lipidemia?
|
yellowish blood (fat in bloodstream)
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this can tell you things like large amounts of eosinophils indicate parasitic infection or allergic response
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Differential WBC count
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amount of prothrombin in the blood (shows clotting activity)
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prothrombin time
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cavity of the thorax where the heart is found
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mediastinum
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inferior tip of the heart that points to the left
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apex
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anterior tip of the heart, attachments here (top)
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base
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double layered fibroserous sac covering the heart
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pericardim
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outer-most covering of heart; protects and anchors heart to other structures and prevents overfilling
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fibrous pericardium
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covering of heart made of the parietal layer and visceral layer (epicardium)
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serous pericardium
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part of the visceral layer that is part of the heart wall
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visceral layer (epicardium)
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lines the chambers and covers valves
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endocardium
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flaps of atria that are visible
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auricles
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why is there a fossa ovalis in the heart
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b/c in fetus heats, the blood does not need to pump through the heart.
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what is important about pulmonary veins?
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they are the only veins that carry oxygenated blood
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ridges of muscle in the ventricle
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trabeculae carnae
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connected to valves, make valves one way
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papillary muscles
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__ and __ take blood away from the heart
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pulmonary trunk and aorta take blood away from the heart
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__ take deoxygenated blood to the heart
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veins
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take oxygenated blood to the body
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arteries
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what is unique about the pulmonary arteries?
|
only artery that pumps deoxygenated blood
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valve between right atrium and ventricle
|
tricuspid valve
|
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valve between left atrium and ventricle
|
bicuspid (mitral) valve
|
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what is the function of the valves?
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to prevent blood from going into the atrium when the ventricle contacts
|
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anchor valves to papillary muscles (to make valve one way)
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chordae tendineae
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open when ventricles contract
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pulmonary and aortic semilunar valves
|
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the heart is __ of the body weight but uses __ of the blood supply (more to left ventricle
|
1/200, 1/20
|
|
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deficiency of blood to myocardium
|
angina pectoris
|
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what does nitroglycerin do?
|
dialates blood vessels
|
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prolonged coronary artery blockage (heart attack)
|
myocardial infraction
|
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a clot in the left anterior descending artery causing immediate death
|
widow maker
|
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Where veins join, empties into the right atrium
|
coronary sinus
|
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-short, flat, branching, interconnected cells with one or two nuclei
-large, numerous mitochondria (25% of volume) for energy -dependent on oxygen and aerobic respiration -can burn glucose, fatty acids, even lactic acid |
cardiac muscle
|
|
|
allow ions to pass between cardiac muscle cells because of gap junctions
|
intercalated discs
|
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due to gap junctions, fibers are electrically coupled and behave as a unit
|
functional syncytium
|
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__% of cardiac muscle cells are autorythmic (fire on their own)and the rest are contractile muscle fibers
|
1%
|
|
|
-slow calcium channels (causes plateau in AP)
-all-or-none-law (applies at organ level but not cellular due to gap junctions) -autorhythmicity or automaticity (some cells are self-excitable and initiate depolarization) longer absolute refractory period prevents tetanic contractions |
differences in cardiac from skeletal muscle
|
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noncontractile cardiac cells that initiate and distribute impulses
|
intrinsic conduction system
|
|
|
-unstable resting potential due to gradual reduced permeability to K+ while Na+ continues to diffuse into cell
-pacemaker potentials -K+ leaving causes repolarization |
action potentials of autorhythmic cells
|
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spontaneously changing membrane potentials that cause contraction
|
pacemaker potentials
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excitation tract
|
SA node-->AV node-->AV bundle-->bundle branches-->purkinje fibers
|
|
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in the right atrial wall; 75x per minute (fastest); that determines sunus rhythm
|
Sinoatrial (SA) node
|
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delays 1 second so the atria can contract. fibers are smaller in diameter
|
Atrioventricular (AV) node
|
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only connection between atria and ventricles
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AV bundle (bundle of His)
|
|
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cause ventricle depolarization; more on the left side (more muscle) supply papilary muscle first
|
purkinje fibers
|
|
|
irregular heart rhythms
|
arrhythmias
|
|
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rapid, out of phase contractions
|
fibrillation
|
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damage to AV node (1rst, 2nd, 3rd degree)
|
heart block
|
|
|
-cardioacceleratory center in medulla of brain
-cardioinhibitory center in medulla |
extrinsic innervation
|
|
|
what 3 waves make up an ECG or EKG
|
-P wave
-QRS complex -T wave |
|
|
deflection wave of EKG that represents the depolarization of the atria
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P wave
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deflection wave of EKG that represents the ventricular depolarization (atrial repolarization
|
QRS complex
|
|
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deflection wave of EKG that represents the ventricular repolarization (slower then deplarization)
|
T wave
|
|
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at what point do the atria contract?
|
right after the p wave
|
|
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at what point do the ventricles contract?
|
between the R and S
|
|
|
the contraction phase of the cardiac cycle
|
systole
|
|
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the relaxation phase of the cardiac cycle
|
diastole
|
|
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all events associated with flow of blood in one heartbeat (atrial and ventricular systole and diastole)
|
cardiac cycle
|
|
|
low BP in heart; 70% of ventricular filling then atrial systole following P wave
|
ventricular filling (mid to late diastole)
|
|
|
completely closed for split second and constant volume (isometric contraction phase) followed by opening of semilunar valves and ventricular ejection phase
|
ventricular systole
|
|
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following T wave; dicrotic notch caused by short rise in aortic pressure when semilunar valve closes (ventricles totally close)
|
isovolumetric relaxation (early diastole)
|
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total heart relaxation
|
quiescent period
|
|
|
the first of the heart sounds (lub):
|
closure of AV valves; onset of sytole; loudest sound
|
|
|
the second of the heart sounds (dub):
|
closing of semilunar valves during diastole
|
|
|
abnormal sounds; obstruction causes turbulence; incomplete valves (swishing) (pulmonary stenosis)
|
heart murmurs
|
|
|
the amount of blood pumped by each ventricle for one minute=
|
cardiac output=HRxSV
|
|
|
amount of blood pumped per beat
|
stroke volume (SV)
|
|
|
the difference between resting and maximal cardiac output
|
cardiac reserve
|
|
|
the difference between end diastolic volume and end systolic volume=
|
SV
|
|
|
degree of stretch of heart muscle just prior to contraction
|
peload
|
|
|
states that blood coming into the ventricles stretches the heart and cause optimal muscle contraction
|
frank-starling law of the heart
|
|
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stretching of the heart increases __ and causes greater contraction force
|
cross-bridge numbers
|
|
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any factor that increases __ or __ of venous return will increase EDV, SV, and strength of contractions
|
volume, speed
|
|
|
this stretches ventricles
|
venous return
|
|
|
pressure that must be overcome for blood to be ejected
|
afterload
|
|
|
what are ways the paraympathetic system can regulate heart rate?
|
1. ACh (open potassium channels)
2. vagal tone (dominant influence at rest) |
|
|
what are ways the sympatetic nervous system can regulate heart rate?
|
1. NE and E (cause threshold t be reached faster and enhance contractility)
|
|
|
what do epinephrine and thyroxine do to heart rate?
|
increase heart rate
|
|
|
having a resting heart rate over 100 BPM
|
tachycardia
|
|
|
having a resting heart rate less then 60 BPM
|
bradycardia
|
|
|
receives all venous blood in fetus; becomes right atrium and coronary sinus
|
sinus venosus
|
|
|
with truncus arteriosus, give rise to pulmonary trunk, aorta, and right ventricle in fetus
|
bulbus cordis
|
|
|
lung bypass between rumonary trunk and aorta in fetus
|
ductus arteriosus
|
|
|
between atria for pulmonary circut bypass
|
foramen ovale
|
|
|
remnant of ductus arteriosus
|
ligamentum arteriosum
|
|
|
the walls of blood vessels are made of __
|
three tunics around the lumen
|
|
|
endothelium (simple squamous); continuous with endocardium
|
tunica intima
|
|
|
circular smooth muscles that cause vasoconstriction and vasodilation
|
tunica media
|
|
|
-collagen fibers that protect and anchor vessels
|
tunica adventitia
|
|
|
blood supply for nurishment in large vessels only
|
vasa vasorum
|
|
|
-large, thick walled vessels near heart
-the aorta and its branches -conduncting artieries |
elastic arteries
|
|
|
contain large lumen; conduct blood to other arteries under low pressure
|
conducting arterites
|
|
|
-distributing arteries
-thickest layers; more active in vasocontriction |
muscular arteries
|
|
|
-the larger have all three tunics with little elastin in media
-smaller into capilaries have single smooth muscle layer around endothelium |
arterioles
|
|
|
-have tunica intima only
-average length is 1 mm and lumen 8-10 microns (RBC) -none in tendons, ligaments, cartilage, epithelia, cornea, and lens |
capillaries
|
|
|
type of capillary:
-skin and muscle (most common) -cells joined by tight junctions with gaps called intercellular clefts for passage of fluids and solutes |
continuous capillaries
|
|
|
type of capillary:
-more permealbe to fluids and small solutes -found in small intestine (absorbtion), endocrine organs (proteins are large), and kidneys (filtration) |
fenestrated capillaries
|
|
|
type of capillary:
-highly modified (leaky) -large moecules and blood cells can pss between blood and tissues -found in liver, bone marrow, lymphoid tissues, and some endocrine organs |
sinusoidal capillaries or sinusoids
|
|
|
there are __ true capillaries per capillary bed, depending on the needs of the tissue
|
10-100
|
|
|
what is the path of blood through the capillary bed from teh terminal ateriole to the postcapillary venule?
|
terminal ateriole-->metateriole-->capillary-->thoroughfare channel-->postcapillary venule
|
|
|
at metarteriole; regulates bloodflow into the capillary bed
|
precapillary sphincter
|
|
|
the union of capillaries
|
venules
|
|
|
-where venules unite
-made of three tunics, but thinner with larger lumen -media contains little elastin or muscle (no constriction or dilation) |
veins
|
|
|
contain up to 65% of blood volume at any given time and therefore are called blood reservoirs
|
veins
|
|
|
prevent backflow of blood in veins
|
venous valves
|
|
|
bad venous valves that have backflow and blood pooling
|
varicose veins
|
|
|
-where vascular channels unite
-three kinds: arterial, arteriovenous, and venous |
vascular anastomoses
|
|
|
volume of blood flowing through vessel, organ, or entire circulation in a period of time (mL/min)
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blood flow
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-force exerted on wall of vessel by blood
-measured in mm of mercury (mmHg) |
blood pressure
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-opposition to flow of blood
-measure of friction that the blood encounters |
resistance
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internal resistance related to the thickness of blood
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blood viscosity
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how does blood viscosity affect blood pressure?
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the thicker the blood, the harder the work for the heart
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the longer the blood vessel, the __ resistance
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more
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distensibility of elastic arteries and volume of blood into them
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arterial blood pressure
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measures the force exerted on the wall of a vessel by blood when the ventricles contract (120 mmHg)
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systolic pressure
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measures the force exerted on the wall of a vessel by blood when the aortic pressure drops to its lowest level as elastic arterioles recoil to maintain pressure (80 mmHg)
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diastolic pressure
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systolic pressure-diastolic pressure=__....(increases with arttherosclerosis)
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pulse pressure
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-diastolic pressure+pulse pressure/3
-pressure that propels the blood to tissues throughout cardiac cycle -diastole longer than systole, hence, 1/3 pulse pressure |
mean arterial pressure
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what is the blood pressure in a capillary
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-40 mm Hg, 20 at ends
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__ are fragile and permeable
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capillaries
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venous blood pressure is a steady __ mmHg
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20
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three factors of venous return:
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-respiratory pump
-muscular pumps -venous valves |
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inhaling increases abdominal pressure and thoracic pressure drops increasing venous return
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respiratory pump
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skeletal muscles around veins contract and push blood up
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muscular pumps
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valves that prevent back flow of blood in veins
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venous valves
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blood pressure=__x__
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cardiac output x peripheral resistance
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the __ nerve maintains resting heart rate
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vagus
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__ primarily controls stroke volume
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venous return
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short term chemical control that increases vasoconstriction and cardiac output
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adrenal medulla hormones
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short term chemical control that controls water conservation and vasoconstriction
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ADH
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inhibits ADH (antidiuretic hormone) and depresses vasomotor center, vasodilation of skin, etc.
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alcohol
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temperature, pulse, respiratory rate
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vital signs
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radial is most common place to take this, also called pressure points that if compressed will stop bleeding
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pulse
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ways to monitor circulation:
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-vital signs
-pulse -blood pressure |
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you use a sphygmomanometer to measure __ by listening to the sounds of korotkoff
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blood pressure
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-when systolic pressure <100
-may be a sign of poor nutrition (low BP) -may be caused by addison's disease, hypotheyroidism, or circulatory shock |
Hypotension
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-BP 140/90 or higher
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hypertension
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-increased peripheral resistance
-30% of people 50 years of age have this -strains heart and damages arteries |
chronic hypertension
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-factors include: 90% unknown cause, diet, obesity, age, race, heredity, stress, smoking, diabetes
-treated with diuretics, diet restrictions, medications |
primary or essential hypertension
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provides:
-delivery of oxygen and nutrients -gas exchange -nutrient absorbtion -urine formation |
tissue perfusion
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blood flow to each organ is __
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precisely controlled
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velocity of blood flow is __ where cross-sectional area is least
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fastest
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combined cross-sectional area of vascular bed increases and volume held is greater therefore velocity __
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decreases
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velocity of blood flow is __ in the capilaries
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slowest
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why is it important that blood velocity is slowest in the capillaries?
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gas exchange
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-automatic adjustment of blood flow to each tissue proportional to its requirements
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autoregulation of blood flow
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modifies diameter of local arterioles feeding the capillaries
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intrinsic controls of autoregulation
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controls nutrients (oxygen), and wastes in blood
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metabolic controls
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controls the amount of stretch of vascular smooth muscle causes constriction or dilation
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myogenic controls
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wastes and nutrients move from an area of __ to __ in and out of capillaries
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high concentration, low concentration
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the force being exerted by a fluid against walls of vessels
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hydrostatic pressure
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what is the hydrostatic pressure in the capillaries?
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blood pressure
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the force pushing fluids into capillaries because of a higher concentration gradient of blood proteins inside the capillary
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interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure
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what removes the fluid left over after interstitial fluid pressure in capillaries?
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lymphatics
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-created by presence of nondiffusible molecules in fluid such as plasma proteins in capillaries
-molecules draw water towards them or encourage osmosis |
capillary colloid osmotic pressure
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__ is greater then that of interstitial fluid
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capillary colloid osmotic pressure
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net sum of hydrostatic and osmotic pressure
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net filtration pressure
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lymphatics are a __ system
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ONE WAY
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lymphatic vessels and lymphoid tissue and organs throughout body
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lymphatic system
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fluid that enters lymphatic vessels
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lymph
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between tissue cells and capillaries in loose connective tissue
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lymph capillaries
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in lymph capillaries, endothelial cells overlap forming __
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minivalves
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fine filament bundles anchor endothelial cells to other strutures so an increase in intersitial fluid volume __ flaps
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opens
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in microvilli of small intestine; carry digested fats, etc. forming a white fluid
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lacteals
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formed by union of large collecting vessels
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lymphatic trunks
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drains fluids from the right arm, head, and thorax
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right lymphatic duct
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drains fluid from the left side of head, neck , thorax, and entire body below diaphragm
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thoracic duct
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both the right lymphatic and thoracic duct empty into venous circulation at junction of __
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internal jugular and subclavian veins
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-skeletal muscle pump
-pressure changes in thorax -pulsation of arteries in area -smooth muscle contractions in walls of lymphatic trunks and thoracic duct -valves |
methods of lymph transport
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lymph transport is __ then veins; _L in 24 hours
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slower, 3
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you should __ infected areas because physical activity and passive movement increase rate of lymph flow which can spread
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immobilize
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blockage by tumors, removal of lymphatics in surgery may cause
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lymphedema
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control immune response (helpers and suppressors) and directly attack
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T cells
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produce plasma cells that secrete antibodies to immobilize antigens (bacteria toxins, viruses, RBC's, cancer cells) to be destroyed by macrophages, etc.
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B cells
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phagocytes and activate T cells
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macrophages
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in lymphoid tissue; phagocytes
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dendrtic cells
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fibroblast-like; produce reticular fiber stroma that suports other cells
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reticular cells
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-loose connective tissue found in all lymphoid organs but thymus
-macrophages on fibers and lymphocytes in spaces |
reticular connective tissue
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-may have germinal centers that have mainly B cells and these centers enlarge when B cells are active
-may form lymph nodes, peyer's patches ect. |
lymphatic follicles (nodules)
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type of lymphoid organs
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-lymph nodes
-spleen -thymus |
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filter with macrophages to remove and destroy microorganisms and debris and activate immune system via lymphoctes
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lymph nodes
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densely packed follicles with many germinal centers with dividing B cells
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cortex
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medullary cords (extensions of cortex) contain lymphoctes and plasma cells
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medulla
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large lymph capillaries throughout lymph node; many macrophages
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lymph sinuses
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indented region where lymph exits via efferent lymphatic vessels
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hilus
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fewer of these than afferent, so lymph stagnates some in nodes
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efferent lymphatic vessels
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why is it good that lymph stagnates some in the lymph nodes?
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b/c macrophages can look thorough lymph for abnormal cells
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the spleen, thymus, tonsils, and peyers patches are all composed of what kind of tissue?
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reticular connective tissue
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true or false? the spleen, thymus, tonsils, and peyers patches all filter lymph.
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FALSE
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largest lymphoid organ
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spleen
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the spleen is highly __
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vascularized
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the spleen is a site for lymphocites __ and immune surveillane and response
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proliferation
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the spleen removes defective cells, platelets, debrins, foreign matter, bacteria, viruses, toxins ext. this is called __
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blood filtering
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the spleen stores __ and releases some for reuse by line (iron)
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RBC breakdown components
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the spleen is the site for __ in the fetus
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RBC production
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reticular tissue with RBCs and macrophages; RBC disposal, pathogens
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Red pulp
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when teh liver and bone marrow macrophages take over spleen functions
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splenectomy
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located the lower neck into mediastinum
-secretes thymosin and thymopoietin for T cells to become immuocompetent |
thymus
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the thymus's attrification with old age
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involution
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deals with T cell maturation only-does not directly fight antigens; actually has a barrier to prevent premature activation of T cells
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thymus
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__ secrete thymus hormones
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thymocytes
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-located around entrance to phaynx
-remove pathogiens from air and food with crypts trapping bacteria and matter, helps produce variety of immune cells with "memory" but it is risky to invite the pathogens in |
tonsils
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largest tonsil, most often infected
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palatine
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clusters of nodules similar to tonsils in ileum of small inestine
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peyers patches
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-adjuct lymphatic tissue off of cecum
-destroys bacteria -generates memory lyphocytes for long term immunity |
appendix
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peyers patches, apendix, and lymphatic organs in bronchi
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mucosa-associated lymphatic tissue (MALT)
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