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199 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
Name 2 ways to minimize regurgitation and aspiration
in ruminants. |
Pre-op starvation for 12-18 hrs
Withhold water for 12 hrs |
|
How do pka, lipid solubility and protein binding
affect drugs? |
Lipid solubility - potency
Protein – duration of action pKa – speed of onset |
|
How long can you keep propofol after you open it?
|
up to 24 hours max b/c it is a great medium for bacterial growth
|
|
What proportion of total body water is present on IC compartment; plasma?
|
ICF space holds 2/3 of total body water (40% of BW)
ECF space holds 1/3 of total body water: •Plasma 1/12 of body water (5% of BW) •Interstitial compartment (15% of BW) |
|
Name 5 potential problems with liver disease.
|
HYPOALBUMINEMIA decreased protein binding leads to increased unbound/active drug available = increased sensitivity
HYPOGLYCEMIA - esp post-op DRUG METABOLISM - avoid KMTAX COAGULATION PROB - severe liver dz HYPOTHERMIA - liver regulates thermogenesis |
|
How long doesa fentanyl patch take to achieve full effect in dog & cats?
|
24 hrs in dogs
12 hrs in cats |
|
What are the 5 causes of hypoxemia & which does not respond to O2 supplementation?
|
•Diffusion impairment
•decreased FiO2 – low inspired [O2] •Hypoventilation •R/L pulm shunting – does not respond to supp O2 •V/Q mismatch |
|
What is the MACV for H, I, S & D?
|
H 0.8-0.9
I 1.5 S 2.4 D 8 |
|
Which lasts longer - buprenorphine or morphine?
|
buprenorphine lasts 6-8 hrs longer than morphine
|
|
Supreventricular arrhythmias are fairly _______.
|
benign
|
|
List 4 specific conditions to remember when anesthetizing a rabbit, and detail a suitable technique for anesthetic management of a 1 yr old rabbit OVH.
|
- Chronic resp dz. and diarrhea
- handling - stress prone - difficult intubation |
|
_______ is not used for small mammal induction - very pungent & unpleasant.
|
isofluorane
|
|
What is the dive response seen in birds that can lead to problems during induction?
|
Dive response – stress response seen in diving birds/water fowl. Apnea or bradycardia can occur for up to 5 min just by placing a mask on them. Also bradycardia occurs, with blood being distributed mostly to the kidneys, heart and brain. Premed with benzodiazepine, also preoxygenate
|
|
What is the usefulness of determining the alveolar-arterial PaO2 gradient?
|
provides a useful guide as to the efficiency of gas exchange in the lungs
|
|
What drugs should be avoided in patients with hepatic disease?
|
KMTAX
ACP, ketamine, thio, xylazine/medetomidine |
|
Define azotemia & its cause.
|
azotemia – mild elevation of urea(BUN) and creatinine in plasma, no signs except mild PU/PD. 75% of functional nephrons must be lost before azotemia develops.
causes of azotemia: – pre renal – dehydration, hypovolemia, high protein diet - renal – decreased functional nephrons - post renal – outflow obstruction |
|
Over what range does renal intrinsic autoregulation maintain constant blood flow through the glomeruli, and when does it cease to work?
|
80-180mmHg
min perfusion pressure is 60mmHg |
|
What sedation/premed drugs should be avoided in patients with renal dz?
|
high doses of ACP
alpha 2 agonists |
|
Name 2 non-depolarizing agents. How are they metabolized?
|
vecuronium – hepatic metabolism, 40% excreted in the bile.
- atracurium – eliminated by spontaneous degradation, popular with critical care patients. |
|
Buprenorphine is a ________agonist.
|
partial Mu
|
|
Where is diazepam metabolized?
|
liver
|
|
Why is diazepam never given IM?
|
pain on injection - venous irritation, thrombophlebitis
|
|
What is the effect of ketamine on IOP?
|
increases IOP
|
|
Which injectable agent causes temporary adrenal suppression?
|
etomidate
|
|
What kind of pigs are prone to hypoventilation so you must intubate & provide supplemental O2?
|
pot-bellied pigs
|
|
Which breathing system has HIGH resistance to breathing?
|
circle (rebreathing)
|
|
With which breathing system is soda lime required?
|
circle
|
|
With which breathing system is denitrogenation required?
|
circle
|
|
Is a low or high FGF required with circle system?
|
LOW
|
|
Calculate the FGF requirements for 3 kg cat using Bain or T-Piece (non-rebreathing) system.
|
BW (kg) divided by 5
then multiply X 2 = FGF 3 kg div by 5 = 0.6L 0.6L x 2 to 3 = 1.2-1.8 L/min |
|
What is the difference b/w crystalloids & colloids?
|
crystalloids - expands entire ECF
colloids - expands IVS/IC volume |
|
What does loss of palpebral reflex indicate?
|
deep anesthesia
|
|
Which eye reflex is a poor indicator of depth?
|
corneal reflex
|
|
Eyes are rotating during anesthesia - this indicates what?
|
light/medium anesthesia
|
|
Ventromedial eyes indicates what?
|
"surgical plane"
|
|
Central eyes indicates what?
|
deep or awake
|
|
Wide fissure indicates what?
|
light or deep
|
|
What does lacrimation during anesthesia indicate?
|
light anesthesia
|
|
What does dry eyes during anesthesia indicate?
|
deep or Ketamine was used
|
|
What happens to the swallowing reflex with increase in anesthesia depth?
|
tone decreases
|
|
During what stages of anesthesia would you see the pedal withdrawal reflex?
|
light only
|
|
Is the ear flick reflex reliable?
|
no but good for cats
|
|
Define allodynia?
|
pain response to non-noxious stimuli (gentle touch)
|
|
End tidal CO2 is decreased with hyper or hypoventilation?
|
decreased with HYPERventilation
|
|
End tidal CO2 is increased with hyper or hypoventilation?
|
increased with HYPOventilation
|
|
_____= [Hb] x (%SPO2) = [(o.oo3) x (PaO2)]
|
CaO2
|
|
Treatment of O2 toxicity: never use FIO2 >0.6 for more than _____ hrs
|
24
|
|
What is the difference b/w hypoxia & hypoxemia?
|
hypoxemia = PaO2 <60mmHg
hypoxia = general reduction in O2 delivery d/t hypoxemia or decreased CO |
|
What is the tx for ventricular tachycardia?
|
lidocaine
|
|
What is the tx for v-fib?
|
defibrillation or lidocaine bolus followed by epinephrine (adrenaline)
|
|
When should a-fib be treated?
|
do not tx until a/f animal has recovered from GA unless compromising CO
|
|
Which inhalational agent increases the sensitivity to catecholamines?
|
halothane
|
|
Dobutamine produces mil peripheral _____.
|
vasodilation
|
|
Dopamine:
_____ at low doses positive inotropy & chronotropy |
diuresis
|
|
Ephedrine:
vaso_____ positive inotrophy & chronotropy |
vasoconstriction
|
|
VIC = positioned_____ circuit
VOC = positioned_____ circuit |
VIC = inside circuit
VOC = outside circuit |
|
What are the advantages of rebreathing systems?
|
low gas flow requirements
low volatile agent consumption closed or low flow options expired moisture & heat are conserved low explosion risk less pollution |
|
If soda lime granules are exhausted what should they look/feel like?
|
hard or flinty
fresh granules are crumbly |
|
Soda lime canister: filled canister volume should consiste of ~___% absorbent granules & ___% air space
|
50%
50% |
|
Tidal volume = _____ml/kg
|
10-15
|
|
Minute volume (RR x TV) is ~ at ____ml/kg/min
|
200
|
|
ASA classification 1-5:
Which is excellent and which is critical |
1 = excellent
5 = critical |
|
When should the IV pre-med be given? IM or SQ drugs?
|
IV: 15-20 min b/f induction
IM/SQ: 30-40 min b/f |
|
Would the dose be less if given IV or IM?
|
IV
|
|
What is the DOA of morphine in dogs? cats?
|
dogs: 3-4 hrs
cats: 6-8 hrs |
|
What is the DOA of methadone?
|
slightly less potent than morphine but longer DOA
4-6 hrs |
|
What is the DOA of fentanyl?
|
onset with 3-5 min a/f given IV
lasts 20 minutes |
|
What is the DOA of butorphanol?
|
2-3 hrs
|
|
What is the DOA of buprenorphine?
|
6-8 hrs
|
|
Is naloxone short or long acting?
|
short acting
|
|
How can risks assoc with medetomidine be minimized?
|
combine with another sedative to reduce dose of medetomidine
constant observation always have atipamezole (reversal) on hand never give atropine if animal develops bradycardia provide supplementary O2 check HR b/f discharging animal |
|
______ is metabolized in liver and has 2 major active metabolites.
|
diazepam
|
|
Doppler U/S:
probe contains ______ that emits U/S waves |
piezoelectric crystal
|
|
Doppler U/S:
Where is probe positined? |
over a peripheral artery and taped in position
|
|
Doppler U/S: the pressure at which the pulse becomes audible is the _____ pulse
|
systolic
|
|
How much water is found in the ICF?
|
2/3 of total body water (40% of BW)
|
|
How much of BW does plasma consume?
|
5%
|
|
______ are small particles and rapidly redistribute outside IVS
|
crystalloids
|
|
______ are large molecules that remain in the vasculature for a prolonged period
|
colloids
|
|
Whihc stays in the vasculature longer - colloids or crystalloids?
|
colloids
|
|
Crystalloids or colloids: if aim is to expand entire ECF?
|
crystalloids
|
|
Crystalloids or colloids: if aim is to expand the intravascular volume?
|
colloids
|
|
Malignant hyperthermia can be triggered by all volatile agents but _____ (and _____) are most freq the cause.
|
halothane
isofluorane |
|
How would you anesthetize a pot bellied pig for castration?
|
intranasal midazolam spray to sedate
medetomidine + ketamine IM OR telazol + xylazine reverse a2 at end of procedure to speed recovery always intubate b/c prone to hypoventilation 2% lidocaine injected into testicle & around injection site |
|
Define multimodal analgesia.
|
simultaneous admin of analgesic agents w/different modes of action (i.e. opiod + NSAID + a2)& different side effects, which may act synergistically & achieve optimal analgesia with less side effects than large doses of single drug
|
|
What is the most common side effect of NSAIDs?
|
GI ulceration
|
|
Name 2 opioids that are partial agonists.
|
buprenorphine
butorphanol |
|
Fentanyl Patch:
onset in cats should be within _____hrs and longer _____ hrs in dogs analgesia should last for ____days |
12 hrs in cats
12-24 hrs in dogs 3 days |
|
What is the blood-gas solubility coefficient?
|
amount of anesthetic dissolved in blood & in gas when the 2 phases are in equilibrium
fraction expressed as whole number (i.e. 2/1 = 2, 1/2 = 5) |
|
Blood-gas coefficient:
20:1 or 1:1 - which is more potent? |
large B:G = more soluble
small B:G = insol = faster more potent???? |
|
Define MAC.
|
minimum concentration of anesthetic agent which will prevent purposeful movement in response to a supramaximal (painful) stimulus in 50% of patients
|
|
What does halothane contain as a preservative?
|
0.01% thymol
|
|
_____ has extensive hepatic metabolism - up to 20% of inhaled dose
|
halothane
|
|
What are the advantages of using newer inhalants such as desfluorane & sevo?
|
sevo:
-less resp depressant than iso -non-irritant to URT -good preservation of hepatic, renal, & splanchnic BF desfluorane: -extremely stable & has minimal hepatic or renal toxicity Both are good for operations requiring rapid recovery, small/baby patients, diabetic patients, prolonged procedures on obese animals or extremely sick patients |
|
Esters or Amides:
lidocaine bupivacine mepivacine |
all are amides
|
|
Which nerves are blocked 1st -smaller or larger ones?
|
smaller nerves blocked 1st
|
|
Which of the following is the smallest nerve type - A, B or C?
|
C
|
|
How are esters metabolized? amides?
|
esters: by PABA (para-aminobenzoic acid)
amides: metabolized by liver (>95%) w/renal excretion |
|
What is the toxic IV dose for lidocaine & bupivacaine?
|
lidocaine - 10 mg/kg
bupivacaine - 4 mg/kg |
|
What are the CNS effects of a local anesthetic overdose?
|
CNS depression
followed by agitation, muscle twitching & convulsions |
|
What are the CVS effects of a local anesthetic overdose?
|
direct myocardial depression resulting in bradycardia & decreased CO
hypotension |
|
What is the tx for local anesthetic overdose?
|
seizures: IV diazepam/midazolam + supplemental O2
bradycardia: antimuscarinics (atropine or glycopyrrolate) |
|
______ dogs may react badly to opioids and become dysphoric.
|
sled dogs - Huskies, Samoyeds
|
|
What is the pre-med default setting?
|
ACP (0.05 mg/kg) + Morphine (0.3 mg/kg) IM
|
|
What would you give a healthy young dog for sedation for skin testing?
|
pethidine or medetomidine alone IM
|
|
What is the default setting for GA maintenance?
|
iso (halo, sevo) +/- NO
|
|
With ______ respiratory depression is more marked than with halothane.
|
iso
|
|
inhalational agents:
______ - acts more rapidly and can change concentration more rapidly d/t it's lower B:G solubility |
sevo
|
|
Which inhalational agent should you avoid if concerned about expandable gas pockets (GDV, intestinal obstruction) or potential hypoxia?
|
nitrous oxide
|
|
What is the sedation default setting for a cat?
|
Ace 0.05-1.0 mg/kg + either morphine OR buprenorphine OR pethidine (meperidine) OR methadone mixed & given SQ
|
|
What is the inhalant default setting for a cat?
|
iso +/- NO
|
|
What is 0.3 mg dose of any drug (15 ml/kg) for 5 kg cat?
|
0.1 ml
0.3 mg/kg X 5 kg = 1.5 mg divided by 15 = 0.1 ml OR 0.3 mg/kg X 1 kg/15 ml = 0.02 mg/ml X 5 kg = 0.1 ml |
|
True or False
Line blocks are NOT recommended for anesthesia for c-section. |
T
|
|
Cattle are extremely sensitve to which drug?
|
xylazine
|
|
What drug can be abortifactant in the last trimester of pregnancy in cows?
|
xylazine
|
|
What are the potential complications of GA in ruminants and list ways to prevent?
|
regurgitation - prevent by pre-op starvation for 12-18 hrs, no water for 12 hrs, elevate head
bloat - no highly fermentable food for 24 hrs prior salivation - don't use atropine - makes saliva more viscus hypoventilation |
|
What is the triple drip used in cattle?
|
guafenesin + K +/- X
|
|
What is the risk of using xylazine in sheep and how can it be minimized?
|
pulmonary edema - even at low doses
give xylazine IM instead of IV |
|
Llamas & alpacas are less sensitive to _____ than other ruminants.
|
xylazine
|
|
What is used for induction and maintenance in llamas & alpacas?
|
induction: xylazine + ketamine
maintenance: iso or halothane |
|
Cow with dystocia, straining for last 3 hrs, can palpate live calf but manual delivery not possible - must do C-section. What do you use?
|
xylazine + butorphanol (no benzos)
caudal epidural: lidocaine + xylazine inverted L-block paravertebral anesthesia don't use line block |
|
What is the "come back another day" rule?
|
horse fails to respond to several doses of a2 or other sedatives and is difficult to restrain & excitable - have them come back another day and give them some ACP to give prior to returning
|
|
It is essential to have ____ ready drawn up to administer if horse shows signs of arousal during anesthesia.
|
top-ups:
thio ketamine diazepam + ketamine midazolam + ketamine |
|
Horses: the combo of recumbency & GA combined with time & other factors result in ______ (PaO2 < 60 mmHg) despite provision of 100% O2.
|
hypoxemia
|
|
Equine post-anesthetic myositis (EPAM: fit animals on _____ diet are more likely to succumb
|
high protein
|
|
T or F
The degree of training will not predispose a horse to EPAM. |
F - it will
|
|
How can EPAM be avoided?
|
'let-down' animals prior to anesthesia - esp fit animals -rest & stop high protein diet
|
|
Muscle relaxants (neuromusc blockers) have no analgesic properties but are verys useful for ______ surgery.
|
intraocular
|
|
What are NMB most commonly used for?
|
ocular procedures - cataract surgery
deep laparotomies - c-section, OVH (esp horses) rapid mgt of ventilation (esp horses) |
|
What are the 3 essential prereqs for use of NMB?
|
ensure consciousness
ensure adequate analgesia ensure means of supporting ventilation |
|
What is the sequence for the onset of muscle paralysis with NMB?
|
face, jaw, tail
neck & distal limb proximal limb pharynx/larynx abdominal muscles intercostal muscles diaphragm |
|
NMB:
depolarizing - _______ non-depolarizing - _____, _____ |
depol: succinylcholine
non-depol: atracurium, vecuronium |
|
How is atracurium e;liminated?
|
spontaneous degradation (Hoff man elimination)
|
|
Guafenesin blocks transmission of nerve impulses at the ______ of the SC, brainstem & sub-cortical areas.
|
internuncial neurons
|
|
______ is used for TIVA in horses & triple drip in cattle combined with ketamine & xylazine.
|
guafenesin
|
|
You should not use guafenesin concentrations of ____% in horses b/c it can cause hemolysis and potentially lead to thrombophlebitis of jugular veins.
|
>10%
|
|
What are the ABC's of basic life support?
|
A - assistance - establish airway
B - breathing support C - circulatory/cardiovascular support DO NOT USE DRUGS |
|
How many people are needed to competently perform CPR?
|
4
|
|
What are the 2 choices for cardiovascular support with CPR?
|
closed or open chest heart massage
|
|
CPR: IV fluids - use ____ & ____
|
crystalloids & hypertonic soln
|
|
How should epinephrine (adrenaline) be used in CPR?
|
low dose 1st (0.01-0.02 mg/kg)then is no response give high dose
|
|
What is the danger is using epinephrine (adrenaline) in CPR?
|
myocardial dysfunction & neurological outcomes
|
|
_______ is not for routine use in CPR.
|
calcium gluconate
|
|
What is the tx for ventricular tachycardia?
|
lidocaine
|
|
Which induction agent undergoes the most hepatic metabolism?
|
halothane - up to 21% metabolized
|
|
Most drugs used in anesthesia undergo hepatic metabolism except for ____ & ____ which undergo spontaneous degradation.
|
renifentanyl
atricurium |
|
What is the autoregulation of hepatic BF?
|
total hepatic BF is maintained over wide range of blood pressures and changes in portal venous BF (or hepatic arterial BF)
|
|
Which induction agent undergoes the most hepatic metabolism?
|
halothane - up to 21% metabolized
|
|
___% of functional nephrons are lost before azotemia develops.
|
75%
|
|
Most drugs used in anesthesia undergo hepatic metabolism except for ____ & ____ which undergo spontaneous degradation.
|
renifentanyl
atricurium |
|
What is the autoregulation of hepatic BF?
|
total hepatic BF is maintained over wide range of blood pressures and changes in portal venous BF (or hepatic arterial BF)
|
|
What are the 5 potential problems of anesthesia in patients with liver dz?
|
hypoalbuminemia
hypoglycemia drug metabolism - avoid KMTAX coagulation problems hypothermia |
|
___% of functional nephrons are lost before azotemia develops.
|
75%
|
|
What are the pre-renal factors that could cause an increase in BUN?
|
dehydration
hypovolemia high protein diet |
|
What the amount of normal urine production and why is this important?
|
1-2 ml/kg/hr
useful indicator of GFR which is an indicator of arterial BP |
|
Intrinsic regulation: the kidney maintains constant BF thru glomeruli over wide range of BP. When does this mechanism stop?
|
when mean arterial BP (MAP)drops below 60 mmHg
|
|
Normal plasma potassiumis _____ mmol/l.
|
3.5-5 mmol/l
|
|
Describe the mgt of a diabetic patient.
|
deprive of food 6 hrs pre-anesthesia
give 1/3 to 1/2 of their normal insulin dose on the morning of the surgery monitor blood glucose pre-GA and thru out procedure |
|
VSD with ____ to ____ shunting is common.
|
L to R
|
|
What are the specific considerations to think about with rabbits?
|
chronic resp dz, diarrhea
handling - vertebral fxs stress prone difficult intubation large gut, small thorax varied response to drugs easy to inject IV (good veins) |
|
Name the sedative drugs that can be used in rabbits.
|
ace
ace + butorphanol diazepam glycopyrrolate fentanyl medetomidine midazolam |
|
Name the analgesic drugs that can be used in rabbits.
|
buprenorphine
butorphanol morphine pethidine carprofen meloxicam |
|
What is important to remember about fluid balance in pediatric anesthesia?
|
high body water content
large ECF compartment |
|
List the 5 causes of hypoxemia & state which will respond to O2 supplementation.
|
hypoventilation - will respond to O2 supplementation
decreased FiO2-low inspired O2 concentration diffusion impairment V/Q mismatch R-L pulmonary shunt |
|
9 yr old Cavalier King Charles Spaniel in for dental. Has Grade III/IV systolic murmur & has been dx with mitral valve endocariosis. Currently being tx with Enalapril (ACE inhibitor). What is a suitable anesthetic protocol?
|
aim to maintain a slightly higher than normal HR to reduce regurgitant flow
low dose ACP + opioid with chronotropic effects (meperidine/pethidine) - not propofol (inotropic) avoid a2's they increase SVR & decrease HR etomidate & K/midzaolam maxillary nerve block severely affected animals - mask induction best |
|
What are the advantages of using hypertonic saline over other IV fluids?
|
-rapid IV volume expansion
-rapid restoration of MAP -increased CO -mild peripheral vasodilation -improved O2 delivery -reduced blood viscosity -reduced ICP -promotes urine production |
|
Hypertonic saline is useful in management of ______.
|
shock
|
|
What are the disadvantages of hypertonic saline?
|
increased Na, Cl
decreased K |
|
What does the pressure gauge indicate?
|
indicates pressure of gas upstream from pressure of regulator valves
|
|
What is the fxn of one-way valves?
|
ensures that expired gases flow away from animal & pass thru a CO2 absorber (soda lime cannister) b/f they can be rebreathed
|
|
What does the Y-piece join?
|
corrugated tubing
|
|
What is the fxn of the pop off valve?
|
helps keep bag partially inflated - should be open unless "bagging" patient
|
|
What is the scavenger for?
|
removes anesthetic waste gases from immediately vicinity of machine & patient
|
|
The ______ allow the patient to be manually ventilated.
|
rebreathing bag
|
|
The soda lime cannister removes ______ from exhaled gases.
|
CO2
|
|
Pulse Ox: explain how it works and give normal ranges for dogs & cats.
|
-provides pulse rate
-measures the Hb saturation of arterial blood -LED probe placed on tongue, lip fold, toe webbing, vulva, prepuce - absorbence of light by Hb & oxyHb Excellent - 97-100% Good: 94-96% NOT OK: 91% BAD 90% |
|
Explain how a capnograph works.
|
-continuous measurement of carbon dioxide tensions in inspired & expired gas
-provides information about the resp & CV systems -uses infrared radiation passed thru expired gas mixture to measure [CO2] |
|
Explain how a Doppler BP monitor works.
|
piezoelectric crystal probe positioned over peripheral artery
sound waves bounce off of RBCs & reflect back to converted sound the pressure at which the sound is audible is the systolic pressure |
|
Explain how the DINAMAP works.
|
Device for indirect non-invasive automated mean arterial pressure. Cuff inflated automatically to pressure greater then anticipated systolic pressure then the pressure is slowly released. Oscillations begin at systolic pressure, are maximal at mean pressure and fade out at diastolic pressure. MAP is measured directly and SAP and DAP are calculated from built-in algorithms.
|
|
7 yr old 30 kg male Lab w/acute CCR (cranial cruciate rupture). Describe the anesthetic protocol for performing a TPLO on this dog.
|
premed (+ continue post-op): opioids - morphine, fentanyl, methadone
NSAIDS - pre & post-op - carprofen, meloxicam intra-op infusions of FLK (fentanyl/lidocaine/K) or MLK (morphine/lidocaine/K) epidural analgesia - lidocaine/bupivacine, morphine (DOA 6-24 hrs) fentanyl patch - last 3-5 days but onset takes up to 24 hrs intrasynovial analgesia - lidocaine/bupivacine & morphine |
|
______ is a hyperoncotic soln and must always be given via catheter since extravasc injection of any concentration can cause tissue necrosis.
|
guafenesin
|
|
What is the max concentration of guafenesin that be given to cattle?
|
5% gaufenesin max b/c cattle RBCs are more sens to the osmotic-associated destructive effects of GGE than horses
|
|
NSAIDS should be avoided in ___ patients.
|
renal
|
|
_____ has renal vasodilator effects so in low doses m/b beneficial in patients wiht mild renal insufficiency to improve renal prefusion.
|
ACP
|
|
Nitrous oxide is contraindicated with _____ since it will accumulate in gas-filled viscis & thus exacerbate condition.
|
GDV
|
|
What is the treatment for ventricular tachycardia & ventricular tachyarrhythmias
|
lidocaine
|
|
______ by caudal epidural is rapidly absorbed and works well as a technique for sedating adult bulls.
|
xylazine
|
|
Llamas and alpacas are LESS sensative to _______ than cattle.
|
xylazine
|
|
What is the classic sedative combination used by equine vets for standing castration?
|
xylazine/butorphanol
|
|
Why is ACP not good for sedating horses?
|
no very effective
used to "take edge off" of young horses but very unpredicatable |
|
Why are benzos not used in horses for standing sedation?
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can cause muscle relaxation & disorientation
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Give 3 examples of cases where using newer inhalational agents (sebvo & desflurane) m/b esp useful.
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-geriatric or neonatal patients
-diabetic patients -patients with ostructive airway dz -small furries -any case where rapid recovery is desirable |
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With local anesthetic toxicity - _____ signs precede -____ signs.
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CNS before CVS
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What are the key clinical CNS effects of LA overdose?
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-initial transient CNS depression
-followed by agitation, muscle twitching, convulsions |
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What are the key clinical CVS effects of LA overdose?
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-direct myocardial depression leading to bradycardia & decreased CO
-hypotension |
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What is the tx for local anesthetic toxicity?
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fluids
seizures: IV diazepam/midazolam + supplementary O2 bradycardia: atropine or glycopyyrolate |
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Describe a suitable anesthetic protocol for anesthesia of cat for OVH.
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pre-med: ACP + morphine
induction: propofol maint: iso non-rebreathing system (Bain or T-piece) intra-op fluids: LRS peri-op analgesia: NSAID (carprofen) + opioid (morphine) |
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What are NMB commonly used for?
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-ocular procedures
-deep laparotomies (OVH, C-section - esp horses) -rapid mgt of ventilation (esp horses) |
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Give an example of meds used for daibetic dog.
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rapid-sequence induction using fentanyl-midazolam, propofol, epidural analgesia & main with iso/sevo
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