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213 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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The time or number of arming vane revolutions needed for the firing train to align after a bomb is released |
Arming time |
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Means used to initiate an electrical fuze |
Electrical impulse |
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What mechanical time fuze is used with dispenser weapons? |
Mk-339 Mod 1 |
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What method is used to determineif the Mark 339 fuze has shifted from the primary to the option delay? |
By checking the time setting observation window ofthe fuze |
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Which weapon uses a fuzing munition unit FMU-143 (series) tail fuze? |
GBU-24 (series) |
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What electronic bomb fuze is used in Mk80/bomb live unit-100 (series) general purpose bombs? |
FMU-139 |
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What electronic bomb fuze is used for retarded delivery of the Mk 80/bomb live unit- 100 (series) bomb? |
FMU-139 |
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What type of bomb is used in most routine bombing operations? |
General Purpose (GP) Bombs |
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What total number of yellow bands identifies a (BLU)-110/111/117A/B bomb loaded with PBXN-109? |
3 |
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A bomb body is shipped with a plastic plug installed in the nose and tail fuze wells to prevent what occurrence? |
Damage to the internal threads and moisture from entering the fuze wells |
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When shipping bombs, what type of pallet is used? |
Metal |
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When shipping, what factor determines the number of bombs that are loaded on each pallet? |
Size of the bombs |
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Arming wire assemblies are used for what purpose? |
Maintain ordnance components in a safe condition until the actual release of a weapon from an aircraft |
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Premature or accidental withdrawal of an arming wire from a component is prevented by the installation of which device? |
Dexter safety clips (Fahnestock Clips) |
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What items are used to attach a conical fin assembly to the aft end of a bomb body? |
Setscrews |
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What bomb fin is used with the Mark-82/BLU-111 bomb to provide a retarded (high- drag) bomb delivery for the aircraft? |
BSU-86 |
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What general-purpose bomb, if any, is used with the bomb stabilizer unit (BSU)-85/B Air Inflatable Retarder? |
Mk-83/BLU-110 |
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How do laser-guided bombs detect a target? |
Laser beam illumination |
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In what location is the wing assembly mounted on the guided bomb units? |
The aft end of the bomb body |
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The computer-control group of a laser guidance kit is used for what purpose? |
To detect laser-illuminated targets and to provide an attachment point for the guidance fins |
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What modification kit is used to convert general purpose bombs into mines? |
Mk-130 Mod 1 bomb/mine conversion kit |
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What bomb body, if any, is used to make the Mk-63 mine? |
Mk-83 or BLU-110 |
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What is the purpose of the Mk-339 Mod 1 mechanical time fuze? |
Initiate the linear-shaped charges in the cargo section wall |
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What are the components of the Mk-118 Mods 0 and 1 antitank bomblets? |
Mk-1 Mod 0 fuzing system, a shaped- charge warhead, and fixed stabilizing fins. |
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Practice bombs are used for what purpose? |
Provide safety when training new or inexperienced pilots and ground-handling crews |
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What type of ammunition causes the most injuries to personnel? |
Practice bombs |
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The history of rockets covers a span of how many centuries? |
8 |
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What initiating device detonates the propellant grain of a rocket? |
Igniter |
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What component of a rocket contains the propellant, igniter, and nozzle? |
Motor |
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What type of force is created from the burning propellant of a rocket motor |
Thrust |
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Rockets are propelled by what means? |
Expulsion of expanded gases |
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What type of high-explosive fragmentation warhead is used with a 5.0-inch rocket? |
Mk-63 Mod 0 |
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What type of warhead combines the effectiveness of high-explosive fragmentation and high-explosive anti-tank warheads? |
AT/APERS (Anti-tank/ Anti-personnel) |
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What type of warhead is a compromise between the armor-piercing and fragmentation designs? |
GP (General Purpose) |
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A 2.75-inch rocket assembly can be carried and launched from which of the following launcher packages? |
19 or 7 |
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All 2.75-inch rockets may be shipped in which of the following configurations? |
Complete rounds in 7 or 19 tube launchers or in metal containers |
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Which of the following Naval Air Systems Command publications provides authorized assemblies, safety precautions, and restrictions for airborne rockets? |
11-140-12 |
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What rocket component adds a mid-body semiactive laser guidance section to the current 2.75-inch rocket? |
Advanced Precision Kill Weapon System II (APKWS II) |
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All 5.0-inch rockets should be received through the supply system in which of the following configurations? |
Rocket motors in a four-round launcher and fuzes and warheads in separate shipping containers/ Separate components in separate shipping containers |
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What total number of feet, if any, can a rocket motor be safely dropped? |
0 |
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When, if ever, should you attempt to remove the base fuze from a rocket warhead? |
Never |
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Long-range missiles are usually capable of traveling what minimum number of miles? |
100 Miles |
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Speeds from Mach 0.8 to Mach 1.2 are referred to by what term? |
Transonic |
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Speeds above Mach 5.0 are referred to by what term? |
Hypersonic |
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A service missile is usually referred to as what type of missile? |
Tactical |
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What missile designator is assigned to an air-launched, aerial intercept missile in the 9th design and the 13th modification? |
AIM-9M |
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Identify the classifications of missile homing systems |
Active, Semi-Active, Passive |
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In an AIM-7M guided missile, the warhead is between what two assemblies? |
Guidance and flight control section |
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What section of a Harpoon missile contains the missile battery? |
Sustainer Section |
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An AIM-9M Sidewinder guided missile has what number of major components? |
5 |
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The control fins should be attached to what section of a Sidewinder guided missile? |
Guidance and control section |
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An AGM-88C guided missile is designed to operate in what total number of modes? |
3 |
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What are the major assemblies of the LAU-7 guided missile launcher? |
The housing assembly, mechanism assembly, power supply, and nitrogen receiver assembly/bottle ballast or Pure Air Generating System (PAGS) |
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Which guided missile launchers is a complete launching system used with AIM-9(series) missiles? |
LAU-115 |
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In the LAU-7 guided missile launcher, the missile's infrared detector is cooled by what means? |
Nitrogen receiver assembly |
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What two distinct interface configurations are used for the AIM-9X missile? |
Digital and analog |
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What launchers are capable of carrying and launching the AIM-9Xmissile? |
LAU-7 / LAU-115 |
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What missile is an antiarmor terminal homing weapon that uses a variety of warhead configurations, including shaped charge, blast fragmentation, and thermobaric? |
AGM-114 Hellfire |
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All versions of Hellfire missiles in the Navy and Marine Corps inventory are carried on what type of guided missile launcher? |
M-272 and M-299 |
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What reusable missile launcher completes the F/A-18 and P-3 aircraft suspension and launching system for the AGM-65 Maverick missile? |
LAU-117 |
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What purpose is a hand-manipulated signaling device used for? |
Identification, recognition, warning, and distress |
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A Mk-124 Mod 1 marine smoke and illumination signal emits what color smoke for day use? |
Orange |
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A Mk-124 Mod 1 marine smoke and illumination signal emits what color flame for night use? |
Red |
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The day or night end of a Mk-124 Mod 1 signal is marked in which way? |
The case has 3 raised beads around its circumference on the flare (night) end, and a label adhered to outer surface of the case identifies the smoke (day) and flare (night) end |
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A Mk 79 Mod 0 Illumination Signal Kit consists of what total number of Mk 80 Mod 0 signals? |
7 |
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When fired, the star ejected from a Mk 80 Mod 0 signal burns for what minimum amount of time? |
4.5 seconds |
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Before loading a signal into a Mk-31 Mod 0 signal projector, you should first take what action? |
Cock the projector |
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The illuminating candle in the LUU-2B/B aircraft parachute flare is made from what materials? |
Magnesium, sodium nitrate, and a polymer binder |
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Approximately how many pounds of force are required to pull the timer knob from the timer of an LUU-2B/B aircraft parachute flare? |
30 pounds |
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When a Mk-25 marine location marker is handled, what component physically prevents the base plugs from being accidentally pushed in? |
Arming plate in the SAFE position |
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When a Mk-25 Mod 3 marker is in the water, what liquid serves as an electrolyte to produce a current in the battery? |
Seawater |
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What is the average burn time, in minutes,of a Mk-25 Mod 3 marine location marker? |
13.5 to 18.5 minutes |
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What are the two major elements of the MJU-68/B Infrared Countermeasure Flares? |
Flare assembly and ignitor assembly |
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Passive expendables are dispensed by aircraft to mask or screen other aircraft or to cause what effect on tracking radar? |
Break lock |
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What signal cartridge produces a flash of light and large volumes of white smoke (for day use) when ignited? |
Mk-4 Mod 3 |
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What color smoke is produced by a CXU-3 signal cartridge? |
White |
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To extinguish an aircraft parachute flare that is burning in the open, which of the following methods should be used? |
Water in flooding quantities at low pressure |
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The case of the MJU-69/B is constructed of what type of material? |
Aluminum |
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When should the safety equipment of pyrotechnic and screening devices be removed? |
Just before devise is launched |
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What Naval Sea systems Command publication contains component location information for a Mk-46 Modifications torpedo? |
NAVSEA SW512-AO-ASY-010 |
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The Mark 46 Modifications torpedo can be assembled into what number of recoverable exercise configurations? |
2 |
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Which suspension band configuration is used to suspend Mk-46 or Mk-54 torpedoes from the bomb racks or shackles of the launching aircraft? |
Mk-89 Mod 1 (both) Mk-78 Mod 1 (Mk-46 only) |
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Propeller baffles prevent the propellers from engaging in what type of movement? |
Windmilling in air, turning the engine |
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Using Otto Fuel II in torpedoes has what major advantage? |
Short turn-around time for exercise weapons |
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What Naval Sea Systems Command publication contains Otto Fuel II safety, storage, and handling instructions? |
NAVSEA S6340-AA-MMA-010 |
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Aircraft-laid mines are used in which of the following types of operations? |
Offensive or defensive |
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Which general classification are magnetic, acoustic, and pressure mines grouped into? |
Influence actuated |
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Air-laid mines contain which types of explosives? |
Composition B, trinitrotoluene (TNT), composition H6, or high-blast explosive (HBX) mixtures |
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The arming device in an air-laid mine consists of what type of switch piston? |
Hydrostatic |
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A Mk-63 service mine is classified as what type of mine? |
Bottom |
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What safety device is used in a Mk-65 mine? |
Mk-45 |
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At what depth of water, in feet, must mines be jettisoned |
No less than 800 feet |
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The M61A1/A2 automatic gun is driven by what means? |
Hydraulically |
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The M61A1/A2 automatic gun is controlled by what means? |
Electrically |
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At what prescribed rate of rounds per minute does the M61A1/A2 gun fire M50 series ammunition? |
4,000 (gun low) to 6,000 (gun high) rounds per minute |
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What components are the primary parts of an M61A1/A2 automatic gun? |
Barrels, housing assembly, and rotor assembly |
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What means are used to secure the gun barrels to the stub rotor of an M61A1/A2 automatic gun? |
Interrupted locking lugs |
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On an M61A1/A2 gun, what component picks up a round as it enters the gun? |
Breach-bolt assembly |
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On an M61A1/A2 gun, a full firing cycle requires what prescribed number of actions? |
7 |
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Which two cycles describe the M61A1/A2 automatic gun operation? |
Firing cycle and clearing cycle |
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What component of an M61A1/A2 automatic gun ejects the empty case from the gun? |
Extractor lip |
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On an M61A1/A2 automatic gun, what sequence of actions is performed by the breech-bolt assembly during one full firing cycle? |
Feed, Chamber, Lock, Fire, Unlock, Extract, Eject |
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A drum unit assembly of an M61A1/A2 automatic gun consists of what major parts? |
Drum unit, entrance cover, exit cover, and scoop disk |
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The mechanical drive unit in an F/A-18 aircraft has what total number of output shafts? |
1 |
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A gun gas purge system of an M61A1/A2 automatic gun is used for what purpose? |
Cool the gun barrels and purge gas from the gun compartment |
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The air required to operate the gun gas purge system in an F/A-18 aircraft is provided by what air source? |
Engine bleed air and the ram air scavenge door |
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In an F/A-18 aircraft, the M61A1/A2 automatic gun system can be operated in what computer mode? |
A/G (Air-to-Ground) and A/A (Air-to-Air) |
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In an F/A-18 aircraft, what component is used to manually clear the M61A1/A2 automatic gun? |
Clearing sector retainer |
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An M61A1/A2 automatic gun must be sent to a depot-level maintenance activity under which conditions? |
120,000 rounds fired, requires major repair, alteration |
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Which gun maintenance procedures should be accomplished during scheduled maintenance of an M61A1/A2 automatic gun? |
Inspecting, disassembling, replacing parts, lubricating, assembling, and functionally checking components |
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Scheduled maintenance for an M61A1/A2 automatic gun handling and drive system should be performed after what maximum number of rounds has been fired? |
30,000 rounds |
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What is the rapid rate of fire in rounds per minute for the GAU-21? |
950 to 1,100 rounds per minute |
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What is the maximum air-to-ground range, in meters, of the GAU-21? |
6,500 |
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How is the GAU-16 cooled after firing? |
Air-cooled |
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What is the performance firing rate in rounds per minute of the GAU-16? |
750 to 850 rounds per minute |
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The GAU-17 major gun assemblies include what? |
Barrels and barrel clamp assembly, housing assembly, rotor assembly, and clutch assembly |
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What is the sustained firing rate in rounds per minute of the M240D? |
100 rounds per minute |
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What weapon can be removed easily from the helicopter and used for ground defense if needed? |
M240D |
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The M61A1and M61A2 uses what caliber ammunition? |
20mm |
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The GAU-21 uses what caliber ammunition? |
.50 Cal |
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The GAU-16 uses what caliber ammunition? |
.50 cal |
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The GAU-17/A uses what caliber ammunition? |
7.62mm |
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The M240D uses what caliber ammunition? |
7.62mm |
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A complete M50 service cartridge consists of what components? |
Cartridge case, electric primer, propellant, projectile, and fuze |
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Which cartridge case is made of steel? |
M103A1 |
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How do you identify the type of 20 mm ammunition? |
Lettering on the body of the projectile and by the painted color of the projectile |
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The semi-armor-piercing high explosive incendiary (SAPHEI) cartridge has what projectile gun unit designation? |
PGU-28/B and PGU-28A/B |
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The M50 projectile gun unit series ammunition is normally packed in what container? |
M548 |
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A small arms cartridge is an assembly conststing of what components? |
Cartridge case, primer, propellant, and a bullet. |
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Ball cartridges are used against what type of targets? |
Personnel and unarmored targets |
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What type of .50 caliber cartridge is used against combustible targets? |
Incendiary cartridge |
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What .50 caliber cartridge configuration is used in the aircraft machine gun? |
Metallic link belts |
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What cartridge is used in the GAU-17, M240, and M14 rifle for signaling, incendiary, target designation, and range estimation? |
M62 NATO tracer |
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The linkless ammunition loading system A/E32K-7 consists of what components? |
Ammunition loader, ammunition transfer system, or an ammunition replenisher. |
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What weapons handling equipment is used with the LALS when afloat? |
MHU-191/M |
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What action must be done to ensure that the ammunition loader is empty? |
Three marked dummy rounds must be cycled completely through the storage container assembly, transfer unit assembly, and conveyor assembly |
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In what type of environment must transporter loading or downloading operations be conducted? |
Hazards of Electromagnetic Radiation to Ordnance- (HERO) free |
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To prevent explosive primers on gun ammunition from being exposed to static electricity, what action should be taken? |
Make sure that the primer button of the ammunition doesn't come into contact with the human body |
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What tow target is used for air-to-air and surface-to-air gunnery or missile firing training exercises? |
TDU-32A/B and TDU-32B/B |
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The Navy currently uses what two subsonic powered targets? |
BQM-74E and BQM-34S |
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The BQM-74E missile target can be launched from which launching environment? |
Surface launched from a zero-length ground launcher utilizing dual Jet Assisted Takeoff (JATO) or from an aircraft |
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The BQM-74E target is controlled through normal flight maneuvers with the capability of performing 75-degree angle banking turns by what means? |
Fixed or portable integrated tracking and control system transponder |
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The AQM-37C missile target has what approximate range? |
155 nautical miles |
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The GQM-163A supersonic sea skimming target has what minimum cruising altitude? |
15 feet |
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How many types of tactical air-launched decoy vehicles does the Navy use? |
3 |
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What features does the tactical air-launched decoy use to provide false imagery to defense acquisition systems? |
Chaff, electromagnetic, and radar signature augmentation |
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What air-launched decoy has the product improvement that added turbojet propulsion, radar control, low-level flight, and global positioning system navigational capability? |
ITALD |
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What do target logbooks provide? |
History of maintenance, operation, and configuration control of the target. |
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What activity is responsible for updating the target performance reporting system? |
Target facility |
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The target performance reporting system resides on what secured database system? |
All Weapons Information System (AWIS) |
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The target performance reporting system should be updated within what number of hours if the target is expended |
48 hours |
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What command controls the ammunition handling equipment identified by mark and modification numbers? |
NAVSEA |
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What command controls the ammunition handling equipment identified by ADU, ADK, and HLK? |
NAVAIR |
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By what means can the command that has control over a particular piece of ammunition handling equipment be identified? |
Item designation |
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A Mark 12 Mod 1 pallet is what width, in inches? |
35 inches |
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A Mark 43 Mod 1 weapons carrier is combined with what weapons carrier to lift Mark 82/bomb live unit 111 bombs in tandem? |
Mk-49 Mod 1 weapons carrier |
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The Mark 49 Mod 1 weapons carrier has what maximum safe working load, in pounds? |
2,500 pounds |
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A Mark 51 Mod 1 weapons carrier has what total number of lifting eyes? |
8 |
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What number of interchangeable and interlocking 49-inch sections make up the A/F32K-1A bomb assembly stand? |
3 |
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What action is provided by the A/F32K-1A bomb assembly stand tray for the weapon during assembly/disassembly operations? |
It provides 360 degree rotation of the weapon |
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What action should be performed to use a HLU-256/E manual hoisting bar in a tee configuration? |
Relocate the nose plug connector to a position at the bar's midpoint |
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What beam is used to lift Harpoon missiles? |
Mk-37 Mod 1 lift beam |
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The Mk 85, 86, 87 Mod1 and Mk 100 Mod 2 pallet slings can handle what range of load heights, in inches? |
16 to 70 inches |
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What total number of pounds is the rated capacity of a Mk 105 hoisting sling with two leg assemblies? |
6,000 pounds |
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The brake crank on an HLU-288/E bomb hoist is used for what purpose? |
Hoist and lower the weapon |
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The HLU-196D/E has what double-point cable lift capacity, in pounds? |
3,000 pounds |
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The AERO12C bomb skid has what maximum safe working load, in pounds? |
1,250 pounds |
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An AERO12C bomb skid with an AERO9C bomb skid adapter installed provides what maximum safe working load, in pounds? |
1,000 pounds |
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The AERO64B soft-belt adapter provides what maximum safe working load, in pounds? |
2,500 pounds |
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The MHU-191A/M munitions transporter provides what maximum safe working load, in pounds? |
5,000 pounds |
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Two pairs of ADU-483/E adapters provide what maximum safe working load, in pounds? |
4,000 pounds |
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The AERO 71A skid flatbed adapter provides what maximum safe working load, in pounds |
4,000 pounds |
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Forklift trucks are powered by what |
Gasoline, diesel, or electric motors |
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An A/S32K-1E weapons loader provides what maximum safe working load, in pounds? |
4,500 pounds |
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What term defines the abbreviation LEMA? |
Linear Electro-Mechanical Actuator |
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What source provides the power required to operate the secondary release assembly of a bomb release unit (BRU)-14/A bomb rack? |
CAD |
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What bomb rack is installed in the weapon pylon of the H-60 aircraft? |
BRU-14/A |
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What aircraft has a bomb release unit (BRU)-32A/A bomb ejector rack installed? |
F/A 18 (series) |
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A bomb release unit (BRU)-33/A bomb ejector rack is used to carry two external stores each weighing up to what maximum weight, in pounds? |
1,000 pounds |
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A bomb release unit (BRU)-33 (series) bomb ejector rack requires what number of impulse cartridges to generate the required gas pressure for rack operations? |
2 |
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The bomb release unit (BRU)-55 bomb ejector rack provides the interface from the aircraft for carriage of which weapons? |
JSOW and the JDAM |
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When the gas-generating cartridge is fired in an improved multiple ejector rack or improved triple ejector rack ejector unit assembly, what movements is part of the unlocking process of the suspension hooks? |
The aft movement of the breech |
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Which set of components holds the suspension hooks of the improved multiple ejector rack or improved triple ejector rack in the open position? |
The hook toggle spring and the helical spring |
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What maintenance level is responsible for maintaining both the hardware adapter kit and the practice bomb adapters used with an improved multiple ejector rack or improved triple ejector rack? |
O-level |
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What maximum weight, in pounds, is the suspension under wing unit (SUU)-25F/A dispenser when it is loaded with eight aircraft parachute flares? |
490 pounds |
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What maximum number of impulse cartridges are installed in a fully loaded suspension under wing unit (SUU)-25F/A dispenser? |
8 |
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What load configuration is ejected from the Army/Navy air-launched expendable (AN/ALE)-39 dispensing system? |
Chaff, flares, or radiofrequency (RF) jammers |
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The Army/Navy air-launched expendable (AN/ALE)-47 countermeasures dispenser system provides an integrated, reprogrammable, computer-controlled system for dispensing what items? |
Chaff, flares, and radiofrequency (RF) expendables |
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What manual should be referenced when handling impulse cartridges? |
NAVSEA OP 3565/NAVAIR 16-1-529 |
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Which of the following personnel must be notified in the event a decoy flare has visible damage or the device's pyrotechnic load is visible? |
EOD |
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The majority of explosive mishaps are caused by personnel error due to what reasons? |
Inadequate training, lack of adequate supervision, and complacency and failure to follow the governing technical directives |
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What instruction governs the Navy Personnel Ammunition and Explosives Handling Qualification and Certification Program? |
OPNAVINST 8023.24 |
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What Navy personnel are included under the scope of the qualification and certification instruction? |
Officers, enlisted, and government employees |
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What types of magazines is provided on ships? |
Ammunition cargo holds, primary, universal, missile, ready-service, lockers, and chemical |
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Aboard an aircraft carrier, what type of magazines is capable of holding a ship's service allowance of ammunition? |
Primary |
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What type of magazine is located within the armor box and is used for the stowage of completely assembled rounds of weapons? |
Ready service magazines |
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Generally, each magazine on board a ship is designated to hold what total number of ammunition types? |
1 |
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What Naval Sea Systems Command publication provides the stowage tables that should be referenced when mixed ammunition storage must be used? |
OP 4 |
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What action should be taken when a magazine without environmental controls shows a temperature in excess of 100 degrees Fahrenheit? |
Use portable ventilation |
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Mk 58 Marine Location Markers NOT in an original watertight sealed container should be stowed in a magazine with which of the characteristics? |
Without a sprinkler system |
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Sprinkler systems are fitted in which magazines? |
Primary and missile magazines, ammunition handling rooms, and ready-service magazines |
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What minimum number of thermostats should be installed in each magazine? |
1 |
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What minimum distance of air space, in inches, should be provided between any ammunition stowage stack and the surface of adjacent plating or sheathing? |
2 inches |
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Aboard ship, magazine inspections are mandatory according to what Office of the Chief of Naval Operations instruction? |
4790.4 (series) |
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The maximum and minimum temperature conditions in a magazine should be observed, recorded, and reported at least how often? |
Daily |
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How many basic type of hoist are available? |
3- manually, electrically, and pneumatically powered |
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Any piece of handling equipment that has satisfactorily passed a periodic load test should be marked with what information? |
Equipment or system designator, the name of the testing activity, the test expiration date, and the SWL |
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What two major classifications of weapons elevators are used in the Navy? |
Lower and upper stage |
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What weapons elevators provide weapons transportation to the flight deck? |
Upper stage - wire rope |
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An ordnance mishap is most likely to occur under what condition? |
Weapons movement |
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Pier-side ammunition handling operations may be conducted after daylight hours under what condition? |
Adequately lighted pier and approved by the ships CO or master |
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An ordnance item is classified as hazards to electromagnetic radiation to ordnance unsafe if which of the following criteria have been achieved? |
The internal wiring is physically exposed |
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Which of the following publications contains detailed information pertaining to electromagnetic radiation hazards? |
NAVSEA OP 3565 / NAVAIR 16-1-529 |
