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613 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
Endocrinology involves the study of the endocrine organs and _______ |
hormones |
|
which of the following is NOT a major endocrine gland: A. Adrenal B. Kidney C. Thyroid D. Pituitary |
Kidney |
|
T/F: Autocrines are long-distance chemical signals that travel in blood or lymph throughout the body |
F - short-distance |
|
Steroids are synthesized from _____ |
cholesterol |
|
When one hormone opposes the action of another hormone, the interaction is called _______ |
antagonism |
|
what occurs in a negative feedback system |
target organ effects inhibit further hormone release |
|
what hormone stimulates most body cells to increase in size and divide? |
growth hormone |
|
_________ involves the loss of receptors and prevents the target cells from overreacting to persistently high hormone levels |
down-regulation |
|
what disorder results from hyposecretion of growth hormone |
pituitary dwarf syndrome |
|
what hormone stimulates gamete production |
follicle-stimulating hormone |
|
as blood levels of _______ rise the expulsive contractions of labor gain momentum and finally end in birth |
oxytocin |
|
the cells found in the parathyroid gland that secrete the parathyroid hormone are called ______ |
parathyroid cells |
|
which condition, if left untreated, progress to respiratory paralysis and death? |
hypoparathyroidism |
|
which homeostatic imbalance results from deficits in both glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids |
Addison's disease |
|
growth hormone, secreted by the ________ gland stimulates growth of bones and muscle |
anterior pituitary |
|
the anterior pituitary stimulates growth of bones and muscle by activating intermediary proteins called ________ |
IGFs - insulin growth factors |
|
_________ from the anterior pituitar stimulates secretion of cortisol |
adrenocorticotropic hormone |
|
cortisol is secreted from the _________ (gland) |
adrenal cortex |
|
The anterior pituitary consists of ______ tissue |
glandular |
|
the parafollicular or C cells of the _______ gland produce ________ a peptide hormone that lowers plasma calcium levels |
thyroid calcitonin |
|
Hormones secreted by the pancreatic islets of the pancreas include _______ from the alpha cells and _______ from the beta cells |
glucagon insulin |
|
which hormone secreted by the pancreas raises blood glucose levels |
glucagon |
|
specialized muscle cells in the atria of the heart produce _________ (hormone) which increases excretion by the kidneys |
atrial natriuretic peptide |
|
atrial natriuretic peptide hormone increases excretion of ________ by the kidneys |
sodium |
|
___________ (hormone) promotes the final conversion of vitamin D to _________ in the kidney |
parathyroid hormone calcitriol |
|
_________ (hormone) produced by the G cells i the pyloric antrum stimulates _____ secretion in the stomach |
gastrin HCl |
|
One hypothalamic hormone, ___________ is essentiral for the stress response as well as ______ |
corticotropin-releasing dopamine |
|
________ = a hypothalamic hormone that inhibits release of prolactin |
dopamine |
|
_______ (hormone) is a stimulus for sperm production in the male and maturation of ovarian follicles in the female |
follicle-stimulating |
|
________ secreted by the pineal gland, helps regulate body activities with the light/dark cycle |
melatonin |
|
the zona flomerulosa of the adrenal cortex primarily produces the hormone _______ |
aldosterone |
|
aldosterone acts on the _______ to increase ______ reabsorption |
kidneys sodium |
|
the __________ (gland region) is a modified sympathetic ganglion producing the amine hormones known as ________ |
adrenal medulla catecholamines |
|
catecholamines includes to hormones: |
epinephrine norepinephrine |
|
the testes produces a steroid hormone called ____ in the interstitial cells |
testosterone |
|
the testes produces a peptide hormone called ______ that inhibits FSH |
inhibin |
|
Large follicles in the ______ gland gontain a protein colloid called _______ |
thyroid thyroglobulin |
|
thyroglobulin produces the hormones ____ and _____ |
T3 and T4 |
|
T3 and T4 regulate _________ functions and are important for ________ system development and growth |
metabolic nervous |
|
Nuclei in the ventral hypothalamus produce two hormones that are stored in the posterior pituitary. - Name the two nuclei that produce these hormones - name the two hormones - which is important for water balance |
supraoptic nucleus - ADH paraventricular nucleus - oxytocin
antidiuretic hormone (ADH) |
|
name the important peptides |
insulin glucagon growth hormone ADH |
|
name the imporant amines |
T3 T4 epinephrine norepinephrine |
|
name the imporant steroids |
testosterone cortisol aldosterone estradiol |
|
Peptide hormones are synthesized as large precursor hormones called ________ |
preprohormones |
|
preprohormones are stored in ________ and released from the cell by ______ |
secretory vesicles exocytosis |
|
do peptide hormones require a carrier in the bloodstream? |
no |
|
catecholamines are produced in the _______ of the adrenal gland and are classified as amine hormones because they are derived from _______ |
medulla tyrosine |
|
stimulation of the chromaffin cells causes an influx of ______ ions, which causes the vesicles to merge with the plasma membrane and release the hormone by ______ |
calcium exocytosis |
|
are catecholamines water soluble or liquid soluble |
water-soluble |
|
Thyroid hormones include _____ and _____ |
T3 and T4 |
|
are carriers required for the transport of thyroid hormones? |
yes |
|
All steroid hormones are derived from _______; each is determined by _____ present in the cell |
cholesterol enzymes |
|
The common precursor molecule for all steroid hormones is ______ |
pregnenolone |
|
steroid hormones enter the blood stream via _______ and (do/do not) require a carrier |
diffusion do |
|
The rate of secretion of steroid hormones is (faster/slower) than that of catecholamines because steroid hormones are not __________ |
slower stored in the secretory vesicles |
|
Preganglionic sympathetic fibers trigger the release of ________ and ________ (hormones) from the ________ (gland) |
epinephrine and norepinephrine adrenal medulla |
|
The negative feedback of T3 and T4 decrease ______ levels |
TSH |
|
The negative feedback of cortisol decreases both ____ and _____ levels |
ACTH CRH |
|
Besides increased levels of plasma glucose and amino acids, increased levels of the hormone _____ and stimulation of the ______ nervous system also increase plasma insulin levels |
GIP parasympathetic |
|
Some hormones are released in rhythmic 24-hour patterns known as ________ rhythms |
circadian |
|
______ is a hormone allowing stressful stimuli to override the circadian rhythm and increases the plasma hormone levels |
cortisol |
|
_____ hormones are an example of large amounts of the hormones being bound to carrier proteins in the plasma forming a large circulation reservoir |
thyroid |
|
the ______ and ______ are the major organs that metabolize hormones |
liver kidneys |
|
______ and ______ are rapidly metabolized in the liver and kidneys; while the _____ and _____ take longer to metabolize |
peptide hormones catecholamines
thyroid and steroid hormones |
|
Hormones cause a biochemical change in the cell. The 5 possible changes include: |
contraction secretion transport synthesis breakdown |
|
water soluble proteins such as _______ and ______ bind to receptors located on the ______ |
peptides catecholamines
cell membrane |
|
what catalyzes the conversion of ATP to cAMP |
adenylate cyclase |
|
A single molecule of a hormone can have a large effect on the cell. Name the process that makes this possible |
amplification |
|
what enzyme inactivates cAMP? |
phosphodiesterase |
|
name the storage form of glucose |
glycogen |
|
name the storage form of amino acids |
proteins |
|
name the storage form of fatty acids |
triglycerides |
|
conversion to the storage form is known as _______ metabolism |
anabolic |
|
after a meal, high levels of glucose, amino acids, and fatty acides leads to an ________(increase/decrease) in insulin secretion |
increase |
|
sympathetic _________(increase/decrease) insulin secretion |
decreases |
|
parasympathetic _______ (increase/decrease) insulin secretion |
increases |
|
insulin travels in the blood and binds to what type of receptors on the cell membrane? |
tyrosine kinase |
|
what is the approximate halflife of insulin |
10 minutes |
|
what hormone increases plasma glucose levels |
glucagon |
|
glucagon breaks down the storage forms and is known as ______ metabolism |
catabolic |
|
what type of diabetes is characterized by a resistance of the target cells to insulin? Plasma insulin levels are (normal/high) |
Type 2 normal to slightly elevated |
|
In type 1 diabetes, the lack of insulin and glycogenolysis in the liver leads to _______ |
hyperglycemia |
|
with the increase in filtration of glucose at the kidneys, the carriers become _________ and the glucose appears in the urine, also known as ______ |
saturated glucosuria |
|
glucose acts as an ________, leading to urine flow |
osmotic diuretic |
|
increased lipolysis produces an increase in ________, which, when used as fuel produces ______ |
plasma lipids ketones |
|
The presence of ketones in plasma and urine is known as _____ and _____ |
ketosis ketonuria |
|
Lipid soluble hormones such as _____ and _____ hormones bind to receptors ___________ the cell |
steroid and thyroid within |
|
the hormone-receptor complexes act as _________ and then binds to _____. the mRNA produces _______ that catalyze biological reactions in the cell |
transcription factors DNA enzymes |
|
name 4 major actions of cortisol that are important for stress response |
gluconeogenesis/glycogenolysis lipolysis and protein breakdown enhances vasoconstriction inhibits immune response and inflammation |
|
the main function of the thyroid hormones are: |
regulating metabolic rate alter carb, lipid, and protein metabolism essential for growth essential for nervous system development and function |
|
the anterior pituitary is composed of _______ |
epithelial |
|
name the 6 classic hormones whose functions are well know |
TSH FSH LH ACTH GH PRL |
|
TRH, GNRH, and CRH are released into capillary beds and carried directly to the pituitary by the ________ located in the ______ |
hypophyseal portal veins infundibulum |
|
_____ and ______ are the posterior pituitary hormones |
oxytocin and vasopressin (ADH) |
|
give an example of hormones that has negative feedback mainly to the anterior pituitary |
T3 and T4 |
|
give an example of a hormone that has negative feedback to both the anterior pituitary and the ventral hypothalamus |
cortisol |
|
Prolactin is unique in that the main hypothalamic hormone regulating its secretion, _______ in inhibits its release |
dopamine |
|
which hormone increases prolactin release |
estrogen |
|
_______ hormones are necessary for the release of the growth hormone |
thyroid |
|
suckling of an infant causes milk letdown by stimulating what hormone? |
oxytocin |
|
changes in osmolarity detected by chemically sensitive neurons in the hypothalamus will alter what hormones level? |
vasopressin (ADH) |
|
cortisol release is synchronized by the light/dark cycle and has a 24-hour pattern of secretion known as ______ |
circadian rhythm |
|
Levels of cortisol are highest during what part of the day? |
early morning |
|
besides controlling levels of ____ and ____, TSH also promotes _____ of the thyroid gland |
T3 and T4 Growth |
|
T4 are carried in the bloodstream bound to _______ because they are _____ |
carrier proteins lipophilic |
|
T3 and T4 enter target cells by _____ and bind to receptors located in the ____. They are synthesized by ___ and ____ |
diffusion nucleus tyrosine iodine |
|
hypothyroidism is also known as _____ |
myxedema |
|
what are the symptoms of hypothyroidism? |
lethargy low BMR low to normal heart beat feeling cold weight gain |
|
lack of dietary iodine would cause _____ hypothyroidism and the patient would probably get an iodine-deficient ______ |
primary goiter |
|
Graves' disease is the most common cause of primary ________ |
hyperthyroidism |
|
In graves' disease, the body secretes ________, which mimics the action of TSH and may cause a _____ as well as high levels of thyroid hormones |
thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulin goiter |
|
increased levels of what three hormones indicate that an individual is experiencing stress? |
epinephrine norepinephrine cortisol |
|
epinephrine and norepinephrine response to stress by increasing/decreasing effects on the body.. name them |
increased CO, sweating, ventilation, blood pressure, plasma levels decreased insulin, and blood flow to digestive system |
|
in response to stress, the hypothalamus increases the release of CRH, which increases _____ from the anterior pituitary and ______ from the adrenal cortex |
ACTH cortisol |
|
Cortisol enhances ______ in vessels to help maintain blood pressure |
constriction
|
|
besides cortisol, the adrenal cortex releases _______ which promotes salt and water retention - helping maintain blood volume and pressure |
aldosterone |
|
_______ also aids in the stress response by promoting water retention at high levels, it is also a potent ________ |
vasopressin vasoconstriction |
|
epinephrine is a ______ hormone, thus it does not require a protein carrier and he receptors at the target cell are located _______ |
hydrophilic on the membrane |
|
epinephrine is synthesized from ______ and has a very short half-life of _____ |
tyrosine 10 seconds |
|
________ is a condition in which there is hypercecretion of catacholamines by a tumor in the adrenal medulla |
pheochromocytoma |
|
pheochromocytoma causes: |
sweating increased BP increased blood glucose increased heart rate increased TPR |
|
cortisol is a _______ hormone, thus it does require a protein carrier, and receptors are located ___ |
lipophilic within the cell |
|
cortisol is synthesized by _______ and has a half life of ______ |
cholesterol 90 minutes |
|
hypercortisolism is known as _________ |
cushings disease |
|
_________ is due to a hypersecreting tumor in the anterior pituitary - hypersecreted hormore ______ |
cushings disease ACTH |
|
hypercortisolism from reasons other than a hypersecreting tumor is called________ - an example is ______ |
cushings syndrome glucocorticoid drugs |
|
Primary adrenal insufficiency is better known as _________. what two hormones are insufficient |
Addison's disease aldosterone and cortisol |
|
what are the characteristics of Addisons disease |
low BP decreased plasma sodium hypoglycemia |
|
what are the characteristics of cushings disease |
high BP poor wound healing hyperglycemia |
|
what is the function of the endocrine system |
interact with nervous system to coordinate and integrate the activity of body cells |
|
what are the key differences between endocrine and neural control of homeostasis |
neural - regulates muscle and gland activity via electrochemical impulses delivered by neurons endocrine - influences metabolic activity via hormones |
|
what are the major processes that hormones control and integrate |
-reproduction -growth and development -maintenance of electrolyte, H20, and nutrient balance of blood -regulation of cellular metabolism and energy balance -mobilization of body defenses |
|
what are the major endocrine glands |
pineal pituitary hypothalamus thyroid thymus adrenal glands pancreas gonads |
|
what are the endocrine organs associated with neuroendocrine |
hypothalamus pancreas gonads placenta |
|
what are the endocrine organs associated with: glands with mixed functions |
pituitary thyroid parathyroid adrenal pineal |
|
what are the organs with endocrine cells |
small intestine stomach kidneys heart |
|
define exocrine glands |
produce non-hormonal substances have ducts that carry to surface |
|
give an example of exocrine glands |
sweat and saliva |
|
define endocrine glands |
ductless glands that release hormones into surrounding tissue |
|
chemical messengers that are secreted by cells into extracellular fluid |
hormones |
|
what is the function of hormones |
regulate metabolic functions of other cells in the body |
|
chemicals that exert their effects on the same cells secreted |
autocrines |
|
chemical messengers that act locally, but also affect cell types other than those releasing |
paracrines |
|
identify two chemical classes of hormones |
amino acids steroids |
|
what effects do hormones have on target cells |
-alters plasma membrane permeability by opening/closing ion channels -stimulates synthesis of enzymes and other proteins in cell -activates/deactivates enzymes -includes secretory activity -stimulates mitosis
|
|
how do water-soluble hormones activate a target cell |
act on receptors in the plasma membrane receptors are coupled via regulatory molecules (G proteins) with proteins of second messengers that cause targets cell response |
|
identify 2 major second messenger systems utilized by water-soluble hormones |
cyclic AMP PIP2- calcium |
|
how do lipid soluble hormones activate a target cell |
acts on receptors inside of the cell and directly activates genes |
|
examples of lipid soluble hormones |
steroids and thyroid hormones |
|
name 3 factors that determine the level of target cell activation |
1. blood levels of hormone 2. relative numbers of receptors for that hormone on target cells 3. strength of binding btw hormone and receptor
|
|
what is up-regulation |
persistent low levels of hormone can cause target cells to form an additional receptor |
|
what is down-regulation |
desensitized target cells to respond less vigorously to stimulation |
|
how does negative feedback work |
stimulus triggers hormone secretion -> the hormone levels rise --> target organ effects --> inhibits futher hormone release |
|
identify three ways endocrine glands are stimulated to release hormones and explain |
humoral - direct response to changing blood levels of certain ions and nutrients hormonal - release hormones in response to other organs hormones neural - nerve fibers stimulate hormone release |
|
which hormone class has the shortest half life |
water soluble |
|
list three kinds of interactions of different hormones acting on the same target cell |
permissiveness synergism antagonism |
|
________: when one hormone cant exert full effects without another hormone |
permissiveness |
|
_______: when more than one hormone produces the same effects at target cell - the combined effects are amplified |
synergism |
|
________: one hormone opposes the action of another |
antagonism |
|
describe the structural and functional relationships between the hypothalamus and the pituitary gland |
connected by the infundibulum the pituitary releases neurohormones received by the hypothalamus |
|
what is the function/structure of the posterior pituitary gland |
largely neural tissue - releases neurohormone recieved by the hypothalamus is a hormone storage area, doesn't manufacture |
|
what is the function/structure of the anterior pituitary gland |
mostly glandular tissue - manufactures and releases hormones |
|
how does the hypothalamus control the activity of the pituitary gland |
hypophyseal portal system - releases and inhibits hormones |
|
what are the two posterior pituitary hormones |
oxytocin ADH |
|
what is the source of oxytocin |
stimulated by impulses from the hypothalmic neurons in response to cervical/uterine stretching and sucking of infant at breast |
|
what inhibits oxytocin |
lack of appropriate neural stimuli |
|
target organ of oxytocin |
uterus breast |
|
effect of oxytocin on uterus |
stimulates uterine contractions, initiates labor |
|
effect of oxytocin on breast |
initiates milk ejection |
|
how is ADH stimulated |
impulses from hypothalamic neurons in response to increased blood solute conc. or decreased blood volume -also stimulated by pain, drugs and low bp |
|
how is ADH inhibited |
adequate hydration of the body alcohol |
|
target organ of ADH and effect |
kidneys - stimulate kidney tubule cells to reabsorb water |
|
hyposecretion of ADH |
diabetes insipidus |
|
hypersecretion of ADH |
syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion (SIADH) |
|
cell type of growth hormone |
protein, somatotropic cells |
|
how is growth hormone stimulated |
GHRH release - triggered by low blood levels of growth hormone -hypoglycemia -low levels of fatty acids |
|
how is GH inhibitd |
-feedback inhibition exerted by GH and IGFs -hyperglycemia -obesity |
|
target organs of GH |
Liver muscle bone cartilage
|
|
hyposecretion of GH |
pituitary dwarf syndrome in children |
|
hypersecretion of GH |
gigantism in children acromegaly in adults |
|
how is TSH stimulated |
by TRH in infants - cold temp
|
|
how is TSH inhibited |
by feedback inhibition exerted by glucocorticoids |
|
target organ of TSH |
thyroid gland - stimulated organ to release thyroid hormones |
|
hyposecretion of TSH |
cretinism in children myxedema in adults |
|
hypersecretion of TSH |
hyperthyroidism |
|
how is ACTH stimulated |
by CRH and hypoglycemia |
|
target organ of ACTH |
adrenal cortex - promotes release of glucocorticoids and androgens |
|
hypersecretion of ACTH |
Cushing's Disease |
|
how is FSH stimulated |
by GnRH |
|
how is FSH inhibited |
by feedback inhibition exerted by inhibin estrongen in females testosterone in males |
|
target organ of FSH and how |
ovaries - stimulates ovarian follicle maturation and estrogen production testes - stimulates sperm production |
|
hyposecretion of FSH |
failure of sexual maturation |
|
how is LH stimulated |
by GnRH |
|
how is LH inhibited |
feedback inhibition exerted by estrogen and progesterone in females and testosterone in males |
|
target organs of LH |
ovaries - triggers ovulation and stimulates production of estrogen and progesterone testes - promones testosterone production |
|
hyposecretion of LH |
failure of sexual maturation |
|
how is PRL stimulated |
by decreased dopamine release enhacened by estrogens, bc pills, breast feeding, and dopamine blocking drugs |
|
how is PRL inhibited |
by dopamine |
|
what is the target organ of PRL |
breast secretory tissue - promotes lactation |
|
hyposection of PRL |
poor milk production in nursing women |
|
hypersecretion of PRL |
inappropriate milk production |
|
what is a follicle |
in the thyroid gland, produces thyroglobulin |
|
glycoprotein secreted by follicles |
thyroglobulin |
|
substance that contains thyroglobulin attached to iodine atoms |
colloid |
|
______ cells: produce calcitonin found in follicular epithelium |
parafollicular |
|
what are the two components of the thyroid hormone |
T3- triiodothyroxine T4 - thyroxine |
|
how do thyroid hormones function |
enters target cell, binds to nucleus to initiate transcription of mRNA for protein synthesis |
|
what are the functions of thyroid hormone |
maintain blood pressure increases basal metabolic rate regulates tissue growth |
|
know the basic process to synthesize thyroxine |
1. thyroglobulin synthesized and discharged into follicile lumen 2. iodine actively transported into cell and oxidized to iodine 3. attached to tyrosine in colloid and forms DIT and MIT 4. iodinated tyrosines are linked together to form T3 and T4 5. thyroglobulin is endocytosed and combined with lysosome 6. lysosomal enzymes cleave T3 and T4 from thyroglobulin and diffused in bloodstream |
|
what is the negative feedback mechanism to control regulation of thyroid hormone |
falling TH levels trigger release of TSH which inhibits hypothalamic anterior pituitary axis which temporarily shuts off TSH release stimulus |
|
what are the secretory cells of the parathyroid gland and what is the stimulus |
parathyroid cells - falling Ca2+ levels causes PTH secretion |
|
what are the functions of PTH |
stimulates osteoclasts to digest bony matrix enhances resorption of Ca2+ promotes activation of vitamin D |
|
fxn of adrenal hormones |
regulate electrolyte concentration in extracellular fluid |
|
what are the 3 zones of adrenal cortex and what corticosteroid |
zona glomerulosa - mineralocorticoids zona fasciculata - glucocorticoids zona reticularis - gonadocorticoids |
|
what is the function of mineralcorticoids and what are the most important |
regulate electrolyte concentration Na+ and K+ |
|
what is the electrolyte responsible for establishing resting membrane potential |
K+ |
|
target organ for aldosterone and mech of activity |
kidney tubules - stimulates resorption of Na+ and water retention by elimination of K+ |
|
what triffers secretion of aldosterone |
low BP Low blood vol increased K+ |
|
what triggers inhibition of aldosterone |
increased BP increased blood vol decreased K+ |
|
what are the four mechanisms to regulate aldosterone production |
Renin-angiotensin-aldosterone plasma conc. of potassium ACTH Atrial Natiuretic peptide |
|
what does renin-angiotensin-aldosterone do? |
regulates the release of aldosterone |
|
how does plasma concentration of potassium affect aldosterone secretion |
influences the zone glomerulosa cells in the adrenal cortex |
|
how does ACTH affect aldosterone secretion |
hypothalamus secretes more CRN which increases the rate of aldosterone |
|
how does atrial natiuretic peptide affect aldosterone secretion |
ANP is secreted by heard which inhibits renin-angiotensin mechanism and blocks renin and aldosterone secretion |
|
what are the general functions of glucocorticoids and identify the most important |
energy metabolism in cells, reduce stressors cortisol |
|
what is the prime metabolic effect of cortisol |
provoke gluconeogenisis --> formation of glucose from fats and proteins |
|
what are the effects of excessive levels of glucocorticoids |
Cushings syndrome - ACTH pituitary tumor |
|
state the general functions of the gonadocorticoids |
-axillary and pubic hair -sex drive -menopause |
|
identify the secretory cells of the adrenal medulla and their products |
medullary chromaffin cells - synthesize catecholamines (epinephrine and norepinephrine) |
|
how are medullary chromaffin cells stimulated and what are the effects of the products |
stimulated by preganglionic fibers of the sympathetic nervous system increases the heart rate and metabolic rate, increases BP and leads to hypertension |
|
identify the secretory cells of the pineal gland and the hormone synthesized for secreation |
pinealocytes - melatonin |
|
identify the key sensation to stimulate the pineal gland |
suprachiasmic nucleus - "biological clock" |
|
identify the location of melatonin receptors and the function of the organ |
hands from the roof of the third ventricle in diencephalon regulates body temp, sleep, and appetite |
|
why is the pancreas considered a mixed gland |
composed of both endocrine and exocrine gland |
|
identify the pancreatic cells functioning as exocrine glands |
acinar cells |
|
identify the pancreatic cells functioning as endocrine glands and their associated hormones |
pancreatic islets - alpha and beta cells glucagon and insulin |
|
identify the major target of glucagon and the actions it promotes |
regulating blood glucose levels target = liver |
|
identify stimulants of glucagon secretion |
stimulated by sympathetic nervous system and rising amino acid levels |
|
state 3 ways in which insulin reduces blood glucose levels |
-glycogenolysis -gluconeogenisis -release of glucose to blood by liver cells |
|
identify the enzymatic activities triggered when insulin enters a cell |
- enhances membrane transport of gluose into body cells (muscle and fat) -inhibits breakdown of glycogen to glucose -inhibits conversion of amino acids to glucose |
|
identify the stimulus of insulin secretion |
elevated blood glucose levels |
|
identify the hormones produced by the ovaries and state their functions |
estrogen - produce eggs, maturation of reproductive organs and puberty progesterone - breast development |
|
identify the hormones produced by the testes and their functions |
testosterone - maturation, sex drive, and secondary sex characteristics |
|
when is the placenta a temporary endocrine organ? |
secretes steroid and protein hormone - estrogens and progesterone - and human chronic gonadotropin |
|
identify a hormone produced by the heart and state its function |
atrial natriuretic peptide - decreases the amount of Na+ in fluid - decreases blood volume and blood pressure |
|
identify the hormone secreting cells of the GI tract, the hormones produced, and their general function |
enteroendocrine - release peptide hormones gastrin - stimulates HCl production ghrelin - stimulates food intake and GH release secretin - stimulates release of enzyme-rich juice from the pancreas
|
|
identify the secretory cells from the kidney, the hormone produced and its function |
erythropoietin - red blood cell production |
|
identify hormones synthesized in the skin and state their functions |
cholecalciferol - stimulates active transport of calcium across the membrane in the small intestine |
|
identify hormones synthesized in adipose tissue and state their functions |
leptin - supresses appetite, increases energy expenditure resistin - antagonizes insulin adiponectin - enhances sensitivity to insulin
|
|
identify hormones synthesized by skeletal osteoblasts and state their functions |
osteocalcin - promoted by insulin - increases production and sensitivity of insulin |
|
identify the families of hormones synthesized by the thymus and state their general functions |
thymulin, thymopoietins, thymosins - all local paracrines involved in T-lymphocyte development and immune response |
|
________: hypersecretion of growth hormone in children - targets still active epiphyseal plate; abnormally tall |
gigantism |
|
________: excessive growth hormone secreted after epiphyseal plates closed "enlarged extremities" - overgrown bony areas |
acromegaly |
|
_____: growth hormone deficiency in children - slows long bone growth |
pituitary dwarfism |
|
______: ADH deficiency - intense thirst and large urine output caused by damage to the hypothalamus or posterior pituitary |
diabetes insipidus |
|
_______: underactivity of the thyroid gland - low metabolic rate, feeling chilled, thick dried skin, edema |
myxedema |
|
_____: enlarged protruding thyroid gland from lack of iodine |
endemic goiter |
|
_______ severe hypothyroidism in infants - mentally retarded; short, disprportionately sized body - thick tongue and neck |
cretinism |
|
_________: autoimmune condition - person makes abnormal antibodies against thyroid follicular cells |
graves disease |
|
_______: parathyroid gland tumor - calcium is leeched from bones |
hyperparathyroidism |
|
________: ACTH-releasing malignancy of lungs, pancreas, kidneys |
cushings syndrome |
|
__________: hyposecretion of adrenal cortex - deficits in glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids |
addisons disease |
|
_______: absent insulin |
diabetes type 1 |
|
__________: insulin present but deficient |
diabetes type 2 |
|
brief overview of blood circulation |
initiated by pumping action of heart blood exits heart via arteries which branch into tiny capillaries diffustion of O2 and nutrients into body tissues CO2 and wastes leave tissues into blood stream O2 deficient blood leaves via veins back to the heat to the lungs and back to the heart |
|
properties of blood that qualify as a tissue using formed elements and plasma |
plasma = 55% buffy coat = leukocytes and platelets erythrocytes = 45% proteins |
|
fxn of erythrocytes |
RBC's transport O2 in the blood |
|
what is hematocrit and what are the averages male/female |
percentage of RBS's in the blood males 47% +/- 5% females 42% +/- 5% |
|
what is the function of leukocytes |
protect the body from foreign substances |
|
what is the fxn of platelets |
help stop bleeding |
|
blood = ______% of body weight |
8 |
|
what is the normal blood volume for an adult female/male |
female = 4-5L male = 5-6L |
|
what are the 3 distribution functions of blood |
- delivering O2 and nutrients to body cells -eliminating waste -transporting hormones from endocrine organs to their target organ |
|
state the 3 regulatory functions of blood |
-maintaining appropriate body temp -maintain normal pH in body tissues -maintain adequate fluid volume in circulatory system |
|
state the 2 protective functions of blood |
-prevent blood loss via clotting -prevent infection via antibodies |
|
key solutes found in plasma and the relative abundance |
water = 90% electrolytes = Na+, K, Ca2+, Mg2+, P, S, H2CO3 Plasma proteins (8%) nutrients = glucose, carbohydrates, amino acids, fatty acids respiratory gasses - O2, CO2, H2CO3 hormones - steroid and thyroid |
|
what are the plasma proteins and where are they made |
albumin - liver (60%) - carrier in blood buffer; contributes to osmotic pressure that keeps H2O in the blood stream globulins - liver (36%) - alpha and beta transport proteins that bind to lipids, metal ions, and fat soluble ions gamma releases antibodies during immune response fibrinogen - liver fxns in blood clotting (4%) - forms fibrin threads of blood clot |
|
identify the three formed elements of blood |
erythrocytes leukocytes platelets |
|
known the 3 structural characteristics that contribute to Red Blood Cell function |
- biconcave shape - provide surface area relative to volume - suited for gas exchange -discounting H20 content -> 97% hemoglobin binds respiratory gases -dont consume any O2 carried b/c generate ATP themselves |
|
normal values for adult male/females for hemoglobin |
males = 13-18grams per 100mL of blood females = 12-16grams |
|
what is hematopoiesis and where does it take place in adults |
blood cell formation occurs in red blood marrow within blood sinudoids in axial skeleton bones and girdles, proximal epiphysis of humerus and femur |
|
what is the average daily production of blood |
an ounce |
|
explain the negative feedback mechanism of erythrocyte homeostasis |
caused by decreased RBC, Hb, and O2 - erythropoeitin stimulates formation of erythrocytes via bone marrow released by the kidney and liver which increases O2 carrying. |
|
dietary requirements of erythrocyte formation |
iron |
|
what is that average life span of an erythrocyte and what happens to dying cells |
100-120 days - they are degraded and leaves body in feces |
|
condition in which the blood O2 carrying capacity is too low to support normal metabolism |
anemia |
|
what causes hemmorrhagic anemia |
trauma - acute blood loss |
|
what causes iron deficiency anemia |
not enough red blood cells produced |
|
what causes pernicious anemia |
autoimmune disease that destroys own rbcs |
|
what is renal anemia |
lack of EPO |
|
what is aplastic anemia |
destruction of red bone marrow |
|
what causes hemolytic anemia |
erythrocytes rupture |
|
what causes thalassemia |
absent globin chains in rbcs |
|
what causes sickle cell anemia |
crescent shaped rbcs caused by a mutation in DNA |
|
what is polycythemia and common causes |
abnormal excess of erythrocytes that increases blood viscosity causing it to flow sluggishly |
|
mechanism where leukocytes move out of capillary vessels to transport |
diapedesis |
|
what is amoeboid motion |
form flowing cytoplasmic extensions that move leukocytes along |
|
mechanism that pinpoints areas of tissue damage and gather in large numbers to destroy foreign substances |
positive chemotaxis |
|
identify the 5 leukocytes and in order of relevant abundance |
neutrophils lympocytes monocytes eoisinophils basophils |
|
name the 3 granulocytes |
neutrophils basophils eosinophils |
|
what is the specific function of neutrophils |
bacteria slayers - numbers increase during acute bacterial infections |
|
what is the specific function of basophils |
vasodilator due to inflammation- chemical attractcs WBC to infected site |
|
what is the specific functions of eosinophils |
digest bacteria - counter attack against parasitic worms too large to be phagocitized |
|
name and state the function of the agranulocytes |
lymphocytes -Tcells - immune attack virus infected and tumor cells -Bcells - plasma cells that produce antibodies released in the blood monocytes - macrophages - defense against viruses |
|
what are the chemical signals that stimulate leukopoesis |
interleukins and colony stimulating factors stimulate granulocyte production and promp WBC to mature and enhance protective property |
|
what leukocyte differentiates from lymphoid stem cells |
lymphocytes |
|
what is leucopenia and what are the common causes |
abnormally low WBC count - commonly induced by drugs particularly glucocorticoids and anticancer agents |
|
what is leukemia and what are the 2 basic types and cell of origin |
cancerous condition that involves the production of abnormal white blood cells -myeloid leukemia - myeloblast decendants -lymphocyte leukemia - lympocyte decendants |
|
what is the hormone that regulates platelet formation and the target cell |
thrombopoitin megakaryocyte |
|
mechanism that stops bleeding |
hemostaisis |
|
what are the 3 steps of hemostasis |
1. vascular spasm 2. platelet plug formation 3. coagulation - blood clotting |
|
what is the purpose of step 1 of hemostasis |
vasoconstriction - constrict blood vessels |
|
what blood chemicals are needed for step 3 of hemostasis |
clotting factors/precoagulants plasma proteins |
|
why are Ca2+ and K+ important in hemostasis |
Ca2+ needed in coagulation K+ synthesizes clotting factors |
|
what are the 3 phases of coagulation |
1. two pathways to prothrobin activator 2. common pathway to thrombin 3. common pathway to fibrin mesh |
|
what is the goal of phase 1 of blood coagulation |
formation of prothrombin activator |
|
compare/contrast intrinsic and extrinsic pathways of blood coagulation |
intrinsic -factors needed for clotting found w/in blood -triggered by negatively charged surfaces- platelets, collagen -slue due to many steps
extrinsic -factors needed for clotting found outside of blood -triggered by exposing blood to damaged endothelium -fast - bypasses a lot of steps for intrinsic |
|
what is the goal for phase 2 of blood coagulation |
prothrombin activator catalyzes the conversion of prothrombin into active enzyme - thrombin |
|
what is the goal of phase 3 of blood coagulation |
clot formation |
|
what is the importance of clot reaction |
further stabilizes the clot, platelets contrat and squeeze serum from mass -> compacts the clot and draws the edges together |
|
what is the importance of fibrinolysis and key molecules involved |
removes unneeded clots when healing occurs plasmin circulates enzymes to burst clot |
|
identify 2 homeostatic mechanisms that prevent clots from becoming too large |
1. swift removal of clotting factors 2. inhibition of activated clotting factors |
|
how does antithrombin III prevents clots from becoming too large |
inactivates any thrombin not bound to fibrin - inhibits the intrinsic pathway |
|
what is the natural anticoagulant and state how it prevents clots from becoming too large |
heparin - contained in basophil and mast cell granules inhibits thrombin by enhancing antithrombin III activity inhibits intrinsic pathway |
|
what are the key factors for preventing undesirable clotting |
-endothelium smooth and intact -antithrombic substances, nitric oxide and prostacyclin prevent platelet adhesion -vitamin E quinone - potent anticoagulant |
|
what is a thromboembolic disorder of hemostasis |
causes undesirable clot formation |
|
______ = clot that develops and persists in unbroken blood vessel |
thrombus |
|
_______ = thrombus breaks away and floats freely in bloodstream |
embolus |
|
______ = emolus obstructing a blood vessel |
embolism |
|
________ = bleeding disorder where there is a deficient number of circulating platelets that causes spontaneous bleeding from small blood vessels |
thrombocytopenia |
|
what deficiency causes impaired liver function |
vitamin K |
|
________ = deficiency of factor VIII (anti-hemophilic factor) |
hemophilias |
|
_______ = anything the body sees as foreign and generates an immune response |
antigen |
|
identify the two groups of antigens that cause vigorous transfusion reactions |
A & B |
|
know the ABO blood groups by surface agglutinogen |
A - anti A B - anti B AB - anti A and anti B O - Neither - no agglutination |
|
identify possible donors for each ABO blood type |
AB - universal recipient B - B and O A - A and O O - only O |
|
what is the hemolytic disease of the newborn and is it preventable? |
Rh- mother and Rh+ baby - antibodies will cross through placenta and destroy baby RBC's cause the baby to be anemic and hypoxic Can be prevented by a transfusion before birth |
|
what are the 2 major events in a transfusion reaction and what are the consequences |
1. agglutination of foreign RBC's clogs blood vessels 2. Clumped cells begin to rupture/destroyed by phagocytes
Consequences: 1. transfused blood cells can't transport O2 2. clumped cells hinder blood flow to tissues |
|
state the function of the lymphatic system and identify the componentsreturn |
fluids that have leaked from the blood vascular system back to the blood -lymphatic vessels -lymph fluid -lymph nodes |
|
name the lymphoid organs |
-spleen -thymus -tonsils -lymph nodes |
|
identify the lymphatic vessels from smallest to largest |
lymphatic capillaries lymphatic vessels |
|
what are two structural modifications that make lymphatic capillaries highly permeable |
1. endothelial cells forming the walls are not tightly joined - they are easily opened "mini-valves" 2. collagen filaments anchor the endothelial cells to surrounding structures so that any increase in interstitial fluid volume opens the mini-valves |
|
describe lacteals - know specific location and function what is chyle |
A special set of lymphatic capillaries that transport absorbed fat from small intestine into the blood stream chyle - fatty lymph that drains from intestines |
|
describe the lymphatic collecting vessels, how they differ from blood veins |
have thinner walls and more internal valves lymphatics in the skin travel along with superficial veins |
|
what are the drain fields for the lymphatic trunks and name them |
largest collecting vessels unite to form trunks - travel with deep arteries; drain large areas of the body -lumbar -bronchomediastinal -subclavian -jugular -intestinal |
|
name the two large lymphatic ducts in thoracic cavity and know the collection area |
right lymphatic duct - drains lymph from the right upper limb and right side of head an thorax
larger thoracic duct - drains lymph from the rest of the body -> L side of the thorax, L upper limb and L side of head |
|
identify the methods by which lymph is transported through the system |
- return excess tissue fluid to bloodstream -return leaked proteins to the blood - carry absorbed fat from the intestine to the blood (through lacteals) |
|
what are two main varieties of lymphocytes and state their functions |
T- cells = manage immune response and directly attack and destroy infected cells B - cells = protect the body by producing plasma cells that secrete antibodies into the blood which make antigens for destruction by phagocytes |
|
identify the lymphoid cells other than T and B cells |
macrophages - protection and immune response -> directly attack and destroy infected cells
dendritic cells - activate Tcells and capture antigens that bring them back to the lymph nodes
reticular fibers - fibroblast-like cells that produce stroma = network that supports other cell types in lymphoid organs and tissues |
|
state two reasons lymphoid tissue is considered part of the immune system |
1. Houses and provides a proliferation site for lymphocytes 2. furnishes an ideal surveilance vantage point for lymphocytes and macrophages |
|
what is the type of connective tissue found in most lymphoid tissues |
reticular connective exception = thymus |
|
how are lymphoid tissues organized |
huge numbers of lymphocytes squeeze through walls of postcapillary venules. they leave to patrol body again and cycles btw circulatory vessles, lymphoid tissues and loose conn. tissue. Body ensures lymphocytes reach infected or damaged sites quickly |
|
identify the principal lymphoid organ and state the functions |
lymph nodes 1. filtration - filters lymph before its transferred to blood stream 2. immune system activation - attack antigens |
|
______= dense, fibrous casing = trabeculae extend from and create compartments |
lymph node capsule |
|
_______: contains densly packed follicles, many with gernimal centrers and heavy with dividing B cells |
lymph node cortex |
|
_______:inward extensions from cortical tissues - contain body types of lymph nodes |
medullary cords |
|
__________: large lymph capillaries spanned by criscrossing reticular fibers - house macrophages that phagocitize |
lymph sinuses |
|
_________ = 2nd area of lymph travel into smaller sinuses that enter medulla through medullary sinuses |
subcapsular sinus |
|
description of spleen and its location |
largest lymphoid organ site for lymphocyte proliferation and immune survaliance and response *blood cleansing* |
|
_________= where worn out RBCs and bloodborne pathogens are destroyed; contains lots of erythrocytes and macrophages |
red pulp |
|
_______ = immune functions take place - mostly lymphocytes on reticular fibers; forms cuffs around central arteries |
white pulp |
|
________ = enter/exit site of blood through spleen |
hilum |
|
_________ = surrounds spleen, has trabeculae that extend inward |
fibrous capsule |
|
________ = forms the exit to the hilum |
central artery |
|
_____= regions of reticular conn tissue that separate the blood filled splenic sinusoids |
splenic cords |
|
identify 3 splenic functions |
1. stores some of the breakdown products of RBC's for later use 2. stores blood platelets and monocytes for release into blood when needed 3. site of RBC production in fetus |
|
what is the primary function of thymus |
t-lymphocytes become able to defend us against specific pathogens in immune response |
|
how do the morphological changes of the thymus throughout life impact its function |
highly active during 1st year of life - after puberty it atrophies gradually, by old age it is replaced by fatty tissue and fibrous tissue - continues to produces immunocompetent cells but just at a declining rate |
|
identify three important differences between the thymus and other lymphoid organs |
1. No follicles b/c it lacks B cells 2. only lymphoid organ to not directly fight antigens; maturation site for T-lymph 3. The stroma of the thymus consists of epithelial cells (provide environment needed for Tlymphocyte maturity) rather than reticular fibers |
|
The ______ of the thymus houses the thymic corpuscles that are involved in the development of _____ cells |
medulla Treg cells |
|
_________ - keeps bloodborne antigens out of the thymus |
blood thymus barrier |
|
identify the lymphoid tissues that are considered MALT |
tonsils peyers patches appendix |
|
name the 4 tonsils and their specific location |
palantine - posterior end of oral cavity - largest and most infected lingual - lumpy collection of lymphoid follicles at the base of the tongue pharyngeal (adenoids) - posterior wall of nasopharynx tubal - surround openings of auditory tube into the pharynx |
|
state the function of tonsils |
gather and remove many pathogens entering the pharynx in food and air |
|
describe structure of tonsils and know the significance of tonsillar crypts |
contain follicles with germinal centers surrounded by lymphocytes not fully encapsulated epithelium covering forms tonsillar crypts that block bacteria and matter |
|
what are peyers patches and where are they located |
aggregated lymphoid nodules - located in the wall of distal portion of small intestine |
|
state the functions of peyers patches and appendix |
1. destroy bacteria before pathogens can breach intestinal wall 2. generate memory lymphocytes fr long term immunity |
|
__________ = tubular offshoot of large intestine with high conc of lymphoid follicles |
appendix |
|
identify the two intrinsic systems and the differences |
innate defense system - protect from all foreign substances - external body membranes, intact skin and mucosae; internal antimicrobial proteins and phagocytes
adaptive defense system - attack particular foreign substances - takes more time; humoral (B cells) and cellular immunity (T cells) |
|
Identify protective chemicals secreted by epithelial membranes |
Acid mantle - skin, vagina, stomach - inhibits bacteria growth lysozyme - saliva, respiratory mucus, eye - destroys bacteria mucin - traps microorganisms sebum/dermicidin - eccerine sweat, toxic to bacteria |
|
know the secretions of the respiratory mucosa and fxn |
secrete defensins - antimicrobial peptides - increasees rapidly in response to inflammation - control bacterial and fungal colonization |
|
how are internal innate defenses triggered |
respiratory tract mucosa have tiny mucous coated hair inside the nose that trap inhaled particles
cilia on mucus prevent bacteria from lower respiratory passage internal innate defenses can be triggered by shaving and brushing teeth |
|
identify the cells and chemicals of the internal innate defenses |
-phagocytes -natural killer cells -antimicrobial proteins -fever -microphages -mast cells -WBCs |
|
_______ = membrane lined vesicle that encloses bacteria |
phagosome |
|
_________ = phagosome fused with lysozyme |
phagolysosome |
|
_________ = pathogen coated with opsonins (antibodies) that accelerated phagocytosis |
opsonization |
|
_____ = when Tcells release chemicals that stimulate macrophage and activates additional enzymes that promotes bursting/killing of pathogens |
respiratory burst |
|
_________ police the body in blood and lymph - lyse and kill cancer and virus infected body cells before adaptive immune system is activated |
NK cells_ |
|
how are NK cells different from other lymphocytes? |
are non-specific and directly kill by inducing apoptosis lymphocytes are specific |
|
what are the triggers of the inflammatory response |
physical trauma intense heat irritating chemicals infection by virus, fungi, bacteria |
|
3 beneficial functions of inflammation |
1. prevents spread of damaging agents to nearby tissues 2. disposes of cell debris and pathogens 3. alters the adaptive immune system |
|
4 cardinal signs of inflammation |
redness heat swelling pain |
|
__________ = membrane receptors that recognize invaders and sound chemical alarm that triggers release of cytokines |
toll-like receptors
|
|
_______ = inflammatory chemicals triggered by toll-like receptrs |
cytokines |
|
_______ = cells that release histamine in response to injured tissue/immune cells |
mast cells |
|
_______ = potent inflammatory chemical released by mast cells |
histamine |
|
fxn of kinins |
-induce chemotaxis of leukocytes -prompt neutrophils to release lysozymes -induce pain |
|
what 3 things dilates local anterioles and make local capillaries leak more |
kinins, prostaglandins and complement |
|
-_______ = fatty acid in cell membrane generated by neutrophils, basophils, and mast cells that induce neutrophil chemoxtaxis and pain |
prostaglandins |
|
________ = signaling chemicals that mediate inflammation and allergic reactions |
leukotrienes |
|
________ = bloodborne proteins that lyse microorganisms, enhance phagocytosis by opsonization |
complement proteins |
|
_______ = congestion with blood that occurs when local arterioles dilate; causes redness and heat of inflammed region |
hyperemia |
|
_______ = fluid containing clotting factors and antibodies seeps from blood into tissue space; causes local swelling (edema) and sense of pain |
exudate |
|
what is the first leukocyte involved in phagocyte mobilizaton |
neutrophils |
|
4 steps of phagocyte mobilization |
1. leukocytosis 2. margination 3. diapedesis 4. chemotaxis |
|
______ = neutrophils enter from red bone marrow and increases the number of neutrophils and WBC's |
leukocytosis |
|
_______ = inflammed endothelial cells sprout cell adhesion molecules and pinpoint the inflammed area |
margination |
|
________ = prompts neutrophils to squeeze through endothelial cells of capillary walls |
diapedesis |
|
_______ = WBC's migrate to site of inflammation response and destroy foreign material |
chemotaxis |
|
two most important antimicrobial proteins |
interferons complement protiens |
|
_______ = proteins released by virus infected ells and lymphocytes that act as chemical messengers to protect uninfected tissue cells from viral take over |
interferons |
|
two ways by which complement can be activated |
1. classical pathway: antibodies fight off invaders 2. lectin pathway: recognize foreign invaders and bind to activate complement |
|
explain how complement fixation causes lysis of target cells |
several antibodies bind close together on same cell and triggers cell lysis - amplifies inflammation response and promotes phagocytosis via opsonization |
|
________ = protein the creates a hole in membrane of cell and allows an influx of H2O --> lyses cell |
MAC - membrane attack complex |
|
________ = abnormally high body temperature due to a localized response to infection |
fever |
|
how is a fever triggered |
leukocytes and macrophages exposed to foreign substances release pyrogens that act on the bodies thermostat |
|
how is fever protective |
-causes liver and spleen to sequester iron and zinc --> less able to support bacterial growth - increase metabolic rate of tissue cells -> speeding repair response |
|
why is fever dangerous |
denatures proteins and depresses neurons that can cause convulsions |
|
innate vs adaptive immune system |
innate - always ready to respond adaptive - must be prepped by an initial exposure to antigen |
|
3 most important aspects of the adaptive system |
1. it is specific - particular pathogens 2. systemic - not restricted to initial infected site 2. memory - mounts stronger attacks on previous encountered pathogens |
|
two arms of adaptive immunity and fxn |
- humoral immunity - antibody mediated provided by lymphocyes that bind to foreign materials -cellular immunity- cellular targets: virus/parasite infected cells/cancer cells directly kill cells |
|
2 functional properties of complete antigens |
immunogenicity - stimulate specific lymphocytes to multiply reactivity - react with the activated lymphocytes and antibodies released |
|
example of complete antigens |
large polysacchariddes lipids nucleic acids bacteria fungi |
|
_______ small molecules that link up with bodies own proteins so adaptive immune system recognizes combination as foreign and mounts harmful attack |
incomplete antigens |
|
_______ = antigenic to other individuals, contain a group of glycoproteins called MHC and Tlyphocytes can only bind antigens present on those proteins |
self-antigens |
|
3 crucial cell types of the adaptive immune system |
1. B lymphocytes 2. T lymphocytes 3. APC's |
|
________ = cells that oversee humoral immunity |
B cells |
|
_______ = nonantibody producing lymphocytes that constitute agaptice immunity |
Tlymphocytes |
|
5 general steps of development, maturation and activation of lymphocytes |
origin maturation seeding secondary lymph organs antigen encounter and activation proliferation and differentiation |
|
what is the aim of the maturation process |
-immunocompetence - ale to recognize its antigen by binding to it -self-tolerance - unresponsive to self-antigens so it doesn't attack the bodies own cells |
|
identify the primary lymphoid organs where lymphocytes mature
what is their status upon exit |
thymus and bone marrow - become immunocompetent
naive |
|
________ selection: ensures that only T cells are able to recognize self MHC proteins |
positive |
|
______ selection: Tcells do not recognize self-antigens displayed on self MHC |
negative |
|
now is B cell maturation different from Tcell |
occurs in red bone marrow instead of thymus successful in making antigen recepters - they are self reactive or eliminated |
|
how is receptor diversity created in lymphocytes |
genes determine which specific foreign substances our immune system recognizes/resists |
|
what is the major role of antigen-presenting cells |
engulf antigens and present fragments on surfaces where T-cells can recognize them |
|
what are the major types of APCs |
dendritic cells macrophages B lymphocytes |
|
what is the effect of antigen presentation to T cells |
can only be activated by antigens presented to them on MHC proteins by APC's |
|
how are lymphocytes emigated to the correct location |
dendritic cells engulf, and travel via lymph to lymph node to present antigens to T-cells |
|
what is the most effective APC |
dendritic cells |
|
response of B cell lymphocytes to the antigen challenge |
humoral immune response - antibodies specific for that antigen are made |
|
fate of most clones |
proliferation into effector plasma cells |
|
what happens to the rest of clones that dont differentiate |
made into memory cells that cauese immediate humoral response if encounters same antigen |
|
primary vs. secondary immune response |
primary - 1st exposure; 3-6 days for B cells to proliferate into plasma cells
secondary - faster, more effective immune system already memorized that antigen; 'immunological memory' |
|
two ways active humoral immunity is acquired |
1. naturally acquired via bacterial/viral infection - develop symptoms 2. artifically acquired - vaccines |
|
two benefits of vaccines |
- spare most of the symptoms/discomfort of disease -weakened antigens provide functional antigenic determinants that are both immunogenic and reactive |
|
__________ immunity: ready made antibodies introduce to body, not made by plasma cells ex. snake bites, rabies |
passive humoral |
|
_______ = gamma globulin part of blood; proteins secreted in response to an antigen by effector B cells and binds with antigen |
antibody |
|
basic structure of antibody monomer |
4 chains combined T or Y shaped |
|
significance of variable region of antibody |
combine to antigen binding site to "fit" an antigenic determinant |
|
significance of stem constant region of antibody |
-determine antibody class -dictate the cells and chemicals the antibody can bind to -how the antibody class fxns to eliminate antigen |
|
_______ = pentamer secreted by plasma cells, readily fixes and activated compliment, receptor on B cell surface |
IgM |
|
______ dimer found in saliva, sweat, milk, instestines - stops pathogens from attaching to epithelial cells |
IgA |
|
_______ = monomer found on B cell surface that is a Bcell antigen receptor |
IgD |
|
______ = most abundant antibody in plasma - protects against bacteria, viruses, and toxinsi |
IgG |
|
_____ stem end binds to mast cells/basophils - triggers release of histamine - secreted by plasma cells in the skin mucous and GI, tonsils - |
IgE |
|
_____ antibody level rises during severe allergic reactions |
IgE |
|
4 methods by which antibodies inactivate antigens |
neutralization agglutination precipitation complement fixation |
|
________ = antibodies block specific sites on viruses/bacteria |
neutralization
|
|
_____ = antibodies bind to more than one binding site causing clumping |
agglutination |
|
_______ = antibodies caught in large complexes so phagocytes can capture |
precipitation |
|
______ = antibodies bind close together on same cell --> signals cell lysis |
complement fixation |
|
when are antibodies not effective |
certain viruses and tuberculosis bacilli --> adaptive immunity |
|
2 popular populations of cells that mediate cellular immunity |
CD4 and CD8 |
|
_______ = cells that become Thelper cells and activate B, T cells and macrophages |
CD4 |
|
______ cells = become cytotoxic T cells destroy any cells that hae foreign substances |
CD8 |
|
cell differentiation glycoproteins function as receptors by |
interactions between Tells and other cells |
|
basic process for fragment presentation in MHC class I cells |
peptide fragments bind to MHC I proteins -> transport vesicles export cytotoxic T cells to come and kill |
|
basic process for fragment presentation in MHC class II cells |
bind to peptide fragments -> displayed by antigens outside of the cell and broken down by proteases inside a phagolysosome |
|
state the MHC restriction of CD4 cells for antigen binding |
usually become Thelper cells restricted to binding antigens only on class II MHC proteins which are displayed on antigen-presenting cells (APC surfaces) |
|
state the MHC restriction of CD8 cells for antigen binding |
usually become cytotoxic T cells; restricted to binding antigens only on class II MHC proteins found on surface of APC's |
|
how do APCs comply with the CH8 restrictions for presentation of endogenous antigens |
MHC I display endogenous antigens --> obtained by dendritic cells and can obtain other cell antigens by engulfling infected cells or importing antigens through gap junctions with infected cell --> display on both MHC I and II |
|
what is the status of CD4 and CD8 cells that have successfully bound the antigen |
T cell antigen receptors (TCR) |
|
what are co-stimulatory signals and where are they located |
appear on APC surface in damaged tissues --> binds with t cell to be able to proliferate and form a clone |
|
what is the effect of co-stimulation |
crucial for tcell activation to be started and proliferate |
|
what is the importance of the 2-signal secuence (costimulation and antigen binding) |
required for clonal selection |
|
why do activated T cells have to be disposed after used |
produce a lot of inflammatory cytokines and may promote cancer |
|
fxns of IL1 |
-secreted by activated macrophages -promotes inflammation and T-cell activation -causes fever |
|
fxns of IL2 |
-secreted by Thelper -stimulates B and T cell proliferation and T cell development -NK cell activation |
|
name the two cytokines that are suppressor factors |
TGF-beta and IL-10 |
|
Source and importance of T helper cells |
activated by APC presentation of antigen Th cells actiate B and T cells and induce proliferation recruit other immune responses |
|
role of Th cell in humoral immunity |
binds with B cell that has encountered its antigen and is displaying it Thelp cell releases ILs as costimulatory signals to complete B cell activation |
|
role of Thelper cells in helping cell-mediated immunity |
Th cell binds to dendritic cell --> stimulates cell to express co-stimulatory molecules --> dendritic cell can activate the CD8 cell with help of IL2 secreted by Th cell |
|
Th____ = stimulates inflammation, activate macrophages and promotes differentiation of cytotoxic T cells |
1 |
|
Th____ = defend against parasitic worms -> mobilize eosinophils to battlefield and activate immune responses that depend on B cells and antibody formation |
2 |
|
Th_____ = link together adaptive and innate immunity by releasing an IL which promotes inflammation response against extracellular microbes |
17 |
|
source and fxn of cytotoxic T cells |
-activated CD8 cells - attack and kill other cells -search for recognized antigens |
|
targets of T(c) cells |
varus infected cells and tissue cells infected by bacteria or paracyes foreign cells introduced into the body by blood transfusions or organ transplants |
|
mechanism of T(c) target cell killing using perforins and granzymes |
1. identifies foreign antigen on MHC I protein and binds tightly to target 2. T(c) releases perforin and granenzyme by granules via exocytosis 3. perforin inserts into membrane and polymerizes to form pores 4. granenzymes enter through pores and activate enzymes that trigger apoptosis |
|
besides perforin and granenzymes, whats another way T(c) cells can kill target cells |
NK cells look for lack of MHC 1 or presence of antibodies on target cells |
|
fxns of Tregs |
slows or stops activity of immune system - important in controlling autoimmune disesae |
|
4 major varieties of organ grafting |
autograft isograft allograft xenograft |
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_____= tissue transplanted from one body site to another in the same person |
autograft |
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______= grafts donated to a patient by a genetically identical individual ex. twins |
isograft |
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_______ = grafts transplanted from individuals who are not genetically identical but same species |
allografts |
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_______ = taken from another animal species ex. baboon heart |
xenografts |
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major steps to prevent rejection of transplant |
-ABO blood group - MHC antigen match - corticosteroid drugs to suppress inflammation -antiproliferative drugs -immunosuppressant drugs |
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_______ = congenital or acquired condition that impairs the production/function of immune cells/certain molecules such as complement or antibodies |
immunodeficiency |
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identify known mutations that result in Severe Combined Immunodeficiency Syndrome |
- marked deficit of B and T cells - defective adenosine deaminase enzyme --> lethal to T cells |
|
what type of transplant is suitable for SCID |
hematopoetic stem cells |
|
target cell of HIV virus and control of cell |
T helper - eventually cannot make CD4 cells |
|
_______ = body produces antibodies and cytotoxic T cells that destroy its own tissues |
autoimmunity |
|
_______ = autoimmune disease that destroys myelin of white matter of the brain and spinal cord |
multiple sclerosis |
|
______ = disease that impairs communication between nerves and skeletal muscle |
myasthenia gravis |
|
______ = disease that prompts thyroid gland to produce excessive amounts of thyroxine and causes eyeballs to protrude |
graves disease |
|
________ = disease that destroys pancreatic beta cells and results in a deficit of insulin and ability to use carbohydrates |
Type I diabetes |
|
______ = disease affecting the kidneys, heart and lungs causes glomerulonephritis loss of memory and painful arthritic |
systemic lupus erythematosus |
|
_______ = disease that damages kidneys filtration membrane and severely impairs liver function |
glomerulonephritis |
|
________ = disease the systemically destroys joints |
rheumatoid arthritis |
|
two possible triggers of autoimmune diseases |
1. foreign antigens resemble self antigens 2. new self antigens appear |
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_______ = immune system that damages tissues as it fights off perceived threat |
hypersensitivities |
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how are different types of hypersensitivity distinguished - give examples |
acute - allergie subacute - caused by antibodies |
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mechanism of immediate hypersensitivity |
allergen causes APC to digest and present to CD4 cells that differentiate into IL4 secreting TH2 cells IL4 stimulates B cells to mature into IgE secreting plasma cells that spew out large amount of antibodies for that allergen |
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mechanism for anaphylactic shock |
allergen directly enters blood and circulates rapidly through the body |
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what happens during anaphylactic shock |
bronchioles constrick making it difficult to breath and sudden vasodilation and fluid loss may cause hypotensive shock and death |
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what reverses anaphylactic shock |
epinephrine |
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compare subacute hypersensitivity to immediate hypersensitivity |
subacute - caused by antibodies immediate/acute - caused by allergens |
|
mechanism of cytotoxic type II reactions and when they might occur |
occur when antibodies bind to antigens on specific body cells and stimulate phagocytosis and complement mediated lysis of cellular antigens
may occur after tranfusion of mismatched blood |
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mechanism of immune-complex type III hypersensitivity and know examples- |
large numbers of antigens cannot be cleared from particular area -intense inflammation occurs and kills neutrophils and damages tissues
ex. farmers lung - inhaling moldy hay glomerulonephritis caused by lupus |
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mechanism of delayed hypersensitivity type IV and know example |
caused by T cells -> inflammation and tissue damage result from action of cytokine-activated macrophages and T(c) cells
ex. allergic contact dermititis (poison ivy, chemicals) diffuse through skin and attach to self proteins and the immune system perceives as foreign |
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what is T3 |
triiodothyronine |
|
what is T4 |
thyroxine |
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______ is released when triglycerides are added to adipocytes, and reduces appitite |
leptin |
|
where is epinephrine and norepinephrine released from |
sympathetic nervous system |
|
acinar cells secrete |
digestive juices |
|
erythropoeitin stiumulus, target and response |
low oxygen, hypoxia red bone marrow red blood cells |
|
_______ very often causes osteoporosis |
hyperparathyroidism |
|
what is largest lymphoid organ |
spleen |
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_______ and ________ are released by the sympathetic nervous system |
epi and norepi |
|
ANP _________ blood pressure |
lowers |
|
three ways insulin reduces blood glucose levels |
-enhance membrane transport of glucose into body cells -inhibit glycogenolysis -inhibit conversion of amino acids and fat into glucose |
|
CCK secreted by, targets and response |
secreted by intestines
pancreas- release digestive juices galbladder - release bile
|
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______ causes a release of insulin and inhibits glucagon release |
GIP |
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cholecalciferol is changed into _______ |
vitamin D (calcitrol) |
|
calcitrol also know as ______, regulates: |
Vit D Ca2+ reabsorption from food |
|
______ causes WBC's to slow down |
margination |
|
why are monocytes the last to arrive during phagocyte mobilization |
takes time to differentiate into macrophages |
|
______ cause water to enter the cell and eventually causes cell lysis |
MAC |
|
fever is triggered by ______ in the hypothalamus |
pyrogens |
|
_______ antibody contributes to agglutination |
IgM |
|
interleukins secreted by B cells |
IL4 and IL5 |
|
disease that destroys schwann cells |
myasthenia gravis |
|
draw negative feedback of GH |
DRAW |
|
draw negative feedback of TSH |
DRAW |
|
draw negative feedback of PTH |
DRAW |
|
draw negative feedback of Aldosterone |
DRAW |
|
draw chart that shows stress mechanism |
DRAW |
|
draw the insulin and glucagon negative feedback |
DRAW |
|
conversion of glycogen to glucose |
glycogenolysisc |
|
synthesis of glucose |
gluconeogenisis |
|
________ collects lymph from lumbar trunks that drain lower limbs and digestive |
cisterna chyli |
|
explain the circulation in lymph nodes |
-lymph enters convex side through afferent lymph vessels -subcapsular sinus branches from cortex to medulla -medullary sinuses -exits node at the hilum on concave side via efferent lymph vessels |
|
types of innate defenses |
surface barriers interna; |
|
types of adaptive defenses |
humoral cellular |
|
humoral = _____ cells |
B |
|
cellular = ____ cells |
T |
|
what happens when arterioles dilate |
-local hyperemia (increased blood flow to area) - heat and redness - local increase in metabolic rate - promotes healing |
|
what happens with increased capillary permeability |
- leak fluid into tissues - exudate -pain and swelling |
|
cells produce _________ to bind to viruses and block their reproduction |
interferons |
|
_____ antibody contributes to neutralization |
IgG |
|
______ antibody protects mucosal barriers |
IgA |
|
MHC ____ is displayed by ALL cells |
I |
|
MHC ____ is displayed only by APC's |
II |
|
MHC ____ is intracellular |
I |
|
MHC ____ is extracellular |
II |
|
MHC _____ is recognized by CD8 and Tc cells |
I |
|
MHC ____ is recognized by CD4 and Th cells |
II |
|
antigens must bind to ___________ before they can clone |
costimulatory molecules |
|
_________ = interferons and interleukins |
cytokines |
|
_______ is released by macrophages to stimulate T=cells |
IL1 |
|
Humoral pathway and Th |
Th binds to B cell containing MHC II on surgace Th releases interleukins as costimulatory to complete B cell activation |
|
cellular pathway and Th |
Th binds to dendritic cells causes release of costimulatory (IL1 and IL2) which allows dendritic cell with IL2 can activate CD8 |
|
dendritic cells cannot activate CD8 without the help of ______ |
IL2 |
|
explain hypersensitivity starting with antigen enters |
-antigen enters -plasma cell produces IgE antibodies -antibodies attach to mast cells - antigen combines with mast cell & antibody complex -degranulation and release of histamine -causes blood vessel dilation and leaky capillaries |
|
compare the structure of T3 and T4 |
both are two linked tyrosine amino acids T4 has 4 bound iodine atoms T3 has 3 |
|
TGF-Beta stimulates (2): |
Treg and Th17 development |
|
the ______ pituitary ONLY stores hormones |
posterior |
|
name an organ with both neural and endocrine functions |
hypothalamus |
|
list the major endocrine glands |
pituitary thyroid parathyroid pineal adrenal |
|
two organs that produce both hormones and exocrine products |
pancreas gonads |
|
name three major catecholamines |
epi norepi dopamine |
|
what does cAMP do? |
activates protein kinases |
|
name 4 ways hormones are removed from the blood |
enzymes kidneys liver halflife |
|
give an example of antagonism |
insulin and glucose |
|
protein receptors for which hormones are located on the plasma membrane |
peptides catecholamines |
|
name 6 tissues/organs that produce hormones |
adipose tissue thymus gland small intestine stomach kidneys heart |
|
all amino hormones are derived from: |
tyrosine |
|
3 types of steroid hormones |
gonadal adrenocortical placental |
|
name the tropic hormones |
TSH ACTH FSH LH |
|
two types of amine hormones |
thyroid catecholamines |
|
composes 60% of plasma proteins |
albumin |
|
a localized region on the surface of an antigen that is chemically recognized by antibodies; also called antigenic determinant |
epitope |
|
buffy coat and erythrocytes make up _____% of blood |
45 |
|
__________ and platelets initiate clot formation |
plasma proteins |
|
pH of blood is about ____ |
7.3-7.4 |
|
material in plasma |
gas hormones nutrients waste |
|
stem cells that give rise to all of the formed elements of blood |
hemocytoblast |
|
% of blood that is plasma |
55 |
|
defective amino acid in hemoglobin that causes sickle cell |
valene |
|
temerature of blood in celcius and farenheight |
38 100.4 |
|
megakaryocytes live in _____ |
bone marrow |
|
most plasma proteins are produced by the ____ |
liver |
|
items needed to produce hemoglobin |
folic acid iron protein vitamin B12 |
|
FEVER is also know as |
pyrexia |
|
% of water in plasma |
90% |
|
phagocytes are found within the ____ |
lymph nodes |
|
reticular connective tissue makes up most of what three things |
lymph nodes spleen bone marrow |
|
major duct of the lymphatic system |
thoracic |
|
______ extend from the LN cortex and contain Bcells, Tcells, and plasma cells |
medullary cords |
|
space between groups of lymphatic tissues that contain a network of fibers and macrophage cells |
lymph sinuses |
|
connective tissue strands that extend in to divide the lymph node into compartments |
trabeculae |
|
painless progressive enlargement of lymph nodes, spleen, and lymphoid tissue |
Hodgkin disease |
|
an enlarged pouch on the thoracic duct that serves as a storage area for lymph |
cisterna chyli |