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235 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
451. Which special use airspace is always located offshore? |
A. Warning Area
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466. ATC does not have the authority or the responsibility to issue clearances in class airspace. A. C B. D C. E D. G |
D. Class G
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480. Which type of special use airspace may contain a high volume of pilot training activities or unusual types of aerial activities, neither of which is hazardous to aircraft? A. Alert areas B. Prohibited areas C. Restricted areas D. Warning areas |
A. Alert Areas
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481. What is generally the vertical limit of Class D airspace? A. 2,500 feet MSL B. Up to, but not including, 18,000 MSL C. 2,500 feet above airport elevation D. 3,500 AGL |
C. 2,500 feet above airport elevation
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571. Which airspace extends from the surface to 10,000 feet MSL surrounding the nation’s busiest airports? A. Class A B. Class B C. Class C D. Class D |
B. Class B
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669. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a Prohibited Area? A. Established around residential areas for noise abatement B. Begins at the surface of the earth and extends upward to a defined altitude C. Established for security or other reasons associated with the national welfare D. Identified by the letter “P” plus a number |
A. Established around residential areas for noise abatement
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237 A service operated by appropriate authority to promote the safe,orderly, expeditious flow of air traffic. |
Air Traffic Control
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238 A device that is used or intended to be used for flight in the air. |
Aircraft
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239 An area of land or water that is used or intended to be used for the landing and takeoff of aircraft. |
Airport
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Flight Plan
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Air Traffic Clearance |
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242 Separation of all air traffic within designated airspace by air traffic control. |
Positive Control
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243 A level of constant atmospheric pressure related to a reference datum of 29.92 inches of mercury. |
Flight Level.
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244 A geographical location in relation to which the position of an aircraft is reported. |
Reporting Point
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245 Separation in accordance with the applicable minima in FAA Order JO 7110.65. |
Approved Seperation
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B. there is an emergency requiring immediate action |
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A. Converging aircraft, aircraft on the left has right-of-way |
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C. prior arrangements are made and no paying passengers are aboard |
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B. Year |
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A. 250 |
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C. 200 |
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A. current altimeter setting of a station along the route and within 100 NM of the aircraft |
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D. two-way radio communications with the tower |
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A. 18 |
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D. A |
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D. Familiarize themselves with all available information concerning the flight |
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A. Year |
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C. No aircraft may exceed 200 knots when operating below Class B airspace |
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B. Flight Plan |
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B. Second Class |
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B. Distress |
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D. Every two years |
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C. ATC tower operator certificate |
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A Converging aircraft, aircraft on the left has right-of-way |
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B. Flight Plan |
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D. after 30 minutes of flight |
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B. C:D |
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B. 1 |
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D. NAVAID signal; 22NM |
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A. Pilots must request clearance to maintain OTP |
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A. proceed VFR and land as soon as practicable |
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D. FL160 |
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D. 4,500 MSL |
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C. Name of each occupant |
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C. enter coastal ADIZ |
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D. 10,000 MSL; 5SM |
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A SVFR flight plan must be filed |
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C. altitude, route and time to leave their clearance limit |
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C. 91 |
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A. ATC clearance is required. |
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B. E;G |
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D. 3SM |
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C. Each occupant of aircraft is provided with supplemental oxygen |
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A. Proceed by the route filed in the flight plan |
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A. 190 |
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B. C;D |
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B. above 14,000 MSL |
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A. optional, but strongly encouraged |
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C. 1 |
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D. the surface |
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A. Identified by the letter “M” plus a number |
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D. FL600 |
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A. Established around residential areas for noise abatement |
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B. 3 |
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C. the base of the overlying airspace |
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C. Class E |
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B. Class C |
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C. Special Use |
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Class B |
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Class B |
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Class A |
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Class D |
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Class C |
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A. Warning Area |
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D. Class G |
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A. Alert Areas |
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C. 2,500 feet above airport elevation |
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B. Class B |
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A. Established around residential areas for noise abatement |
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B. decreases; increases |
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C. tilt; pitch |
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D. Relative Wind |
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A. upward force; downward |
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A. Chord Line |
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A. Thrust; drag |
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C. Weight |
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B. Relative wind and chord line |
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B. lateral; vertical |
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A. parallel with; opposite to |
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C. airfoils; wings |
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B. Propeller |
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B. Landing speed is faster and engine power output will be decreased |
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B. ailerons; roll |
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D. 15-20 |
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C. Carburetor icing |
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A. Provide a controlled landing when the engine is no longer supplying power |
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C. Collective |
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B. Wind |
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B. Relative Wind |
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D. Weight, Drag |
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A. increase; increases rapidly |
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A. lower pressure above |
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D. airfoil distortion |
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C. Rudder, ailerons, and elevator |
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D. Fuselage |
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A. Lift; weight |
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C. Carburetor icing |
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B. lateral; vertical |
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B. pressure |
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C. airfoils; wings |
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B. Landing speed is faster and engine power output will be decreased |
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B. Fuselage |
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C. tilt; pitch |
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A. Mach buffet |
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B. Generate lift |
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C. jet blast |
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B. clean configured |
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C. 2 to 3 |
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B. outer edges |
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C. Helicopters |
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D. in forward flight |
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D. heavy, clean, slow |
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D. the ailerons extend beyond the edge of the vortex |
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B. wake turbulence |
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C. Jet Blast |
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B. They drift outward and sink |
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C. 3 |
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D. weight |
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B. leave the ground |
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D. Jet blast |
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B. outer edges |
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B. large |
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D. Category III |
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B. Cargo |
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A. conventional, forward slant and “T” |
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B. 100-160 Knots |
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A. One jet engine under each wing, low wing |
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A. Tandem-wing |
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A. High-wing |
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D. Heavy |
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Size, Engine location and number, engine type, wing placement, wing configuration, tail configuration, windows, fuselage shape, landing gear. |
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B. Tricycle and conventional |
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B. 41,000 |
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A. Large weight class |
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C. III |
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A. One jet engine under each wing, low wing |
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D. “V”-tail. |
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C. generally indicates the manufacturer |
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B. large |
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C. Category I |
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D. mission |
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C. tricycle; conventional; tandem |
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Which aircraft is depicted here? A. Citation 550 B. Citation X (10) C. Beechjet D. Golden Eagle |
A. Citation 550 |
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Which aircraft is depicted here? A. L1011 B. MD11 C. DC10 D. B727 |
B. MD11 |
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Which aircraft is depicted here? A. A320 B. B737 C. A306 D. B757 |
C. A306 |
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Which aircraft is depicted here? A. B737 B. B757 C. A300 D. B777 |
D. B777 |
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Which aircraft is depicted here? A. BE58 B. PAY1 C. PA34 D. P28A |
C. PA34 |
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Which aircraft is depicted here? A. C172 B. C208 C. C210 D. C130 |
C. C210 |
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The primary source of lift on an airfoil is created by a differential in _______. A. temperature B. pressure C. reaction |
B. pressure |
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The statement "the internal pressure of a fluid decreases at points where the speed of the fluid increases" is part of _____. A. Bernoulli's Principle B. Newton's law of motion C. Hindenberg's theory |
A. Bernoulli's Principle |
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What are the three principle airfoils? |
Propeller, horizontal tail surfaces, and wings. |
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What is the curvature of the airfoil from the leading edge to the trailing edge? |
Camber |
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The three key atmospheric properties that affect air density are: |
Temperature, Altitude, and water vapor (humidity) |
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Which two movements are controlled by the control yoke? |
The pitch and roll. |
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What are the three devices on a helicopter that control the rotor blade? |
Collective, Cyclic, and throttle |
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What are the three primary causes of stalls? |
1. Insufficient airspeed 2. Excessively violent flight maneuvers 3. Severe wind shear |
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Lift is created as air flows smoothly over an airfoil. A stall occurs when the ________ ______ of _______ is exceeded. |
Critical angle of attack. |
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The strength of wing tip vortices created from wake turbulence will diminish with __________ & _____ |
Time and distance |
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If you have an aircraft on approach to an airport and a similar aircraft cruising during en route flight, which would create a greater wake turbulence effect? |
The one on approach. |
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What is the name for the turbulent phenomenon created by aircraft passing through the atmosphere? |
Wake Turbulance |
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The circular patterns created by wake turbulence are often known as what? |
Wing tip vortices or wake vortex |
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When do fixed-wing aircraft stop generating vortices? |
When lift is no longer generated or when the landing gear touch down. |
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Vortices level off at approximately ___________ feet below the flight path. A. 100 to 300 B. 500 to 1000 C. 1000 to 2000 |
B. 500 to 1000 |
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What is the sink rate for vortices from aircraft? |
300 to 500 feet per minute |
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For landing aircraft, crosswinds of 1 to 5 knots tend to ____ the lateral movement of one vortex while _____ the movement of the other |
Stall; movement |
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Hazardous conditions occur when the induced toll exceeds the level of __________. |
Roll Control |
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What must a helicopter be doing in order to generate wingtip vortices? |
It must be in forward flight. |
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A hovering helicopter created a downwash from its main rotors that can travel up to how far? |
3 times the diameter of the rotor. |
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Why is the controller not responsible for anticipating the existence or effects of wake turbulence? |
Because it is unpredictable. |
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Wake turbulence has the greatest impact on ATC in the areas of __________. |
Increased separation and traffic management delays. |
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What category do helicopters fall under? |
Cat I |
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What category do turbojet engine aircraft fall under? |
Cat. III |
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A twin-engine, turboprop aircraft weighing 12,500 pounds or less will fall under which category? |
Cat. II |
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Designators may have as many as ____ characters, but no less than _____. A. 8; 4 B. 6;3 C. 4;2 D. 3;1 |
C. 4; 2 |
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The first character in an aircraft designation must be a/an _____. A. number B. letter C. letter or number D. 'N' |
B. letter |
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What two types of engines have propellers? |
Reciprocating and Turbo prop |
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Turbojet engines are limited to what weight class of aircraft? |
Not limited to any. Can be in any weight class. |
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What are the three basic wing shapes or configurations? |
Straight wing, Delta wing, and swept wing. |
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How many basic tail configurations and name them |
1. v-tail 2. t-tail 3. mid-tail 4. conventional 5. forward slant |
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What are the five basic window shapes? |
Oval, round, teardrop, square, and bubble canopy |
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What are the two basic types of landing gear? |
Conventional and Tricycle |
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Which class of airspace does not require an ATC clearance? A. A B. B C. C |
C. C |
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The authority and responsibility for flying in Class G airspace belongs to the ________. A. pilot B. military C. air traffic controller |
A. pilot |
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The Special Use airspace that overlies an aerial gunnery range over land is called a ________ Area |
Restricted |
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What type of Special Use Airspace is found over international waters? |
Warning area |
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Prohibited Area vertical airspace begins at _______. A. 3,000 Feet B. the surface C. 1,500 feet |
B. the surface |
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In what type of airspace would a high volume of pilot training take place? A. Restricted Area B. Controlled Firing Area C. Alert Area |
Alert Area |
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Under whose authority are FARs issued? |
FAA Administrator |
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Aircraft operating in the air or on airport movement areas are referred to as _____. A. air carriers B. air traffic C. air traffic control |
B. air traffic |
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Authorization by air traffic control for the purpose of preventing collisions between known aircraft, and for an aircraft to proceed under specified traffic conditions within controlled airspace is called ATC _______. |
Clearance. |
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Control of all air traffic within designated airspace by air traffic control is called ________ control |
positive |
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Which aircraft operating within the US are subject to FAR part 91? A. Military only B. Civilian C. All aircraft |
C. all aircraft |
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When may pilots of two different aircraft operate as a formation flight? |
When prior arrangements are made, and no paying passengers are aboard. |
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What is the max speed of VFR aircraft below Class B airspace? |
200 kts IAS |
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What is the max speed for an aircraft in Class C or D airspace flying at less than 2,500 feet AGL and within 4 NM of the primary airport? |
200 kts IAS |
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What should the altimeter be set at in an aircraft maintaining FL310? |
29.92 |
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When may a pilot deviate from ATC clearance? A. At the pilot's discretion B. In an emergency C. Under no condition |
B. in an emergency |
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When should a pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance notify ATC of that deviation? |
As soon as possible |
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Who is directly responsible and the final authority for an operation of an aircraft? |
the pilot in command |
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What is the right-of-way rule for aircraft in distress? |
Right of way over all traffic |
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What is the max speed (unless authorized) for an aircraft below 10,000 fee MSL? |
250 kts IAS |
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Describe the right-of way rule for aircraft approaching "head on", converging aircraft, and overtaking aircraft. |
Head-on - each pilot gives way to the right Converging - aircraft on right has right of way Overtaking - Overtaken aircraft has right of way and the overtaking aircraft passes to the right. |
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When may a pilot cancel IFR? |
Operating in VFR conditions or outside of class A airspace |
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What is the minimum safe altitude for an aircraft over a congested area? |
1000 ft above and 2000 ft horizontally. |
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When may an aircraft operating at an airport with a noise abatement designated runway elect a different runway? |
In the interest of safety |
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Pilots flying large or turbine-powered aircraft in Class C or D airspace should enter the traffic pattern at what altitude? |
no less than 1,500 ft AGL |
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What altimeter setting should an aircraft use if operating under FL 180? |
The current altimeter setting reported by a station along the route within 100 NM of the aircraft |
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Unless otherwise indicated, which way are all turns made in a traffic pattern? |
Left |
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FARs govern aircraft operating in the airspace within how many miles of the US coast? |
12 NM of the coast |
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FARs govern aircraft operating on the waters within how many miles of the US coast? |
3 NM of the coast |
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What is true about filing an VFR flight plan? A. It I mandatory for all VFR flights. B. It is strongly recommended C. It is required for entering Class G airspace. |
B. It is strongly recommended. |
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When landing at an airport with an operational ATCT, an IFR flight plan ______. A. must be cancelled by the pilot B. Is automatically canceled C. Remains open until departure |
B. it is automatically canceled. |
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VFR weather minima for Class B airspace |
3 SM Clear of clouds |
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VFR weather minima for Class C and D airspace |
3 SM 1,000 ft above 500 ft below 2,000 horizontally |
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VFR weather minima for Class E at or above 10,000 MSL |
5 SM - visibility 1,000 ft above 1,000 ft below 1SM horizontally |
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VFR weather minima for Class E below 10,000 MSL |
3 SM 1,000 ft above 500 ft below 2,000 ft horizontally |
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VFR weather minima for Class G airspace below 1,200 AGL Day and night |
Day - 1SM visibility Clear of Clouds
Night - 3 SM visibility 1,000 above, 500 below, 2,000 horizontally |
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VFR weather minima for class G airspace at or above 1,200 AGL and below 10,000 MSL day and night |
Day - 1 SM visibility 1,000 above, 500 below, 2,000 horizontally
Night - 3 SM visibility 1,000 above, 500 below, 2,000 horizontally |
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VFR weather minima for Class G airspace at or above 1,200 AGL AND at or above 10,000 MSL |
Same day and night.
5 SM visibility 1000 above, 1000 below, and 1 SM horizontally |
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True or false, VFR-on-top is an IFR clearance. |
true |
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For SVFR operations, if the surface visibility is not reported, flight visibility must be at least: A. 2SM B. 1NM C. 1SM |
C. 1 SM |
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What is the correct altitude for a VFR aircraft on a magnetic course for the following headings? 1. 090 2. 120 3. 180 4. 285 5. 360 |
1. Odd plus 500 ft 2. Odd plus 500 ft 3. Even plus 500 ft 4. Even plus 500 ft 5. Odd plus 500 ft |
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What is the minimum visibility for an IFR departure when the takeoff minimum at a civil airport is not prescribed for a twin-engine aircraft? A. 1/2 mile B. 1 mile C. 1 1/2 mile |
B. 1mile |
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633. Category III aircraft generally climb at what rate? A. 500'-1000' per minute B. 1000'-2000' per minute C. 2000'-4000' per minute D. Greater than 4000' per minute |
C. 2000'-4000' per minute |
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The extension of the flaps causes an increase in ________. A. Stall Speed B. Airspeed C. Drag |
C. Drag |