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403 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

1. Can map symbols be locally adapted?

• Yes

2. Map symbols are ____ and _____.

• Well-­‐defined and uniform in size and brightness (intensity).

3. Targets are ____ by the computer.

• Tracked

4. A target is considered to be paired when…

• The computer correlates the predicted position, speed, and heading with the actual radar return using flight plan information

5. A target is considered unpaired when…

• The computer is not correlating the aircraft with flight plan information and is using radar data only

6. Position symbols indicate what?

• Position of track and modes of tracking

7. What is the preferred and most common mode of tracking?

• Flat Track

8. What is a leader line?

• Connects the position symbol with the full data block (FDB) and the length and direction can be selected at the display

9. What is the velocityvector?

• Represents the distance and the direction the aircraft will travel in selected minutes based on the average of the most recent radar position updates.


• It is based on the computer generated ground speed and track.

10. When will a velocity vector be inaccurate?

• If the aircraft is in a turn or has recently changed speed

11. What is meant by “paired” and “unpaired” target symbols?

• Paired-­‐the computer correlates the predicted position, speed, and heading with the actual radar return using flight plan information.


• Unpaired-­‐ the computer has no stored flight plan information and issuing radar data only.

15. Full data blocks may contain what?

• Position symbol, up to four lines of alphanumeric data (fourth line is optional), accent symbol, vector line, and leader line.

16. When must a full data block be displayed?

• When a sector has separation responsibility for an aircraft and a paired track exists.

17. Field A consists of…

• Eight character positions, the aircraft identification 2-­‐7 alphanumeric (A2 is always a letter)

18. What is the accent symbol in field A mean?

• When over A2 means the aircraft has entered another sector without a handoff being made


• When over A3 means the aircraft will not auto hand off

19. Field B consists of….

• Four character positions where B1-­‐B3 contain the assigned altitude information in hundreds of ft or VFR

20. Field C consists of…

• Four character positions


• C1-­‐C3 include mode C or controller entered reported altitude, upper altitude of a block altitude, XXX is mode C is corrupt or lost


• C4… # for when an aircraft is not responding with mode C and controller altitude does not equal the single assigned altitude (altitude information in field C will not automatically update unless Mode C is reestablished) Also when associated with a block altitude it means the aircraft is within controller-­‐ entered block altitude


• C4… X for exceptional vertical rate indicator or EVRI (when the aircraft is climbing/descending at a rate greater than the computer adapted aircraft performance profile) (the system will not use this mode C for safety alert processing, the system reverts to a normal rate that is appropriate for the type aircraft. This is also true for RA conflict probe). Some conflicts could be missed or displayed late as a result.

21. Does the T go away once an aircraft reaches the interim altitude?

• No it does not change to a C because it is an interim altitude

22. How many feet must an aircraft deviate from its assigned altitude before the deviation is indicated in position B4 and flied C?

• 300ft

23. What Data block information indicates that mode C is corrupt?

• B4 will show an X field C shows XXX

24. What Data block information indicates that mode C has never been received?

• B4 shows N and flied C shows vacant

25. What does field D consist of?

• Four alphanumeric


• D1-­‐ R if you do not have track control


• D2-­‐D4 – contain the CID

26. What does track control mean?

• Allows you to make changes to the aircraft database information

27. What does field E consist of?

• 5 characters that contain ground speed (displayed if no other information is displayed and on an equal time sharing basis of an additional item becomes eligible for display) Not displayed if more than one item becomes eligible for display


• Special condition information relative to the status of the aircraft (displayed on an equal time sharing basis and blinks for various time periods depending on the content)


• E1 character is adapted in some facilities to display a single letter reflecting aircraft destination

28. Define EMRG, RDOF, FAIL, OLD, MISM, FRZN, HOLD, CST, NONE, 253, 3214

• Squawking Emergency


• Radio Failure


• Attempted handoff of FDB to another facility has failed


• Updated data is not being received


• Mismatch between two facilities track position


• Controller-­‐entered message that indicates the flights position is not being updated

29. What is in Field F?

• Variable data field with nine character positions located in the fourth line of the FDB


• Aircraft Type/Equipment


• Destination


• Heading/Speed/Both


• Free Form text

30. How do you input heading, speed, and deviations into field F?

• H140, PH, H090/FSM, PH/J43, H310/J80, 320/v187, PH/CHA


• S300, S230+, M78, M80+, M82-­‐


• DW, DR, DS, D10L, D20E, D25R, D10N


• RQ070, RQ130


• RQ/SGF, RQ/WENDY

31. Do you need to verbally coordinate when using H, PH, S, or D, RQ, RQ/?

• No, may be used with out

32. When would you be able to omit an H?

• Due to character limitations if it does not result in a misunderstanding

33. When is the Heading/Speed/Free Form (HSF) Display/Suppress Indicator displayed?

• If the heading, speed, or free form text is displayable (stored)

34. The fourth line of the data block includes what?

• Free form text entered by the controller

35. What are the different kinds of data blocks and what do they display?

• Alternate Data block-­‐ Call sign, Assigned altitude, mode C altitude, position symbol, leader line, vector line, and displays in the same intensity as FDB
• Enhanced Limited Data block-­‐ call sign, assigned altitude, mode C, displays at the same intensity as LDB and always appears east of the target
• Paired Limited Data block-­‐ call sign, mode C altitude, displays at same intensity as ELDB, always appears east of target
• Unpaired Limited Data block-­‐beacon code and mode C if available for untracked aircraft, displays same intensity as LDB, always appears east of target, does not show code for VFR just a V for 1200, only data block that does not contain a call sign, Mode C Intruder unpaired limited data blocks occur for untracked aircraft (target symbol is an I)

36. What does the Next Gen Radar display?

• Three levels of precipitation, moderate (purple), heavy (checkered cyan), Extreme (cyan)

1. When must an aircraft be equipped with an operable transponder with mode C altitude reporting capability?

• At and above 10,000 feet MSL excluding airspace at and below 2,500 ft AGL and in class A B and C airspace

2. What must be done is Mode C fails above 10,000 ft MSL?

• Advise a manager and coordinate with the next sector.

3. What is a Mode?

• The letter or number assigned to a specific pulse spacing of radio signals transmitted or received by ground interrogator or airborne transponder components of the ATC Radar Beacon System

4. What is the application of Mode 3/A, Mode C, and Mode S?

• Mode 3/A-­‐ military and ATC common use (used by ATC for target tracking and identification)


• Mode C-­‐ civil use (ATC altitude reporting)


• Mode S-­‐ traffic alert and collision avoidance system TCAS

5. Assign beacon codes to Mode __ equipped aircraft only.

• 3/A

6. What is a discrete code?

• Beacon code that does not end in 00

7. Give first preference to ____ codes.

• Discrete codes-­‐ issue computer-­‐assigned codes (may be modified as required) and make handoffs on the computer-­‐assigned codes

8. What is a nondiscrete code?

• Beacon codes which end in 00

9. What is NBCAP Airspace?

• The airspace over the US territory located within the north American continent between Canada and Mexico, including adjacent territorial waters outward to abut boundaries of oceanic control areas/flight information regions

10. Each ARTCC is allocated…?

• Discrete codes

11. What are the primary goals of the NBCAP?

• Minimize code changes and retain some code from departure to destination

12. When can you request a code change?

• Only when the aircraft is in your area of responsibility unless specified in an LOA, coordinated at the time of the handoff, or VFE aircraft requests radar service (coordinate ASAP after the aircraft is identified and prior to issuing control instruction or providing a service other than a safety/traffic advisory) this prevents inaccurate radar tracking

13. What advantages does a discrete beacon code assignment provide the controller?

• It allows the system to automatically recognize or identify the aircraft assigned that code

14. What is the emergency squawk code?

• Assign a code of 7700 is a pilot declares an emergency and is not radar-­‐identified (EMRG blinks in the data block)

15. When can you request an aircraft to change from 7700 to the appropriate discrete or function code? And what is the exception to this rule?

• After radio and radar contact are established. The code change will signify to other radar facilities that the emergency aircraft is identified and under ATC control.


• Do not request a code change from a single piloted helicopter or single piloted turbojet aircraft.

16. What is the code for radio failure and what blinks in the data block?

• 7600 and RDOF

17. What are lost communication procedures?

• Use all appropriate means to reestablish communication such as; emergency frequencies, voice capability equipped NAVAIDS, FSS, Aeronautical Radio Inc.


• Use transponder or turns to verify receipt of transmissions.

18. What two types of aircraft continue on the emergency code even after radio and radar contact have been established?

• Single piloted helicopter or single piloted turbojet aircraft

19. When do you issue a code of 1200 to VFR aircraft?

• When not working an ATC facility, IFR aircraft cancels IFR flight plan and does not request radar advisories, radar services being terminated

20. What must be done when an aircraft changes from VFR to IFR?

• Ensure Mode C aircraft are assigned a beacon code to allow Terrain Alert Volume alarms

21. When do you issue a computer assigned code to a VFR aircraft?

• When they are receiving radar advisories

22. What might VFR aircraft not in contact with ATC facilities squawk?

• 1255-­‐ while en route to/from/within designated fire fighting areas


• 1277-­‐ while on search and rescue missions from US air force and US cost guard while en route to/from/within designated search areas

23. What codes show us as VFR aircraft on terminal radar equipment?

• All 1200 series codes both discrete and nondiscrete

24. The radar team shall continuously monitor what Mode 3/A radar beacon codes assigned from use by aircraft within your area of responsibility?

• 1200-­‐ VFR (unless you area is only class A airspace)


• 1255-­‐ Fire fighting aircraft


• 1277-­‐ SAR aircraft


• 4000-­‐ Fast maneuvering military aircraft (at positions of operation that contain a Restricted or Warning Area and VR Route within or immediately adjacent to their area of jurisdiction)


• These codes should be entered into the sector code list by the radar controller

25. What do you do if an assigned beacon code disappears and reidentification is not possible?

• Notify your supervisor

26. What must be done when an assigned beacon code is not being displayed or transponder appears to be inoperative/malfunctioning?

• Inform the aircraft and coordinate with the next facility

27. What do you do when you want an aircraft to turn on/off the automatic altitude reporting on its transponder?

• Inform the aircraft (not all aircraft have the capability to disengage the altitude squawk independently from the beacon code assignment)

28. Inaccurate or inoperative mode C May require ___ and/or ___?

• May require coordination and/or an equipment suffix update

1. What must you do before you provide radar service?

• Establish and maintain radar identification

2. What methods of radar identification do you use when using only Mode 3/A?

• Request aircraft to ident and observe the display


• Request aircraft to change to a computer assigned code and observe the display (assigned code should be in the limited data block)


• Observe automatic track acquisition of aircraft squawking a discrete computer assigned beacon code (full data block appears with associated target

3. How do you identify a primary target?

• Observing a target whose position with respect to a fix or visual representation corresponds with a direct position report from the aircraft (fix must be displayed on the map overlay, the observed track is consistent with the reported heading or route of flight)


• Observing a target making an identifying turn of 30 degrees or more provided the aircraft is in your airspace and above the MIA in your airspace before issuing the heading

4. When do you inform an aircraft that it is in radar contact?

• When initial radar identification in the ATC system is established and when radar contact is reestablished

5. When do you inform an aircraft that radar contact is lost?

• When identification is still desired but lost due to some uncontrollable situation like radar failure or no target return

6. What do you do if identification is questionable for any reason?

• Take immediate action to re identify the aircraft or terminate radar service


• Ensure all primary targets are displayed when radar identification is lost or questionable

7. When must you inform an aircraft of its position when radar identifying them?

• Beacon methods or turns

8. When is position information not needed to be given when radar identifying an aircraft?

• Position correlation

9. Inform an aircraft when radar service is terminated because of:

• Identification is no longer necessary or aircraft proceeds into nonradar coverage area

10. When is radar service automatically terminated and the aircraft need not ne advised?

• An aircraft cancels its IFR flight plan except in class B or C airspace and where basic radar service is provided
• An aircraft conducting an instrument, visual, or contact approach has either landed or been instructed to chance to advisory frequency

11. When must and arriving aircraft be informed then radar service is terminated at tower-­‐controller airports?

• Where radar coverage does not exist within ½ miles of the end of the runway

12. When will an aircraft discontinue and resume reporting over compulsory reporting points?

• Discontinue when radar identified and resume when ATC advises radar contact lost or radar service terminated

13. To provide continuous identity, use data blocks that are associated with the appropriate target symbol and retain the data block until….?

• The aircraft has exited the sector or delegated airspace and all potential conflicts have bee resolved (this includes point out aircraft)

14. What items are required to be displayed in the full data block?

• ACID, interim or assigned altitude or reported altitude

15. What must be displayed when you have responsibility for an aircraft and a paired track exists?

• Full data block

16. What other items are available for display?

• CID, beacon code, leader line, vector line, position symbol

17. What conditions must a flight satisfy before it is eligible for automatic track initiation?

• Must have a stored flight plan and the last two numbers of the assigned beacon code must not be 00

18. What are cases of automatic track initiation?

• Flights from an adjacent NAS center, Departures from adapted airports, Flights with holds manually canceled, En route flight plan acquiring a discrete beacon code, Flights with tentative flight plan storage

19. What is the track type determined by?

• The computer unless controller specifies type

20. What are the three types of tracks?

• Free Track, Flat Track (flight plain aided tracking), and Coast Track

21. Explain Free Track.

• Position symbol is a triangle, utilizes latest ground speed and heading information, displayed with data block on display, oriented relative to initial direction of track based on radar data

22. Explain FLAT Track (flight plan aided tracking).

• Position symbol is a diamond, utilizes free track process plus information from the flight plan, based on-­‐ airway or route heading in the flight plan/speed (filed TAS determines ground speed prediction and forecast upper winds are taken into consideration)/planned maneuvers (prediction is based on planned route changes

23. What is the preferred tracking?

• Flat Track

24. What tolerances are adaptable locally?

• Lateral and longitudinal

25. What does the computer do when the aircraft is in lateral tolerance but out of longitudinal tolerance?

• Calculates new flight plan position, issues updated times, remains in flat track

26. If an aircraft is out of lateral tolerance what will happen?

• It will change to free track until it returns to within lateral tolerance (no longer eligible for automatic updates)

27. What must be done for an aircraft on vectors, weather deviation, or other changes to route in order to remain in flat track?

• Controller must enter amended route

28. What are the advantages of FLAT track over free track?

• Auto handoffs, auto position time updates, coast tracking using flight plan data, more accurate track prediction, forced FDB if handoff is not made

29. What is the typical sequence of track events?

• Track is started (FLAT), Track exceeds parameter limits (Free), Route is amended (FLAT), Track deviates from route due to weather or exceeding parameters (free), Track returns to route (FLAT)

30. When a position symbol changes from FLAT Track to Free Track, what does that signify? Explain.

• The target is outside flat track tolerance and is no longer within the confines of the route stored in the computer. Because of this, the flight is no longer eligible for automatic updates.

1. Define Handoff

• An action taken to transfer radar identification of an aircraft from one controller to another controller if the aircraft will enter the receiving controller’s airspaces and radio communications with the aircraft will be transferred

2. Define Radar Contact

• The phrase used to inform the controller initiating the handoff that the aircraft is identified and approval is granted for the aircraft to enter the receiving controller’s airspace

3. Define Point Out

• A physical or automated action taken by a controller to transfer radar identification of an aircraft to another controller if the aircraft will or may enter the airspace of protected airspace of another controller and radio communications will not be transferred

4. Define Point Out Approved

• The phrase used to inform the controller initiating a point out that the aircraft is identified and that approval is granted for the aircraft to enter the receiving controller’s airspace, as coordinated, without a communications transfer or the appropriate automated system response

5. Define Traffic

• The term used to transfer radar identification of an aircraft to another controller for the purpose of coordinating separation action


• Traffic is normally issued in: response to a handoff or point out, anticipation of a hand off or point out, conjunction with a request for control of an aircraft

6. Define Traffic Observed

• The phrase used to inform the controller issuing the traffic restrictions that the traffic is identified and the restrictions issued are understood and will be complied with

7. In what situation would a point out be more beneficial that a hand off?

• When the aircraft will only go into the other controller’s airspace from a short time or distance

8. In what type of situation would a receiving controller what to have communication with an aircraft when a point out is attempted?

• When traffic is present and it presents a conflict (separation or busy traffic is involved)

9. In what order do you relay information to the receiving controller when making a hand off or point out or issuing a traffic restriction?

• The target position relative to a fix, map symbol or radar target which is displayed by both the receiving and transferring controller (mileage from the reference point may be omitted when relaying the position of a target if a FDB associated with the target has been forced on the receiving controller display)


• Aircraft ID (call sign and or discrete beacon code during inter-­‐facility point outs…both are required)


• Altitude information, except when inter/intra facility directives ensure that the altitude information will be known by the receiving controller (assigned altitude, appropriate restrictions, or information that aircraft is climbing or descending) during inter facility point outs include mode C information

10. When doubt exists as to target identification what should be done?

• Use more than one method

11. If identification is questionable for any reason, take immediate action to:

• Re-­‐identify the aircraft or terminate radar service

12. How is an aircraft identified during an inter facility handoff?

• Call sign and beacon code

13. When must the handoff be completed by?

• Before the aircraft enters the receiving controller’s airspace

14. After initiating a handoff, you must obtain the receiving controllers approval before making changes to the aircrafts…

• Flight path, altitude, or data block information unless otherwise specified by an LOA or FD

15. What must be done prior to transferring communication?

• Resolve potential airspace violations and aircraft conflicts


• Coordinate with all controllers through whose airspace the aircraft will pass before entering the receiving controller’s airspace


• Relay any restrictions issued to ensure separation to the receiving controller

16. ___with restrictions issued by the receiving controller.

Comply 17. Transfer communication when?

17. Transfer communication when?

• The handoff has been accepted and before the aircraft enters the receiving controllers airspace unless otherwise coordinated

18. Advise the receiving controller of what pertinent information not contained in the data block for flight progress strip unless covered in an LOA or FD?

• Assigned heading, speed restrictions, altitude information issued, observed track or deviation from the last route clearance, revised beacon code, any other pertinent information.

19. Ensure that data block is associated with this appropriate ____.

• Target

20. What must be done when you use the automated hand off function on primary or non discrete beacon codes?

• Verbally coordinate to verify the position except from intra facility handoffs and between ERAM sectors

21. What must be done when CST, FAIL, or NONE is displayed in the data block?

• Initiate verbal coordination before transferring control of a track

22. What must the transferring controller advise the receiving controller if the aircraft is on a direct route initiated by ATC that exceeds NAVAID distances?

• That radar monitoring is required

23. When would you issue restrictions to the receiving controller?

• When it is necessary to maintain separation from other aircraft with in your area before releasing control

24. When is a hand off complete?

• When the receiving controller acknowledges receipt verbally or accepts an automated hand off

25. Radar hand off completed is signified by?

• R circled

26. What must you do before accepting a hand off?

• Ensure the target position corresponds with the position given by the transferring controller or that there is an appropriate association between an automated data block and the target being transferred and issue necessary restrictions before accepting the hand off

27. Comply with the restrictions issued by the transferring controller unless…?

• Otherwise coordinated

28. Obtain approval from the transferring controller and or any intervening controller through whose area the aircraft will pass before changing the aircrafts…?

• Heading or route, altitude, speed, or beacon code

29. After accepting a hand off, confirm the identity of_____?

• A primary target by advising the aircraft of its position


• Beacon target by observing a code change, an ident reply, or a standby squawk

30. Consider a beacon targets identity to be confirmed when?

• The associated data block indicates the computer assigned code is being received


• You observer the deletion of a discrete code that was displayed in your data black • You observe a numeric display of a discrete code that an aircraft has been instructed to squawk or report squawking

31. When must you initiate verbal coordination prior to accepting control of a track?

• When the data block displays CST, NONE, OLD, DATA, or MISM (MISM notify sup)

32. What must you do if accepting a hand off that you will delay the climb or the descent of an aircraft through the vertical limits of their airspace?

• Advise the transferring controller before accepting the hand off unless covered in an LOA or FD (you now also have coordination responsibility with any controller whose airspace is affected by the delay unless covered in an LOA or FD)

33. When must the radar associate controller coordinate with the radar controller after accepting a handoff or point out?

• Immediately

34. Must you always transfer communications on an aircraft before it enters the receiving controllers airspace?

• No, not if it is coordinated

35. What are specific responsibilities assigned to each position?

• To ensure all necessary tasks and duties are performed

36. Hand off Phraseology.

• HANDOFF (position, A/C ID, altitude, restrictions and other appropriate information if applicable)

37. How does the transferring controller “force” a data block on the receiving controllers display and how does the receiving controller accept it?

• Computer entry

38. What is done if the receiving controller cannot accept an automated handoff?

• Receiving controller makes interphone connection and advises the transferring controller necessary restrictions or states unable

39. In a handoff or what can be done instead of stating the aircrafts position?

• The transferring controller may physically point to the target on the receiving controller display and makes the hand off

40. Obtain verbal approval before allowing an aircraft to enter the receiving controllers_____?

• Delegated airspace or protected airspace (2.5 miles)

41. Between ERAM facilities ______ the data block on the receiving controller display for a ____.

• Force/point out

42. After the point out has been approved, obtain the receiving controllers approval before what?

• Making any changes to the aircrafts flight path, altitude, or data block information

43. After a point out it is your responsibility to….?

• Make subsequent hand offs and communications transfer as well as data revisions and coordination unless otherwise agreed to by the receiving controller

44. What must be ensured before approving a point out?

• The targets position corresponds with the position given by the transferring controller or association exists between a computer data block and the target being transferred, issue restrictions necessary to provide separation from other aircraft within the receiving controllers area of jurisdiction

45. After approving a point out, what is the receiving controller’s responsibility?

• The receiving controller is responsible for separation between point out aircraft and other aircraft for which he/she has separation responsibility

46. What must be stated by the receiving controller to the controller initiating the point out if communications transfer is needed for control purposes?

• RADAR CONTACT

47. Point out Phraseology

• POINT OUT (position, A/C ID, Altitude, restrictions, and other appropriate information if applicable)

48. What is a physical point out?

• Transferring controller physically points to the target on the receiving controllers display and makes a point out

49. What should be done when issuing traffic on a point out?

• Controller issuing traffic shall provide appropriate restrictions and she force the data block of the traffic to the other controllers display when the point out is between ERAM facilities

50. After the traffic is accepted, who is responsible for separation?

• The controller accepting restriction shall be responsible to ensure approved separation is maintained

51. How would you advise a controller initiating a point out that you are assuming track control of the aircraft and that communication should be transferred?

• Radar Contact

52. What are the four ways to transfer radar identification for hand offs?

• Physically point, interphone (manual), automated (controller generated), automatic (computer generated)

53. In general when can you transfer radar identification, altitude control, and/or en route fourth line control information without verbal coordination?

• During radar handoff, via information displayed in full data blocks, within the same facility (except as provided in the .65) inter facility automated information transfer, and when following procedures specified in your facility automated information transfer directive

54. During inter facility transfer of radar identification, transfer radar identification without verbal coordination when?

• During radar hand off, via information displayed in full data blocks, on aircraft at assigned altitude in level flight, only the first sector within the receiving facility shall utilize the procedure, when following procedures specified in your facility AIT directive and LOA

55. What information can be forwarded in the fourth line of the data block?

• Only specified control information listed in the .65, any additional control information shall be forwarded via other communication methods

56. What is the rule for fourth line data between sector teams?

• May be used for recording any additional information the team deem appropriate from managing the sector but shall be removed prior to initiation of identification transfer (headings, speeds or deviations)

57. The acceptance of a handoff by the receiving controller shall constitute approval of_____?

• The information contained within the en route fourth line data block


• It is the responsibility of the receiving controller to advise the transferring controller if any information is not understood or need to be revised


• All other information shall be coordinated via other methods

1. Radar strips are system generated and almost all have what?

• CIDs (which is another way to identify an aircraft), Beacon codes (beacon codes will not appear on strips that do not have a transponder), ground speed

2. Most departure and destination airports will have what in front of them on the strip?

• K – only airports with three letter identifiers can have K’s (VORTAC’s remain the same and 0M8 remains the same)

3. What replaces pilot estimates and fix progression times?

• Radar contact

4. In ZAE radar scenarios strips are only generally posted for what?

• Non radar flights such as arrivals and departures for GWO VKS 0M8and aircraft below radar coverage

5. What is a STAR?

• A published procedure used at large airports to standardize routings and aid in sequencing arrivals to an airport

6. What is the furthest ATC will generally clear an aircraft direct to?

• Any fix that is immediately prior to the STAR name or is closer

7. When is prior coordination needed on a departure to ZFW/ZHU?

• When departure point is less than 5 minutes flying time

8. What must be done when an aircraft will cross the boundary in a climb or descent to ZFW or ZHU?

• The transferring controller must initiate the hand off and then APREQ the climb/descent with the sector controlling the altitude the aircraft is assigned and affect a point out if required to the sector controlling the altitude through which the aircraft is transitioning

9. Can transponder codes be changed on initial contact without coordination with ZHU and ZFW?

• Yes provided both facilities are operating under ERAM

10. What is done for an aircraft at or above FL240 that wants to land at an airport within 75 miles?

• Transferring center shall initiate coordination for a lower altitude with the appropriate low sector for all aircraft at and above FL240 proposing to land at airports within 75 NM of the center boundary and ensure point outs are made

11. Inter and Intra facility AIT with ZFW and ZHU should be in accordance with?

• 7110.65

12. Coordination can be reduced to ___minutes when using automated systems with ZHU and ZFW.

• 5

13. How will ZHU send us aircraft landing VKS or JAN terminal area?

• X center boundary at or below FL230 descending to 11000 or 7 for prop/turbo

14. How must ZAE send aircraft to ZHU landing AEX or ESF?

• X center boundary at or below FL230 descending to 13000

15. How must ZAE send aircraft above 6,000ft and landing KHEZ or KMCB to ZHU?

• X boundary at or below 12,000 descending to 6,000 unless coordinated

16. How must GWO request releases?

• Specifying the departure airport in the order they will depart

17. GWO must issues clearances utilizing what data?

• Data received from FDIO (A/c may be cleared as flied unless ZAE has issued alternate routing or FRC is in remarks


• Advise A/C to expect requested altitude 10 min after departure


• GWO must advise ZAE if the aircraft does not depart within 3 minutes

18. What must ZAE do when issuing a release time to GWO?

• Shall assign an altitude to maintain and any alternate instructions as necessary

19. JAN APCH owns what airspace during radar operations?

• 10,000 and below

20. How does ZAE deliver A/C to JAN APCH?

• Within the confines of the arrival transition areas-­‐jets X boundary at 11,000 and 250 kts –props X at 7,000-­‐ jets below 10,000 require coordination

21. When does JAN APCH assume control of arrivals and for what?

• After hand off and com change for descent, speed reduction, and turns direct the airport

22. If holding is required ZAE must?

• Clear subsequent arrivals to the appropriate holding fix and JAN APCH cannot transition the aircraft beyond the clearance limit until 10,000 or below

23. How must JAN APCH clear departures?

• Via routings which ensure A/C transition within the confines of the departure transition areas


• Aircraft requesting 11,000 or above to 10,000 and expect filed 10 mins after departure


• Aircraft requesting 10,000 or below to requested altitude

24. What is the TCP for JAN APCH and ZAE departures? And what separation must JAN provide?

• Boundary and 5 miles constant or increasing

25. How are over flights worked with JAN APCH?

• Cleared via route/altitude on strip (IAFDOF does not need coordination) and routes that are clear of R931A

26. What must ZAE do when air aircraft will cross JAN boundary in a climb or descent?

• Initiate hand off and the APREQ if final alt is at or below 10,000


• Effect point out before A/C transitions approach airspace

27. What happens when an aircraft requests lower when landing within 75 nm of the boundry?

• The transferring facility must initiate coordination for lower with the appropriate sector for all aircraft at FL240 and higher and also must ensure that all point outs are made to all affected sectors

28. When must arrival information be forwarded to GWO tower?

• Sequence change and or aircraft are issued an approach to a runway other than tower specified runway in use

29. What happens when a UTM is received?

• Manual coordination for the flight plan data and verify the flight plan data to the receiving facility within three minutes of the TCP estimate

30. When is a communication change made for GWO tower?

• Prior to FAF or 5 miles for a VA or prior to entering the surface area unless otherwise coordinated

31. What must ZAE assign when issuing a release to GWO?

• Altitude to maintain and any alternate routing or other instructions as necessary

32. What airspace does MLU APCH own?

Up to and including 12,000

33. How does ZAE deliver A/C to MLU APCH?

• Within the confines of the arrival transition areas-­‐jets X 31 miles E at 13,000–props X at 7,000

When does MLU APCH assume control of arrivals and for what?

• After hand off and com change for descent, speed adjustments, and turns


• Must not reverse, hold, or climb an arrival without ZAE approval


• Must transition arrival into terminal airspace before ZFW boundary or point out

35. If holding is required ZAE must?

• Clear subsequent arrivals to the RINKY intersection at or above 13,000 to hold on V18 (must be coordinated if below 12,000)


• ZAE must point out with ZFW

36. How must MLU APCH clear departures?

• Via routings which ensure A/C transition within the confines of the departure transition areas


• Aircraft requesting 13,000 or above to 12,000 and expect filed 10 mins after departure


• Aircraft requesting 12,000 or below to requested altitude

37. How are over flights worked with MLU APCH?

• Cleared via route/altitude on strip

38. ZAE shall do what when an aircraft will cross the MLUAPCH boundary in a climb or descent?

• Hand off then APREQ


• Pont out

39. What is ZAE responsible for in regards to BATFE?

• Airspace coordination and NOTAM issuance • Ensure that non participating aircraft under their control remain clear of R357

40. R357:

• Established for testing and disposal of explosives and or ammunition


• Contains only activities that do not involve aircraft


• Using agency shall return use of R357 to controlling agency when not in use for the designated purpose for periods of 2 hours or more


• May only be released to using agency during radar operations

41. When can ZAE clear aircraft through R357?

• When released to controlling agency

42. When shall the using agency return the use of R357 to the controlling agency?

• With 5 minutes notice

43. When must BATFE give ZAE a schedule?

• By noon local time each Friday from Sun-­‐Sat and ZAE should NOTAM

44. During radar procedures Jackson turbojet arrivals shall be cleared to cross the APCH lateral boundry ____ft and ___kts.

• 11,000 and 250

45. ZAE and ZFW LOA states that during radar procedures when an APREQ is required for a climb/descent with the receiving sector a ______.

• Hand off must be initiated first

46. Separation is applied between ___of the targets?

• Center

47. Radar separation shall be applied to all RNAV aircraft…

• On random routes at or below FL450

48. When can you apply radar separation?

• Between radar identified aircraft

49. If ____is in the data block, do not use information in the data block for either radar or non radar separation.

• CST or FRZN

50. What is radar separation?

• At or above FL600-­‐ 10 miles


• Below FL600 5 miles


• Below FL180 and within 40 miles of the antenna-­‐3 miles if specified in FD

51. Separation required when transitioning from terminal to enroute?

• 3 miles increasing to 5 miles or greater provided: diverging or lead is faster, sep is constant or increasing, 5 miles or other appropriate separation is obtained within the first center sector, procedure is covered in an LOA and limited to specific routes and or sector positions

52. Separation with the A388 and B748

• 5 miles behind, 10 when transitioning to terminal, no visual separation (include the expression SUPER immediately after the a/c callsign in communications with terminal facility or traffic advisories

53. Wake turbulence.

• Directly behind and less than 1,000 ft below or following an aircraft conducting an instrument apch (and takes precedence over 3 mile separation)


• Heavy behind heavy (4)


• Large/heavy behind a B757 (4)


• Small behind a B757 (5)


• Small/large behind heavy (5)

54. Separate aircraft from obstructions by…

• 5 miles

55. Separate aircraft from adjacent airspace by:

• Below FL600-­‐ 2.5 radar controller/5 non radar controlled


• At and above FL600-­‐5 radar controller/10 non radar controlled

56. Separate aircraft from SUA and ATCAA by:

• Involving aircraft operations-­‐


o Below FL600-­‐ 3 miles


o At and above FL600-­‐6 miles


o At and Below FL290-­‐ 500 ft


o Above FL290 1,000


• Not involving aircraft operations-­‐


o Aircraft must just avoid airspace

57. Formations flight separation.

• Standared-­‐1 mile


• Two flights-­‐ 2 miles


• Non standard-­‐ apply appropriate minima from the parameter of the airspace encompassing the flight from the outermost aircraft (beacon codes if need be)

58. Give equal priority to…

• Separating aircraft and issuing safety alerts (perform the action most critical from a safety standpoint)

59. Once observed and recognized, issue a safety alert when an aircraft is…

• In a position which places it in unsafe proximity to terrain, obstructions, or other aircraft

60. Do not assume that because another controller has responsibility for the aircraft that the unsafe situation has been observed and that the safety alert has been issued….

• Inform the appropriate controller (coordination is not required when immediate action is dictated

61. When can you discontinue further alerts?

• When the pilot informs you that action is being taken to resolve the unsafe situation

62. What are the origins of alerts?

• En route minimum safe altitude warning, automatic altitude readouts, conflict alert/mode C intruder, pilot reports

63. What is a conflict alert?

• A function of certain air traffic control automated systems designed to alert radar controllers to existing or pending situations between tracked targets (known IFR and VFR) that require immediate attention/action

64. Define mode C intruder.

• A function of certain air traffic control automated systems designed to alert radar controllers to existing or pending situations between a tracked target (known IFR or VFR) that require immediate attention/action

65. When would you issue a traffic altert and what would you issue?

• Immediately when a known conflict with other aircraft exists


• Offer alternate course of action if feasible and end the transition with the word immediately

66. When will a full data block flash?

• When targets are within a predetermined parameter of each other and less than minimum vertical separation exists (alert is based on mode C readout or controller reported altitude there fore timely altitude updates are imperative)

67. Why should you not rely totally on computerized alert?

• May activate late or wont activate unless altitude is known

68. What does it mean when a controller suppressed/restored the alert?

• Constitutes controller acknowledgment and indicates appropriate action has been or will be taken

69. Define altitude readout.

• An aircrafts altitude transmitted via the mode C transponder feature that is visually displayed in 100ft increments on a radar display having readout capabilities

70. When must you ensure validity of each aircraft?

• After: accepting an inter-­‐facility handoff, initial track start, track start from a coast/suspended tabular list, missing or unreasonable mode C readouts

71. Whose responsibility is validating mode C?

• Shared responsibility of the radar team

72. Can a previously validated mode C be used for separation when the exceptional rate indicator “X” is displayed?

• Yes

73. When is a readout considered valid?

• Varies less than 300 ft from pilot reported altitude or you receive a continuous readout from an aircraft on the airport and there read out varies by less than 300 ft from the airport elevations or verbal coordination with another facility with validated altitude information shows exact correlation between you data block and theirs

74. What do you do if you are unable to validate the read out?

• Do not use mode C information for separation

75. What do you do when you observe an invalid mode C readout below FL180?

• Instruct the pilot to turn off altitude reporting part of transponder and include the reason


• Notify area supervisor-­‐in-­‐charge of the aircraft callsign

76. What should be done before allowing an aircraft who has lost altitude reporting capability into another controllers class A airspace?

• Verbal approval required

77. When do you not have to request a pilot to confirm assigned altitude on initial contact?

• Pilot states assigned altitude or you assign a new altitude to a climbing or descending aircraft, or mode C readout is valid and indicates that the aircraft is established at the assigned altitude

78. How do you inform an aircraft to turn the automatic altitude reporting feature on or off?

• SQUAWK ALTITUDE or STOP SQUAWK ALTITUDE

79. Do all aircraft have the ability to disengage altitude squawk independently from beacon code squawk?

• No some are controlled by the same switch and you may loose beacon code

1. Define Vector.

• A heading issued to an aircraft to provide navigational guidance by radar

2. What are reasons for vectoring?

• Separation (other aircraft or airspace)


• Safety (around skydiving activities)

3. Define MIA

• Minimum IFR altitude-­‐ in designated mountainous areas 2,000 ft above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4 NM from the course being flown, other than mountainous areas 1,000 ft above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4 NM from the course being flown, or as otherwise specified by the admin or assigned by ATC

4. MVA.


• Minimum vectoring altitude-­‐ lowest msl altitude at which an IFR aircraft will be vectored by a radar controller except as authorized for radar approaches departures and missed approaches. May only be utilized from radar vectoring when upon the controllers determination that an adequate radar return is being received from the aircraft

5. Vector aircraft at or above ___ or ___.

• MVA or MIA

6. When can you vector an IFR aircraft?

• Within controlled airspace, at or above the appropriate minimum altitude, within your area of jurisdiction unless otherwise coordinated, permitted to resume its own navigation within radar coverage

7. What must be specified in a vector?

• Direction of the turn if appropriate and a magnetic heading to be flow


• Number of degrees, in group form, to turn and direction of turn

8. When flight data processing is available, update the route of flight in the computer unless:

• Operational advantage is gained or coordination is accomplished

9. When must the controller advise the pilot of the reason for the vector? And what should be advised?

• When initiating the vector


• What to expect when the vector is completed

10. What factors should be considered when determining the appropriate heading?

• Wind, weather, traffic, pilot requests

11. Ensure what if it is needed for spacing or separation?

• Aircrafts heading by assigning it (don’t assume an aircraft will continue on the same track without a heading assignment)

12. When should you allow for increased compliance time and distance?

• When the aircraft is at a higher altitude and greater speed

13. What are some good vectoring techniques?

• Utilize minimum heading changes and turn slower aircraft behind faster aircraft if both are similar distances from converging points

14. Consider what to obtain a desired track?

• Effects of wind, ground speed, and turning distance

1. What do you do when an emergency exists or is imminent?

• Pursue the most appropriate course of action (conform as nearly as possible to instructions in .65) report immediately to supervisor

2. An emergency can be defined as either ___ or ___.

• Distress-­‐ a condition of being threatened by serious and or imminent danger and of requiring immediate assistance


• Urgency-­‐ a condition of being concerned about and of requiring timely but not immediate assistance-­‐a potential distress condition

3. Define May Day repeated 3 times

• Distress condition

4. Define Pan Pan repeated 3 times

• Urgency condition

5. What do you do if these phases are not used and you are unsure that a situation constitutes an emergency?

• Handle it as though it were an emergency (most emergencies are declared in plain language by the pilot)

6. Obtain enough information to handle the emergency ___

• Intelligently and base your decision as to what type of assistance is needed on the information and requests from the pilot who is authorized to determine a course of action

7. Consider an emergency to exist when any of the following occurs:

• Emergency is declaredby pilot, facility personnel, officials responsible for operation of the aircraft


• There is an unexpected loss of radar contact and radio communications with IFR or VFR aircraft


• Reports indicate-­‐ forced landing has been made or is imminent, crew has abandoned that aircraft or is about to do so


• Emergency radar beacon response has been received (7700)


• Need for ground rescue appears likely


• ELT signal is heard or reported

8. When pilot requests or controller deems necessary, enlist services of:

• Available radar facilities, military

9. What is the ARTCC responsible for in an emergency?

• Receiving and relaying all pertinent ELT signal information to appropriate authorities

10. What is FSS’s responsibility in am emergency situation?

• Serves as a central point for collecting and disseminating information on overdue or missing VFR aircraft


• Must notify the center about VFR aircraft emergency to allow provision of IFR separation if necessary

11. What is the responsibility of the facility in communication with the aircraft in distress?

• Handle the emergency


• Coordinate and direct activities of assisting facilities


• May transfer responsibility to another facility only if better handling will result

12. What is the controllers responsibility?

• Forward data about the aircraft in distress to the center whose area the emergency exists


• When a foreign carrier is involved notify the ARTCC serving the departure or destination airports when either point is in the US for relay to aircraft operator

13. All pertinent ELT signal information shall be forwarded to the appropriate authorities by the?

• ARTCC

14. When should you start providing assistance?

• When enough information has been obtained upon which to act

15. What are the minimum information requirements to handle an emergency?

• A/C ID, nature of the emergency, pilots desires

16. After initiating action, obtain what from the pilot as necessary?

• Altitude, fuel remaining n time, pilot reported weather, pilot capability for IFR flight, heading since last known position, airspeed, navigational equipment capability, NAVAID signals received, visible land marks, aircraft color, number of people on board, point of departure and destination, emergency equipment on board

17. When should you request the aircrafts position?

• Pilot has not given this information, aircraft is not visually sighted or displayed on the radar

18. What are the emergency frequencies?

• 121.5 and 243.0

19. What frequency should an emergency aircraft be on?

• Keep aircraft on initial contact frequency. Change frequency only when there is a valid reason

20. When an aircraft is not radar identified and declares an emergency assign a code of?

• 7700

21. What should be considered when recommending an emergency airport?

• Remaining fuel in relation to airport distance, Weather conditions, Airport conditions, NAVAID status, Aircraft type, Pilots qualifications, Vectoring or homing capability to the emergency airport, Information derived from any automated emergency airport information

22. Coordinate all efforts possible to assist any aircraft believed to be..?

• Overdue, lost, or in emergency status

23. What are some examples of unusual situations?

• Volcano ash clouds, VFR aircraft in weather difficulty, bird strike, other non routine events

24. What should you do when an ELT is heard or reported?

• Notify supervisor (sup initiated coordination), obtain any pertinent information such as time, altitude, location etc, solicit assistance of other aircraft operating in the signal area

25. When should you consider an aircraft overdue and issue an ALNOT?

• Neither communications nor radar contact can be established and 30 minutes have passed since (ETA over specified or compulsory reporting point in your area or clearance limit in your area OR clearance void time)

26. What should you do if you have reason to believe an aircraft is over due prior to 30 minutes?

• Take appropriate action immediately (center whose area the aircraft is first overdue/unreported will make this determination)

27. What happens to IFR traffic that could be affected by an overdue or unreported aircraft?

• Must be restricted or suspended unless radar separation is used


• Facility must restrict/suspend IFR aircraft for a period of 30 mins following (time at which approach clearance was delivered to pilot, EFC time delivered to pilot, Arrival time over NAVAID serving destination airport, Current estimate facility or pilot whichever is later (appropriate en route NAVAID or fix, NAVAID serving destination airport, Release time and if issued clearance void time))

28. In addition to routing to the regional office operations center for the area in which the facility is located, you also must_____ for an overdue/unreported aircraft?

• Issue and ALNOT to all ARTCCs 50 miles either side of the route of flight from last reported position to the destination

29. When is an ALNOT cancelled?

• The aircraft has been located or search has been abandoned

30. When is normal air traffic control resumed?

• After the 30 minute suspension has expired if operators or pilots of other aircraft concur (concurrence must be maintained for 30 minutes after the suspension period has expired

31. What is done when communications fail?

• Air traffic control is based on anticipated pilot action


• Use all appropriate means available to reestablish communications with the aircraft

32. What can be done to reestablish communications?

• NAVAID voice features


• Flight services stations


• Other aircraft


• Aeronautical Radio Incorporated ARINC


• Emergency frequency if warranted)

33. Request aircraft to acknowledge clearances and answer questions by?

• Squawk ident, squawk 7600, squaw other than appropriate stratum code, squawk stand by (allow sufficient time to ensure change was caused by pilot action)


• Radar associate controller may also coordinate with other controllers to re establish communications

34. What should be done if communications have not been established or re established after 5 minutes?

• Consider the aircrafts activity to be possibly suspicious


• Notify your supervisor who will give further instructions

35. What should you expect the pilot to do in the event of communications failure? Route wise

• Squawk 7600


• If VFR-­‐ precedes VFR and land as soon as practicable (either when failure occurs or VFR is encountered)


• IFR during a Vector-­‐ proceed IFR via routing last assigned, direct to fix route or airway specified in vector clearance


• In absence of an assigned route in IFR-­‐ routing advised to expect in a further clearance


• Absence of assigned and expected route-­‐ route filed in flight plan

36. What should you expect the pilot to do in the event of communications failure? Altitude wise

• Maintain the highest of the following altitudes for the route segment being flown (last assigned, MIA, altitude/FL ATC advised to expect)

37. What should you expect the pilot to do in the event of communications failure? After clearance limit

• Depart clearance limit:


• If an approach fix-­‐ as close as possible to either EFC or ETA


• Other than approach fix-­‐ EFC or upon arrival at the fix so as to commence approach as close as possible to ETA

38. What should you expect the pilot to do in the event of communications failure? To re establish communications

• Attempt to reestablish communications with FSS or ARINC or on previously assigned frequency and monitor the NAVAID voice feature

1. What is the difference between handling air carriers and GA aircraft in bad weather?

• Air carriers can generally handle encounters with adverse weather much better than GA, air carriers are expected to handle a certain amount of in-­‐flight weather phenomena where as GA are expected to avoid hazardous weather and exit the conditions ASAP

2. What advantages do air carrier pilots and aircraft have over GA?

• 2 pilots, more experience in bad weather


• Must meet their equipage and engineering standards, airborne weather radar (is not as good as ground radar), de-­‐icing and anti-­‐icing equipment

3. Provide additional services to the extent possible contingent only upon what?

• Higher priority duties, limitations to radar, volume of traffic, frequency congestion, controller workload


• Additional services include weather dissemination

4. What are ATC responsibilities in regards to weather?

• Be familiar with weather conditions when coming on duty and stay aware while on duty, advise pilot of hazardous weather that may impact operations within 150 NM of their sector, solicit PIREPS, relay PIREPS in a timely manner, relay all operationally significant PIREPS to the facility weather coordinator

5. When must you solicit PIREPS?

• When requested or weather is or is forecast to be:


• Ceilings at or below 5000 ft (include base and top)


• Visibility at or less than 5 miles (surface and aloft)


• Thunderstorms and related phenomena


• Turbulence (moderate or greater)


• Icing (light or greater)


• Wind shear


• Volcanic ash clouds

6. What would be considered an URGENT PIREP?

• Tornados, funnel clouds, waterspouts


• Severe or extreme turbulence (including CAT)


• Severe icing


• Hail


• Low level wind shear (within 2,000 ft of surface)


• Volcanic eruptions and volcanic ash clouds


• Any other weather phenomena reported which are considered by you to be hazardous or potentially hazardous to flight operations

7. What must the controller do when a PIREP is received?

• Record, classify and disseminate when any of the above conditions are reported

8. What should be recorded with a PIREP?

• Time, aircraft position, aircraft type, altitude, icing type/intensity and air temp in which icing is occuring

9. Who should you relay PIREPs to in a timely manner?

• All concerned aircraft and weather coordinator

10. What is done with urgent PIREPs?

• Immediately broadcasted over the frequency and distributed via local and national directives


• As a radar associate you are responsible to immediately ensure that urgent PIREPS are forwarded to facility weather coordinator by passing the information to your supervisor and then verbally coordinating with other sectors/facilities that may be affected by the hazardous weather

11. Define Urgent PIREP.

• Weather phenomenon reported by a pilot which represents a hazard or a potential hazard to flight operations

12. What should be issued when giving weather information?

• Pertinent information observed/reported weather or chaff areas


• Echo intensity when available-­‐ moderate heavy extreme


• Radar navigational guidance and or approve deviations around weather or chaff areas when requested


• Weather and chaff information by defining the areas of coverage in terms of azimuth and distance from aircraft

13. What should you do when a deviation cannot be approved as requested?

• If situation permits suggest an alternate course of action

14. Who should receive PIREPs?

• All affected pilots, controllers, and facilities

15. What actions are required by the controller?

• Advise pilots of hazardous weather that may impact operations within 150 NM of their sector or area of jurisdiction


• Become familiar with and stay aware of current weather conditions in your sector and surrounding sectors when coming on duty and throughout your shift


• Issue pertinent weather information including echo intensity when that information is available to the pilot on observed/reported weather or chaff areas

16. How are forecasts of aviation weather differentiated?

• By the target audience

17. Define AIRMET.

• A concise description of the occurrence or expected occurrence of specified en route weather phenomena which may affect the safety of aircraft operations, but at intensities lower than those which require the issuance of a SIGMET


• Intended for the dissemination to all pilots in flight to enhance safety and are particular concern to operators and pilots of aircraft sensitive to phenomena described and to pilots without instrument ratings

18. Define SIGMET.

• A concise description of the occurrence or expected occurrence of specified en route weather phenomena which may affect safety of aircraft operations


• Provides aircraft operators and crews notice of potentially hazardous en route phenomena such as thunder storms and hail, turbulence, icing, sand and dust storms, tropical cyclones, and volcanic ash


• Intended for all pilots

19. What are convective SIGMETs issued for?

• Thunderstorms in the lower 48 states (other states regular SIGMET)

20. Define CWA.

• Center weather advisory is an aviation weather warning for conditions meeting or approaching national in flight advisory (AIRMET SIGMET Convective SIGMET) criteria.


• An unscheduled in flight, flow control, air traffic, and crew advisory. By nature of its short lead time the CWA is not a flight planning product. It is generally a short term forecast for conditions beginning within the next 2 hours


• Issued by national weather service at center weather service units

21. What is a CWSU?

• A joint FAA/NWS weather support team located in all en route centers. The team consists of NWS meteorologists and FAA traffic management personnel

22. When do you not have to broadcast to pilots of hazardous weather within 150 NM?

• When the aircraft on your frequency will not be affected

23. What should be done upon receipt of hazardous flight information within commissioned HIWAS areas?

• Broadcast a HIWAS alert on all frequencies except emergency frequencies

24. What should be done upon receipt of hazardous flight information NOT within commissioned HIWAS areas?

• Advise pilots of the availability of hazardous weather advisories with instructions to request further information from flight watch or flight service

25. Define HIWAS.

• A continuous recorded hazardous in flight weather forecast broadcasted to airborne pilots over selected VOR outlets defined as HIWAS broadcast areas

26. As a radar associate what is your responsibility in regards to receiving SIGMETS, AIRMETS, CWAsetc?

• Must ensure the radar controller is made aware of them in a timely manner


• Controllers must electronically acknowledge hazardous weather information messages which may be received via the SIGMET or GI views after appropriate action has been taken

27. What are the most hazardous icing conditions?

• Encounters with freezing rain FZRA and freezing drizzle FZDZ (no aircraft is evaluated for these conditions)

28. Can ground based weather radar and airborne weather radar systems provide precise real time information on areas of ice?

• NO

29. Icing forecasts are heavily dependent upon what?

• PIREPs

30. What is structural icing? When does it form? And what are the 2 conditions necessary for it to form?

• Ice that forms on the surface


• +2 and -­‐20 degrees c


• Visible moisture and temperature at which the moisture hits the aircraft must be 0 degrees c or colder

31. When does icing occur?

• 365 days a year

32. How does structural icing affect an aircraft?

• Reduces aircraft efficiency by either slowing the aircraft down or forcing it downward

33. What happens if an aircraft is in icing conditions for too long?

• It may not be capable of climbing to exit the icing conditions

34. Half an inch of ice and reduce lift by how much?

• 50%

35. What are the three types of ice? Define each.

• Clear Ice-­‐


o Most dangerous


o Translucent or clear and generally smooth


o Temp-­‐ 0 to -­‐10


o Can accumulate very rapidly and is difficult to remove


• Rime Ice-­‐


o Appears rough and milky


o Temp-­‐ -­‐15 to -­‐20 degrees C


o Formed by the instantaneous freezing of super-­‐cooled droplets as they strike the aircraft


• Mixed Ice-­‐


o Mixture of both clear and rime o Temp-­‐ -­‐10 to -­‐15 degrees C


o Appears as layers of relatively clear and opaque ice


o Occurs when drops very in size


o Similar to clear ice in that it can spread over more of the airframes surface and therefore more difficult to remove than rime

36. What are the four intensities of structural icing?

• Trace, light, moderate, severe

37. What icing intensity is potentially hazardous with short encounters and use of anti-­‐ice/de-­‐ice equipment is necessary?

• Moderate

38. Structural icing affects aircraft by _____weight and _____thrust.

• Increasing weight and decreasing thrust

39. When VFR conditions are present, where can a VFR flight encounter icing?

• In freezing rain and freezing drizzle

40. What is the most important source of information for icing?

• PIREPs

41. Why is icing intensity subjective?

• Icing conditions are extremely variable in space and time and depend on the ice type and ice protection of the reporting aircraft • A few hundred feet or a few minutes can make a huge difference


• Type aircraft makes a huge difference

42. When soliciting/receiving icing OIREPS it is essential to collect what information?

• Time, aircraft position, Aircraft type, altitudes icing was encountered, temperature, and type and intensity (good technique to ask if FZRA or FZDZ are present (it is also helpful to record if the aircraft was in a climb or descent since more surfaces are subject to accretion

43. Severe icing is considered what type of PIREP and what needs to be done?

• Urgent PIREP and needs to be delivered to the CWC immediately and broadcasted over the frequency

44. Is it important to know when aircraft are not receiving icing?

• Yes it can be equally important for both controllers and pilots. Can also be used to improve icing forecasts

45. PIREPs are always given in___, since altitudes are reported by pilot’s perspective.

• MSL

46. As a radar associate what you your responsibility for PIREPs?

• Accurately writing down the information and giving it to the Supervisor for forwarding to CWC

47. Why are top reports important?

• Indicate how quickly a storm is building…height indicates intensity

48. Why do controllers have a good idea of where icing exists?

• Because our display shows precipitation (visible moisture)


• Does not show light precipitation nor does it display FZRA or FZDZ

49. What are good controller practices?

• Keep pilots out of icing all together


• Be familiar with the weather


• Know your bases and tops


• Be aware of freezing levels


• Maintain the SIA with updates

50. What are controller requirements when there are known icing conditions?

• Solicit a PIREP


• Include icing conditions in position relief briefing


• Always keep aircraft advised of known icing conditions

51. When must a controller solicit PIREPs in regards to icing?

• When icing exists or is forecast to exist at a light degree or greater

52. Define Turbulence.

• Any irregular motion of the aircraft in flight, especially when characterized by a rapid up and down motion, caused by a rapid variation in wind speed or direction


• Can be caused by convection, wind shear, or obstruction to wind flow


• Described in terms of intensity and altitude

53. Define wind shear.

• A change in wind speed or direction within a short distance (horizontal or vertical)


• Turbulence can occur with wind shear

54. What causes wind shear?

• Jet stream, fronts, temperature inversions and thunder storms

55. What is significant about LLWS?

• Particularly dangerous form of wind shear and is hazardous to all aircraft


• Caused by thunderstorms


• Always present if there is a downburst


• Microburst is the most severe form of a downburst


• Pilots and affect facilities must be advised immediately of LLWS reports


• Causes dramatic changes in head wind and tail wind during the most critical phases of flight

56. What is Clear Air Turbulence?

Often encountered in the vicinity of the jet stream typically where no clouds are present


Often cause by and found near the jet stream


Most common between 20,000 and 50,000 ft Sometimes found in mountain range

57. What are the effects of CAT?

No visible indication


Rely on PIREPs for location


AIRMETs and SIGMETs may also contain information about CAT

58. What are the turbulence intensities and define them.

• Light


o Momentarily causes slight, erratic changes in altitude and or attitude


• Moderate


o Similar to light turbulence but of a greater intensity. Changes in altitude and or attitude occur but the aircraft remains in positive control at all times


o Variations in airspeed are small, occupants feel strains against seat belts, unsecured objects dislodged, food service and walking are difficult


• Severe


o Causes large, abrupt changes in altitude and or attitude. Usually causes large variations in IAS. Aircraft may be momentarily out of control


o Occupants are forced violently against seatbelts, unsecured objects are tossed about, food service and walking are impossible


• Extreme


o The aircraft is violently tossed and is practically impossible to control


o Structural damage is possible

59. What turbulence intensity is described when occupants feel strain against their seatbelts, there is difficulty walking and loose objects more about?

• Moderate turbulence

60. What form of turbulence can result in large and abrupt altitude changes?

• Sever and extreme

61. What is the only source of real time info on intensity and location of turbulence?

• PIREPS

62. What must be done when moderate degree or greater turbulence or LLWS exists?

• Solicit PIREPS

63. Define occasional, intermittent, and continuous.

• Occasional-­‐ less then 1/3the time • Intermittent-­‐ 1/3 -­‐2/3 the time • Continuous-­‐ more that 2/3 the time

64. How does turbulence impact ATC?

• Reduces unusable airspace, frequency congestion, capacity to utilize routine control techniques may be reduced (speed control, vectoring in trail), increased workload due to re routes

65. Where do thunderstorms usually occur?

• In warm weather in unstable air

66. What can higher surface temperatures create?

• Temperature instability leading to strong convective updrafts and cumulus clouds

67. Can the ATC radar show all of a thunderstorm?

• No only precip…thunderstorm is much bigger

68. What are embedded thunderstorms? And why are they dangerous?

• Embedded in clouds, some or haze and are not visible to pilots, thunderstorms that are closest to an aircraft can mask the presence of embedded storms further along with some types of on board radar, difficult to deviate around because the are often part of a line of thunderstorms

69. Why are thunderstorms hazardous?

• Sever to extreme turbulence, sever icing, nail, lightening, downbursts, LLWS , tornados, low cieiling and reduced visibility

70. How far to hazards of a thunderstorm reach?

• 20 miles

71. How many miles should be between storms to fly through?

• 40 miles

72. Where can hail occur?

• Top of a thunderstorm all the way to the surface and can be found several miles away from the cumulonimbus cloud

73. What are the affect of hail?

• Damage windshield, damage aircraft and make it difficult to control, break nose cone and on board radar, damage and disrupts the airflow over the airfoils reducing lift

74. Where does lightening occur?

• Within several miles away from the main thunderstorm, can occur within the anvil or our of the sides of the cumulonimbus, can extend could to could, cloud to air, or cloud to ground

75. Why is lighting a hazard to aircraft?

• Can damage or disable aircraft by disabling electrical systems, igniting fuel vapors, temporarily blinding pilots

76. When do tornados occur?

• With supercell thunderstorms and are usually brief lasting only a few minutes but can last over an hour

77. What information is available to the controller about the presence of thunderstorms?

• WARP/NEXRAD


• METAR reports


• Convective SIGMETS


• CWAs


• PIREPS

78. What type of precipitation does WARP/NEXRAD not show?

• Light

79. How do you issue precipitation information?

• “Moderate precipitation between 9 o clock and 2 o clock 3-­‐0 miles. Precipitation area is 4-­‐0 miles in diameter”

80. What does a convective SIGMET imply?

• Severe or greater turbulence, sever icing, and LLWS

81. CWA…

• Issued as in unscheduled aviation weather warning for conditions meeting Convective SIGMET criteria


• May precede or refine a Convective SIGMET


• May also highlight significant thunderstorms not meeting Convective SIGMET criteria


• Used to alert pilot of existing of anticipated adverse weather conditions that are expected to occur within 2 hours of the time issued

82. What intensities does WARP/NEXRAD show?

• Moderate heavy extreme

1. What is ALTRV?

• Altitude reservation is airspace utilization under prescribed conditions, normally employed for the mass movement of aircraft under special user requirements that cannot otherwise be accomplished.


• ALTRVs are approved by the appropriate ATC facility


• Shall receive special handling for FAA facilities

2. ATC facilities shall provide inflight separation unless ____is applicable. Define.

• MARSA-­‐ military assumes responsibility for separation of aircraft


• Is covered in LOA appropriate FAA/military document


• Will NOT be indiscriminately invoked by individual units or pilots


• ATC does not invoke or deny MARSA


• DOD is responsible for coordination with SUA and ATCAA involving MARSA


• ATC is not responsible for determining which aircraft are authorized to enter SUA/ATCAA

3. When is MARSA discontinued?

• When aircraft advise they are separated and ATC advises MARSA is terminated

4. Define SUA

• Special use airspace is airspace of defined dimensions identified by an area on the surface of the earth wherein activities must be confined because of their nature and or wherein limitations may be imposed upon aircraft operations that are not part of those activities

5. Define Alert Area.

• Airspace that may contain a high volume of pilot training activities or an unusual type of aerial activity, neither of which is hazardous to aircraft. Alert Areas are depicted on aeronautical charts for the information of nonparticipating pilots. All activities within an alert area are conducted in accordance with FARs and pilots of participating aircraft as well as pilots transitioning the area are equally responsible for collision avoidance

6. Define Controlled Firing Area.

• Airspace wherein activities are conducted under conditions so controlled as to eliminate hazard to nonparticipating aircraft and to ensure the safety of persons and property on the ground

7. Define MOA.

• A military operations area is airspace established outside of a class A airspace area to separate or segregate certain nonhazardous military activities from IFR traffic and to identify for VFR traffic where these activities are conducted (can but up to but not including FL180, may be in any type of airspace except class A)

8. Define Prohibited Airspace.

• Airspace delegated under FAR Part 73 within which no person may operate an aircraft without permission of the using agency

9. Define Restricted Area.

• Airspace designated under FAR Part 73 within which the flight of aircraft, while not wholly prohibited, is subject to restriction. Most restricted areas are designated joint use, and IFR/VFR operations in the area may be authorized by the controlling ATC facility with is it not being utilized by the using agency. Restricted areas are depicted on the en route charts. Where joint use is authorized, the name of the ATC controlling facility is also shown

10. Define Warning Area.

• Airspace of defined dimensions, extending from 3 NM outward from the coast of the US, that contains activity that may be hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft. The purpose of such a warning area is to warn nonparticipating pilots of the potential danger. A warning area may be located over domestic or international waters or both

11. Define ATCAA.

ine ATCAA. • ATC Assigned Airspace is airspace defined vertical/lateral limits assigned by ATC for the purpose of providing air traffic segregation between the specified activities being conducted within the assigned airspace and other IFR air traffic


• Normally overlies other published SUA such as a MOA and contains altitudes at or above FL180 within class A airspace. This allows air traffic control facilities to protect all other aircraft on IFR flight plans from activities within ATCAA

12. Why do SUA and ATC Assigned Airspace exist?

• To separate military training activities from nonparticipating aircraft

13. Apply the appropriate separation minima between nonparticipating aircraft and SUA and ATCAA unless:

• Pilot informs you that permission has been obtained for using agency to operate in the airspace


• Using agency informs you that they have given permission for the aircraft to operate in the airspace


• It has been released to the controlling agency


• The aircraft is on an approved ALTRV, unless airspace is an ATCAA


• *these procedures do not apply to Alert Areas or Controlled Firing Areas

14. How is SUA defined?

• Vertical limits in MSL (unless otherwise indicated “to” means to and including)


• Horizontal limits are defined by geographical coordinates or other appropriate reference that clearly describe their boundary

15. How are aircraft separated from active SUA an ATCAA?

• FL290 and below-­‐ 500ft


• Above FL290-­‐ 1,000 ft


• FL600 and above-­‐ 6 miles


• Below FL600-­‐ 3 miles


• *not required for Prohibited/Restricted/warning areas not involving aircraft operations, vector to avoid

16. What does the word “to” mean when referring to an altitude or flight level?

• Up to an including

17. Define aerial refueling.

• A procedure used by the military to transfer fuel from one aircraft to another during flight

18. Define Military Training Route.

• MTR is airspace of defined vertical and lateral dimensions established for the conduct of military flight training at airspeeds in excess of 250 kts IAS


o IFR Military Training Route-­‐ (IR) is a route used by the DOD and associated Reserve and Air Guard units for the purpose of conducting low altitude navigation and tactical training in both IFR and VFR conditions below 10,000 ft MLS at airspeeds in excess of 250 kts IAS


o VFR Military Training Route-­‐ (VR) a route used by the DOD and associated Reserve and Air Guard units for the purpose of conducting low altitude navigation and tactical training under VFR conditions below 10,000 ft MLS at airspeeds in excess of 250 kts IAS


• All route are one way only (IR177, VR265)

19. Define Celestial Navigation.

• The art and science of finding one’s geographic position by means of astronomical observations, particularly by measuring altitudes of celestial objects-­‐sun moon planets or stars. During CELNAV, the pilot will advise ATC before initiating and heading changes which exceed 20 degrees

20. Define Formation Flight.

• Consists of more than one aircraft which, by prior arrangement between pilots, operate as a single aircraft with regard to navigation and position reporting

21. Define Stand Formation Flight.

• Each wingman will maintain a position no more than 1 mile laterally or longitudinally within 100 feet vertically from the flight leader

22. Define Non Standard Formation Flight.

• The flight leader has requested and ATC has approved formation dimensions other than standard, or


• The formation is operating on an approved ALTRV or under the provisions of a LOA, or • The formation is operating in airspace specifically designated for special activity

23. Separation requirements for formation flights.

• Standard formation add 1 mile


• Two standard formations add 2 miles


• Nonstandard formation apply appropriate separation minima to perimeters of nonstandard formation (assign an appropriate beacon code to each aircraft or lead and trail aircraft)

24. What information must be forwarded to FSS from airborne military flights?

• IFR flight plans


• Changes from VFR to IFR flight plans


• Changes to IFR flight plans such as a change in fuel exhaustion time or a change in destination


o Aircraft ID/type


o Departure point


o Original destination


o Position and time


o New destination


o ETA


o Remarks including fuel exhaustion time o Revised ETA

25. Define Status Information Area.

• The manual or automatic display of the current status of position related equipment and operational conditions or procedures

26. Define written notes.

• Manually recorded items of information kept at designated locations on the position of operation. They may be an element of the SIA

27. What does a position relief checklist contain? And where are they displayed?

• NAVAIDS


• Equipment


• Radar


• Airport


• Weather


• Staffing


• Flow control


• Special activities


• Traffic


• Comm. Status all know aircraft


• *at every sector

28. What are the responsibilities of the specialist being relieved?

• Ensure any known pertinent status information is accurately relayed to the relieving controller or displayed in the SIA, or relayed to the position responsible for displaying it • Provide a briefing that is complete and accurate


• Brief on equipment with the outages view displayed

29. What is the responsibility of the relieving specialist?

• Prior to accepting responsibility for the position ensure that any unresolved questions are answered and that the briefing takes place to your total satisfaction

30. What are the shared responsibilities of the specialists?

• Completeness and accuracy of the briefing and conducting the briefing at the position being relieved unless other procedures authorized by the facility air traffic manager have been established

31. What is a display of the current status of the position equipment and operational conditions or procedures called?

• SIA

32. Unless otherwise authorized where shall the position relief briefing be conducted?

• At the position being relieved

33. Which specialist is responsible for ensuring questions are resolved?

• Relieving specialist

34. Accuracy of information displayed in the SIA is the responsibility of?

• Specialist being relieved

35. Who is responsible for the completeness and accuracy of the position relief briefing?

• Both

36. What are the four steps in the position relief briefing?

• Preview the position


• Verbal briefing


• Assumption of position responsibility


• Review the position

37. Who decides when the verbal briefing may begin?

• Relieving specialist will indicate when the preview is complete and when the verbal briefing may begin

38. The final act of assuming responsibility for the position is initiated by the…?

• Relieving controller

39. After the relieving specialist has assumed responsibility for the sector, the relieved specialist…..?

• Reviews all information for omissions, updates, or inaccuracies

40. If the specialist being relieved recognizes an inaccuracy immediately after relinquishing position responsibility, who should be notified?

• Relieving specialist and any appropriate position

41. When should you record each pertinent status information item?

• As soon as operationally feasible because of omission during briefing or incorrect memory recall

42. Use extra care during a relief brief when?

• Simultaneous reliefs are occurring and combining or splitting sectors or position