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303 Cards in this Set

  • Front
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gastrointestinal tract

continuous tube from mouth to anus

accessory structure of GI

teeth, tongue, salivary glands, liver, gall bladder

borborygmus

gut sounds, gurgling noise

coprophagia

eating poop

dyschezia

straining to defecate

hematochezia

bloody stool

pica

eating none nutritive items

poikilocytosis

abnormal shape of RBC

tenesmus

cramping, painful straining

obstipation

severe or complete constipation

what are some issues with the oral cavity

- dental disease


- oral trauma


- salivary mucocele


- oral neoplasia

what are common causes of oral trauma

- falls (fractures)


- fights


- burns (electrical)


- blunt trauma (HBC)


- foreign objects (sticks, fish hooks, sewing needle)


- lacerations

What disease?


- hx of signs of head trauma


- increased salivation


- inability to close mouth


- reluctance or inability to eat


- presence of foreign object

oral trauma

what is diagnosed via thorough exam of the oral cavity and radiographs

oral trauma

what happens to persian cats commonly that involves the mouth

yawn and pop out the TMJ causing mouth to be stuck open

what is this disease?


- most common disease of salivary glands in dogs


- dogs 2-4 years, G. sheps, mini poodles


- hx of slowly enlarging, fluid filled swelling on the neck (many see fluid filled swelling on the tongue)

salivary mucocele

mucocele

excessive accumulation of saliva in subcutaneous tissue and resultant tissue reaction

what is the most common oral neoplasia

malignant melanoma


squamous cell carcinoma


fibrosarcoma

what is the most common oral neoplasia in dogs and has a worse prognosis

malignant melanoma

what oral neoplasia can look like eosinophilic plaque

squamous cell carcinoma

what oral neoplasia is rapidly growing and involves the bone, metastasize to lungs and lymph nodes


- brown, black or unpigmented


- poor prognosis

malignant melanoma

what oral neoplasia is the most common oral tumor in cats


- ulcerative and erosive, invasive, involve gingiva and tongue

squamous cell carcinoma

what oral neoplasia is locally invasive, second most common oral tumor in cats


- involves gingiva and palate

fibrosarcoma

how do you diagnose oral neoplasia

biopsy and histopathology

how do you treat oral neoplasia

surgical removal with wide excision


- may involve removal of portion of mandible or maxilla


- radiation, chemo


- new vaccine for melanoma shows promise

what oral neoplasia has a developing vaccine

malignant melanoma

what benign neoplasia has a DNA viral etiology in young patients


- proliferative masses on mucous membranes anywhere in the oral cavity


- transmission through fomites and direct contact


- wart-like can cause dysphagia and may bleed


- diagnosed on appearance


- self-limiting: regress on own (or can pop)

papillomas

what oral neoplasia is most common benign oral mass in dogs


-pedunculated mass growing of gingiva


- has 3 forms


- may see pain, bleeding, hypersalivation


- definitive dx via biopsy


- treatment: surgical removal, radiation

epulides

what epulides oral mass type is from margin of gums and smooth

fibromatous

what epulides oral mass type involves bone

ossifying

what epulides oral mass type is ulcerative, from periodontal ligament

acanthomatous (can be malignant)

esophagitis

inflammation of the esophagus

what disease is associated with contact of the mucosa with irritants (acids, alkalis, drugs, hot materials)


- extent of damage depends upon type of material, length of contact, integrity of mucosal barrier


- can also be caused by chronic vomiting and damage by foreign bodies

esophagitis/ gastroesophageal reflux

what drug in cats can cause esophagitis

doxycycline

what is a common cause of esophagitis

GER (gastoesophageal reflux)

what are clinical signs of esophagitis

-pain
-anorexia
- dysphagia, salivation, regurgitation

how do you diagnose esophagitis

endoscopy

how do you treat esophagitis

-decrease inflammation, prevent further damage


- can be long process, esophagus heals slowly

in what form of esophagitis do you treat by never inducing vomiting, administering neutralizing agents, bathing of flushing skin with water, rest esophagus, and sucralfate slurry

esophagitis due to irratants

how do you treat GER

- high protein, low fat diets to promote gastric emptying


- sucralfate, H2 blockers, proton pump inhibitors


- metoclopramide

what drug stimulates GI motility

metoclopramide

when giving cats meds what must you always do after

chase with water

how do you remove an esophageal obstruction

- endoscopy


- gastrotomy


- risk of stricture, poor healing (scarring can cause stricture)

exaggerated swallowing movements, increased salivation, retching, restlessness, anorexia and hx of chewing foreign objects are all clinical signs of what

esophageal obstruction

how to you diagnose esophageal obstruction

endoscopy


radiography

What disease:


-persistant right aortic arch


- ligamentum arteriusum persists and does not allow esophagus to expand in that area


- creates megaesophagus

vascular ring anomaly (congential from PRAA)

what disease:


-is caused by hypomotility of the esophagus


-ingesta transported abnormally


- ingesta accumulates and causes stretching and dilation of the esophagus


- may be segmental or generalized and mild or severe


- etiology may be from nerve, muscle or neuromuscular junction (myasthenia gravis)


- idiopathic most common

megsesophagus

when does congenital megaesophagus occur

occur at weaning when starting to eat solid foods

when does aquired megaesophagus occur

at any time

what is the number one symptom of megaesophagus

1. regurgitation


- increased risk for aspiration pneumonia due to this

how do you diagnose megaesophagus

-hx of regurgitation after meals


- thoracic radiographs


- fluoroscopy, esophagoscopy


- testing for primary disease: myasthenia gravis

how do you treat megaespophagus

- treat primary cause if possible


- elevated feeding (bailey chair)


- small frequent meals


- prevent aspiration

what is a common cause of vomiting in dogs and cats

acute gastritis

what is the etiology of acute gastritis

-diet: spoiled food, diet change, food allergies, food intolerance


- infection: bacterial, viral, parasitic


- toxins: chemicals, plants, drugs, organ failure


- foreign object ingestion

what are clinical signs of acute gastritis

-anorexia


- acute onset vomiting


- +/- painful abdomen, dehydration


- history of above

how do you diagnose and treat acute gastritis

diagnose: Hx, PE, CBC: stress leukogram, Chem: rule out metabolic or organ failure, rads


Treat: treat underlying cause, NPO 24-36 hrs, fluids, bland diet, antiemetics (maropitant (cerenia), metoclopromide (reglan), odansetron

what is commonly a result of drug therapy in dogs and cats? (NSAIDs)

GI ulcers

what do NSAIDs do that results in GI ulcers

disrupts normal mucosal barrier

what causes GI ulcers

- drug therapy


- stress


- renal failure, liver failure, hypoadrenocorticism

what are clinical signs of GI ulcers

- can be asymptomatic


- anemia


- melena


- anorexia


- edema


- abdominal pain


- septicemia if ulcer perforates

how do you diagnose and treat GI ulcers?

diagnose: rads (contrast studies), endoscopy (direct visualization)


treat: oral antacids, H2 blocker (famotidine), proton pump inhibitors (omeprazole), sucralfate (binds and protects ulcer site), misoprostol (synthetic prostaglandin), supportive care

what should clients know about GI ulcers

- no NSAIDs w/out supervision


- never give Ibuprofen, naproxen, acetominophen, aspirin w/out vet consult


- Give NSAID w/ meal


- stop NSAID if vomiting


- never give at same time as corticosteroid like prednisone

what is GDV

gastric dilation volvulus


- acute, life threatening condition (often called bloat but different)

what are clinical signs of GDV

- non-productive retching/ vomiting attempts


- hypersalivation


- markedly distended abdomen


- marked discomfort- pace, whine, stretch


- depression, weakness, collapse


- tachypnea, tachycardia

how do you diagnose GDV

-hx and PE


- depression, weak, slow CRT


- RADS: right lateral, air filled stomach, pylorus located dorsal and cranial to the fundus (popeye arm)


- CBC/ChemL electrolytes disturbances

what lateral do you want when looking for a GDV

Right lateral


how do you treat GDV

-emergency


- correct circulatory shock: fluids (cath both legs: bolus), corticosteroids


- decompress (pass stomach tube, trocarization


- correct volvulus ( surgery, gastroplexy)


- antibiotics (for gram neg bacteria)


- ECG monitor for VPC's


- potassium and bicarb

What is gastric neoplasia

-fairly uncommon


- malignant more common


- adenocarcinoma, lymphoma


- weight loss, vomiting, obstruction


- endoscopy, biopsy


- surgical resection if possible, chemo and radiation not very successful

what is GI obstruction

- usually by foreign body


- clinical signs: based on duration, breed, type, degree, vomiting, anorexia, abdominal pain, anorexia, polydipsia, dehydration, systemic toxicity


- diagnose: RADS, endoscopy, exploratory


- tx: surgical or endoscopic removal, induced vomiting

what is IBD

inflammatory bowel disease


- chronic gastritis, enteritis or colitis

what is the etiology of IBD

-inflammatory cells accumulate in the cells lining the GIT


- Cats> dogs


- abnormal immune tolerance to gut bacteria or dietary substances

how do you diagnose and treat IBD

diagnose: biopsy and histopathy, CBC, Chem (maybe normal), GI panel (cobalamin and folate levels), ultrasound may measure thichened walls


tx: meds (prednisolone (azathioprine), metro, sulfasalazine (not cats), tylosin, B12

what are clinical signs of IBD

- gastric as for acute gastritis


- intestinal: chronic intermittent vomiting +/- diarrhea, weight loss, lethargy, pu/pd, borborygmus


- colon: diarrhea, little weight loss, increased fecal volume and frequency, tenesmus, hematochezia, increased mucus

what must you rule out for IBD since symptoms are similar

intestinal lymphoma

osmotic diarrhea

increased solute load in bowel

secretory diarrhea

hypersecretion of ions

exudative diarrhea

increased permeability and loss of protein

dysmotile

abnormal motility

what is acute diarrhea

-common


- etiology: disruption of normal bacteria flora, often from diet change, stress, drugs


- signs: abrupt onset diarrhea, +/- vomiting


-dx: rule out other causes, fecal float, hct


-TX: supportive, fluids, NPO 24-48 hrs, bland diet, probiotics, antibiotics, anti-diarrhea if warrented

what is small intestinal diarrhea caused by?

parasite: round, hook, whipworms, coccidia, giardia, cryptosporidium


viral: parvo, distemper, panleuk


bacterial: salmonella, shigella, campylobacter, e. coli, clostridium, staphylococcus

what are signs, dx, tx for small intestinal diarrhea

signs: diarrhea +/- blood, +/- fever, anorexia


dx: r/o parasite, fecal smear, cytotoxin assays


tx: antibiotics, fluids, electrolytes prn


client ed: good hygiene

what is lymphangiectasia

chronic protein-losing intestinal disease of dogs

what is lymphangiectasia etiology?

- impaired intestinal lymphatic drainage due to obstruction of normal flow


- lymph back up releases fluid into the intestinal lumen and causes loss of fat, plasma proteins and lymphocytes

what is lymphangiectasia clinical signs?

- edema, effusion


- ascites


- light colored diarrhea


- weight loss, emaciation-progressive

how do you diagnose lymphangiectasia

CBC/Chem: lumphopenia, hypocholesterolemia, hypoglobulinemia, hypoalbuminemia, hypocalcemia


- intestinal biopsy: chyle-filled lacteals w/ ballooning of villi, mucosal edema


- endoscopy: lipid droplets protruding into lumen

how do you treat lymphangiectasia and whats client ed

tx: stop protein loss, prednisone and metro, low fat diet, quality protein diet, suppliment w/ fat soluble vitamins, B12


client ed: progressive disease, no cure

what are the fat soluble vitamins

A, B, C, K

what is a linear foreign body?

- caused by long object anchoring in the intestines causing them to bunch on each other


-signs: anorexia, vomiting, lethargy, abdominal pain, diarrhea, look for string (under tongue)


- DX: find string, plication on rads/ultrasound


- TX: surgery, may need resecting and anastomosis of dead bowel


- Client ed: no strings or like objects, do not pull on protruding strings

what are clinical signs that a linear foreign body has perforated?

- pain


- fever


- vomiting


- collapse

what are small intestinal neoplasia disease

- adenocarcinoma: 25% of intestinal cancer in dogs, 52% in cats


- lymphosarcoma: 10% of GI neoplasia in dogs, 21% in cats

what are clinical signs, DX and TX of small intestinal neoplasia?

signs: progressive, related to location and growth rate of tumor, weight loss, anorexia, +/- vomiting, +/- melena, diarrhea


DX: palpable mass or thickened bowel loops, enlarged mesenteric lymph nodes, Rads, biopsy, labs (maybe anemic, hypoproteinemic)


TX: surgical removal, supportive care, chemo

Tenesmus

cramping

how to tell is diarrhea is small or large bowel related?

small: increased volume, melena, maybe vomiting, weight loss


large: markedly increased frequency of defecation, decreased volume, fecal mucus present, hemotochezia, tenesmus, urgency, dyschezia, steotorrhea

what is intussusception defined as?

when smaller, more proximal segment of intestine at the ileocolic junction invaginates into the larger, more distal segement of large bowel

- produces partial or complete obstruction and compromises blood supply ( necrosis)

what is intussusception etiology, signs, DX, TX

etiology: idiopathic, parasites, foreign bodies, infection, neoplasia


signs: vomiting, anorexia, depression, diarrhea +/- blood


dx: palpate sausage-like mass in abdomen, untrasound (multilayered concentric rings)


tx: surgical reduction/resection, supportive care, antibiotics, bland food

what is megacolon?

etiology: 62% idiopathic, poss defect in neurostimulation mechanism promoting bowel emptying, other things disrupting motility (hypokalemia, hypothyroidism, pelvis deformity)


signs: straining to defecate, vomiting, diarrhea, weakness, anorexia, passing small hard bm or liquid bm, +/- blood, mucus


dx: palpate distended colon, Rads: colon wider then lumbar vertebrae, CBC (dehydration)


tx: enemas, stool softeners, cisapride, dietary (increase fiber and water intake), surgical (subtotal colectomy), fluids, deobstipate

what are accessory GI structures

Liver and exocrine pancreas

what is the role of the liver

large functional reserve and regenerative capacity


- injury must be severe before laboratory parameters show evidence of a disturbance

what are clinical signs of liver disease

- initially vague


- anorexia, weight loss, vomiting, diarrhea, pu/pd


- bleeding tendencies (vit K, clotting factors)

what are classifications of liver disease

drug or toxin induced


infectious


neoplastic


congenital


hepatic lipidosis

what are the liver chemistries

- total protein


- albumin


- globulins


- fibrinogen


- alanine transaminase (ALT)


- Aspartate transaminase (AST)


- Alkaline phosphates (ALP)


- Gamma glutamyltransferase (GGT)


- bilirubin


- bile acids


- cholesterol


- glucose


- BUN

what is the #1 cause of acute hepatotoxicity?

- ingested drugs (first pass effect): acetaminophen, phenobarbital, antifungals


- some may cause chronic toxicity over time

what is the first pass effect

the fact that the liver receives 100% of blood flow thru the portal vein from stomach and intestines before the rest of the body

what animal is most affected by cholangiohepatitis

cats


- especially persians

what complex of disorders is involved in cholangiohepatitis

- cholangitis


- cholangiohepatitis


- biliary cirrhosis

what is cholangiohepatitis etiology adn clinical signs?

-etiology: bile duct inflammation causes hepatocyte injury causing biliary cirrhosis, possible asceding bacterial infection from GI


-signs: anorexia, depression, weight loss, vomiting, dehydration, fever, jaundice, ascites, hepatomegaly



what is cholangiohepatitis diagnosis and treatment?

-dx: increase ALT, ALP, GGT, bile acids, hypoalbuminemia, low BUN, left shift neutrophil, mild regenerative anemia, rads (hepatomegaly), histopath (cellular infiltrates around bile ducts)


- tx: antibiotics (ampicillin, metro), ursodial (prevents gall stones), prenisolone, fluids, vitamins, electrolyte support

what should clients know about cholangiohepatitis?

- variable prognosis


- tx may be prolonged


- liver maybe permanently damaged

what is feline hepatic lipidosis etiology?

idiopathic disease mostly in hepatopathy cats that are adults and obese


etiology: unknown cause, triggered by stress, prolonged anorexia creates imbalance in lipid breakdown and clearance, excess accumulation of fat in hepatocytes results resulting in hormone impairment, decreased fatty acid oxidation, impaired VLDL formation and release

what are clinical signs, dx and tx of feline hepatic lipidosis?

signs: anorexia, weight loss(>25%), depression, sporadic vomiting, icterus, mild hepatomegaly, +/- coagulopathy


DX: CBC (non-regenerative anemia, stress neutrophillia, lymphopenia, poikilicytosis), Chem (elevated ALP, ALT, AST, bilirubin, bile acids and hypoalbuminemia, ultrasound (hyperechoic liver), biopsy (vacuolized hypatocytes, fat confirmed)


TX: aggressive support, nutrition (high cal and protein), feeding tube, vitamins (B1, B12, thiamine, carnitine, taurine), electrolytes, fluids

what are intrahepatic portosystemic shunts (congenital)

- most common in large breed dogs


- failure of ductus venosus to close at birth

what should you avoid with hepatic lipidosis animals?

valium, propofol, don't use jugular due to hemolysis potential

what is PSS

portosystemic shunts (congenital)


anomalous vessels that, allow normal portal blood draining from the stomach, intestines, pancreas and spleen to pass directly into systemic circulation without first passing through the liver (adnormal should pass through liver, this diverts the first pass affect, toxins go right into blood)

what is extrahepatic portosystemic shunts

- most common in small breeds and cats


- mini schnauzers and yorkies


- extrahepatic shunts connect the portal vein or one of its tributaries to the caudal vena cava or the azygos vein (toxins normally filtered out by liver get into systemic circulation)

what are clinical signs of portosystemic shunts (PSS)

- 6 months of age


- CNS: anorexia, depression, lethargy, weakness, ataxia, head pressing, circling, pacing, blindness, seizures, coma


- cats: hypersalivation, aggressive or bizarre behavior


- GI: vomiting, diarrhea, pu/pd


- Urinary: urate urolithiasis (non-dalmations since dalmations have this genetic defect)

when do PSS signs worsen?

right after a meal, especially one with high protein

how to you diagnose PSS?

dx: CBC (mild anemia, poikilocytosis, microcytosis, target cells) Chem (hypoprotenemia, hypoglycemia, hypoalbumonemia, decreased BUN, increase ALT, ALP, bile acids, hypoammonemia), UA (ammonium bilurate crystals, isosthenuria, hyposthenuria) rads (microhepatics), ultrasound (visualize shunt)

how do you treat PSS?

medical tx: (won't do well without surgery) low protein diet, lactulose, neomycin, metro, fluids


surgical tx: surgical ligation of the shunt (must ligate slowly so liver can adapt to handle new blood flow)

what can be used during PSS ligation to allow slow ligation of the shunt and let the liver adapt

ameroid ring

what can happen in PSS animals especially cats, after surgery

shunt can recanalize and relapse

what is the major function of the pancreas

-secretion of digestive enzymes into the small intestine


- secrete bicarbonate to neutralize stomach acid and inhibit bacterial overgrowth


- absorption of vitamin B12 and other nutrients


- close association w/ stomach, liver, duodenum

what is etiology of pancreatitis?

- acute or chronic


- unpredictable w/ varying degrees of severity


- more prevalent in obese animals


etiology: high fat diet, dietary indiscretions, associated w/ hepatic lipidosis cats, caused by drugs (azothioprine, sulfonamides, furosimide), parasites, edema, trauma, tumors, disruption of bacterial flora in small intestine

waht is pathophysiology and signs of pancreatitis

path: activation of enzyme occurs w/in gland leading to autodigestion and inflammation, results in tissue damage and multisystemic involvement


signs: hx of recent fatty meal (pork), depression, anorexia, vomiting, +/- diarrhea, fever, dehydration, +/- abdominal pain, shock collapse

how do you diagnose and treat pancreatitis

dx: CBC (leukocytosis, high PCV) Chem (azotemia, increased ALT, low calcium, hyperlipemia), cPLI & fPLI (canine/feline pancreatic lipase immunoreactivity test), Rads, ultrasound


TX: support fluids/lytes, NPO 24-48hrs, antibiotics, pain meds, antiemetics, plasma, albumin, bland diet

when are cases of pancreatitis more common?

around the holidays when pets are fed fatty meals

what is the best diagnostic test for pancreatitis

cPLI or fPLI test (canine/feline pancreatic lipase immunoreactivity test)

what is the etiology of exocrine pancreatic insufficiency (EPI)

- pancreatic acinar atrophy ( young german sheps, cats w/ chronic pancreastitis


- progressive loss of acinar cells and digestive enzymes (signs occur when 85-90% secretory ability is lost)


- lack of normal enzyme secretions alters mucosal lining of intestines decreasing ability to absorb, causing bacterial overgrowth


- can also affect insulin

what is EPI

exocrine pancreatic insufficiency

what are clinical signs, diagnostics and treatment of EPI?

signs: mild to marked weight loss, polyphagia, coprophagia, pica, diarrhea, light, fatty stool, flatulence


DX: CBC (normal), Chem (elevated ALT), TLI test (decreased <2 mcg/L)


TX: suppliment pancreatic enzymes (pancrezyme, viokase, pig pancreases), low fiber, highly digestible diet, vitamin suppliment, antibiotics for SIBO (metro, tylosin)

what is the best diagnosic for EPI?

TLI test (trypsin-like immunoreacticity)

what should clients know about EPI?

-lifelong, irreversible


- clinical signs will resolve with supplimentation


- must be given w/ every meal


- do not touch or inhale enzyme powder

what does the thyroid gland do?

produce thyroid hormones T3, T4, calcitonin (decreases blood calcium)

what does the adrenal gland do?

salt, sugar, sex

what animal is hypothyroidism most common in?

dogs


-cats can get but usually as a result of over treating hyperthyroidism

what are the two etiologic agents that cause hypothyroidism?

1. thyroid atrophy


2. lymphocytic thrtoiditis (tumor)

what are clinical signs, diagnostics and treatment for hypothyroidism?

signs: weight gain, bilaterally symmetrical alopecia (rat tail), recurrent skin problems (dry coat, excessive shedding, skin hyperpigmentation), cold intolerance, repro problems


dx: low T4 or free T4, high thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH), mild non-regenerative anemia, increased cholesterol


tx: lifelong supplimentation with levothyroxine

in what animal is hyperthyroidism most common

cats

what causes hyperthyroidism in cats?

thyroid adenoma


- 70% bilateral


- 1-2% due to thyroid adenocarcinoma


- benign but causes thyroid to oversecrete T3 and T4

what are clinical signs of hypothyroidism?

- signs: weight loss, polyphagia, vomiting, tachycardia +/- murmur, hyperactivity, palpable thyroid, increased BP, blindness (retinal detachment, engorged retinal vessels, hyphema)

what is hyphema

blood in anterior chamber of the eye

what do you give to treat hyphema?

amlodipine

how do you diagnose hyperthyroidism?

DX: palpable thyroid, increased serum T4 or free T4, elevated ALT, ALKP, may be azotemic, hypertensive

how do you treat hyperthyroidism?

1. anti-thyroid drugs: methimazole, disrupts synthesis of T4, treats, doesn't cure


2. radioactive iodine I-131 (treatment of choice, cure, specialized facility)


3. thyroidectomy (need stable patient, cure, can re-grow, danger to parathyroid glands and calcium regulation


4. Diet: hills Y/D (iodine restriction, no other food or treats allowed

what is the cure/ treatment of choice for hyperthyroidism

radioactive iodine

what do beta cells produce

insulin: insulin helps glucose get into cells to be used for energy

what do alpha cells produce

they secrete glucagon


- glucagone increases blood levels of glucose when levels are low (mobilize from storage cells)

what is the etiology of diabetes mellitus

- beta cells stop producing insulin or cells stop responding to insulin


- may be caused by chronic pancreatitis


- "lipolysis causes increased fatty acid and ketone production, protein catabolism, hyperglycemia due to decreased glucose uptake and increased gluconeogenesis, and decreased tissue utilization of glucose, fatty acids and amino acids"

what is type one diabetes

- insulin dependent (destruction of beta cells)


- 100% of dogs


- rare in cats


- requires insulin therapy

what is type 2 diabetes

- non-insulin dependent (impaired secretion of insulin)


- 80% of cats


- may need diet +/- insulin therapy

what are clinical signs of non-ketotic diabetes

- pu/pd/pp


- weight loss (cats)


- sudden cataract formation


- plantigrade stance (cats)

what are clinical signs of ketotic diabetes

- depression, weakness


- vomiting


- tachycardia


- acetone breath

how do you diagnose diabetes

- elevated fasting BG >200 mg/dL (cats >250)


- glycosuria


- high fructosamine (cats)


- if ketotic: electrolyte abnormalities, ketonuria, dehydration


- may have concurrent disease: Uti, pancreatitis, hepatic lipidosis

how do you treat diabetes mellitus

- diet: dogs-higher fiber and complex carbs, maintain optimum body weight, cats- high protein, low carb diets, maintain optimum body weight ( some cats will go into remission when diet changes)


- insulin therapy

what is non complicated insulin therapy for diabetes in dogs and cats?

dogs: intermediate acting insulin (vetsulin, humulin N)


cats: glargine (lantus)- long acting (high protein diet=remission in 1-4 months, vetsulin, PZI

what is the best food for diabetic cats

canned food

what is insulin therapy for complicated diabetic dogs and cats

- short acting insulin


- aggressive supportive care (IV fluids, correct electrolyte imbalances)

how should monitoring be done on a diabetic patient

- BG curves: IH or at home to determine nadir and duration of action, adjust dose accordingly


- fructosamine assay: higher w/ poor control, con;t determine nadir or duration


- urine glucose sticks: determine is more in depth testing is needed

what are signs of hypoglycemia

- weakness


- lethargy


- seizure


- coma

what does the adrenal cortex produce

1. mineralocorticoids (aldosterone- sodium and water)


2. glucocorticoids (suppress inflammation, suppress immune system)


3. sex hormones

what does the adrenal medulla produce

1. epinephrine


2. norepinephrine


(sympathetic nervous system: fight or flight)

what is hypoadrenocorticisms common name

addison's

what animal is hypoadrenocorticism common in

dogs


-rare in cats


- standard poodles, labs, westies

what is the etiology of hypoadrenocorticism?

-etiology: idiopathic atrophy of adrenal cortex, decreases production of glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids

what does decreased aldosterone due to hypoadrenocorticism lead to ?


decreased aldosterone levels lead to abnormal sodium and potassium exchange as well decreased water conservation-hypotension

what are clinical signs of addison's (hypoaddrenocorticism)

- female > males, middle aged


- depression, lethargy, weakness- may wax and wane


- anorexia, weight loss


- vomiting, diarrhea (often hemorrhagic)


- pu/pd


- bradycardia, dehydration

how do you diagnose addison's (hypoaddrenocorticism)

- Na:K ratio < 27:1 (atypical cases may have normal electrolytes)


- non-regenerative anemia


- azotemia, dilute urine


- hypoglycemia, hypercalemia


- ACTH Stimulation test definitive dx: expect rise in cotisol between pre and post sample but w/ addison's remains unchanged

what is the definitive diagnostic for addison's (hypoaddrenocorticism)

ACTH stimulation

how do you treat acute addison's (hypoaddrenocorticism)(addisonian crisis)

* emergency


1. fluid therapy: shock (stabilize electrolytes)


2. glucocorticoid replacement: (dex meth, pred)


3. treat GI hemorrhage (GI protectants)


4. mineralocorticoid replacement (DOCP)

what is the mineralocorticoid DOCP

Desoxycorticosterone pivalate

how do you treat chronic addison's (hypoaddrenocorticism)

-DOCP injection every 25-28 days


- prednisolone


- fludricortisone (oral mineralo and corticoid supplementation)

what is the common name for hyperadrenocorticism

Cushing's

what animal commonly gets Cushing's (hyperadrenocorticism

- common in dogs, rare in cats


- poodles, dachshund, terriers (PDH)


- majority of cases are females > 6 years

what is the etiology of Cushing's (hyperadrenocorticism

- excessive secretion of cortisol


1. pituitary adenoma: excess ACTH- excess cortisol (pituitary dependent)


2. functional adrenal tumor: excess cortisole (leads to unilateral adrenal enlargement and atrophy of the other)


3. iatrogenic: overmedicating with exogenous steroids

what are clinical signs of Cushing's (hyperadrenocorticism

- pu/pd/pp


- excessive panting


- abdominal enlargement (weakening of stomach muscles)


- obesity


- muscle weakness, lethargy, lameness


- bilateral symmetrical alopecia, pyoderma (skin infections)


- calcinosis cutis, abnormal gonads

calcinosis cutis

calcified plaques on the skin

comidomes

black heads

how do you diagnose Cushing's (hyperadrenocorticism

- Chem: elevated ALT, ALKP, cholesterol, glucose, decreased BUN, lipemia


- increased urine cortisol: creatine ration (normal ratio rules out cushing's)


- dilute urine, uti's


- ACTH stimulation test (higher then normal cortisol levels after injection)


- Low Dose Dex test (should suppress in normal pet, elevated cortisol in Cushing's)


- Ultrasound : may show enlarged adrenal

what is the definative diagnostic for Cushing's (hyperadrenocorticism

Low dose Dexamethasone suppression test

how do you treat Cushing's (hyperadrenocorticism

- surgically remove adrenal tumor


- w/ pituitary dependent: Mitotane, trilostane




Other: ketoconazole, selegiline (anipryl)

what does primary hyperparathyroidism cause

hypercalcemia

hypoparathyroidism causes what

hypocalcemia

insulinoma causes what

hypoglycemia

normal canine and feline gestation length

62-65 days


- fetuses palpable dogs: 25-36 days, cats: 21-28 days


- skeletal mineralization on rads: 45 days

Ovarian remnant syndrome

etiology: ovarian tissue not completely excised at time of spay or ovarian tissue is dropped into the abdominal cavity and revascularizes


signs: estrus after OVH, false pregnancy


DX: vaginal cytology w/ signs of estrus (cornified epithelium, LH testing, anti-mullerian hormone test, estrodiol levels after stimulation w/ gonadotropin, serum progesterone, exploratory


TX: surgical removal of remnant

Eclampsia

-2-3 weeks after parturition, small dogs


Etiology: lactation and diet deficient in calcium


signs: nervousness, salivation, stiff gait, ataxia, seizures


DX: hx, clinical signs, hypocalcemia


TX: slow IV infusion of calcium gluconate (monitor heart for bradycardia or arrhythmia), once stable, oral calcium supplement (TUMS)

what is the etiology of a pyometra

- common in middle aged to older intact females


- etiology: increasing progesterone results in hyperplasia of endometrial glands of uterus, becomes cystic and secretes fluid while cervix is closed and myometrial contractions are inhibited (cystic endometrial hyperplasia), fluid causes inflammation, good medium for bacteria, or caused by administration of progestins (megastrol acetate)

what bacteria is often associated with pyometras

- e. coli (most common in dogs), staphylococcus, streptococcus, pasteurella, proteus, moraxella

what are clinical signs of a pyo

- +/- vulvar discharge depending on open or closed


- abdominal enlargement


- vomiting


- lethargy


- pu/pd


- dehydration, azotemia

how do you diagnose a pyo

- HX of estrus or irregular estrus


- rads (enlarged uterus)


- ultrasound (fluid filled uterus)


- CBC: neutrophilic leukocytosis with left shift, azotemia


- Cytology: degenerate neutrophils, bacteria

how do you treat a pyo

- #1 OVH (spay)


- correct dehydration first


- if pet needed for breeding: prostaglandin F2-alpha (lutalyse), should breed next cycle


- antibiotics based on cult and sens

what is dystocia

difficulty in delivery of fetuses through birth canal


- fetal factor: large fetus, abnormal positioning (breech not a factor)


- maternal factors: narrow canal, uterine inertia

what are clinical signs of dystocia

- in labor > 4 hours w/out producing a fetus


- green vaginal discharge during parturition


- more than 1 hour between fetus

how do you diagnose and treat a dystocia?

DX: PE, digital palpation of vagina, Rads (positioning and birth canal), ultrasound to assess fetal viability


TX: manually dislodge w/ careful manipulation, oxytocin for inertia, C-section

how can you tell a neutered male cat from a cryptorchid cat?

no spines on the penis


- smell of tom cat urine

what is cryptorchidism and its etiology?

- hereditary developmental defect


- etiology: failure of one or both testicles to descend into the scrotum within 8 weeks of birth, maybe located subQ, inguinally, abdominally, produce testosterone but not sperm, Dogs>cats

how do you diagnose and treat cryptorchidism

DX: PE, testosterone levels, gonadotropin stimulation tests, ultrasound, exploratory surgery


TX: castration is treatment of choice, prevent torsion, neoplasia

what is benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)

-aging change causing enlargement of the prostate in intact males


- signs: maybe asymptomatic, tenesmus


- DX: prostate palpates symmetrically enlarged, non-painful (normal), biopsy


TX: castration (70% decrease in size within 7-14 days), DES (estrogen suppliment)

What is the etiology and clinical signs of prostatitis

-etiology: infection w/ bacteria from urogenital tract or direct infection (e. coli typically, also proteus, klebsiella, pseudomonas, strep, staph, brucella canis), acute or chronic


- Signs: acute (anorexia, fever, lethargy, stiff gait, caudal abdominal pain) Chronic ( asymptomatic, chronic, intermittent UTI)

what is the diagnosis and treatment of prostatitis

DX: UA w/ pyuria, hematuria, bacteruria, PE, Culture


TX: antibiotics 4-6 weeks, ideally based on cult, castration

prostatic abcesses

more severe form of prostatitis

what is a mammary tumor and what are the risks?

- represents 50% of all tumors in female dogs


- hormone dependent in dogs >cats


RISKS: 0.5% in OVH before 1st heat, 8% in OVH after 1 estrus, 26% OVH after 2 or more estrus, dogs 50/50 benign vs malignant, cats 80-90% malignant

what are clinical signs, diagnosis and treatment options for mammary gland tumors

- Signs: firm nodule along mammary chain (local invasion, ulceration=malignant), regional lymph node enlargement


- DX: exam, biopsy (adenocarcinoma)


- TX: perform met check first, surgical removal #1, chemotherapy

priapism

condition where penis remains erect for a prolonged period of time

paraphimosis

inability of a dog to retract his penis back into his sheath

what are the top 5 transplacental parasitic infections in dogs

- toxocara canis


- neospora caninum


- babesiosis


- leishmaniasis


- dirofilarial microfilariae

what are the abbreviations for feline idiopathic/interstitial cystitic

-FIC


- FUS


- FLUTD

what is FIC and what are it's forms?

- non- malignant inflammatory condition


Forms: 1. Ulcerative, 2. non-ulcerative or 1. Obstructive 2. non-obstructive

what is the etiology and clinical signs of FIC

- cause is unknown: viral, NOT bacterial, often stress related


Signs: self-limiting in most cats w/ resolution in 1-10 days (therefore may appear any treatment is working), hematuria, dysuria, pollakiuria, inappropriate urination

how is FIC diagnosed and treated?

DX: urinalysis (r/o bacterial cystitis or systemic disease), urine culture (negative), ultrasound (may have irregular, thickened bladder wall)


TX: decrease stress (increase activity, climbing areas, hiding spaces), diet change (promote dilute urine, canned food, special new diets), analgesia to ease discomfort

what are the defense mechanisms of the urinary tract?

- frequent voiding


- urethral and ureteral peristalsis


- glycosaminoglycan layer


- pH and concentration of urine

what is the most common cause of cystitis in dogs

canine bacterial cystitis (UTI)

what is the etiology and signs of canine bacterial cystitis?

-etiology: most commonly from bacteria ascending from the urethra (e. coli, proteus), once in bladder adhere to biofilms, alteration of defense mechanisms due to other illness, immune suppression, etc (Cushings)


- Signs: pollakiuria, hematuria, dysuria, cloudy urine, abnormal odor, frequent licking, urinary accidents

how do you diagnose and treat canine bacterial cystitis (UTI)

DX: urinalysis (pyuria, bacteruria, hematuria), cult and sens (collect via cysto)


TX: antibiotics based on cult, empiric antibiotics (ampicillin, clavamox, TMS, enrofloxacin, cephalexin), adequate duration (10-14 days for acute, 4-6 weeks for chronic)

what may be a source of recurrent canine bacterial cystitis (UTI) infection in male dogs

prostate

urolith

crystalline concretion composed of mineral with a small amount of matrix


- found anywhere in urinary tract


- may be radiodense (seen on rads)


- may be radiolucent (not on rads, double contrast on ultrasound)


- can damage bladder lining causing secondary infection or hematuria


- can obstruct outflow tracts

urethral plug

large amount of matrix with small amount of material

what are struvite uroliths and what is there etiology?

-60% cat uroliths, 80% of dogs


- etiology: cats- historically diets high in magnesium, dogs- most are associated with bacterial cystitis, form in alkaline urine

what urolith is associated with bacterial cystitis in dogs

struvite

what are the clinical signs, diagnostics and treatment for struvites

- signs: whether obstructed or not, asymptomatic, hematuria, dysuria, pollakiuria, inappropriate urination, straining, vomiting, collapse, death


- DX: rads, ultrasound may show crystals, stone analysis (MN urolith lab(


- TX: surgical removal, diet (acidifying or preventative), antibiotics, acidifying drugs (methionine)

What is the #1 rule out for FIC

UTI

pylonephritis

UTI that has ascended up to the kidney

what are flat sides on a urolith from

rubbing on another stone in the bladder

what are calcium oxilate uroliths and what is their etiology?

- cats: 27% of stones (Bermese, himalayan, persian)


- dogs: males 5-12 yrs, small breeds


- etiology: used to be "over correction" from struvites w/ acidifying diets new diets prevent this, hypercalcemia in some cases, form in acidic urine

what are clinical signs of calcium oxilate uroliths

-dependent upon whether obstruction is present or not
- asymptomatic
- hematuria, dysuria, pollakiuria
- inappropriate urination
- straining
- vomiting, collapse, death (UO)

what is diagnostic, treatment and prevention for calcium oxyalate uroliths

DX: rads (if radiopaque), ultrasound (acoustic shadowing), urinalysis may show crystal representation of stone type (not always), stone analysis (MN lab)


TX: surgical removal, CaOx stones cannot be dissolved by diet or meds


Prevention: control calcium levels, alkalinizing diets or drugs (potassium citrate)

what are ammonium urate crystals

- uric acid is by-product of purine metabolism


- with faulty metabolism uric acid builds up, urate salts


- also liver disease such as shunts


- dalmations** (bulldogs, shi tzu, yorkie, schnauzer), 3-6 yrs


- radiolucent** (not seen on rads)


- TX: diet (protein restriction), surgery, meds to alkinize urine

what are cystine crystals

- inherited disorder of kidney tubular transport


- acidic urine


- *male dachshund 3-6 yrs


- mostly radiolucent on rads (can't see), visualize w/ ultrasound

what is the etiology of urethral obstruction (UO)

- uroliths or urethral plug blocks urine outflow


- urine backs up (distended bladder, ureters, and into kidneys halting filtration, cuases pressue necrosis, mucosal injury, impaired Na and H2O resorption and excretion of Ph, K, BUN, Cr, H+


- uremia within 24-48 hrs (depression, vomiting, anorexia, metabolic acidosis, denaturing of proteins)


- hyperkalemia is most life threatening- decreases depolarization of the heart

what is the most danger/ life threatening aspect of a UO

hyperkalemia which can cease depolarization of the heart

how do you diagnose a UO

- hx and pe (vocalizing, unproductive straining, vomiting, lethargy, anorexia, weak, recumbent, tachypneic, hypothermic, bradycardic, palpable firm distended bladder, pain


- labs: azotemia, hyponatremia, hyperphosphatemia, hhyperkalemia, hyperglycemia, decreased bicard and pH


- UA: hematuria, proteinuria, glucosuria, Sediment ( pyuria, bacteriuria, crystalluria, casts, dark red urine=worse)


-rads: distended bladder, uroliths, mass, rupture (free abdominal fluid)

how do you treat a UO?

- relieve onstruction by passing u-cath (retrograde hydropulsion, pushed stones into bladder), surgical removal of stones from bladder (cystotomy), utethrotomy, perineal urethrostomy, aggressive supportive care, indwelling catheter closed system

what 2 drugs help with UO's?

- phenocybensamine, prazosin (relax smooth muscle of urethral sphincter)

how do you prevent a UO

- rx diet, canned is preferred

what is acute renal failure and what is its etiology?

Sudden decrease in glomerular filtration- azotemia


- etiology: 1. hypoperfusion (decreased BP during anesthesia, shock, hypovolemia, dehydration), 2. nephrotoxic injury damages nephron (drugs: aminoglycosides, sulfonamides, antifungals, chemo drugs, NSAIDs. Toxins: ethylene glycol, plants, grapes, heavy metals. infection, hypercalemia

what are clinical signs of acute renal failure?

- non-specific


- may have hx of recent toxin exposure


- enlarged, painful kidneys


- anorexia, vomiting, diarrhea, weakness


- pu/pd, oliguria


- +/- fever

how do you diagnose acute renal failure and how do you treat it?

DX: UA- "active" sediment w/ casts, CBC/Chem- increased PCV, BUN, CR, Increased K+, Phos, acidosis


TX:IV fluids (restore perfusion, hydration, restore electrolytes), D/C nephrotoxic drug, adjunct (H2 blockers, PPI's, anti-emetics, phosphate binders, sodium bicarb), diet (low protein, low phos)

what is chronic renal failure and what is its etiology?

- CRD: chronic renal disease, common in older pets


- etiology: congenital, familial, acquired, cats> dogs, progressive decline in renal function caused by destruction of the nephrons- decreased GFR- uremia, abnormal excretion/retention of electrolytes, water, solutes, impaired renal hormone synthesis, systemic hypertension, GI abnormalities

GRF

Glomerular filtration rate

what are ways to acquire chronic renal failure through disease

- amyloidosis, polycystic kidneys, neoplasia, pyelonephritis, obstruction

what happens with decreased erythropoietin in CRF

non-regenerative anemia

happens with decreased calcitriol in CRF

secondary hyperparathyroidism (abnormal calcium and phosphorous regulation)

what are clinical signs of CRF

- pu/pd (often earliest sign)


- weight loss, poor body condition


- anorexia, dehydration, lethargy


- vomiting, diarrhea, halitosis


- oral ulcers, dysphagia, gingivitis


- constipation


- signs of hypertension ( retinal hemorrhage, hyphema, retinal detachment)


- seizure, CNS signs, hypothermia

how do you diagnose CRF?

- HX, PE: dehydration, palpate small, lumpy kidneys


- CBC: normocytic, normochromic, non-regenerative anemia


- Chem: azotemia, hyperphosphatemia, hypokalemia, hypermagnesemia, hyper- or hypo- calcemia, metabolic acidosis


- UA: Dilute urine (sosthenuria), proteinuria, hematuria, pyuria, bacteriuria, cult to r/o concurrent UTI


- elevated UPC (urine protein: creat ratio)


- SDMA elevated

what is the best test for CRF

SDMA

why is the SDMA a better CRF test

- more sensitive than Cr


- detects at ~24% damage vs. 75%

how do your treat CRF

- diet: lower protein, phosphorous, sodium


- fluids: SQ fluids aid in maintaining hydration and increases elimination of BUN


- phosphate binders: AIOH


- potassium supplementation


- pro- crit or darbopoeitin for anemia


- anti-hypertensive agents: calcium channel blockers (amlodipine)


- ACE inhibitors for proteinuria (lowers glomerular BP)


- GI support

what is urinary incontinence and what is its etiology?

- loss of voluntary control of micturition


- all about pressure (bladder pressure > urethral pressure, urine leaks)


- etiology: neurogenic (spinal cord disease of trauma), non-neurogenic (congenital abnormalities [ectopic ureters], estrogen deficiency [spay incontinence], urethral sphincter incompetence [degenerative], hypercontractile [urge incontinence]

what are clinical signs and how do you diagnose urine incontinence

-signs: leakage when pet is sleeping/relaxed or exercising, perineal area wet or soiled, may have concurrent UTI


- DX: UA, rads, r/o uti, metabolic disease

how do you treat urinary incontinence?

- treat underlying cause


- PPA: phenylopropanolamine (increases urethral sphincter tone, proin)


- estrogens: DES, estriol (incurin), help improve sphincter tone


- propantheline: relaxes bladder detrusor muscle, helps urge incontinence

what is idiopathic vestribular disease, whats its etiology and clinical signs?

-"old vestibular disease"


- common cause of peripheral vestibular signs in dogs & cats


- etiology: unknown, no lesions or inflammation can be found


- signs: acute onset ataxia, disorientation, nystagmus, head tilt, nausea vomiting, NO weakness or conscious proprioception deficits

how do you diagnose and treat idiopathic vestibular disease

DX: clinical signs, rule out central disease (weakness, neuro deficits), otitis media/externa, trauma, signs do not progress after first 24 hours


TX: resolve spontaneously over days to weeks (may have residual head tilt or ataxia), supportive care only ( dramamine, meclizine for motion sickness, maropitant for vomiting, no evidence steroids help)

what is idiopathic epilepsy

- repeated episodes of seizure for which no cause exists


- exclude other causes of seizures


- breed predispositions: G. Shep, G. retrievers, poodles, St. Bernards, cocker, beagle


- onset 1-3 yrs


- may occur singly or in clusters


- grand mal= general seizure lasting 1-2 min


- brought on by stress, estrus, excitement

what are clinical signs of idiopathic epilepsy

-pre-ictal/prodromal/aura phase: may act abnormally (hide, vocalize, seek companionship)


- ictal phase: active seizuring (sudden unconsiousness, limb motions, loss of bowel and bladder control, salivation, dilated pupils, vocalization


- post-ictal: recovery period (subtle or may have dementia, blindness, pacing, aggression

what are generalized seizures

general seizure involving both sides of the brain and are bilateral

simple partial seizure

involves one side of the cerebral cortex with abnormal movement on one side of the body

complex partial seizure

manifest as a change in the level of consciousness

focal seizures

abnormal electrical signals in a focal part of the brain causing a localized or unilateral seizure

limbic seizure

manifest as intermittent vomiting, diarrhea, salivation episodes that last a few days


- similar to GI disease but resolve with antiepileptic drugs

reactive seizure

occur secondary to other systemic disease

cluster seizures

multiple seizure episodes in a row in a short period of time

how do you diagnose and treat idiopathic epilepsy

DX: CBC, Chem, UA, BP, CT/MRI, CSF (based on history)


TX: treat underlying cause if possible, with chronic (phenobard, potassium bromide, keppra, zonisamide, monitoring)


If having current seizure treat with: diazepam/midazolam IV, CRI, rectal, propofol boluses or CRI, levetiracetam, phenobarb, pentobarbital

when do you start treatment for idiopathic epilepsy

-large breed: after 2-3 episodes


- others: seizures increase in length and severity and if occur < 30-45 days apart

what is the kindling phenomenon

-worsening/uncontrolled seizures damage control mechanisms of the brain- the more frequent the neurons are exposed to abnormal electrical impulses, the quicker and easier it becomes to trigger


- can lean to cluster seizures, status epilepticus, death

what can cause secondary (acquired) epilepsy

- structural brain disease: storage disease, malformations, neoplasia, trauma, infection, vasular accidents


- metabolic disease: hepatoencephalopathy, hypoglycemia


- toxins

what is status epilepticus

- emergency!!


- prolong period of seizure >5-10 mins (can lead to irreversible coma and death


- body temperature can rise > 105F=cool patient


- cerebral edema: give mannitol


- IV pentobarbital, diazepam

what is intervertebral disk disease (IVDD)

-common


- occurs in all breeds of dog, occationally cats


- most chondrodystrophic dogs have degeneration of their disks by 1 yr


-etiology: degeneration within the disk results in herniation and spinal cord injury

what are the 2 types of intervertebral disk disease (IVDD)

- Type 1: younger dogs (acute rupture of the annulus fibrosis w/ extrusion of nucleus pulposis into the spinal canal


- Type 2: Older >5yr, large breed (extrusion occurs more gradually, less acute and less severe signs, often lateralize

what are clinical signs of intervertebral disk disease (IVDD)

-depends upon location, speed at which disk material is deposed, degree and duration of compression


- locations= cervical, caudal thoracic, lumbar


- pain, acute onset (type 1)


- paresis or paralysis


- motor or sensory deficits


- altered deep pain


- decreased panniculus reflex caudal to the lesion

With intervertebral disk disease (IVDD) how could you use the limbs to determine where the injury is?

limbs caudal to the injury are affected

what is the most important clinical signs in intervertebral disk disease (IVDD) diagnosis?

-depends upon location, speed at which disk material is deposed, degree and duration of compression

what are clinical signs of cervical intervertebral disk disease (IVDD)

- often cry out suddenly for no apparent reason


- carry head low


- reluctant to move head: follow w/ eyes or by turning their whole body


- changes in forelimbs and hindlimbs

what are clinical signs of thoracolumbar intervertebral disk disease (IVDD)

- may cry our suddenly


- reluctant or unable to jump up onto furniture


- pain w/ pressure over area


- changes in hind limbs


- may appear as if having abdominal pain


- hunched


- very tense abdomen

how do you diagnose intervertebral disk disease (IVDD)

-PE, HX


- neuro exam


- Rads w/ anesthesia (narrow disk spaces, myelogram definitive)


- CT/MRI

how do you treat intervertebral disk disease (IVDD)

- Medical: those w/ pain and no or mild deficits: REST!, strict care, minimum 2 wks, steroids to decrease inflammation, +/- pain meds or NSAIDs (not w/ steroid), supportive care (express bladder, carry)


- Surgical: those w/ neuro deficits or unrelenting pain/recurring episodes: remove expelled disk material, fenestration, hemilaminectomy, can worsen w/ surgery

why should a painful patient never receive steroid/pain meds and NOT be restricted

because they could injure themselves further due to the fact they can not tell when they are painful and can worsen the initial injury

what is the common name of cervical spondylomyelopathy

Wobbler's

what is cervical spondylomyelopathy

- C5-C7 malformation


- great danes, dobermans


- signs at young age


- progressive hindlimb ataxia


- abnormal proprioception


- DX: rads, CT/MRI


- poor prognosis w/out TX


- Surgery: decompression and stabilization (disk replacement)

what is degenerative myelopathy

- German Shepards, > 5 yrs


- diffuse degeneration of white matter in ascending and decending spinal cord tracts


- progressive ataxia and rear limb paresis, loss of proprioception


- muscle wasting, scuffed tops of feet


- no treatment

what is a cruciate ligament injury

- cranial and caudal cruciate ligaments are within the stifle joint and help stabilize the stifle joint (anterior and posterior are the human equivalents)


- often in middle ages, overweight animals

what is the etiology of a cruciate ligament injury

- very common injury in the dog


- major cause of degenerative joint disease (DJD)


- ruture or tear occurs due to: trauma, degenerative process (atraumatic process)


- often rupture of the contralateral ligament occurs within 1 year


- tear: leads to painful inflammation


- rupture: pain, inflammation, swelling, instability

what are clinical signs of a cruciate ligament injury

- acute onset


- non-weight bearing on affected leg, or classic "toe touch"


- inward tibial rotation when weight bearing


- joint effusion

how do you diagnose cruciate ligament injury

- positive cranial drawer movement (tibia slides forward excessively, beyond femoral condyles)


- tibial compression test: flex hock, tibia presses forward beyond femoral condyles


- rads: cranial displacement of tibial plateau, bone avulsion at attachment sight, effusion

how do you treat cruciate ligament injury

- surgery is treatment of choice


- extracapsular (extra-articular) stabilization (best in dogs < 15kg, suture in placed around fabella and through hole in tibial crest to stabilize joint


- intraarticular stabilization: patellar tendon graft, tibial plateau leveling osteotomy (TPLO), tibial tuberosity advancement (TTA), achive stability by changing the biomechanics of knee

what is medial patellar luxation

- toy, miniature, large breeds- congenital


- traumatic


- 75-80% of time

what is lateral patellar luxation

- toy, miniature, large, giant breeds


- often goes along with hip dysplasia in large breeds

what is etiology of patellar luxation

- occur early in life, congenital


- anatomic abnormalities: changes in femoral angle causes medial displacement of the quadriceps muscle (in young animals w/ open growth plates, this causes the tibial tuberosity to be "pulled" more medially- bowing of the legs)


- shallow femoral trochlear groove

what are clinical signs of patellar luxation

- abnormal gait


- unilateral or bilateral


- intermittent lameness, waxing and waning


- persistent lameness, crouched gait


- discomfort when stifle is manipulated

how do you diagnose patellar luxation

- PE and HX


- maybe seen on Rads

what are the grades of patellar luxation

grade 1: manually luxated but immediately returns to normal position


grade 2: patella luxates and returns to normal position spontaneously


grade 3: patella permanently luxated but can be manually reduced


grade 4: patella permanently luxated and can not be replaced into groove

how do you treat patellar luxation

- depends upon severity and clinical signs


- mild= rest and NSAID's


- moderate-severe: surgery


- supportive care: NSAID's, PSGAGs, glucosamine, chondroitin, optimal body weight

what are the 3 surgery options for patellar luxation

1. Trochleoplasty: remove wedge of sulcus, then replace cartilage


2. Tibial tuberosity transposition: moves the insertion of the patellar ligament laterally to cause the quadriceps to pull over the center of the trochlear groove


3. combination of both

what is canine hip dysplasia (CHD)

- malformation and degeneration of coxofemoral joints


- most common in large breed dogs

what is the etiology of canine hip dysplasia (CHD)

- secondary to shallow acetabulum or congenital malformation of the femoral head


- results in coxofemoral instability


- body tries to counteract the instability creating arthritis, osteophytes, microfractures in the cartilage

what are the clinical signs of canine hip dysplasia (CHD)

- may be as early as 5-8 months of age


- depends upon degree of laxity and osteoarthritis


- decreased activity


- reluctance to run, jump, climb stairs


- lameness worse after exercise


- difficulty rising

how do you diagnose canine hip dysplasia (CHD)

- PE: abnormal gait (swaying or bunny hop, decreased flexion and extension of hip during ambulation), variable lameness, muscle atrophy, palpation (pain, crepitus, decreased range of motion), positive ortolani sign: laxity


- Rads: VD hip extended, subluxation of hip joint, incongruent head of femur and acetabulum, flattened femoral head, thickening of femoral neck

what is Morgan's line

osteophyte on neck of femur

how do you treat canine hip dysplasia (CHD)

-medical: NSAIDs, chondroprotective agents, O3FA's, physical therapy, weight reduction, acupuncture


- surgical: total hip replacement (large dogs), femoral head and neck ostectomy ( small-medium dogs), juvenile pubic symphysiodesis (cauterize growth plate to close it, acetabulum is rotated dorsally, then all is reattached via bone plates), triple pelvic osterotomy (TPO)

what is Legg-Calve- Perthes

- avascular necrosis of the femoral head


- small breed dogs (toys and terriers)


- pain and muscle atrophy


- surgically remove femoral heads

what is Osteochondrosis Dissecans (OCD)

- degeneration of bone and cartilage w/ reossification (failure of endochondral ossification)


- results in cartilage flap (inflammation, pain, lameness)


- shoulder, stifle, hock, elbow


- large breed 3-18 months

what is Panosteitis

- medium- large breed dogs, 6-8 months old (male german shepherds)


- intermittent lameness


- acute, shifting leg lameness, hx of trauma


- viral?


- thickening of endosteal bone, long bones


- self limiting by 1 yr


- TX: rest, NSAIDs

what is neoplasia in regards to the musculoskeletol system?

- 85-95% osteosarcoma (shoulder/carpus, distal femur/proximal tibia)


- high metastasis rate


- TX: amputation and chemo


- not good long term prognosis

what is degenerative joint disease/ osteroarthritis

- degenerative, progressive, irreversible


- loss of articular cartilage, osteophyte formation, periarticular fibrosis


- primary arthritis due to aging or secondary trauma, conformation, surgery