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433 Cards in this Set
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True or False? There are over 9,000 different types of electronic equipment with a total population of 120,000 items excluding aircraft, fire control systems, and ship engineering control systems used within the Coast Guard.
1. True 2. False |
True
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Non-supported electronic equipment is equipment that has not been authorized by whom?
1. ELC 2. Commandant (CG-64) 3. Commandant (CG-4) 4. MLC |
Commandant (CG-64)
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Non-supported electronic equipment is reported as ________ property, and is recorded in the _____________ system.
1. General purpose, Oracle (IFAM) 2. Special purpose, CMPlus 3. Coast Guard, Oracle (IFAM) 4. General purpose, CMPlus |
General purpose, Oracle (IFAM)
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Which is an example of non-supported electronic equipment?
1. Telephones 2. Hand-held radios 3. Security cameras 4. All of the above |
All of the above
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What is C4IT?
1. Coastal, Command, Control, Communications, and Information Technology 2. Command, Control, Communications, Center for Information Technology 3. Command, Control, Computer, Center for Information Technology 4. Command, Control, Communications, Computers, and Information Technology |
Command, Control, Communications, Computers, and Information Technology
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Information on the organization of Headquarters, Areas, Districts, MLCs, and individual units policies and procedures governing their organization are found in what manual?
1. COMDTINST M10550.25B 2. COMDTINST M5400.7 3. COMDTINST M4000.2 4. COMDTINST M7100.3 |
COMDTINST M5400.7
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Who/what is CG-6?
1. Office of Enterprise Architecture and Planning 2. Office of Resources 3. C4IT Directorate 4. Office of Communications Systems |
C4IT Directorate
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Who serves as the Chief Information Officer and the Chief Knowledge Officer?
1. Commandant 2. MCPOCG 3. Assistant Commandant 4. Secretary of Homeland Security |
Assistant Commandant
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Which Office in the C4IT Directorate(CG-6) exercises technical control over TISCOM, C2CEN, LSU, OSC, and Research and Development Center?
1. Office of Communication Systems (CG-62) 2. Office of Information Systems and Infrastructure (CG-63) 3. Office of Command, Control, and Navigation Systems(CG-64) 4. Office of Research, Development, and Technology Management (CG-66) |
Office of Communication Systems (CG-62)
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Which office develops and administers policies for the Information Systems Security Program and Critical Infrastructure Protection Program?
1. Office of Resources (CG-6R) 2. Office of Information Management (CG-61) 3. Office of Command, Control (C2), and Navigation Systems (CG-64) 4. Office of Information Systems and Infrastructure (CG-63) |
Office of Information Systems and Infrastructure (CG-63)
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Which office oversees the system development life cycle (SDLC) of Command, Control, Communications, Computers, Intelligence, Surveillance, and Reconnaissance (C4ISR) combat and radio navigation systems?
1. Office of Information Management (CG-61) 2. Office of Resources (CG-6R) 3. Office of Command, Control (C2), and Navigation Systems (CG-64) 4. Office of Communication Systems (CG-62) |
Office of Command, Control (C2), and Navigation Systems (CG-64)
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Which office ensures that information technology is acquired and resources managed in compliance with the Paperwork Reduction Act of 1995, and develops, maintains, and facilitates implementation of integrated IT architecture for the executive agency?
1. Office of Enterprise Architecture and Planning (CG-6B) 2. Office of Resources (CG-6R) 3. Office of Information Management (CG-61) 4. Office of Research, Development, and Technology Management (CG-66) |
Office of Enterprise Architecture and Planning (CG-6B)
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Which office advises the Assistant Commandant on all matters related to resource management, strategic planning, and organizational performance measurement activities and processes of the C4IT Directorate?
1. Office of Enterprise Architecture and Planning (CG-6B) 2. Office of Information Management (CG-61) 3. Office of Resources (CG-6R) 4. Office of Research, Development, and Technology Management (CG-66) |
Office of Resources (CG-6R)
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Which office develops and administers policy for management of CG records, forms, correspondence, and mail, the Freedom and Information Act (FOIA) Program, Privacy Act Program, Directive Management Program, and prepares resolutions of FOIA appeals for signature by CG-6?
1. Office of Resources (CG-6R) 2. Office of Information Management (CG-61) 3. Office of Information Systems and Infrastructure (CG-63) 4. Office of Information Assurance (CG-65) |
Office of Information Management (CG-61)
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Which office develops and aligns enterprise strategies, policies, and resource decisions with current information security policies, standards, and capabilities, and develops, maintains, and facilitates implementation of an Information Assurance Program for the executive agency?
1. Office of Information Systems and Infrastructure (CG-63) 2. Office of Information Management (CG-61) 3. Office of Research, Develop, and Technology Management (CG-66) 4. Office of Information Assurance (CG-65) |
Office of Information Assurance (CG-65)
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Which office anticipates future technological challenges, implements best practice solutions within the Coast Guard, and coordinates science and technology efforts with the Department of Homeland Security Office of Science and Technology?
1. Office of Information Assurance (CG-65) 2. Office of Research, Development, and Technology Management (CG-66) 3. Office of Information Systems and Infrastructure (CG-63) 4. Office of Enterprise Architecture and Planning (CG-6B) |
Office of Research, Development, and Technology Management (CG-66)
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Which of the following is not a role of the Coast Guard Yard?
1. Build, repair, and renovate vessels and navigation aids 2. Manufacture miscellaneous Coast Guard equipment 3. Manage and coordinate all industrial work 4. Serve as the homeport for the cutters "CGC Sledge" and "CGC James Rankin" |
Manage and coordinate all industrial work
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Which of the following is not a support division of ARSC?
1. Engineering and Industrial Support 2. Information Systems 3. Personnel Support 4. Aviation Maintenance Support |
Aviation Maintenance Support
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The C2CEN acts as ________ for CCTV, MARFLIR, SCCS, DGPS, and other similar electronic systems.
1. ELC 2. MLC 3. SMEF 4. ARSC |
SMEF
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Who's role is it to manage engineering and logistics support, including technical and logistical information system support, and manage vessel platforms, including cross platform configuration for electronic and ordnance systems?
1. ELC 2. MLC 3. SMEF 4. CG Yard |
ELC
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Which division is not a part of the ELC organization?
1. Platform management 2. Ordnance support division 3. Equipment support division 4. Material division |
Ordnance support division
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Which division of ELC develops and recommends policy and environmental guidance to Headquarters?
1. Platform Management Division 2. Equipment Support Division 3. Ordnance Support Division 4. Material Division |
Platform Management Division
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Which division of ELC provides warehousing and physical distribution support?
1. Ordnance support division 2. Equipment support division 3. Platform management division 4. Material division |
Material division
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Who's role is to function as the System Management and Engineering Facility (SMEF) for the Long Range Navigation (LORAN) system?
1. ELC 2. C2CEN 3. MLC 4. LSU |
LSU
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The Loran system in North America includes____ transmitting stations, ____ monitoring stations, and ____control stations.
1. 19, 19, 6 2. 15, 15, 5 3. 29, 29, 3 4. 22, 22, 5 |
29, 29, 3
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Who's role is it to provide operational control and guidance to the Long Range Navigation (Loran)-C system and Differential Global Positioning System (DGPS)
1. C2CEN 2. LSU 3. NAVCEN 4. ELC |
NAVCEN
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Who's responsibility is it to develop, implement, and support cost-effective telecommunication, electronic, and information systems to meet the current needs of the Coast Guard?
1. C2CEN 2. NAVCEN 3. ELC 4. TISCOM |
TISCOM
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Who's role is it to provide maintenance and Logistics support to the districts within their area under the direction of the Area Commander?
1. Area 2. MLC 3. ELC 4. Headquarters |
MLC
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Who's role is it to provide maintenance and Logistics support to the districts within their area under the direction of the Area Commander?
1. Area 2. MLC 3. ELC 4. Headquarters |
MLC
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Who is responsible for providing support services for the operation, installation, maintenance, overhaul, and modification of most electronic, telecommunication, and computer equipment and related software?
1. ESD 2. ESU 3. TISCOM 4. ELC |
ESD
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How many classifications of ESD's are there in the Coast Guard?
1. 2 2. 4 3. 3 4. 5 |
4
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Which one of these is not one of the possible types of Integrated Support Commands?
1. Industrial 2. partial industrial 3. non-industrial 4. None of the above |
None of the above
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True or False. Industrial Support Detachments (ISDs) are facilities under the management of ISCs with industrial capabilities.
1. True 2. False |
True
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MLC's or ________ provide technical expertise and assistance for support requirements beyond the scope of district unit technicians, including new installations, alterations to existing equipment, and maintenance.
1. ELC 2. CG Yard 3. ESU 4. ESD |
ESU
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The role of the _______ is to provide unit-level administration of the ESU.
1. ESO 2. XO 3. CO 4. EMO |
EMO
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What is the internationally designated frequency used by NAVTEX to broadcast notices to mariners, weather warning messages, and other maritime information?
1. 518 MHz 2. 615 Hz 3. 816 KHz 4. 518 KHz |
518 KHz
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What is the reference for Red/Black Engineering-Installation Guidelines (TEMPEST)?
1. MIL-HDBK-232A(1) 2. MIL-HDBK-100E 3. MIL-HDBK-300 4. M10550.25B |
MIL-HDBK-232A(1)
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True or False? TEMPEST is a classified short name that refers to investigations and studies of unintentional signals that , if intercepted and analyzed, would disclose the information being transmitted and received.
1. True 2. False |
False
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What is the Corresponding IRAC designation for Very High Frequency (VHF)?
1. 300 KHz-3.0 MHz 2. 3.0-30MHz 3. 30-300MHz 4. 300-3000MHz |
30-300MHz
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What is the Corresponding Coast Guard Classification for Ultra High Frequency (UHF)?
1. 300kHz-3.0 Mhz 2. 3.0-30 MHz 3. 118-175 MHz 4. 225-400 MHz |
225-400 MHz
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Which one of these are not part of the Audio frequency communication equipment?
1. Interior communications (IC) systems 2. Public address (PA) systems 3. Telephone systems and carrier equipment used over landlines 4. Sound powered phones |
Sound powered phones
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What is the Reference for equipment requirements, system capabilities, installation, and maintenance guidelines for Aids To Navigation Equipment?
1. COMDTINST M16500.3 2. COMDTINST M5400.7 3. COMDTINST M10550.25B 4. COMDTINST M16562.4167 |
COMDTINST M16500.3
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What is the Corresponding Coast Guard Classification for High Frequency (HF)?
1. 250-525 kHz 2. 2.0-30 MHz 3. 118-175 MHz 4. 225-400 MHz |
2.0-30 MHz
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What is the Corresponding Coast Guard Classification for Medium Frequency (MF)?
1. 250-525kHz 2. 300kHz-3.0MHz 3. 30-300MHz 4. 225-400MHz |
250-525kHz
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What system enhances the Coast Guard's ability to monitor and provide advisories to vessels in specific ports, and provides the capability to document traffic incidents and conditions for later analysis?
1. DGPS 2. TACAN 3. VTS 4. SRAN |
VTS
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Each VTS system consists of up to ____ remote sites.
1. 7 2. 10 3. 21 4. 24 |
24
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What type of maintenance is assigned to unit personnel and applicable ESD'S or contractors and involves preventative and corrective maintenance?
1. Depot 2. Intermediate 3. Organizational 4. SMEF |
Organizational
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What type of maintenance does the MLC or the MLC's subordinate units and contractors perform which include corrective maintenance that is beyond the capability of the assigned organizational level?
1. SMEF 2. Depot 3. Organizational 4. Intermediate |
Intermediate
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What type of maintenance includes C2CEN repairs?
1. Organizational 2. Intermediate 3. Depot 4. SMEF |
Depot
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Who provides "last stop" technical assistance for corrective maintenance beyond the capabilities of the organizational and intermediate levels?
1. ELC 2. Depot 3. SMEF 4. ESU |
SMEF
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The DGPS system, using GPS satellite position information, provides mariners with reliable position accuracy of better than ___ meters?
1. 2 2. 6 3. 10 4. 14 |
10
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True or False? A minimum of four satellites must be used to obtain a GPS fix.
1. True 2. False |
False
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True or False? There is no intermediate level support for GPS/DGPS receivers.
1. True 2. False |
True
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Where is a third control station for DGPS located that can be used as a contingency if one of the primary stations is down?
1. Alexandria, VA 2. Petaluma, CA 3. C2CEN 4. Yorktown, VA |
C2CEN
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What is the Operations Manual for Loran-C systems?
1. COMDTINST M16500.3 2. NAVCENIST M16562.4 3. COMDTINST M16562.1 4. NAVCENIST M16562.1 |
NAVCENIST M16562.1
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Loran is a __________radio navigation aid?
1. Hyperbolic 2. Directional 3. Frequency modulated 4. Dual rate |
Hyperbolic
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Loran operates on the _____________principle.
1. Difference of Potential 2. Difference of time 3. GPS 4. Triangulation |
Difference of time
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Loran operates in the frequency spectrum of _________ with a carrier frequency of __________.
1. 50-90 MHz, 80MHz 2. 120-150 Hz, 130Hz 3. 90-110 kHz, 100kHz 4. 90-110 Mhz, 120 MHz |
90-110 kHz, 100kHz
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What is the typical number stations in a Loran-C system?
1. 3 2. 5 3. 7 4. 9 |
5
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A Loran-C "chain" is considered ______ or more transmitting stations.
1. 2 2. 3 3. 5 4. 7 |
3
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True or False? Chain coverage in a Loran-C system is determined by the power transmitted from each station, the distance between them, and their orientation.
1. True 2. False |
True
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What transmitter is not used in Loran-C transmitting equipment?
1. Tube-type transmitters 2. Solid-state transmitters 3. New solid-state transmitters 4. None of the above |
None of the above
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In Loran-C Transmitting Stations what develops and shapes the Loran-C pulse, provides timing and frequency stability, and provides for remote control of the transmitted signal?
1. Timing and Frequency Equipment (TFE) 2. Communications, Control and Monitor Equipment (CCM) 3. Timing and Control Equipment (TCE) 4. Group repetition interval(GRI) |
Timing and Frequency Equipment (TFE)
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The time elapsed between the initiating pulse from the master and the next initiating pulse from the same master is known as the__________.
1. LCCS 2. TCE 3. GRI 4. TFE |
GRI
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True or False . PCMS sites, located at commercial airports, are maintained by Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) technicians or their contractors.
1. True 2. False |
True
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What program develops and deploys equipment used to navigate near the shoreline?
1. VTS 2. SRAN 3. LORAN 4. DGPS |
SRAN
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Short Range Aids-to-Navigation (SRAN) equipment provides navigational coverage from ___ to ___ miles.
1. 2, 50 2. 1, 50 3. 2, 30 4. 1, 30 |
1, 30
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True or False? The majority of SRAN equipment is located at sites where boaters operate seasonally.
1. True 2. False |
False
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Aid Control and Monitor Systems include all but which of the following components?
1. MU 2. LU 3. RU 4. TU |
LU
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The electronic equipment maintenance goal at an automated lighthouse is _________ without failure
1. 3 months 2. 6 months 3. 1 year 4. 2 years |
3 months
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Who normally provides organizational level support for the repair and maintenance of SRAN equipment within their area of responsibility?
1. LSU 2. ANT 3. MAT 4. ESU |
ANT
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Who provides additional logistical or technical assistance for electronic SRAN failures or discrepancies that exceed organizational level resource capabilities?
1. C2CEN and SMEF 2. LSU and ANT 3. ELC and MLC 4. ESU and ESD |
ESU and ESD
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Who is the primary contact for SRAN problems or issues which are outside the scope of support provided by either the C2CEN or ELC?
1. MLC 2. Area 3. Headquarters (Commandant CG-621) 4. Headquarters (Commandant CG-6) |
Headquarters (Commandant CG-621)
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For specific guidelines for all SRAN equipment maintenance, refer to _________ documents written and maintained by the C2CEN.
1. EILSP 2. CG PMS 3. ACMS 4. NAVSEA |
EILSP
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The SRAN Aid Control and Monitor System (ACMS) master unit can monitor up to ____ remote units at the same time.
1. 8 2. 16 3. 24 4. 32 |
24
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The Control Display Group in the SRAN Aid Control and Monitor System displays the status of up to ____ monitored functions and allows the control of ____ functions at each remote unit.
1. 64, 16 2. 128, 32 3. 16, 4 4. 32, 8 |
32, 8
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Some replaceable modules in ACMS equipment are designated ____ and are not to be repaired by the servicing unit.
1. 7H 2. 7B 3. XB 4. XC |
XB
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What system do you use to replenish SRAN spare parts other than XB materials
1. CMPLUS 2. MILSTRIP 3. DLR 4. DRMO |
MILSTRIP
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Which piece of SRAN equipment continuously monitors the operation of the light or sound signals in the aid-to-navigation system to ensure that they are "active" when required?
1. Audio Visual Controller 2. NAVAID Sensor Module 3. Range Light Controller 4. AC Flash Controller |
NAVAID Sensor Module
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Which piece of SRAN equipment is used to interface with the aid (sound signal) and other monitoring and control equipment?
1. Fog Detector 2. NAVAID Sensor Module 3. Audio Visual Controller 4. Lighthouse Power Controller |
Fog Detector
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True or False? The Fog Detectors are generally located at Coast Guard stations where small boat traffic is heaviest and 24-hour sound signal control and monitoring is required.
1. True 2. False |
False
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Which piece of SRAN equipment monitors and controls the application of either commercial or generator power by controlling the relays in the Relay Switch Box?
1. NAVAID Sensor Module 2. Audio Visual Controller 3. Battery Chargers 4. Lighthouse Power Controller |
Lighthouse Power Controller
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Which piece of SRAN equipment is used with all standard category I, II, and III light and sound signal systems to interface the power and signal data for various aid-to-navigation equipment?
1. Range Light Controller 2. Audio Visual Controller 3. AC Flash Controller 4. Cellular Digital Packet Data Sound Signals |
Audio Visual Controller
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Which piece of SRAN equipment uses an internal CG-181 flasher to provide daylight control of the main light?
1. Lighthouse Power Controller 2. Audio Visual Controller 3. AC Flash Controller 4. Range Light Controller |
AC Flash Controller
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The main light on the Short Range Aids-to-Navigation is up to _______at ___________?
1. 100 watts at 115 VAC 2. 50 watts at 60 VAC 3. 1,000 watts at 120 VAC 4. 10,000 watts at 220 VAC |
1,000 watts at 120 VAC
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True or False? There are no XB designated material contained within the SRAN AC Flash Controller.
1. True 2. False |
True
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Which piece of SRAN equipment is an all-weather aid to marine navigation and is particularly useful in marking indistinct points of land, buoys in high traffic areas, and channel boundaries under bridges?
1. Radar Beacon 2. Navigational Aid Sensor Module 3. Audio visual Controller 4. Range Controller |
Radar Beacon
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The SRAN Radar Beacon (RACON) responds to radar pulses in the marine __________ and __________ microwave bands.
1. 2500-3500, 9000-9500 MHz 2. 2900-3100, 9300-9500 MHz 3. 2500-3500, 9000-9500 kHz 4. 2900-3100, 9300-9500 kHz |
2900-3100, 9300-9500 MHz
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For SRAN Radar Beacons, the Coast Guard operates and maintains combined __-band and__-band transponders, the functionality of which is housed together in one assembly.
1. I,H 2. J,K 3. X,S 4. I,X |
X,S
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True or False? When dealing with SRAN Radar controllers, the identifier, commonly known as "paint" is displayed on the PPI directly outward from the position of the RACON.
1. True 2. False |
False
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This piece of SRAN equipment transmits an audible tone to warn mariners of the proximity of a dangerous area, or an obstruction.
1. NAVAID Sensor Module 2. Audio Visual Controller 3. Radar Beacon 4. Cellular Digital Packet Data (CDPD) Sound Signals |
Cellular Digital Packet Data (CDPD) Sound Signals
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Which piece of SRAN equipment controls the operation of high-power day/night optics used to guide vessels entering a channel, harbor, or other navigable waterway based on the time of day, visibility, and failure status?
1. Radar Beacon 2. AC Flash Controller 3. Range Light Controller 4. Audio Visual Controller |
Range Light Controller
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True or False? Range Light Controllers are remotely controlled and monitored by the Aid Control and Monitor System (ACMS).
1. True 2. False |
True
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_________ coordinates all new or replacement Short Range Aids-to-Navigation electronic system installations.
1. ELC 2. ESU 3. MLC 4. ANT |
MLC
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Which of the following frequencies is not one of the four Government UHF/FM band frequencies used for SRAN?
1. 407.625 MHz 2. 409.725 MHz 3. 415.625 MHz 4. 415.825 MHz |
409.725 MHz
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What is the single frequency for SRAN that is designated for use where longer links exist but is not currently in use by the Coast Guard?
1. 160.32560 MHz 2. 165.35462 MHz 3. 165.31250 MHz 4. 168.32560 MHz |
165.31250 MHz
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A radio frequency test must be submitted at least ____ days prior to the first transmission when installing a SRAN system.
1. 30 2. 45 3. 60 4. 90 |
90
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The __________provides system operators and decision-making personnel a display of the overall tactical situation by locating operator positions at key locations on the ship.
1. CCS 2. IFF 3. ISCS 4. CGCS |
CCS
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The ______ enables all members in CIC and the bridge to see dynamic tide and current vectors, continuously updated turn points, radar overlay for both navigation and collision avoidance, and the fusion of Command and Control and Navigation information.
1. TACAN 2. CCS 3. COMDAC INS 4. ISCS |
COMDAC INS
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The PPI sweep is synchronized to track with the antenna so that target information is displayed in the direction the antenna is pointing, or if a true bearing input is used, relative to _______________.
1. East 2. Magnetic North 3. True North 4. Equator |
True North
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Shipboard radars operate in the VHF, _______ regions of the frequency spectrum.
1. L-Band 2. X-Band 3. J-Band 4. Both L and X bands |
Both L and X bands
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Shore-based radars operate in the ________ region of the frequency spectrum?
1. L-Band 2. X-band 3. J-Band 4. Both L and X Bands |
X-band
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Radar Repeaters require an independent radar set to furnish all but which of the following?
1. Feedback signals 2. Trigger signals 3. Video signals 4. Azimuth synchro signals |
Feedback signals
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Aviation IFF equipment includes all but which of the following pieces of equipment?
1. AN/APX-72 2. AN/APX-73 3. AN/APX-100 4. 621A-3 |
AN/APX-73
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How many response codes are available in IFF Challenge Mode 2?
1. 516 2. 1034 3. 2048 4. 4096 |
4096
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The range for altitude measurement for IFF is from ____ to ____ mean sea level.
1. 100 - 125,500 meters 2. 100 - 12,500 meters 3. 100 - 12,000 feet 4. 100 - 125,000 feet |
100 - 125,000 feet
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What is the IFF code for emergency?
1. 0770 2. 7600 3. 7700 4. 0077 |
7700
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What is a short-range, omni-bearing, distance-measuring navigation system that provides a continuous indication of the bearing and distance of an airplane?
1. IFF 2. TACAN 3. CCS 4. ISCS |
TACAN
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A TACAN surface beacon has a line-of-sight distance of up to ________ nautical miles?
1. 200 2. 390 3. 400 4. 500 |
390
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A TACAN beacon from a suitably equipped, cooperating aircraft has a line-of-sight distance of ____ nautical miles?
1. 200 2. 390 3. 400 4. 500 |
200
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The TACAN has ____ channels available.
1. 63 2. 126 3. 252 4. 504 |
252
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The TACAN receiver section operates in the ___________frequency range.
1. 1,025 - 1,150 kHz 2. 962 - 1213 kHz 3. 1,025 - 1,150 MHz 4. 962 - 1213 MHz |
962 - 1213 MHz
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The TACAN transmitter section transmits interrogation pulses in the ________ frequency range.
1. 1,025-1,150 kHz 2. 962-1213 kHz 3. 1,025-1,150 MHz 4. 962-1213 MHz |
1,025-1,150 MHz
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True or False? ADF's are used to locate persons in distress.
1. True 2. False |
True
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True or False? Most of the ADF equipment on the Coast Guard shipboard inventory is restricted to a 210 degree azimuth to take bearings
1. True 2. False |
False
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What is the useful range of an ADF at 2MHz?
1. 200 miles 2. 100 miles 3. 50 miles 4. 20 miles |
50 miles
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What is the useful range of an ADF at 200 kHz?
1. 200 miles 2. 100 miles 3. 50 miles 4. 20 miles |
200 miles
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What is the accuracy of an MH/HF ADF?
1. less than or equal to 5 degrees 2. less than or equal to 10 degrees 3. less than or equal to 15 degrees 4. less than or equal to 20 degrees |
less than or equal to 15 degrees
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What is the accuracy of an MH/HF ADF?
1. less than or equal to 5 degrees 2. less than or equal to 10 degrees 3. less than or equal to 15 degrees 4. less than or equal to 20 degrees |
less than or equal to 15 degrees
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What is the typical configuration for a VHF ADF?
1. Crossed Loop 2. Four element doublet 3. Crossed dipole 4. None of the above |
Four element doublet
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What is the typical configuration of an MH/HF ADF?
1. Crossed loop 2. Four element doublet 3. Crossed dipole 4. None of the above |
Crossed loop
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What is the typical configuration of a UHF ADF?
1. Crossed loop 2. Four element duplet 3. Crossed dipole 4. None of the above |
Crossed dipole
|
|
|
Antenna for ADF's should be mounted where?
1. Lowest point possible 2. Highest point possible 3. Middle of the ship 4. Doesn't matter |
Highest point possible
|
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|
Increasing the ________ and the number of antenna elements may reduce the susceptibility to re-radiation at a VHF frequency in ADF operation.
1. Capacitance 2. Inductance 3. Resistance 4. Aperture |
Aperture
|
|
|
In the ISCS, what measures deviations from set heading and reference positions and compensates by using vectors and turning movements produced by thruster propulsion?
1. DGPS 2. MPCMS 3. DPS 4. ECPINS |
DPS
|
|
|
What consists of a Low-Light Level Television and an Infrared/High Intensity searchlight mounted on a two-axis stabilized positioner that is remotely operated from the pilothouse and is integrated with the Fire Control System?
1. MARFLIR 2. CCTV 3. TACAN 4. OSS |
OSS
|
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What systems consist of low light level television cameras and pan/tile equipment, which provide day/night, extremely low light level imaging capability?
1. CCTV 2. CCS 3. MARFLIR 4. OSS |
CCTV
|
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|
Who's responsibility is it to ensure the safety and health of all personnel under his/her command?
1. XO 2. CO 3. Heath Services Officer 4. Division Officer |
CO
|
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|
Who's responsibility is it to require that the EMO, ET's and other personnel authorized to engage in electrical and electronics repair and maintenance, are thoroughly familiar with required safety practices in the Electronics Manual?
1. CO 2. XO 3. Safety Officer 4. Division Officer |
CO
|
|
|
Who's responsibility is it to ensure that all newly reporting personnel receive safety and familiarization training before engaging in the operation, repair, and maintenance of electrical and electronic equipment?
1. CO 2. XO 3. EMO 4. Safety Officer |
Safety Officer
|
|
|
Who's responsibility is it to ensure that all safety and health precautions are strictly observed in work areas?
1. CO 2. EMO 3. Unit Supervisor 4. Safety Officer |
Unit Supervisor
|
|
|
Most of the injuries and fatalities that occur when working on, or in the vicinity of, energized electrical equipment are attributed to what?
1. Human failure 2. Equipment failure 3. Electrocution 4. Smoke inhalation |
Human failure
|
|
|
What takes precedence if there is a conflict in Commandant Instructions for safety practices at any unit?
1. Local Policy 2. Safety Manual 3. OSHA Requirements 4. Commandant Instructions |
OSHA Requirements
|
|
|
When working within _____ if exposed energized circuits, do not wear metal items.
1. 2 Feet 2. 3 Feet 3. 4 Feet 4. 18 Inches |
4 Feet
|
|
|
When filtering primary power lines to reduce EMI, provide _________ to prevent an electrical hazard?
1. Cut-off switches 2. Bleeder circuitry 3. Capacitors 4. Power Filters |
Bleeder circuitry
|
|
|
What is the preferred safeguard to prevent inadvertent operation of control switches?
1. Lock-out 2. Tag-out 3. All of the Above 4. None of the Above |
Lock-out
|
|
|
What is the reference for Equipment Tag Out Procedures?
1. COMDTINST 10550.25B 2. COMDTINST 9000.6 3. COMDTINST 9077.1 4. COMDTINST 8000.1 |
COMDTINST 9077.1
|
|
|
True or False? Face protective shields must be ordered through GSA.
1. True 2. False |
False
|
|
|
What is the size requirement for face protective shields?
1. Size 2, 8 inches by 16 inches 2. Size 4, 12 inches by 20 inches 3. Size 5, 10 inches by 18 inches 4. Size 4, 10 inches by 18 inches |
Size 4, 10 inches by 18 inches
|
|
|
Rubber insulated gloves must be rated for what voltages?
1. voltages less than 5,000 VAC to ground 2. high voltages of 7,500 and 17,000 VAC to ground 3. 10,000 VAC to ground 4. Both A and B |
Both A and B
|
|
|
For both men and women, gloves rated for high voltage must be ____ in total length with a ____ gauntlet.
1. 12 inches, 4 inch 2. 10 inches, 2 inch 3. 14 inches, 4 inch 4. 10 inches, 4 inch |
14 inches, 4 inch
|
|
|
When working on live electrical circuits of ________ or more, non-conductive shoes that meet American National Standards Institute (ANSI) - Z41 requirements must be worn.
1. 30 volts 2. 300 VDC 3. 300 VAC 4. 100 volts |
30 volts
|
|
|
Shorting probes, rated at __________, must be located conspicuously in all spaces where electronic equipment is installed.
1. 10,000 volts 2. 25,000 volts 3. 30,000 volts 4. 40,000 volts |
25,000 volts
|
|
|
How many types of matting for covering an entire space have been approved for use by the Coast Guard?
1. one 2. two 3. three 4. none |
two
|
|
|
Rubber electrical safety matting is designed to protect personnel from accidental exposure to electrical potentials not exceeding _______
1. 3,000 volts 2. 5,000 volts 3. 10,000 volts 4. 12,000 volts |
3,000 volts
|
|
|
When installing matting in a space, the seams must be sealed at a minimum with what size 3M electrical insulating tape?
1. 2 inch 2. 3 inch 3. 4 inch 4. 6 inch |
4 inch
|
|
|
What is the size requirement for Danger, High Voltage signs?
1. 8 inches by 10 inches 2. 10 inches by 12 inches 3. 10 inches by 14 inches 4. 12 inches by 14 inches |
10 inches by 14 inches
|
|
|
True or False? A labeling plate must be affixed to equipment with more than one power source (that is, 12 volts or more).
1. True 2. False |
True
|
|
|
What is the size requirement for a cardboard safety tag?
1. 6 inch by 4 inch 2. 3 inch by 5 inch 3. 7 inch by 4 inch 4. 7 1/2 inch by 4 inch |
7 1/2 inch by 4 inch
|
|
|
Who's responsibility is it to ensure that a Working Aloft Program and Bill is established at all underway units?
1. CO 2. XO 3. EMO 4. OOD |
EMO
|
|
|
Who provides training to all personnel involved in working aloft at underway units and how often is it held?
1. EMO, annual 2. Safety Officer, annual 3. Shop Supervisor, semi-annual 4. EMO, semi-annual |
EMO, annual
|
|
|
Who must you obtain permission from before going to work aloft?
1. CO 2. XO 3. EMO 4. OOD |
OOD
|
|
|
A personal fall arrest system consists of what?
1. Full body harness, which includes a parachute harness, and safety line 2. Deceleration lanyard 3. Safety climbing device 4. All of the above |
All of the above
|
|
|
Where is the D-ring located when wearing a full body harness?
1. Center of the chest, shoulder level 2. At the waist, in front 3. Center of the back, shoulder level 4. At the waist, in back |
Center of the back, shoulder level
|
|
|
What part of the Fall Arrest System is a shock absorbing fall restraint device that attaches to the body harness?
1. Deceleration lanyard 2. Parachute harness 3. Safety harness 4. Safety line |
Deceleration lanyard
|
|
|
The ropes, straps, and webbings of lanyards must be made from what type of fibers when part of the Fall Arrest System?
1. Nylon 2. Cotton 3. Synthetic 4. Polyester |
Synthetic
|
|
|
Deceleration lanyards must be no more than _____ in total length to limit free falls to ____.
1. 6 feet, 8 feet 2. 4 feet, 6 feet 3. 10 feet, 10 feet 4. 6 feet, 6 feet |
6 feet, 6 feet
|
|
|
True or False? Safety climbing devices are installed on all permanently mounted topside ladders, masts, kingposts, and other similar topside structures to provide access to hazardous locations where a safety harness is expected to be worn.
1. True 2. False |
True
|
|
|
How many points of contact must you keep with the mast at all times when ascending and descending?
1. two 2. three 3. four 4. five |
three
|
|
|
A confined space is defined as any space having which of the following?
1. Limited opening for entry and exit 2. Unfavorable natural ventilation 3. Unfavorable design for continuous occupancy of workers 4. All of the above |
All of the above
|
|
|
True or False? When working in cold weather, it is better to by slightly chilly than to perspire heavily.
1. True 2. False |
True
|
|
|
True or False? To prevent tissue damage, rub and manipulate the skin suspected of possible frostbite.
1. True 2. False |
False
|
|
|
Who is responsible for ensuring that all personnel who work with energized electrical equipment receive CPR training?
1. EMO 2. Senior technician 3. Supervisor 4. All of the above |
All of the above
|
|
|
True or False? When disconnecting power, only touch one switch or circuit at a time.
1. True 2. False |
True
|
|
|
True or False? Capacitors in storage will not accumulate a charge.
1. True 2. False |
False
|
|
|
How long must you hold a shorting probe on a capacitor in order to discharge any residual voltage?
1. 15 seconds or more 2. 30 seconds or more 3. 40 seconds or more 4. 20 seconds or more |
30 seconds or more
|
|
|
Special procedures must be used when measuring what voltages?
1. 30 to 300 volts 2. more than 30 volts 3. more than 300 volts 4. more than 10,000 volts |
more than 300 volts
|
|
|
True or False? Equipment or circuits that are not operating properly, but have not had a casualty, are most likely not internally deranged and not considered to be damaged.
1. True 2. False |
True
|
|
|
If power panels or circuit breakers are not located in the same room and easily accessible from the workbench, what must be installed?
1. Fuse box 2. Workbench ground buss 3. Separate power panel 4. Kill switches |
Kill switches
|
|
|
Kill switches must be how close to each workbench?
1. Within easily accessible reach 2. 2 feet 3. 3 feet 4. 4 feet |
Within easily accessible reach
|
|
|
How often must maintenance be performed on portable electric tools?
1. Weekly 2. Monthly 3. Quarterly 4. Whenever used |
Quarterly
|
|
|
True or False? Never use a metallic dust abrasive or emery cloth to smooth the commutators when maintaining portable electric tools.
1. True 2. False |
True
|
|
|
Electrical systems on all ships are _________?
1. Grounded 2. Ungrounded 3. In phase 4. Out of phase |
Ungrounded
|
|
|
If the presence of commercial AC/DC equipment cannot be avoided onboard a ship, an isolation transformer must be installed in the AC power line between the ________ and the ________?
1. transmitter, power source 2. receiver, ground 3. ground, transmitter 4. receiver, power source |
receiver, power source
|
|
|
Which is not a symptom of electrical shock?
1. Body is stiff or rigid 2. Face is flushed 3. Person is unconscious 4. Pulse is weak or absent |
Face is flushed
|
|
|
Records show that what percentage of electrical shock victims revive when CPR is begun within three minutes after the shock occurs?
1. 30 2. 50 3. 70 4. 90 |
70
|
|
|
Which is not an approved method of removing a person from a live wire or circuit?
1. Insulated pole or stick 2. Dry rope 3. Belt 4. Jumping into victim |
Jumping into victim
|
|
|
What type of batteries are used when a high current of short duration is required?
1. Alkaline 2. Lead acid 3. Lithium 4. Nickel Cadmium |
Lead acid
|
|
|
What type of batteries release hydrogen gas when charged and are an explosive hazard?
1. Alkaline 2. Lithium 3. Nickel Cadmium 4. Lead Acid |
Lead Acid
|
|
|
When connecting lead acid battery cables connect the ground cable _________?
1. First 2. Last 3. At same time as hot side 4. None of the Above |
Last
|
|
|
You may only open a lead acid battery in a well-ventilated space or in case of an extreme emergency if the temperature of the room is __________?
1. Less than 120 degrees F 2. More than 120 degrees F 3. Less than 125 degrees F 4. More than 125 degrees F |
More than 125 degrees F
|
|
|
Lead acid batteries must be stored in a _______ state.
1. Discharged 2. Charged 3. Half-level Charge 4. Low-level Charge |
Charged
|
|
|
When mixing battery electrolyte solution always pour _________________ ?
1. Fast 2. Water into Acid 3. Acid into Water 4. Never mix acid and water |
Acid into Water
|
|
|
True or False? Always store sulfuric acid where freezing temperatures will be maintained.
1. True 2. False |
False
|
|
|
What type of battery is an excellent storage battery that provides a reliable source of power over a wide range of operating environments?
1. Lead Acid 2. Alkaline 3. Nickel Cadmium 4. Lithium |
Nickel Cadmium
|
|
|
The state of charge cannot be determined by a voltage test because the voltage remains constant over ninety percent of the total discharge in what type of battery?
1. Lead Acid 2. Nickel Cadmium 3. Alkaline 4. Lithium |
Nickel Cadmium
|
|
|
Store NiCad batteries in a fully _________ state?
1. Discharged 2. Charged 3. Half-level Charge 4. Low-level Charge |
Discharged
|
|
|
The "floating" or "trickle charge" rate of a NkCad battery should be _______ unless the manufacturer recommends otherwise.
1. C/120 2. C/80 3. C/100 4. C130 |
C/100
|
|
|
What type of battery is a potential hazard if tampered with or misused before, during, and after discharge?
1. Lead Acid 2. Alkaline 3. Nickel Cadmium 4. Lithium |
Lithium
|
|
|
Lithium batteries can explode while rapidly discharged and up to _______minutes after discharge.
1. 5 2. 15 3. 30 4. 45 |
30
|
|
|
True or False? Lithium cells are defined as hazardous material.
1. True 2. False |
True
|
|
|
When working with high vacuum tubes you must where insulated gloves rated at _________ volts.
1. 300 2. 500 3. 3,000 4. 5,000 |
5,000
|
|
|
Transformers and capacitors with PCB-contaminations must be identified as containing PCB's and inspected __________ for signs of leakage.
1. Daily 2. Weekly 3. Monthly 4. Quarterly |
Weekly
|
|
|
Which of the following is not a method to dispose of a CRT?
1. Put face down in a carton, break off the locating pin, and break the vacuum seal 2. Put face down in a carton, pierce with a long, thin rod 3. Submerge in water and smash it with a blunt object 4. Jettison at sea |
Jettison at sea
|
|
|
What are forms of Ionizing radiation?
1. Gamma rays and alpha rays 2. Electromagnetic radiation and particulate radiation 3. Beta waves and alpha rays 4. Mechanical radiation and electromagnetic radiation |
Electromagnetic radiation and particulate radiation
|
|
|
What is a unit of radioactivity equal to one millionth of a curie?
1. curie 2. cesium 3. radium 4. microcurie |
microcurie
|
|
|
What is a unit of radioactivity equal to 3.7 multiplied by ten to the tenth power disintegrations per second?
1. Curie 2. Cesium 3. Radium 4. Microcurie |
Curie
|
|
|
All areas used to store radioactive material must be monitored every ____ days or when new stock is placed in the area.
1. 7 2. 14 3. 30 4. 60 |
30
|
|
|
What is the international unit of x-radiation or gamma radiation equal to the amount of radiation that produces in one cubic centimeter of dry air at zero degrees centigrade and standard atmospheric pressure ionization of either sign equal to one electrostatic unit of charge?
1. milliroentgen 2. roentgen 3. curie 4. radium |
roentgen
|
|
|
The standard safe permissible level for each radioactive electron tube storage area is _____ milliroentgens per hour at one meter, which is based on ____ milliroentgens per 40 hour week.
1. 5/2, 400 2. 9/2, 200 3. 7/2, 400 4. 7/2, 300 |
7/2, 300
|
|
|
True or False? Tubes containing Ra226 are exempt from disposal as radioactive material IAW the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR), Part 30, Title 10.
1. True 2. False |
True
|
|
|
How do you dispose of radioactive tubes containing radium?
1. Through MLC 2. As solid waste 3. As HAZMAT 4. Jettison at sea |
As solid waste
|
|
|
How many tubes containing Ra266 may you dispose of per year as solid waste?
1. 0 2. 5 3. 10 4. 2 |
10
|
|
|
True or False? Any fragment of glass from a radioactive tube that causes a wound should be provided to radiological personnel for analysis and monitoring.
1. True 2. False |
True
|
|
|
To whom do you report the completion of radioactive cleanup once you are done?
1. OOD 2. CO 3. Damage Control Center 4. Any of the above |
Any of the above
|
|
|
How do you treat a wound contracted from a radioactive tube?
1. suck the wound 2. direct pressure 3. stimulate bleeding 4. tourniquet |
stimulate bleeding
|
|
|
The greatest biological damage from an internal emitter results from the ______ and ______ particles, which are completely absorbed by body tissues before the radioactive material is eliminated.
1. Gamma, Beta 2. Alpha, Beta 3. Gamma, Alpha 4. Ionized, Alpha |
Alpha, Beta
|
|
|
What is considered the impedance of free space?
1. 17 ohms 2. 151 ohms 3. 377 ohms 4. 512 ohms |
377 ohms
|
|
|
What RF band has a range of approximately 3 GHz to 30 GHz?
1. HF 2. VHF 3. UHF 4. SHF |
SHF
|
|
|
How often is radiation awareness training to be held?
1. as needed 2. semi-annually 3. annually 4. bi-annual |
as needed
|
|
|
Who creates the permissible exposure limits to radiation?
1. Commandant 2. MLC 3. TISCOM 4. C2CEN |
TISCOM
|
|
|
The maximum rate of absorption by the human body can occur within the maximum permissible exposure limit frequency range of ________.
1. 3 to 30 MHz 2. 30 to 300 KHz 3. 30 to 300 MHz 4. 3 to 30 GHz |
30 to 300 MHz
|
|
|
What is the average maximum exposure limit for the occupational population category / controlled exposure?
1. 3 minutes 2. 6 minutes 3. 9 minutes 4. 30 minutes |
6 minutes
|
|
|
What is the average maximum exposure limit for the general population category / uncontrolled exposure?
1. 3 minutes 2. 6 minutes 3. 9 minutes 4. 30 minutes |
30 minutes
|
|
|
Determining the location and size of the permissible exposure limit boundaries is the responsibility of ________?
1. TISCOM 2. SMEF 3. CEU 4. All of the above |
All of the above
|
|
|
Who assists the crew of each ship to determine and establish the PEL boundaries?
1. TISCOM 2. SMEF 3. MLC |
MLC
|
|
|
What is the non-rotating PEL of the SPS-69?
1. 3.6 feet 2. 35 feet 3. 20 feet 4. 25 feet |
3.6 feet
|
|
|
What is the non-rotating PEL of the bridge master?
1. 3.6 feet 2. 35 feet 3. 20 feet 4. 25 feet |
35 feet
|
|
|
What is the non-rotating PEL of the SPS-73?
1. 35 feet 2. 20 feet 3. 25 feet 4. 10 feet |
20 feet
|
|
|
What is the rotating PEL of the SPS-73?
1. 35 feet 2. 25 feet 3. 20 feet 4. 10 feet |
10 feet
|
|
|
What is the non-rotating PEL of the VTS Furuno?
1. 35 feet 2. 25 feet 3. 20 feet 4. 10 feet |
25 feet
|
|
|
What is the rotating PEL of the VTS Furuno?
1. 10 feet 2. 20 feet 3. 25 feet 4. 35 feet |
10 feet
|
|
|
What is the maximum power out of the SPS-69?
1. 25 kW 2. 30 kW 3. 4 kW 4. 10 kW |
4 kW
|
|
|
What is the maximum power out of the Bridge Master?
1. 4 kW 2. 20 kW 3. 25 kW 4. 30 kW |
30 kW
|
|
|
What is the maximum power out of the SPS-73?
1. 4 kW 2. 10 kW 3. 25 kW 4. 30 kW |
30 kW
|
|
|
What is the maximum power out of the VTS Furuno?
1. 4 kW 2. 10 kW 3. 25 kW 4. 30 kW |
25 kW
|
|
|
What is the non-rotating PEL for the MK-92 CAS in CWI mode?
1. 320 feet 2. 220 feet 3. 160 feet 4. 120 feet |
320 feet
|
|
|
What is the non-rotating PEL of the MK-92 CAS in search mode?
1. 320 feet 2. 220 feet 3. 160 feet 4. 120 feet |
160 feet
|
|
|
What is the non-rotating PEL for the MK-92 CAS in track mode?
1. 320 feet 2. 220 feet 3. 160 feet 4. 120 feet |
120 feet
|
|
|
What is the non-rotating PEL for the AN/SPS-40 in search mode?
1. 30 feet 2. 40 feet 3. 60 feet 4. 90 feet |
60 feet
|
|
|
What is the PEL for the AN/WSC-3 SATCOM radio?
1. 4 feet 2. 6 feet 3. 10 feet 4. 8 feet |
4 feet
|
|
|
What is the PEL for the CIWS in track mode?
1. 30 feet 2. 40 feet 3. 60 feet 4. 90 feet |
90 feet
|
|
|
What is the PEL for the CIWS in search mode?
1. 30 feet 2. 40 feet 3. 60 feet 4. 90 feet |
60 feet
|
|
|
What is the standard PEL boundary at all DGPS sites?
1. 15 feet 2. 20 feet 3. 25 feet 4. 30 feet |
25 feet
|
|
|
DGPS broadcasts in what frequency range?
1. HF 2. MF 3. SHF 4. VHF |
MF
|
|
|
True or False? The standard radiation hazard safety procedure for most antennae is to suspend operations whenever personnel are working aloft.
1. True 2. False |
True
|
|
|
True or False? The effectiveness of the warning is reduced when there are too many RADHAZ signs.
1. True 2. False |
True
|
|
|
What type of RADHAZ warning sign is used in areas surrounding RF antennae to advise personnel not to remain within the permissible exposure limit boundary longer that the maximum permissible exposure time limit allows?
1. 1 2. 2 3. 3 4. 4 |
1
|
|
|
What type of RADHAZ warning sign is used to restrict personnel from proceeding past a designated point unless they are in compliance with the established radiation hazard safety zone?
1. 2 2. 4 3. 6 4. 8 |
2
|
|
|
What type of RADHAZ warning sign is used to advise personnel of an RF burn hazard source and not to touch metal objects or use special handling procedures when touching metal objects?
1. 1 2. 3 3. 5 4. 7 |
3
|
|
|
What type of RADHAZ warning sign is used to warn personnel of Hazards of Electromagnetic Radiation to Fuel (HERF)?
1. 1 2. 2 3. 3 4. 4 |
4
|
|
|
What type of RADHAZ warning sign is a label that is generally used below decks in a system equipment room to advise systems operators of specific safety precautions?
1. 1 2. 3 3. 5 4. 7 |
5
|
|
|
What type of RADHAZ warning sign is used to advise personnel not to operate transmitters, cellular telephones, of other wireless communication devices within a designated area?
1. 4 2. 5 3. 6 4. 7 |
6
|
|
|
What type of RADHAZ warning sign is used to ensure that personnel follow the Hazards of Electromagnetic Radiation to Ordnance (HERO) safety practices?
1. 5 2. 6 3. 7 4. 8 |
7
|
|
|
What type of RADHAZ warning sign is used to advise operators to refer to the HERO emission control plan before operating a transmitter and ensures that the procedures for restricting RF emissions are followed?
1. 2 2. 4 3. 6 4. 8 |
8
|
|
|
Electronic equipment is expected to have a service life of ________?
1. 6 months 2. 6 years 3. 8 years 4. 10 years |
8 years
|
|
|
What acquisition process is used for items that are over $50M or are under $50M but require management attention?
1. Major 2. Non-Major 3. Simplified 4. Special Purpose |
Major
|
|
|
What acquisition process is used for acquisitions ranging from $100K to $5M?
1. Major 2. Non-Major 3. Simplified 4. Special Purpose |
Non-Major
|
|
|
Which acquisition process is used for acquisitions that are up to $100K?
1. Major 2. Non-Major 3. Simplified 4. Special Purpose |
Simplified
|
|
|
What fund code is used for operation and maintenance (ex: office supplies, phone bills, office equipment, etc.)?
1. AFC-42 2. AFC-77 3. AFC-45 4. AFC-30 |
AFC-30
|
|
|
What fund code is use for the electronics program (Acquisition, Construction, and improvements)?
1. AFC-77 2. AFC-42 3. AFC-45 4. AFC-30 |
AFC-42
|
|
|
True or False? Whenever a change extends beyond one platform, standardization must be considered.
1. True 2. False |
True
|
|
|
Who is responsible for specifying standardization requirements for electronics equipment that may be installed in vessels or shore units?
1. Commandant (CG-45) 2. MLC 3. MLC Commander 4. Commandant (CG-4) |
Commandant (CG-4)
|
|
|
Who is responsible for managing typical class arrangement drawings for major cutter classes?
1. Commandant (CG-4) 2. Commandant (CG-45) 3. MLC 4. MLC Commander |
Commandant (CG-45)
|
|
|
Whos responsibility is it to prepare and maintain engineering drawing for vessels whose arrangements differ from those typical of the cutter class
1. Commandant (CG-4) 2. Commandant (CG-45) 3. MLC 4. MLC Commander |
MLC
|
|
|
All electronics equipment other than antennae and some cryptographic equipment installed on weather decks must be installed on the deck specified but may be moved horizontally up to ______ without obtaining prior approval.
1. 3 feet 2. 4 feet 3. 6 feet 4. 8 feet |
4 feet
|
|
|
Who is responsible for funding the procurement, replacement, installation, and maintenance of electronic equipment on non-standard boats?
1. The unit 2. ELC 3. Commandant (CG-62) 4. MLC or district |
MLC or district
|
|
|
What is initiated in the engineering phase of a piece of electronic equipments life cycle and continues throughout the life of the equipment until it is properly disposed of?
1. PMS 2. Configuration Management 3. Configuration Control 4. Configuration Identification |
Configuration Management
|
|
|
Who is responsible for maintaining the product baseline in configuration management?
1. MLC 2. ELC 3. SMEF 4. Commandant (CG-64) |
SMEF
|
|
|
Who is responsible for maintaining the Software Master Library/Repository when dealing with configuration management?
1. MLC 2. ELC 3. SMEF 4. Commandant (CG-64) |
SMEF
|
|
|
All electronic equipment or systems are assigned a support manager within what organization?
1. MLC 2. ELC 3. SMEF 4. Commandant (CG-64) |
Commandant (CG-64)
|
|
|
What is an allowance document prepared for and "tailored" to a specific individual unit or unit class?
1. AIM 2. EIR 3. MICA 4. Inventory sheet |
MICA
|
|
|
What establishes the unit material support for installed and portable equipment and provides a listing of the equipment, parts, and supplies required for a unit to perform its operational mission?
1. EIR 2. EILSP 3. MICA 4. CMPLUS |
MICA
|
|
|
What type of unit has MICA documentation that includes HMandE for MK's and EM's?
1. Loran Stations 2. Major Cutters 3. Sectors 4. Small Boat Stations |
Major Cutters
|
|
|
What is the designation of an Unserviceable (Repairable) Tag?
1. DD1348-1 2. DD4790 3. DD1250-1 4. DD1577-2 |
DD1577-2
|
|
|
True or False? The appointed Property Officer also acts as the property custodian.
1. True 2. False |
False
|
|
|
True or False? Any capitalized equipment must also be entered into the unit's Oracle fixed asset module (FAM)
1. True 2. False |
True
|
|
|
When unsupported electronic equipment is at unstaffed remote electronic sites, it is recorded as _________ when installed.
1. Special Purpose Property 2. Coast Guard Property 3. General Purpose Property 4. It is not recorded |
General Purpose Property
|
|
|
__________ is the operator of the Loran monitor sites.
1. C2CEN 2. LSU 3. NAVCEN 4. MLC |
NAVCEN
|
|
|
Who designates a property officer to administer the units property program?
1. CO 2. XO 3. Supply Officer 4. MLC |
CO
|
|
|
Who may designate a property custodian to assist with the support of unstaffed remote electronic sites and equipment?
1. CO 2. XO 3. Supply Officer 4. Property Officer |
Property Officer
|
|
|
The property custodian reports to either the Property Officer, or ________, in accordance with the Property Management Manual.
1. CO 2. XO 3. Commandant 4. Supply Officer |
Commandant
|
|
|
Who is the Property Custodian for all DGPS sites?
1. NAVCEN 2. ESU/ESD 3. ELC 4. None of the above |
ESU/ESD
|
|
|
The ELC's electronic repairables are identified by what Cognizance (COG)?
1. 7H 2. XB 3. 7B 4. XZ |
XB
|
|
|
What form is not used to turn in repairable parts unless directed to do so by the ELC?
1. DD-1348-1 2. CG-5236 3. DD-1149 4. BC1 |
DD-1149
|
|
|
What is another name for the DD-1348-1?
1. BK-1 2. CG-5236 3. DD-1149 4. BC-1 |
BC-1
|
|
|
What tag must be affixed to the item being turned in to ELC with a brief description of the failure?
1. BC-1 2. BK-1 3. CG-5236 4. BC-2 |
CG-5236
|
|
|
True or False? Before shipping a turn-in item to ELC you must peel off or strike out any previously applied address labels, carrier shipping labels, and carrier barcode labels.
1. True 2. False |
True
|
|
|
What is the condition code used to mark failed electronic items
1. A 2. K 3. L 4. F |
F
|
|
|
Mandatory turn-in items are considered overdue if not received at the ELC within ____ from the date the item was shipped by the ELC.
1. 15 days 2. 30 days 3. 45 days 4. 60 days |
45 days
|
|
|
Units are notified via message when items are overdue and given ________ to respond or return the overdue item.
1. 15 days 2. 30 days 3. 45 days 4. 60 days |
30 days
|
|
|
Failure to respond or return an overdue mandatory turn-in item within _______ of receiving notification from the ELC could result in the unit being charged the replacement cost of the item.
1. 15 days 2. 30 days 3. 45 days 4. 60 days |
30 days
|
|
|
All handheld radios procured by Coast Guard units must be approved intrinsically safe for use in hazardous locations by whom?
1. TISCOM 2. NAVCEN 3. FMRC 4. MLC |
FMRC
|
|
|
Which office is the HQ property management office?
1. Commandant (CG-84) 2. Commandant (G-CI) 3. Commandant (CG-64) 4. Commandant (CG-OCU) |
Commandant (CG-84)
|
|
|
Which office provides funding for the installation of new electronic equipment?
1. Commandant (CG-84) 2. Commandant (G-CI) 3. Commandant (CG-64) 4. Commandant (G-OCU) |
Commandant (G-CI)
|
|
|
Which office provides disposition instructions for all electronic equipment associated with vessels being decommissioned, or surveyed, and contacts all interested parties regarding electronic equipment on board the vessel.
1. Commandant (CG-84) 2. Commandant (G-CI) 3. Commandant (CG-64) 4. Commandant (G-OCU) |
Commandant (CG-64)
|
|
|
Which office provides costs associated with removal of equipment, including shipping and handling?
1. Commandant (CG-84) 2. Commandant (G-CI) 3. Commandant (CG-64) 4. Commandant (G-OCU) |
Commandant (G-OCU)
|
|
|
What equipment installation type is directed by or reported to another agency?
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D |
A
|
|
|
What equipment installation type is under Acquisition, Construction, and Improvement (ACandI) or Operating Expense (OE) contract that requires Coast Guard certification as part of the contract?
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D |
B
|
|
|
Which equipment installation type has specific operating parameters that must be confirmed or tested to ensure compliance with regulations or law?
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D |
C
|
|
|
How many days prior to a scheduled certification for Class A and initial Class B installations must you notify CG-64, MLC Commander, Area or district commander, and Cutter commanding officer?
1. 10 calendar days 2. 10 working days 3. 14 calendar days 4. 15 working days |
10 working days
|
|
|
Within _______ after completion of certification, the CG-64 must provide a certification report or memorandum to the appropriate MLC, area, or district commander.
1. 15 days 2. 30 days 3. 45 days 4. 60 days |
30 days
|
|
|
True or False? For Type A and initial Type B installation certifications, the senior Commandant (CG-64) team member will be the team leader, regardless of the rank of the other team members.
1. True 2. False |
True
|
|
|
True or False? A Certification Team Leader is not assigned for CG Yard installations.
1. True 2. False |
True
|
|
|
True or False? Depot level maintenance facilities normally provide direct support to other levels of maintenance.
1. True 2. False |
False
|
|
|
What resource provides a detailed explanation of the various components of the Coast Guard (CG) Planned Maintenance System (PMS) and how they are used?
1. M10550.25B 2. 3M Manual 3. CGPMS User Guide 4. CMPLUS User Guide |
CGPMS User Guide
|
|
|
True or False? The Coast Guard Standard Workstation III does not have PMS requirements.
1. True 2. False |
True
|
|
|
Who is responsible for integrating CGPMS procedures into the unit's regular work schedule and ensuring compliance, and when necessary, modifying the CGPMS schedule to best fit operational commitments?
1. CO / OIC 2. XO 3. EMO 4. Senior Technician |
CO / OIC
|
|
|
Who is responsible for scheduling and performing planned maintenance
1. CO / OIC 2. XO 3. EMO 4. Senior Technician |
Senior Technician
|
|
|
Who's responsibility is it to maintain the CGPMS Work Schedule Book?
1. CO / OIC 2. XO 3. EMO 4. Senior Technician |
EMO
|
|
|
Who's responsibility is it to establish, develop, and promulgate the overall policy and direction for the CGPMS program?
1. CO / OIC 2. XO 3. CGPMS Sponsor Commandant (CG-64) and Program Manager 4. CGPMS Sponsor ELC |
CGPMS Sponsor Commandant (CG-64) and Program Manager
|
|
|
Who's responsibility is it to place requests for equipment maintenance evaluations on the Candidate Equipment List?
1. CO / OIC 2. XO 3. CGPMS Sponsor Commandant (CG-64) and Program Manager 4. CGPMS Sponsor ELC |
CGPMS Sponsor ELC
|
|
|
What is a three-part form used to ensure continuous improvement to the CGPMS?
1. CG-5451 2. CG-5452 3. CG-5453 4. CG-5454 |
CG-5451
|
|
|
What form is used by the technician to plan, schedule, and display planned maintenance for a specific units monthly PMS?
1. CG-5451 2. CG-5452 3. CG-5453 4. CG-5454 |
CG-5452
|
|
|
What form is used by a technician to plan, schedule, and display planned maintenance for a specific units annual PMS?
1. CG-5451 2. CG-5452 3. CG-5453 4. CG-5454 |
CG-5453
|
|
|
What form is used to record equipment maintenance history and comments when no TDR is provided for equipment, or if it is necessary to record information in addition to that required by the TDR?
1. CG-5451 2. CG-5452 3. CG-5453 4. CG-5454 |
CG-5454
|
|
|
True or False? An FBR regarding Navy-owned or Navy-type CG-owned equipment must be forwarded to NAVSEACEN and NAVSAFECEN with Commandant (CG-64) as an "info addressee".
1. True 2. False |
True
|
|
|
Which color copy of the FBR gets forwarded to the CGPMS Manager?
1. white 2. yellow 3. pink 4. blue |
white
|
|
|
Which color copy of the FBR gets forwarded to the cognizant MLC?
1. white 2. yellow 3. pink 4. blue |
yellow
|
|
|
Which color copy of the FBR is retained by the originator?
1. white 2. yellow 3. pink 4. blue |
pink
|
|
|
How often do units receive updates to ensure the unit has the most current CGPMS documentation and forms?
1. Quarterly 2. Semi-annually 3. Annually 4. Bi-annually |
Annually
|
|
|
True or False? CGPMS procedures do not exist for Navy-owned or Navy-type Coast Guard-owned equipment.
1. True 2. False |
True
|
|
|
Units are responsible for tracking, updating, and maintaining CGPMS in _________.
1. SKED 2. MICA 3. Fedlog 4. CMPLUS |
CMPLUS
|
|
|
What form do you fill out to request inclusion on the Navy PMS Distribution List?
1. OPNAV 4790/CK 2. OPNAV 4790/7B 3. CG-5451 4. CG-5454 |
OPNAV 4790/7B
|
|
|
The equipments ________ has the authority to approve an LPMS.
1. MLC 2. ESU 3. SMEF 4. CO |
SMEF
|
|
|
2M site certification must be renewed every ________?
1. 12 months 2. 18 months 3. 24 months 4. Never |
18 months
|
|
|
True or False? The 2M/MTR Field Service Engineer may extended certification renewal to 24 months to facilitate scheduling and when a 2M/MTR site is relocated.
1. True 2. False |
True
|
|
|
Who's responsibility is it to provide funding from the annual Navy-Type/Navy-Owned (NTNO) program budget to maintain 2M/MTR program capabilities for NTNO equipment?
1. Commandant (CG-64) 2. MLC 3. ISEA 4. CO |
CO
|
|
|
Who's responsibility is it to track module test/repair components as Coast Guard General Purpose Electronic Test Equipment?
1. Commandant (CG-64) 2. MLC 3. ISEA 4. CO |
MLC
|
|
|
Who's responsibility is it to identify training shortfalls, work with the program managers to ensure training reflects program changes, and provide follow-on training for the operation and maintenance of the 2M/MTR equipment?
1. Commandant (CG-64) 2. MLC 3. ISEA 4. CO |
ISEA
|
|
|
Who's responsibility is it to ensure that all suspected faulty electronic assemblies are screened prior to returning them to the repair depot?
1. MTR Technician 2. MLC 3. ISEA 4. CO |
CO
|
|
|
Who is the NAVY's ISEA for the repair portion of the 2M program?
1. NUWC 2. NSWC 3. RMC 4. MLC |
NSWC
|
|
|
Which is not a screening option available to MTR technicians?
1. Gold Disk test routine 2. Silver Disk test routine 3. Blue Disk test routine 4. Screening without a test routine |
Blue Disk test routine
|
|
|
Silver Disk MTR test routines may be submitted to the _______ for verification and inclusion in the Gold Disk test routine database.
1. NUWC 2. RMC 3. NSWC 4. MLC |
NUWC
|
|
|
Electronic assemblies that have been repaired through the 2M/MTR system are considered a condition ____ asset.
1. A 2. B 3. K 4. F |
A
|
|
|
________ contains the frequently used repair components.
1. APL 2. CPL 3. MRC 4. RPR |
APL
|
|
|
_________ provides the life cycle support for the MTRTS. This includes software deliveries and upgrades, and collection.
1. NUWC 2. NSWC 3. RMCs 4. CG-64 |
NUWC
|
|
|
When sending out a valid MTRTS Quarterly report you have no later then ____ to submit.
1. 5 days 2. 10 days 3. 15 days 4. 30 days |
10 days
|
|
|
TRUE or FALSE. Mechanical shock can result in the de-tuning of electronic equipment.;
1. True 2. False |
True
|
|
|
To minimize the detrimental effects of shock or vibration, ______ and anti-vibration devices are employed in equipment installations to isolate the equipment.
1. Shock-mounts 2. Metal Shielding 3. Steel-mounts 4. Floating-mounts |
Shock-mounts
|
|
|
Which Manual provides tables of standard Navy lubricants and their uses?
1. NAVSEA SE000-00-EIM-130 2. NAVSEA SE000-00-EIM-160 3. MIL-STD-1310 4. MIL-P-22241A |
NAVSEA SE000-00-EIM-160
|
|
|
What manual provides guidelines for grounding and bonding electrical equipment on Coast Guard cutters?
1. NAVSEA SE000-00-EIM-130 2. NAVSEA SE000-00-EIM-160 3. MIL-STD-1310 4. MIL-P-22241A |
MIL-STD-1310
|
|
|
TRUE or FALSE. Failure to keep equipment free of dust and foreign matter can seriously affect performance and lead to and increased failure rate.
1. True 2. False |
True
|
|
|
What is the proper method of cleaning a Metal screen filter?
1. Low Pressure air 2. Vacuum 3. Isopropyl Alcohol 4. warm soapy water |
warm soapy water
|
|
|
What Manual contains detailed information on cleaning filters?
1. NAVSEA SE000-00-EIM-130 2. NAVSEA SE000-00-EIM-160 3. MIL-STD-1310 4. MIL-P-22241A |
NAVSEA SE000-00-EIM-160
|
|
|
Top side bonding on metallic hull surface ships is required when there are ____or more high frequency transmitters, and/or bonding is specifically required for personnel safety.
1. 3 2. 6 3. 9 4. 12 |
6
|
|
|
Wire antenna construction generally involves the use of ________ clamps and lugs.
1. copper 2. stainless-steel 3. aluminum 4. bronze |
bronze
|
|
|
Wire transmitting antennae are generally made with phosphor-bronze tiller rope, or ___ or___ strand phosphor-bronze antenna wire.
1. 3/5 2. 5/7 3. 7/9 4. 9/12 |
7/9
|
|
|
Due to their high operating frequency, ___________ are small with fragile construction.
1. HF 2. VHF 3. UHF 4. Both VHF and UHF |
Both VHF and UHF
|
|
|
Generally, line pressure should be ___________in a pressure type coaxial cable.
1. 3 -5 pounds 2. 5 -8 pounds 3. 8 - 10 pounds 4. 10 - 15 pounds |
3 -5 pounds
|
|
|
Who usually provides assistance with crane services when removing large, heavy radar antennae from a vessel?
1. CO 2. MLC 3. CG Yard 4. ESD/ESU |
ESD/ESU
|
|
|
True or False? When painting a radar antenna, do not paint the line scribed (etched) into the metal enclosure on the top the antenna array.
1. True 2. False |
True
|
|
|
True or False? The scribed line on top of most antenna arrays provides "squint angle" considerations when aligning the radar servo system, and is the actual angle at which the main power lobe of the antenna is found.
1. True 2. False |
True
|
|
|
If you have scale deposits forming inside your waveguide, the most probable cause is?
1. Dirt or foreign material 2. Not properly sealed from weather 3. Missing Gasket 4. Too much shielding |
Not properly sealed from weather
|
|
|
Functioning dehydrator plugs are normally a ________ color.
1. Red 2. Purple 3. Blue 4. Pink |
Blue
|
|
|
The receiver/transmitter unit is usually located at the ____________ side of the bi-directional coupler.
1. receiver 2. transmitter 3. input load 4. output load |
output load
|
|
|
If you have a Brass hangar used for waveguide, what type of sheath should be placed between the hangar and the waveguide?
1. Aluminum 2. Copper 3. Lead 4. Zinc |
Lead
|
|
|
If you have an aluminum hangar used for waveguide, what type of sheath is to be placed between the waveguide and hangar?
1. Felt or Neoprene Rubber 2. Brass 3. Lead 4. None |
Felt or Neoprene Rubber
|
|
|
If locally fabricating a Teflon moisture barrier for waveguide, how thick must the Teflon be?
1. 5 mils 2. 10 mils 3. 15 mils 4. 20 mils |
10 mils
|
|
|
How often do you check antennae and transmission lines at a shore unit? At least
1. monthly 2. quarterly 3. semi-annually 4. annually |
quarterly
|
|
|
When on a floating unit, check antennae and transmission lines at least ___________ and at the end of each extended period at sea.
1. Monthly 2. Quarterly 3. Semi-Annually 4. Annually |
Monthly
|
|
|
Check submarine cables ____________.
1. Monthly 2. Quarterly 3. Semi-annually 4. Annually |
Annually
|
|
|
True or False? Due to their high operating frequency, the D.C. resistance of VHF/UHF antennae is near zero, therefore megger testing is impractical and inconclusive.
1. True 2. False |
True
|
|
|
What do you use to test wire-type antennae?
1. Megger 2. VSWR 3. TDR 4. Simpson meter |
TDR
|
|
|
What do you use to check a wave-guide line?
1. Megger 2. VSWR 3. TDR 4. Simpson meter |
VSWR
|
|
|
The megger generates high voltage (approximately _________VDC).
1. 300 2. 500 3. 700 4. 1000 |
500
|
|
|
True or False? Test Antennae and Transmission lines together.
1. True 2. False |
False
|
|
|
A meggar reading of _______ megaohms or less indicates a need for maintenance on an antenna.
1. 5 2. 50 3. 100 4. 200 |
200
|
|
|
A meggar reading of ____ megaohms or less on an antenna indicates an immediate and urgent need to find and correct the cause of the problem.
1. 5 2. 50 3. 100 4. 200 |
5
|
|
|
VSWR results from a wave-guide line should be recorded on what Form?
1. NAVSHIP-430 2. NAVSHIP-431 3. NAVSHIP-530 4. NAVSHIP-531 |
NAVSHIP-531
|
|
|
When removing Dirt and carbon dust from a General Motor or a Generator you should clean it by ___________.
1. using a vacuum cleaner 2. use low pressure air 3. use of soapy water 4. use of a non-abrasive cloth |
using a vacuum cleaner
|
|
|
What is the proper sound of a motor or generator bearing when using the bearing quick check method?
1. Grinding or thumping noise 2. No sound 3. High pitched, whining sound 4. Medium pitched, singing sound |
Medium pitched, singing sound
|
|
|
When Lubricating pressure fittings one should be careful not to over_________.
1. torque 2. tighten 3. lubricate 4. compress |
lubricate
|
|
|
Solder begins to melt at what temperature?
1. 261 degrees F 2. 300 degrees F 3. 361 degrees F 4. 621 degrees F |
361 degrees F
|
|
|
What is the PEL distance/radius for a long wire antenna?
1. 15 feet 2. 6 feet 3. 10 feet 4. 12 feet |
6 feet
|
|
|
What is the PEL distance/radius for a 5/16 inch wire rope antenna?
1. 4 feet 2. 12 feet 3. 10 feet 4. 13 feet |
13 feet
|
|
|
If replacement parts that are needed to repair a defective electronics assembly are not available within ____________, send the faulty unit to the depot without repair.
1. 48 hours 2. 72 hours 3. 5 working days 4. 10 calendar days |
72 hours
|
|
|
True or False? When circumstances permit, wait an additional 60 days for requisitioning components that are not available on the ship.
1. True 2. False |
True
|
|
|
How is a whip antennae prepared for Cold Weather Operations?
1. Coat antennae in rubberized paint 2. Place 1/8" gasket between the base and the antennae 3. Coat with dielectric grease 4. Drill a 1/8" hole in the base of the antennae |
Drill a 1/8" hole in the base of the antennae
|
|
|
How do you protect Microphones and headsets for Cold Weather Operations?
1. use nylon or polyethylene covers 2. wrap in weather proofing tape 3. remove from equipment 4. All of the above |
use nylon or polyethylene covers
|
|
|
True or False? Rotating antennae are designed to rotate freely in the wind and seek the position with the least wind resistance.
1. True 2. False |
True
|
|
|
During Cold Weather Operations how often should you inspect rotating equipment?
1. Daily 2. Weekly 3. Bi-Weekly 4. Monthly |
Daily
|
|
|
What is used to remove light ice accumulation on a Wire Antennae?
1. Baseball Bat 2. non-metallic scrapers 3. Hot Water 4. bamboo poles |
bamboo poles
|
|
|
What is the proper method of removing Light Ice accumulation from Wave-guides?
1. Metallic scraper 2. Non-metallic scraper 3. Bat 4. Salt Water |
Non-metallic scraper
|
|
|
Thaw dry batteries for one hour at about ______, then for a second hour at_____.
1. 27F, 70F 2. 32F, 80F 3. 40F, 95F 4. 27F, 80F |
27F, 70F
|
|
|
Field change modifications may include what changes?
1. Components 2. Technical manuals 3. Operational tolerances 4. All of the above |
All of the above
|
|
|
What form is used for an Engineering Change Request?
1. CG-5651 2. OPNAV 4790/CK 3. OPNAV 4790/7B 4. CG-5682 |
CG-5682
|
|
|
Submit Engineering Change Requests either on paper or electronically to the ________ via the chain of command with an information copy to the operational commander.
1. ELC 2. SMEF 3. MLC 4. Area |
MLC
|
|
|
What engineering change classification is used for an engineering change required to urgently correct conditions that impair the service characteristics of a cutter or the safety and health of personnel?
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D |
A
|
|
|
What engineering change classification is used for engineering changes that are required to improve the service characteristics of a cutter, health and comfort of personnel, or efficiency and economy of operating and maintaining the cutter?
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D |
B
|
|
|
What classification of engineering change is used for engineering changes that are requested for planned future modifications that are impossible to complete quickly, are contingent upon Commandant funding, and will not impact the operational ability if delayed?
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D |
C
|
|
|
What funding classification is given to a proposed engineering change that will have a significant impact on logistics support and cannot be implemented with existing SMEF resources?
1. I 2. II 3. A 4. B |
I
|
|
|
What funding classification is given to a proposed engineering change that will not have a significant impact on logistics support and can be implemented with existing SMEF resources?
1. I 2. II 3. A 4. B |
II
|
|
|
True or False? Engineering changes without funding support cannot be approved for development.
1. True 2. False |
True
|
|
|
What funding source is used for low cost engineering changes where the total cost of installation is less than or equal to the CSMP funding threshold for the particular cutter class?
1. Unit AFC 30 2. MLC AFC 42 3. MLC AFC 45 4. Program Manager 3X/4X/ACI |
Unit AFC 30
|
|
|
What funding source is used for medium cost engineering changes where the total cost is greater than the established CSMP funding threshold for the particular cutter class but does not exceed five percent of the affected cutter class annual AFC 45 funds?
1. Unit AFC 30 2. MLC AFC 42 3. MLC AFC 45 4. Program Manager 3X/4X/ACI |
MLC AFC 42
|
|
|
What funding source is used for high cost engineering changes where the total cost is greater than five percent of the affected cutter class annual AFC 45 SSL?
1. Unit AFC 30 2. MLC AFC 42 3. MLC AFC 45 4. Program Manager 3X/4X/ACI |
Program Manager 3X/4X/ACI
|
|
|
Test equipment Priority Codes are a _________ character code used to identify the order of preference for different test equipment models within a SCAT code on the Test Equipment Index.
1. 2 2. 3 3. 6 4. 9 |
3
|
|
|
True or False? SCAT codes are used in the Test Equipment Index to group different models of GPETE that perform the same function.
1. True 2. False |
True
|
|
|
Supply regulations do not allow repair of items with priority greater than _____. However, this may be superseded by mission requirements.
1. 028 2. 030 3. 038 4. 048 |
038
|
|
|
What is the Priority Code for Equipment that is approved for service use, but does not have the satisfactory military characteristics to qualify as "Standard" equipment.
1. 006-021 2. 022-037 3. 038-071 4. 072-094 |
022-037
|
|
|
What is the Priority Code for the most advanced and satisfactory equipment approved for service use?
1. 006-021 2. 022-037 3. 038-071 4. 072-094 |
006-021
|
|
|
True or False? Calibrations on test equipment should be performed at intervals established on the basis of stability, purpose, and degree of usage.
1. True 2. False |
True
|
|
|
In many instances, the Coast Guard will not be able to calibrate as specified in the__________due to availability of replacement equipment, operational schedules, and labor resource limitations.
1. NUWC/NSWC 2. NAVSEA ST000-AA-IDX-010-TEI 3. NICP/NLCP 4. CALFAC |
NICP/NLCP
|
|
|
Who in the Calibration program ensures that calibration requirements and provisions are contained in the contract Statement of Work(SOW) as appropriate?
1. ESU 2. MLC 3. EMO 4. COTR |
COTR
|
|
|
The accuracy of the MF/HF ADF (Automatic Direction Finder) is what?
|
Accuracy lessthan or equal to 15 degrees
|
|
|
Rubber insulating gloves are
• used to protect against electric shock, and • rated for? |
− voltages less than 5,000 volts alternating current (VAC) to ground, and
− high voltages of 7,500 and 17,000 VAC to ground. |
|
|
The procedure for inspecting gloves for pinholes is to?
|
• trap air inside the glove, and
• squeeze the glove to increase the air pressure and magnify any pinholes. |
|
|
What must be located conspicuously in all spaces where electronic equipment is installed.
|
Shorting probes, rated at 25,000 volts
|
|
|
What must be located conspicuously in all spaces where electronic equipment is installed.
|
Shorting probes, rated at 25,000 volts
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Rubber floor matting must be installed where aboard ships and at shore facilities?
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installed in open spaces around electrical and electronic equipment
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When shorting a capacitor Ensure that no residual charge remains in the capacitor after the terminals have been shorted by?
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holding a shorting bar on the terminals for 30 seconds or more, and
• using a voltmeter to test for residual voltage |
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At what voltage rating must you take measurements without holding the test leads while the equipment is on.
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energized circuits rated at more than 300 volts
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Which type of batteries can explode while rapidly discharging and up to 30 min after discharge?
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Lithium Batteries
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The DGPS Broadcast in what Frequency Range?
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MF (Medium Frequency)
300kHz - 3MHz |
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What is the frequency range for X band and S Band radar systems?
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SHF (Super High Frequency)
3 GHz-30 GHz |
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The maximum rate of absorption by the human body can occur within the maximum permissible exposure (MPE) limit frequency range of what?
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30–300 MHz (VHF band).
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What is the rotating PEL distance for the 73 radar?
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10 feet
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What is the rotating PEL distance for the VTS Furuno?
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10 Feet
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What is the Non-Roatating PEL distance for the SPS-69 Radar?
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3.6 feet
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What is the Non-Rotating PEL distance for the Bridge Master
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35 Feet
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What is the Non-Rotating PEL distance for the SPS-73
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20 Feet
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What is the Non-Rotating PEL distance for the VTS Furuno
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25 Feet
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The Operating and Maintenance (O&M) Fund code AFC- ____ is used for what?
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AFC-30
Normal and ordinary operating costs for each OPFAC unit Examples are • office supplies • phone bills, and • office equipment |
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The Electronics Program
(Acquisition, Construction, & Improvements) fund AFC-____ is used for what? |
AFC-42
Ground and ship-based electronic equipment • acquisition • installation, and • major maintenance. |
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Who is responsible for Preparing and maintaining engineering drawings—beyond those provided by Commandant or headquarters units—for vessels whose arrangements differ from those typical of the class.
A. Commandant (CG-4) B. Commandant (CG-45) C. MLC D. Cognizant MLC Commander |
C. MLC
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Who is responsible for Specifying standardization requirements?
A. Commandant (CG-4) B. Commandant (CG-45) C. MLCs D. Cognizant MLC Commander |
Commandant (CG-4)
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Who is responsible for Managing typical class arrangement drawings for major cutter classes.
A. Commandant (CG-4) B. Commandant (CG-45) C. MLCs D. Cognizant MLC Commander |
Commandant (CG-45)
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The ELC’s electronic repairables are identified by the Cognizance (COG)
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XB
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In FEDLOG, both electronic and HM&E repairables are identified by
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• Repair Code “R”, and
• Management Code “A”. |
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What is the CG number for a Serviceable/Unserviceable Material Tag
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CG-5236
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When returning a defective item to the ELC Mark the outside of the container CONDITION CODE "_"?
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"F"
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When returning a defective item to the ELC Mark the outside of the container CONDITION CODE "_"?
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"F"
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The Commanding Officer of the unit being certified during an installation by the CG yard must provide what?
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Provide one Electronics Specialist for the certification team for the duration of the certification.
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Who is responsible for Type a and initial Type B installation certification by the CG Yard?
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Commandant (CG-64)
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When inspecting dehydrator plugs. What color indicates that it has absorbed to much moisture and needs to be replaced?
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Pink
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Visually inspect a solder connection to determine the quality of the solder. A good solder joint has the following characteristics:
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• bright appearance
• no porosity • good fillet between conductors • strong adherence, and • no excess flux or solder. |
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To prepare a whip antenna for cold weather operations what should be done to the antenna?
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drill a 1/8" hole in the base of each antenna
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A type 1 Field Change includes what?
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furnishes a field change parts kit (which is assigned an Activity Control number, and includes documentation, parts, and special tools) required to complete a change.
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A type 2 Field Change includes what?
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furnishes documentation only
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A type 3 Field Change includes what?
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furnishes documentation and some of the parts or special tools needed in a field change parts kit.
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A type 4 Field Change includes what?
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implements changes to technical documentation only.
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The DGPS is a land-based system that receives and processes Global Positioning System (GPS) satellite position information. It provides mariners with reliable position accuracy of better than ____ Meters?
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10 Meters
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