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362 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
Airplane General |
Airplane General |
|
What are the model designations for the Global Express? |
BD-700-1A10 for Global Express and XRS BD-700-1A11 for Global 5000
Both models are referred to as the BBD-700 |
|
What is the minimum flight crew required |
One pilot and one co-pilot |
|
What is the Global Express and XRS wingspan, length and tail height? |
94 feet wingspan 99 feet 5 inch length Tail approximately 25 feet tall |
|
What is the minimum pavement width for a 180 degree turn with the Global Express and XRS? |
68 feet |
|
What is the maximum ramp / taxi weight? |
9002, 9027, 9195: 98,250 lbs
9005: 96,250 lbs
9468: 92,750 lbs |
|
What is the maximum takeoff weight? |
9002, 9027, 9195: 98,000 lbs
9005: 96,000 lbs
9468: 92,500 lbs |
|
What is the maximum landing weight |
9002, 9005, 9027, 9195, 9468: 78,600 lbs
|
|
What is the maximum zero fuel weight? |
56,000 lbs |
|
What is the minimum flight weight? |
48,200 lbs |
|
What is the minimum operating weight empty? |
45,000 lbs |
|
What are the Flap "0" load limits? |
-1 to +2.5 G's |
|
What are the load limits with slats/flaps extended? |
0 to +2 G's |
|
What is the Center of Gravity range? |
20% MAC to 41% MAC |
|
What is the minimum / maximum runway slope? |
plus or minus 2% |
|
May operations from unprepared runways be conducted? |
No |
|
What is the normal circling approach configuration and category? |
Flaps 30 and Vref+10 CAT C minimums At or above 141 knots, CAT D |
|
What is the prioritization of checklist? |
Memory Items Emergency checklists (Reds) Normal checklists (Normals) Caution (Amber) Advisory (Cyan) |
|
What are the buoyancy limitations for takeoff and landing near water above maximum landing weight? |
OUTFLOW VLV 2 must be closed, one air-conditioning pack must be shut down for take-off |
|
What is the maximum altitude for take-off and landing? |
10,000 feet |
|
What is the maximum operating altitude? |
51,000 feet |
|
What is the maximum ambient air temperature approved for take-off and landing? |
+50C |
|
What is the minimum ambient temperature approved for take-off? |
-40C |
|
Is take-off with the cowl anti-ice in AUTO mode allowed? |
No |
|
Is take-off with the wing anti-ice system in AUTO allowed? |
No |
|
During ground operations when must cowl anti-ice be ON? |
OAT is 10C or below and visible moisture in any form is present (such as fog with a visibility of 1,500 meters (one mile) or less, rain, snow and ice crystals). When operating on runways, ramps, or taxiways where surface snow, ice, standing water, or slush is present |
|
During ground operations when must wing anti-ice be ON? |
During take-off when the OAT is 5C or below and visible moisture in any form is present (such as fog with a visibility of 1,500 meters (one mile) or less, rain, snow and ice crystals). Also when the runway is contaminated with surface snow, slush or standing water. |
|
When do icing conditions exist in flight? |
TAT of 10C or below, and visible moisture in any form is encountered (such as clouds, rain, snow or ice crystals), except when the SAT is -40C or below |
|
What is the holding configuration in icing conditions? |
Do not hold in icing conditions with the slats extended |
|
What minimum engine speed should be maintained when operating in icing conditions? |
When in icing conditions, maintain a minimum engine speed of 76% N2.
Ice shedding |
|
What is the maximum tailwind component approved for take-off and landing? |
10 knots |
|
Above what temperature are display units prohibited? |
Groung operation of the DUs with flight compartment temperatures in excess of 40C, for greater that 30 minutes, is prohibited |
|
What is the maximum permitted published glidepath angle for instrument approaches? |
Flying an approach with a published glidepath angle of 4.5 degrees or greater is prohibited |
|
When flying a steep glidepath angle what must be considered? |
Approaches with published glidepath angles greater that 3.5 degrees must be flown in accordance with Supplement 29 in QRH Vol 1, Approaches With Published Glidepath Angles Greater Than 3.5 Degrees |
|
Power Plant |
Power Plant |
|
Which engines are installed on the Global Express? |
Rolls Royce BD700-710A2-20 |
|
What is the maximum ITT for ground /air start? |
Ground: 700C
Air 850C |
|
What are the engine idle limitations? |
Max ITT: 860C
Min N2: 58% |
|
What are the engine takeoff thrust limitations? |
Max ITT: 900C N2: 99.6% N1: 102.0% 5 minutes 2 engines, 10 minutes single engine |
|
What are the engine max continuous operating limitations? |
Max ITT: 860C N2: 98.9% N1: 102% |
|
What is the static ground operation limitation? |
Steady operation between 66% and 80% N1 prohibited. |
|
Do not engage starter if RPM exceeds? |
N2 - 42% |
|
What are the engine start duty cycles? |
3 min on, 15 sec off 3 min on, 15 sec off 3 min on, 15 min off |
|
What is the minimum oil temperature for engine start? |
-40C |
|
What is the minimum oil temperature before bringing the engine above idle? |
+20C |
|
What is the Max oil temperature? |
+160C |
|
What is the maximum oil consumption rate? |
.21 US quarts/hour |
|
When is oil replenishment prohibited? |
OAT at or below -12C |
|
The autothrottles must be engaged and verified by what KIAS? |
60 KIAS |
|
Use of autothrottle when landing is restricted to what flap setting? |
Flaps 30 only |
|
Engine shutdown required for what minimum oil pressure? |
25 PSI |
|
How much thrust do the engines on the global express supply at sea level? |
14,750 lbs @ SLV ISA to +20C |
|
What is the certificated dB noise lever for Flyover, Lateral, and Approach |
Flyover 89.0 dB Lateral 94.7 dB Approach 98.7 dB |
|
Where is bleed air extracted from the engines? |
5th stage low-pressure or 8th stage high-pressure compression |
|
Bleed air extracting is used for? |
Air conditioning Pressurization Cowl and wing anti-ice Engine starts |
|
How is thrust management controlled throughout all phases of flight? |
Full authority engine control (FADEC) An electronic engine controller (EEC) is a major component of the FADEC |
|
Describe the 2 main engine rotating assemblies |
Single-stage LP fan driven by a two-stage turbine
Ten-stage HP compressor driven by a two-stage turbine |
|
How is the engine protected from overspeed? |
By closing the fuel high pressure SOV when the EEC recognizes N1 or N2 overspeed value |
|
How is the FADEC normally powered during engine operation? |
via the dedicated generator on the accessory gearbox |
|
How is interturbine temperature (ITT) measured? |
N1 - near the LP compressor shaft N2 - front of the accessory gear box |
|
How is engine oil cooled? |
Fuel cooled oil cooler |
|
What is the total engine oil quantity? |
12.8 US quarts max 10.62 minimum for greater than a 3 hour flight Typically fill to 11.0 US quarts via oil replenishment system
Note: engines run best at 10.2
|
|
What is the capacity of the oil replenishment tank? |
6 quarts |
|
Selecting the ENG RUN switch to OFF closes which fuel shutoff valve? |
High-pressure shutoff valve within the fuel metering unit |
|
When is high idle commanded by the EEC? |
Airplane is in the approach configuration |
|
How is EPR calculated? |
Ratio of engine inlet total pressure (TAT probe) and Engine exhaust total pressure |
|
When should "Rotorbow" dry cranking be expected during automatic starts? |
Between 20 minutes and 5 hours of previous engine shutdown |
|
What are the two auto start - air envelopes and associated airspeeds? |
ATS ENVELOPE <249 knots
WINDMILL ENVELOPE >250 knots |
|
When will the automatic ground engine start abort? |
-ENG RUN switch to OFF -N2 speed not 15% within 120 seconds -Idle speed not achieved within 120 seconds -Starter cutout not reached within starter duty limit 3 minutes -ITT exceeding start limit 700C |
|
What are the ground external air pressure requirements for start? |
40 psi desired |
|
For airplane operations in excess of 3 hours, the oil system must be verified? |
Full before flight Greater than 10.62 US quarts |
|
When must oil replenishment be conducted? |
ENG: From 5 minutes to 30 minutes after shutdown APU: From 15 minutes after shutdown |
|
How long should the engine stabilize in idle before selecting the ENG RUN switch to OFF on the shutdown checklist? |
3 minutes |
|
What is the maximum engine relight altitude |
30,000 feet |
|
What is the maximum engine start wind speed and direction? |
Engine starts are not permitted when the tailwind component exceeds 20 knots
Anytime there is an external or EICAS indication of N1 rotation due to tailwinds, the engine must be cranked for 30 seconds and must be followed by an immediately by an AUTO start |
|
What limitation exists when winds exceed 20 knots? |
do not exceed the minimum thrust required for taxi when winds exceed 20 knots. Do not exceed 66% N1 below 30 KIAS |
|
Thrust Reversers |
Thrust Reversers |
|
What is maximum reverse thrust? |
70% N1 (EEC controlled) for 30 seconds |
|
Name three thrust reverser limitations |
1. Must not be selected in flight
2. Must not be used for touch and go's
3. May not back up the airplane |
|
How are the thrust reversers controlled and powered? |
Controlled by the EEC
Powered by the respective engine hydraulic system 1A or 2A |
|
What will occur if a thrust reverser becomes unlocked? |
L(R) REVERSER UNLKD Red CAS Message |
|
Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) |
Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) |
|
What is the APU type? |
RE220 |
|
What is the maximum APU RPM? |
106% |
|
What is the maximum altitude for APU operations? |
45,000 feet |
|
Minimum temperature for starting a cold soaked APU? |
-40C |
|
How many start attempts are permitted on the APU? |
3 per hour, 1 minute between starts |
|
What is the maximum starting altitude for the APU? |
37,000 feet |
|
What is the maximum OAT for bleed air extraction from the APU? |
30,000 feet |
|
What is the maximum OAT for bleed air extraction from the APU for air conditioning operations? |
less than 45C |
|
What is the maximum load rating for the APU? |
40KVA |
|
What is the associated limit if the APU is powering an AC Bus above 37,000 feet? |
The associated hydraulic pump (1B, 2B, 3B, 3A) must be selected OFF |
|
How is the APU controlled by the FADEC to ensure priority for electrical loads? |
Cycling the Load Control Valve (LPV) |
|
When does the APU door position appear on the STAT page? |
In conjunction with an APU DOOR FAIL caution CAS message |
|
When is it recommended to top up the APU oil reservoir? |
STAT page indication shows less than 4.5 quarts |
|
What will occur if the APU run switch is selected to the "RUN" position prior to the 60 second cooldown period? |
The APU returns to 100% and continues normal operation |
|
When is manual operation of the APU LCV not possible? |
Anti-ice is active Left ENG pressure regulating valve is manually opened Right Eng pressure regulating valve and crossbleed valve are manually opened |
|
How is the APU controlled by the FADEC to ensure priority for electrical loads? |
Cycling the Load Control Valve (LPV) |
|
How is the emergency shutdown of the APU accomplished? |
- BATT MASTER switch selected OFF with no AC power on - APU fire DISCH handle pulled - APU SHUTOFF button (service panel) - APU compartment SHUTDOWN button |
|
When does the APU automatically shutdown in flight only? |
- FADEC failure or DC power loss - Inlet door uncommanded position - Loss of overspeed protection - Overspeed 106% - EGT over-temperature - Loss of speed signals - Slow start, no crank, no acceleration |
|
FIRE PROTECTION |
FIRE PROTECTION |
|
Where are the engine fire detection sensing elements located? |
Accessory gear box Engine core Fixed cowl |
|
What extinguishing agent is used in the fire bottles? |
Halon |
|
What five events occur when the ENG FIRE DISCH handle is pulled? |
1. Fuel SOV closes 2. Hydraulic SOV closes 3. Bleed air SOV closes (PRV and HPV close) 4. AC VFGs taken off line 5. Fire bottles armed |
|
What happens when the APU DISCH is pulled? |
1. Fuel SOV closes 2. Ignition shut off 3. Pneumatics shut off 4. APU electrics isolated 5. Fire bottles armed |
|
Does pulling the fire DISCH command an immediate engine shutdown? |
No note: immediate shutdown is via the ENGINE RUN switch |
|
If an APU fire is detected on the ground, what will the FADEC command? |
After 5 seconds the FADEC will command automatic shutdown of the APU |
|
Where are the smoke detectors installed on "green" configuration aircraft? |
Forward avionics bay Aft avionics bay Baggage compartment Avionics rack (5000 only) |
|
How is fire suppression for the baggage compartment, lavatories and cabin closets provided? |
Portable fire extinguishers |
|
HYDRAULICS |
HYDRAULICS |
|
Which pumps supply normal hydraulic power to the Hydraulic system? |
Systems 1 and 2 Pumps 1A and 2A |
|
What is normal hydraulic operating pressure? |
3,000 PSI |
|
What type of hydraulic fluid is used in the Global Express? |
SKYDROL LD-4 & HYJET IV-4 |
|
What is the priority for ACMP pumps? |
3A - 3B - 2B - 1B |
|
When the ACMP switch is set to AUTO, when will the 1B and 2B pumps start? |
Alternating Current Motor Pumps (ACMP) are 1B and 2B
AUTO position: the electrical logic is determined by the ACPC, the pump starts automatically when:
- Either slats or flaps not IN/0 position - System low pressure detected in flight |
|
How long will the hydraulic "B" pumps operate once activated? |
Will remain energized by the ACPC for 5 minutes |
|
What is normal hydraulic system 2 accumulator pressure? |
500 PSI |
|
How are the EDP HYD SOVs closed? |
Selecting the HYD SOV switch "closed" Pulling the fire DISCH handle |
|
What are the electricity driven pumps and associated AC buses? |
1B - AC Bus 3 2B - AC Bus 2 3B - AC Bus 1 3A - AC Bus 4 |
|
What hydraulic system is powered by the RAT? |
System 3 |
|
What is normal hydraulic system 3 RAT accumulator pressure? |
1,000PSI |
|
What is normal hydraulic system 3 brake accumulator pressure? |
500PSI |
|
How is hydraulic case drain fluid cooled prior to returning to the applicable reservoir? |
Heat exchangers in the left and right wing fuel tanks Left wing - systems 1 and 3 Right wing - system 2 |
|
What hydraulic pumps are available / operating during single generator operations in flight? |
Engine Pumps 1A and 2A AC Pumps 3A and 3B |
|
LANDING GEAR AND BRAKES |
LANDING GEAR AND BRAKES |
|
What types of brakes are used on the Global Express? |
Carbon disc brakes |
|
How are the main wheel brakes powered and actuated? |
Hydraulically powered Electrically actuated via brake and wire system |
|
How is weight on wheels (WOW) sensing accomplished? |
Via two proximity sensors on each gear assembly |
|
How is normal extension and retraction of the landing gear controlled? |
Electrically controlled by the landing gear electronic control unit (LGECU) |
|
Which hydraulic systems operate the landing gear? |
Hydraulic systems 2 and 3 |
|
How are the main gear inboard doors operated? |
Hydraulically by system 3 |
|
How is excessive air pressure due to hear buildup in the main wheel/tire assembly released? |
Four heat sensitive fuseplugs |
|
How is main landing gear overheat detected in the gear bays? |
Single-loop heat sensing elements |
|
How are the nose gear and forward doors normally actuated? |
Hydraulically by system 3 |
|
When is the "Too Low Gear" aural warning sounded? |
Any landing gear is not down and locked, and Radio altimeter less than 500 feet AGL |
|
What is the maximum operating speed for extending / retracting the landing gear? |
200 KIAS |
|
What is the maximum airspeed with landing gear extended? |
250 KIAS / .70 Mach |
|
What is the maximum operating altitude with the lading gear extended? |
20,000 feet |
|
After "manual" landing gear extension, which gear doors caution message are displayed? |
L-R MAIN GEAR DOOR NOSE DOOR |
|
What will be the NWS operation mode after "manual" gear extension? |
Free caster mode |
|
How is the NWS controlled and actuated? |
Electrically controlled Hydraulically actuated (system 3) |
|
What are the NWS limits for the Tiller and Rudder? |
Tiller +/- 75 degrees Rudder +/- 7.5 degrees
Note: NWS inputs are summed |
|
What is recommended for all towing operations? |
Disconnect the NWS torque link |
|
When is towbarless towing prohibited? |
Unless the operation is performed in compliance with the Airplane Maintenance Manual towbarless towing requirements. Minimum wing fuel 10,000 lbs |
|
May the aircraft be towed when gear pins are not installed? |
Yes provided aircraft power is on and Hydraulic 3A pump is on. |
|
What is the tire limit speed |
The tire limit speed is 183 knots ground speed |
|
After landing what is the minimum about of time before a takeoff can be made? |
15 minutes |
|
How are the brake wear indicator pins normally checked? |
Parking brake applied Hydraulic system 3 pressurized |
|
Which hydraulic system operate the brake system? |
Hydraulic system 2 (outboard brakes) Hydraulic system 3 (inboard brakes) |
|
How is the PARK/EMER BRAKE actuated? |
Mechanical linkages transfer manual inputs to the parking brake valve |
|
Under what conditions will the autobrake apply? |
Autobrake either LOW, MED, or HI Both MLG indicate WOW Ground spoilers are commanded to deploy |
|
How is the BRAKE OVHT warning message cancelled? |
By momentarily Pressing the BTMS OVHT WARNING RESET Note: Provided the overhear conditions no longer exist |
|
FUEL SYSTEM |
FUEL SYSTEM |
|
What is the maximum permissible fuel imbalance for on ground and during takeoff and landing? |
1,100 lbs < 19,450 fuel tank load
600 lbs > 20,250 fuel tank load |
|
What is the maximum permissible fuel imbalance during flight? |
1,100 lbs |
|
What is the maximum permissible fuel load for the Global Express fuel tanks (pressure refueling)? |
9002, 9005, 9027
Wing - 15,050 lbs per wing tank Center 12,700 lbs Aft Aux 2,300 lbs Total load 43,550 lbs |
|
What is the maximum permissible fuel load for the Global Express XRS fuel tanks (pressure refueling)? |
9195
Wing - 15,050 lbs per wing tank Center 12,700 lbs Aft Aux 2,300 lbs Total load 45,100 lbs |
|
What is the maximum permissible fuel load for the Global 5000 fuel tanks (pressure refueling)? |
9468
Wing - 15,050 lbs per wing tank Center - 9,150 lbs with SB-700-1A11-11-008 Total - 39,250 lbs |
|
Fuel in the center tank must be considered unusable unless? |
Each wing is full at departure and Planned cruise altitude is greater that 30,000 feet |
|
Fuel in the aft tank must be considered unusable unless? |
Each wing contains at least 5,500 lbs fuel at departure and The planned cruise altitude is greater than 30,000 feet |
|
If use of the centre / aft tank is panned, what is the minimum tank fuel load? |
500 lbs to ensure the xfer pump reprime |
|
What is minimum go around fuel? |
600 lbs per wing Note: Level flight and Maximum 10 nose up |
|
What ar the limitations when using wide cut or CIS fuels? |
Operation limited to 13,000 feet until the bulk fuel temperature is below 15C |
|
What are the 2 limitations associated with the FRTT? |
Fuel Return To Tank recirculation FRTT
1. FRTT is prohibited when using wide cut or CIS fuels 2. Asymmetric operation is prohibited |
|
What is the minimum engine fuel temperature indication for takeoff? |
+5C |
|
When must the Fuel Crossfeed be selected OFF? |
Takeoff and Landing |
|
Which fuel tanks cannot be gravity refueled? |
Forward or aft aux tanks |
|
How is positive fuel tank pressure maintained during flight? |
Ram air via NACA scoops |
|
Do not test operation of the pressure relied valves when? |
Wing take above 11,800 lbs Center tank above 8,000 lbs |
|
What does the FMS COMPARE FUEL QUANT message indicate? |
2% or greater difference between FMQGC and FMS fuel quantity reading Note: 2% of the BOW equals 1020 lbs |
|
When does FRTT (fuel return to tank) automatically operate? |
Above 34,000 feet and Single fuel temp sensor below -20C or Average of all temp sensors below -9C
Note not applicable for 9002, 9005, 9027 |
|
When do the AC wing boost pumps operate? |
ENG RUN switches to "ON" |
|
Where is the fuel SOV located and how is the valve closed? |
Located behind the aft pressure bulkhead Closed via the associated fire discharge handle |
|
When does fuel transfer from the centre tank to the wing tank start? |
Wing tank quantity below 93% Continues until wing reaches full (3% of volume) |
|
When does fuel transfer from the aux tank start? |
Wing tank falls to 5,500 lbs |
|
When does fuel transfer from the aux tank start? |
When wing tank falls to 5,500 lbs |
|
What is the refuel schedule? |
W-A-C
Wings Aft Center |
|
When does the wing DC aux fuel pump operate automatically?
|
One or both AC pumps low pressure Flap position > 0 In flight with landing gear down & locked Low fuel condition < 600 lbs wing Wing transfer - 400 lbs or greater wing imbalance |
|
When will the AC boos pumps operate regardless of the ENG RUN switch position? |
XFEED SOV to open
Note: This ensures balanced fuel during SE operation |
|
Which wing tank normally provides fuel for the APU? |
Right wing tank |
|
Which fuel pumps operate autonomously (no pilot control) |
Center tank transfer pumps |
|
How is fuel moved from the forward aux fuel tank to the center tank? |
Transfer ejector receiving "motive flow" and / or via gravity flow at a slower rate |
|
When is wing transfer automatically initiated? |
Lateral fuel imbalance of 400 lbs or more |
|
When is wing transfer inhibited? |
Flap postion > 0 In flight with landing gear down and locked Low fuel condition < 600 lbs wing DC aux pump is supplying fuel feed to an engine |
|
Why must crew monitor "manual" operation of the wing to wing transfer system? |
No automatic shutdown of the manual system or overfill protection.
If not monitored and wing is overfilled will spill on ramp. |
|
Where is power for the Refuel/Defuel panel taken? |
APU battery direct bus |
|
Durring the refuel SOV test, what does display of the "SOV FAIL" message indicate? |
Fuel flow will not stop when the tank is full |
|
ELECTRICAL |
ELECTRICAL |
|
What are the sources of airplane generated AC power? |
Four 40 kVA engine driven generators one 40 kVA APU generator Ram air turbine |
|
Hoe many AC buses does the AC electrical system have? |
Eight total Four primary busses 1, 2, 3, 4 Four secondary busses 1A, 2A, 3A, ESS |
|
What is the purpose of the AC power center (ACPC) |
Protects, Controls and distributes AC power to the main AC busses |
|
In the advent of single generator operation, which AC Busses are automatically shed? |
AC Busses 2 and 3 This results in AC buses 2A and 3A also being shed |
|
What does a EXT AC "AVAIL" light on the electrical panel indicate? |
External AC power is connected and is the correct phase, voltage and frequency but its NOT online.
3 phase, 115VAC, 400HZ |
|
What does a GEN FAIL light on the electrical panel indicate? |
Failed generating channel or fire discharge handle is pulled |
|
What is the primary / alternate power priority for the ESS AC BUS? |
RAT GEN is deployed GEN 4 via AC ESS BUS GEN 1 via AC BUS 1A GEN 2 via AC BUS 2A GEN 3 via AC BUS 3A APU GEN |
|
What are the 6 primary DC power sources? |
TRU 1, TRU 2, ESS TRU 1, ESS TRU 2 Avionics Battery APU Battery |
|
What are the 4 main DC buses? |
DC BUS 1 and 2 DC ESS BUS BATT BUS |
|
How long will the aircraft main batteries last as the sole source of power? |
Minimum of 15 minutes |
|
What is the primary / alternate power priority for the DC ESS bus? |
ESS TRU 1 ESS TRU 2 TRU 2 TRU 1 |
|
Which DC Buses are automatically shed during single TRU operation? |
DC BUS 1 and DC BUS 2 |
|
What is the purpose of the DC POWER EMERGENCY OVERRIDE? |
Durring loss of all DC power, allows ESS TRU 1 and 2 to bypass the DCPC and power the SPDA's directly |
|
Can the pilot change a thermal circuit breaker from the EMSCDU? |
No, the affected circuit breaker can only be manually reset at its location |
|
INTEGRATED AIR MANAGEMENT IAMS |
INTEGRATED AIR MANAGEMENT IAMS |
|
What is the pack discharge temperature range for Manual mode operation? |
+5 C to + 60 C One pack must be selected OFF 40lbs of air per minute |
|
What is Normal and Maximum cabin differential pressure? |
Normal - 10.33 PSID Maximum - 10.73 PSID "Delta P" - 10.85 PSID |
|
What is the maximum negative relied differential pressure? |
-0.5 PSID |
|
On taxi and takeoff the cabin PSID should not exceed this value? |
0.1 PSI |
|
On landing the cabin PSID should not exceed this value? |
1.0 PSID |
|
AUX PRESS is prohibited above what altitude |
41,000 feet |
|
The Bleed Management Controllers (BMCs) extract bleed air from which engine ports? |
5th stage low-pressure port 8th stage high-pressure port |
|
During ground operation, what is the priority bleed source for engine starting? |
APU bleed air |
|
How are hot air (bleed) leaks monitored in the airplane? |
Dual loop detection sensing elements connected to the BMCs |
|
What occurs when the BMC detects a bleed air leak? |
The BMC isolates the affected manifold by closing the appropriate valves |
|
How is air flow regulated from the pneumatic duct to the air conditioning units? |
By modulation of the flow control valve (FCV) by the air conditioning system controllers (ACSC) |
|
Can one engine supply two AC packs simultaneously? |
No, the BMC prevents two packs from being supplied by one engine. In the case of single pack operation, the high flow schedule is automatically |
|
What are the two functions of the air conditioning units? |
Decrease the air temperature and Decrease the water contained in the hot bleed air |
|
When are the packs automatically shut off (FCV closed)? |
- Bleed failure, shutdown or engine starting - Ditching operation (below 15,000 feet) - Pack inlet overheat - Compressor discharge overheat - Pack discharge overheat or under pressure |
|
Selecting the TRIM AIR PBA switch to the OFF position closes which valves? |
Hot Air Shut Off Valves (HASOV) and the ACSC closes the three trim air valves |
|
What are the two functions of the RAM AIR system? |
1. Providing cooling for the heat exchangers of the cooling packs 2. Alternate source of fresh air at an altitude of 15,000 feet or less |
|
What are the requirements for using AUX Press? |
Both cooling packs inoperative Recirculation system maintained "ON" Prohibited above 41,000 feet |
|
What are the typical cabin altitudes for 51,000 and 45,000 feet aircraft altitude? |
51,000 feet - 5,670 feet 45,000 feet - 4,500 feet |
|
What are the two modes of operation with the cabin pressure control system in AUTO? |
- PRIMARY mode (predictive) uses: - FMS programmed - Autopilot and VNAV engaged
- SECONDARY mode (reactive) uses: - Pressure altitude - Vertical speed
|
|
What are the warning messages and associated cabin altitudes for loss of pressurization? |
CAB ALT - 8,200 feet CAB ALT Warning - 9,000 feet or 1,000 / 1,800 feet above landing alt if landing above 7,230 feet MSL |
|
When selecting MAN pressurization, what is displayed on the STAT page? |
Both outflow valve position indicators Cabin rate analog gauge |
|
What is required to display the LDG ELEV in magenta on the STAT page? |
- LDG ELEV FMS/MAN selector set to FMS - Landing destination programmed in the FMS - Flight plan activated
Note: landing elevation will not display in magenta if FMS are in independent |
|
What are the two cabin rate selections available in automatic and associated rates? |
Normal mode - 500 ft/min climb and 300 ft/min descent rate High mode - 800 ft/min climb and 800 ft/min descent rate |
|
What occurs when EMER DEPRESS switch is selected ON? |
Both out flow valves (OFVs) are commanded open Cabin altitude limited to 14,500 feet |
|
What does the selecting the Ditching switch to ON provide? |
PACKS flow is shut off Cabin is depressurized OFVs are driven to the closed position Sequence is inhibited above 15,000 feet |
|
What is the purpose of the safety valves (SFV 1 and 2) located in the aft bulkhead? |
Ensures overpressure and negative pressure relief Provides an OPEN position signal to the EICAS |
|
ANTI-ICE |
ANTI-ICE |
|
When is cowl anti-ice, required? Prohibited? |
OAT 10C or less and visible moisture or contaminated taxiways / runways AUTO prohibited for Takeoff |
|
When is wing anti-ice required? Prohibited? |
OAT 5C or less and visible moisture or contaminated taxiways / runways AUTO prohibited for takeoff Type II or IV, anti-ice prohibited ON until just prior to thrust increase on takeoff |
|
What are the conditions for in-flight icing operations? |
Visible moisture and temperature between TAT +10C and SAT -40C |
|
What is the operating limitation while holding in icing conditions? |
Do not hold with slats extended |
|
What is the minimum engine speed while in icing conditions |
76%N2 |
|
Fully automatic ice and rain protection is provided for which systems? |
Wing leading edges Engine cowls Windshields Side windows Air data probes and sensors |
|
Due to the sensitivity of the ice detector probes, the ice detection is ineffective below what airspeeds? |
30 KIAS |
|
When wing anti-ice is selected, how long may it take before the leading edges display green? |
Approximately 2 minutes |
|
What is the purpose of the wing cross bleed valve (CBW)? |
Allows both wing anti-ice systems to be fed from a single engine |
|
Which engine bleed is used for cowl anti-ice? |
5th stage low-pressure bleed air only |
|
In the event of electrical failure, the cowl anti-ice valve (CAIV) defaults to what position? |
Fully open position |
|
Why is it recommended to remove all pitot and AOA covers prior to starting the APU or connecting external power? |
All heaters are tested ON when AC power is applied to the aircraft |
|
OXYGEN |
OXYGEN |
|
How many oxygen bottles does the crew system have? |
4 |
|
What is the normal pressure charge at 21C for the crew oxygen bottles? |
1,850 PSI |
|
At what pressure does the oxygen pressure regulator function? |
72.5 PSI |
|
When do the passenger masks deploy? |
14,500 feet cabin altitude |
|
What is the crew alert when the oxygen system drops to or below 75% |
Amber OXY LO QTY message |
|
EMERGENCY EQUIPMENT |
EMERGENCY EQUIPMENT |
|
The evacuation equipment consists of what 2 items? |
Crash axe Cabin escape rope |
|
What type portable fire extinguisher is located in the cockpit? |
Halon 1211 Note: Effective in fighting A, B, and C fires |
|
What must the flight crew wear if discharging a fire extinguisher in the cockpit? |
Oxygen masks with 100% oxygen selected |
|
Is the baggage door considered an emergency exit door? |
No |
|
Lighting |
Lighting |
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When does the "SEAT BELTS" sign illuminate when selected to AUTO? |
Landing gear selected down Flaps are not in the 0 position Cabin altitude > 8000 feet |
|
When fo the EMER Lights illuminate when selected in ARM? |
No power to the DC essential bus |
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Do the area lights operate with no power on the aircraft (battery master off)? |
Yes |
|
How is the nose wheel compartment light operated? |
Switch on the forward external service control panel |
|
FLIGHT CONTROLS |
FLIGHT CONTROLS |
|
How are the primary flight controls controlled and actuated? |
Mechanically controlled Hydraulically actuated |
|
Which hydraulic systems power the aileron PCUs? |
Left aileron - systems 1 and 3 Right aileron - systems 2 and 3 |
|
How are the aileron control circuits separated in response to a jammed control system? |
Via a roll disconnect mechanism in the torque tube |
|
If the aileron/rudder/stabilizer trim is outside the allowable range during throttle advancement for takeoff, what will occur? |
CONFIG AIL / RUD / STAB TRIM red warning message NO TAKEOFF voice message |
|
When is initial yaw damper engagement controlled by the fight guidance computer |
First engine start at 35% N2 |
|
Which hydraulic systems power the rudder PCUs? |
Hydraulic systems 1, 2, and 3 |
|
Which hydraulic systems power the elevator PCUs? |
Left elevator - systems 1 and 3 Right elevator - systems 2 and 3 |
|
Which 3 trim modes activate the horizontal stabilizer and their priority? |
Manual trip (pilot then copilot) Auto trim (autopilot 1 or 2) Mach trim (autopilot off) |
|
What functions does the Master Disconnect Switch on the yoke provide? |
AFCS disconnect - momentarily selected Pitch trim disconnect - held Stall pusher interrupt - held |
|
When will the stabilizer in motion aural clacker sound? |
Stabilizer runaway Stabilizer trim switch is held for an extended period |
|
How is operation of the slats and flaps controlled? |
By two independent slat/flap control units (SFCUs) |
|
What is the purpose of the "Flap Override Switch"? |
Used to cancel the flap aural warning if the flaps cannot be configured for an OUT/30 landing |
|
How many spoiler panels are located on each wing? |
4 multifunctional spoilers and 2 ground spoilers |
|
With flaps extended, which multifunctional spoilers are available? |
Only the two inboard pairs of MFS MAX selection on the FSCL has no effect |
|
The MFS are used for what purpose? |
Roll assist Proportional lift dumping Ground lift dumping Combination roll assist and proportional lift dumping |
|
How is symmetrical lift dumping ensured when an MFS panel failure is detected? |
The opposite panel is automatically disabled |
|
Ground spoilers when "armed" will deploy on landing with? |
Engine throttles at idle or below and two of the following three conditions: - RA below 7 feet - One main landing gear WOW - One wheel speed greater than 16 knots |
|
How may a pilot stop the stick pusher? |
Pressing and holding the autopilot/stick pusher disconnect (AP/SP DISC) button
N/A for JAA certified aircraft |
|
Automatic Flight Control System AFCS |
Automatic Flight Control System AFCS |
|
What is the ground operation limit of the DUs with the cockpit temperature in excess of 40C? |
Operation of the DUs for greater than 30 minutes is prohibited |
|
What is maximum altitude for flight with the yaw damper disengaged? |
41,000 feet |
|
What is the minimum autopilot engage height? |
400 feet AGL |
|
What is the minimum autopilot use height for a precision approach? Non-precision approach? |
Cat I ILS - 50 feet AGL Non-precision - 400 feet AGL |
|
What is the minimum autopilot use height for a non-precision approach with vertical path reference? |
160 feet AGL |
|
What is the operational limitation when using FLCH? |
Use of FLC mode with the speed bug above .85M is prohibited |
|
When must both stall protection pusher switches be selected ON? |
For duration of the flight |
|
What is the purpose of the master disconnect switch on the control wheel? |
Disconnect the autopilot Silence a disconnect aural |
|
What is the purpose of the touch control steering switch (TCS)? |
Momentarily override the autopilot |
|
Does the indicator light on the GP indicate that the associated mode is currently active? |
No, pilot must confirm mode status / operation from the flight director annunciator on the PFD |
|
How are active / armed flight director and autothrottle modes indicated on the AFCS display? |
Active display in "green" Armed display in "white" |
|
How does the pilot manually switch the flight guidance computer (FGC)? |
On the MFD control panel MENU button, page 2 |
|
How will the autopilot engage if no vertical or lateral flight director mode is armed? |
Basic pitch (PIT) and roll (ROL) modes |
|
What will cause manual disengagement of the autopilot? |
Pressing the AP pushbutton Pressing either the MASTER DISC pushbutton Pressing either TOGA switch Manual trim activation Pressing the YD switch on the GP Physical override of the AP servos (not recommended) |
|
What will cause an automatic disengagement of the autopilot? |
Activation of windshear avoidance Unusual attitude Stall warning activation |
|
When is use of the FMS as a sole NAV source for instrument approaches prohibited? |
Prohibited past the FAF unless APP is annunciated on the PFD |
|
Wheat is required for an automatic Nav-to-Nav transfer to occur? |
Lateral mode is LNAV Aircraft has captured the LOC beam Pilot has selected the APR button |
|
What course is set to capture and track a back course localizer? |
Front course |
|
What must be the active lateral navigation mode for VPTH to be operational? |
LNAV |
|
When is the ILS automatically tuned by the FMS? |
Within 75 NM flight plan distance or 30 NM direct distance to the airfield |
|
When does Dual Coupling of the AFCS occur? |
Below 1,200 feet with The PFDs displaying localizer data from different navigational sources |
|
What are the FD pitch commands for takeoff, SE takeoff and GA? |
Takeoff - 17.5 degrees SE Takeoff - 13 degrees GA - 10 degrees |
|
How is the autothrottle GA mode cleared? |
By selecting at AP on or Selecting another vertical mode |
|
When is the automatic emergency descent mode (EDM) enabled? |
Aircraft altitude above 25,000 feet Cabin altitude has exceeded 14,500
Aircraft not incorporating SB700-22-003: 9002, 9005, 9027 |
|
Once the EDM is activated, what will occur? |
FD will command a descent to 15,000 feet FD will command a turn of 90 degrees left Autothrottles will target airspeed of Vmo-10 until 250 knots at 15,000 feet |
|
On the ground, what parameters are required to engage the autothrottles? |
Either engage switch selected Aircraft speed less than 60 knots Throttle levers are above 23 degrees TLA |
|
When is autothrottle takeoff HOLD control mode activated? |
On ground above 60 knots In flight below 400 feet AGL |
|
When will the autothrottles transition to the RETARD mode? |
Aircraft in landing configuration Radio altitude of 50 feet AGL |
|
Electronic Displays |
Electronic Displays |
|
Which colors are used to depict normal, precautionary and system limits? |
Green - normal range Amber - precautionary range Red - limits exceeded |
|
Which colors are used to depict the flow lines? |
Black - no flow Amber - below normal value Green - normal value Red - exceeding normal value |
|
What is the priority of the Aural alerts? |
STALL EGPWS TCAS All other voice messages |
|
What will occur when selecting the EFIS PFD reversion control to alternate? |
The MFD data is displayed by PFD data |
|
Durring normal operation, SG 1 generated symbols for which DUs? |
DU 1 and DU 2 |
|
Hos is a SG failure indicated? |
Red X across the corresponding displays |
|
Selection of the ADC reversion button for PFD 1 enables which ADC to feef PFD 1? |
ADC 3 Second selection - ADC 2 |
|
Selection of the IRS reversion button for PFD 1 enables which IRS to feed PFD 1 |
IRS 3 Second selection - IRS 2 |
|
What is the result of pushing the event button on the landing gear control panel? |
Flags a particular event in time within the flight data recorder FDR memory Encodes the central aircraft information maintenance system CAIMS |
|
The airspeed trend vector represents the airspeed in how many seconds? |
10 seconds |
|
The altitude trend vector represents the altitude the airplane will attain in how many seconds? |
6 seconds |
|
How does the pilot switch the altitude readout to metric? |
Using the MENU display on the MFD control panel |
|
Navigation and Communication |
Navigation and Communication |
|
Durring a GPS approach what does the DGRAD annunciation on the FMS indicate? |
Unacceptable RAIM value is detected |
|
IRS system accuracy may me degraded above what latitudes preventing system engagement in the NAV mode? |
78 degrees latitude |
|
How does the pilot remove accumulated IRS errors to drift since the last alignment? |
IRS mode selector from NAV to ALN and back to NAV |
|
How does the crew inhibit the terrain awareness alerting when landing at an airport not in the FMS database? |
Select the TERRAIN switch to OFF |
|
On FMS system power up, what information is displayed on the NAV IDENT page? |
Date and Time (synchronized with GPS) Software version Database status |
|
What does selecting the EMER pushbutton with failure of the audio control panel accomplish? |
Microphone audio to bypass the audio control panel Microphone is connected directly to the onside VHF communication radio Audio is directly connected from the radio to the pilot's headset |
|
How does the pilot enable the flight and maintenance interphones? |
Hot microphone (H'MIC) switch on the audio panel |
|
When does the radio management unit (RMU) carry out a unit and system self-test? |
System power up |
|
How does the pilot switch between the active (white) and preset (cyan) on the RMU? |
The transfer key or The line select key adjacent to the preselect frequency in the simplex mode |
|
How does the pilot change kHz spacing (8.33) on the RMU? |
Select PGE key Select SYS SELECT from menu |
|
How does the pilot select DME hold on the RMU? |
Selecting the DME KEY An "H" will appear next to DME |
|
What is the priority for navigation sensors used by the FMS? |
GPS, DME/DME, VOR/DME |
|
What are the two prerequisites to make a stand alone GPS approach? |
Approach must be retrieved from the database APP annunciated durring approach |
|
OPERATING LIMITATIONS |
OPERATING LIMITATIONS |
|
Mmo, FL350, FL414, FL470, and FL510 |
FL350 - 0.89M FL414 - 0.88M FL470 - 0.858M FL510 - 0.842M |
|
Vmo, above and below 8,000 feet |
Above 8,000 feet - 340KIAS Below 8,000 feet - 300KIAS |
|
What is Turbulence Penetration speed? |
300KIAS / 0.80M |
|
What is the maximum operating altitude? |
FL510 |
|
What is the maximum pressure altitude for takeoff and landing? |
10,000 feet pressure altitude |
|
What is the maximum and minimum ambient temperature for takeoff? |
+50C / -40C |
|
What is the maximum tailwind component for engine start |
20 knots |
|
What must be done is a tailwind start causes observed N1 rotation? |
Extended Dry Crank (EDC) for 30 seconds followed by an immediate auto start |
|
When winds exceed 20 knots, what is the required thrust for taxi? |
Minimum thrust |
|
What must be done if crosswind component exceeds 20 knots on takeoff? |
Do not exceed 66% N1 until 30 KIAS Increase takeoff distance by: 1,700 Feet - Flaps 6 1,500 Feet - Flaps 16 |
|
What is the maximum tailwind component approved for takeoff and landing? |
10 knots |
|
What is the maximum demonstrated crosswind for takeoff and landing? |
29 knots Note: Not considered limiting |
|
What is the maximum authorized altitude for use of slats/flaps? |
18,000 feet |
|
At what altitude must flight spoilers be retracted on approach? |
300 feet AGL |
|
What are "slats in / flaps 0 recommended maneuvering and minimum approach speeds? |
200 KIAS Vref +45 |
|
What is maximum slats extended speed? |
225 KIAS |
|
What are "slats out / flaps 0" recommended maneuvering and minimum approach speeds? |
180 KIAS Vref +20 |
|
What is the maximum flaps 6 speed? |
210 KIAS |
|
What are "slats out / flaps 6: recommended maneuvering and minimum approach speeds? |
160 KIAS Vref +13 |
|
What is maximum flaps 16 speed? |
210 KIAS |
|
What are "Slats out / flaps 16" recommended maneuvering and minimum approach speeds? |
140 KIAS Vref +6 |
|
What is the maximum flaps 30 speed? |
185 KIAS |
|
What are "slats out / flaps 30" recommended maneuvering and minimum approach speeds? |
Vref +10 |
|
What is Vlo? |
200 KIAS |
|
What is Vle |
250 KIAS |
|
What is tire limiting speed? |
183 KIAS |
|
What is Vmcg? |
80 KIAS |
|
What is Vmca? |
86 KIAS |