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103 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
A chromosome may contain one or two chromatids in different phases of the mitotic or meiotic cell cycle.
True
If a typical G1 nucleus is 2n and contains two complements (2C) of DNA, a prophase I cell is 2n and contains 4C DNA.
True
During meiosis chromosome number reduction takes place in anaphase II.
False
The centromere of a chromosome separates during anaphase.
True
The meiotic cell cycle involves two cell divisions and two DNA replications.
False
Mendel’s law of segregation is supported by a 1:1 testcross ratio.
True
The non-functional form of a gene is called a wild-type allele.
False
A gene can have maximum two alleles
False
To test Mendel’s Law of Independent Assortment, the experimenter needs a minimum of two different genes and their two alleles.
True
A 1:1 phenotypic ratio is expected from a monohybrid testcross with complete dominance.
True
Mitotic crossing over is more frequent than meiotic crossing over.
False
Linkage (viewed from the result of typical crosses) always occurs when two loci are on the same chromosome.
False
Positive interference occurs when a crossover in one region of a chromosome interferes with crossovers in nearby regions.
True
In Drosophila, the frequency of crossing over in males is about equal to the frequency of crossing over in females.
False
If two gene loci are on nonhomologous chromosomes, genes at these loci are expected to assort independently.
True
In a bacterial cross where the donor (Hfr) is a+b+ and the recipient (F-) cell is a-b-; it is expected that recombinant bacteria will all be a+b+.
False
Cotransduction of genes is an indication that the genes are linked.
True
To produce recombinants in bacteria, one crossover is better than two.
False
A plaque is a substance that causes lysis of bacteria.
False
Lysogeny is most likely associated with transduction.
True
R plasmids often contain genes for antibody production.
False
The ‘interrupted mating technique’ provides for a genetic map in Drosophila.
False
Normally in humans, all the sons of a female homozygous for a sex linked recessive gene will inherit the trait.
True
Sex-influenced genes are those which cause males to be males and females to be females.
False
In Drosophila, sex is determined by the ratio of the number of X chromosomes to the number of haploid sets of autosomes.
True
An individual with Turner syndrome has one Barr body.
False
Dosage compensation is accomplished in humans by inactivation of the Y chromosome.
False
Nondisjunction is considered as a major cause of aneuploidy.
True
Familial Down syndrome can be caused by a translocation between chromosome 1 and 14.
False
A deletion may set up a genetic circumstance known as overdominance.
False
A pericentric inversion includes the centromere.
True
Assume that an organism has a diploid chromosome number of 14. There would be 56 chromosomes in a tetraploid.
False
A position effect occurs when a gene’s expression is altered by virtue of a change in the position. Position effects occur with inversions and translocations.
True
rDNA in eukaryotes is typically redundant.
True
Mitochondrial mutations are passed equally to offspring by both males and females.
False
It is safe to say that a maternal effect is caused by the genotype, not the phenotype, of the parent producing the egg.
True
tRNAs and rRNAs are known to be encoded by mitochondrial DNA.
True
In RNA, uracil is present instead of guanine (in DNA).
False
Chargaff’s rule states that A = T and G = C.
True
In DNA, strings of nucleotides are joined together by hydrogen bonds.
False
Cytosine, thymine and uracils are purines.
False
B-DNA is the most prevalent and stable DNA structure.
True
Heat or alkali can be used to denature DNA.
True
DNA replicates conservatively, which means that one of the two daughter double-helices is ‘old’ and the other one is ‘new’.
False
During replication, primase adds a short chain of DNA primer.
False
Replication of DNA occurs in the 5’ to 3’ direction; that is, new nucleoside triphosphates are added to the 3’ end.
True
A characteristic of the aging cells is that their telomeres become very short.
True
A nucleosome is a structure associated with the nuclear membrane and associated with cellular transport.
False
DNA gyrase is responsible for keeping the uncoiled strands apart.
False
Telomerase is an RNA containing enzyme that adds telomeric DNA sequences onto the ends of linear chromosomes.
True
Telomerase is an enzyme involved in the replication of the ends of eukaryotic chromosomes.
True
In contrast to euchromatin, heterochromatin contains more genes and is earlier replicating.
False
Viral genomes are always either double-stranded DNA or single-stranded RNA.
False
Polytene chromosomes are unique because they are composed of a large number of identical DNA strands.
True
Presence of heterochromatin is characteristic of prokaryotic chromosome.
False
To isolate a bacterium with a plasmid that carries a desired DNA fragment along with an ampicillin-resistance gene; we should grow the bacteria in a medium that contains ampicillin.
True
A common term for a plasmid or other DNA element that serves as a cloning vehicle is vector.
True
In a typical PCR, primers are used to cleave specific regions of the DNA template.
False
Some restriction endonucleases produce sticky ends, while others produce blunt ends.
True
In restriction mapping, map units are expressed as m.u.
False
mRNA is usually polycistronic in eukaryotes.
False
hnRNA is a primary transcript in eukaryotes that is processed prior to involvement in translation.
True
Transcription factors function to help move ribosomes along the mRNA.
False
RNA processing occurs when amino acids are removed from nascent proteins.
False
An intron is a section of an RNA that gets spliced out.
True
Proteins are composed of strings of nucleotides connected together by phosphodiester bonds.
False
rDNA is the portion of the genome that is involved in the production of ribosomal RNA.
True
The secondary structure of a protein is dependent on polar interactions among the side chains of the amino acids.
False
If the Kozak sequence is missing, initiator tRNA does not select that AUG codon to start initiation.
True
Fetal hemoglobin contains two alpha and two gamma chains.
True
Amino acids are divided into polar, nonpolar and neutral groups.
False
Tertiary structure of protein is stabilized by peptide bonds between cysteine residues.
False
Certain base-analogs such as 5-bromouracil cause mutations by chemically altering nitrogenous bases in non-replicating DNA.
False
The shorter the wavelength of a radiation source, the greater its likelihood of causing damage.
True
Acridin orange is an alkylating agent.
False
A missense mutation causes premature chain termination.
False
Strand discrimination during the process of DNA repair is based on DNA methylation in E.coli.
True
Postreplication repair is a system that responds after damaged DNA has escaped repair and failed to be completely replicated.
True
The genetic alteration found in muscular dystrophy is changes in the trinucleotide repeats.
False
CAP-cAMP binds to the CAP-binding site on the promoter and blocks the binding of RNA polymerase to transcribe the lac genes.
False
IPTG, like allolactose can bind to the lac repressor and induce transcription of the lac operon.
True
In an inducible operon, transcription is normally turned on and has to be repressed to shut off gene expression.
False
Like the lac repressor, the trp repressor has two binding sites; one that binds to the DNA at the operator site and another that binds to the activator, tryptophan.
True
If tryptophan is plenty, the ‘antiterminator hairpin’ is formed.
False
Ara operon is the repressible arabinose operon in E.coli.
False
Clusters of genes along with their regulatory elements are called operon, which is a single transcription unit.
True
A homeobox is a DNA sequence of about 180 bp that specifies a 60 amino acid homeodomain.
True
Alternative RNA splicing generates different mRNAs that start with different introns.
False
Transcription factories are specific nuclear sites where most of the RNP II mediated transcription occurs.
True
SWI/SNF complex helps in repositioning of the nucleosomes.
True
Heavily methylated DNA is associated with activation of transcription in vertebrates and plants.
False
Silencers are trans-acting elements that repress gene expression.
False
Zinc-finger is a type of DNA-binding domain.
True
The gene p53 is called guardian of the genome because it corrects mutations in the spindle apparatus before non-disjunction can occur.
False
In the familial form of retinoblastoma, one generally inherits a defective gene from one of the parents.
True
All the checkpoints in cell cycle are either in the S or G1 phase.
False
When referring to tumor-suppressor genes and cancer, loss of heterozygosity is likely to suppress cancer formation.
False
Any agent that causes damage to DNA is a potential carcinogen.
True
Given an inheritance pattern of incomplete dominance and 81 flowers being R1R1 (red), 18 flowers R1R2 (pink) and 1 flower R2R2 (white); the frequency of the R1 allele is 0.9.
True
In large random mating populations, genetic drift is usually a significant factor in changing gene frequencies.
False
Regarding the calculation of allele frequencies in a population with two alternative alleles, p+q=1.0.
True
Inbreeding increases homozygosity.
True
Selection against a recessive gene is more significant in changing gene frequencies than selection against a dominant gene.
False