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320 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
All personnel entering periods of duty > ____ must have a result of skin test in record.
|
30
|
|
5tu = __ml
|
.1
|
|
If reactors in one group of people are > ___ %, look for active case.
|
2.5%
|
|
An infected person has a __% lifetime chance of developing TB
|
5%
|
|
If the person returns after 3 days but less than 10 and the inderation is 0-14mm, make an entry of ____ ____
|
not read.
|
|
TB non-reactor is a person with < ___mm of induration to a 5tu TB skin test
|
5mm
|
|
Use disposable __ml syringe fitted with a ___ ga needle.
|
1ml, 25ga
|
|
If the person returns from 3-10 days and the inderation is __mm or more, treat the person as a reactor.
|
15
|
|
A reactor of equal to or greater than __mm gets INH therapy regardless of age.
|
10
|
|
In cases where TB is resistant to INH or Patient is allergic, use ______ at a ___mg dose
|
Rifampin, 600
|
|
If inderation measurement falls between 2m divisions of scale, use ___ region.
|
lower
|
|
INH dose = ___mg every day for __ months
|
300, 6
|
|
Measles
|
one dose
|
|
Pneumococcal polysacharide
|
1 dose
|
|
Cholera
|
0,6 months
|
|
Rabies
|
5 doses, 0,3,7,14,28 days
|
|
Typhoid Live
|
4 doses po on alternate days every 5 years
|
|
Plague
|
3 doses, 1ml at 0, .2ml at 1-3 months after, .2ml 3-6 months after second dose.
|
|
Polio IPV
|
one dose
|
|
Varicella
|
2 doses 0 and 4-8 weeks
|
|
Adenovirus
|
1 dose, po.
|
|
Yellow Fever
|
one dose every 10 years.
|
|
HBV(Hep B recombinant)
|
0,1,6 months
|
|
Mumps
|
one dose
|
|
Pnumococcal vaccine should be routinely given to personnel over age ____
|
65
|
|
Anthrax
|
0,2 week,4 week, 6 month, 12 months, 18 months.
|
|
Polio OPV
|
one dose .5ml po
|
|
Tetanus
|
Every 10 years
|
|
Haemophilus Influenza b
|
0, 2 months
|
|
JE Vaccine
|
0,7,30 days
|
|
Avoid pregnancy ____ months after varicella and ____ months after all other vaccines
|
1 month and three month
|
|
Typhoid (VICPS)
|
1 dose every 2 years
|
|
Typhoid Live
|
4 doses po on alternate days every 5 years
|
|
Adenovirus types 4 and 7
|
administered orally and simultaneously on a one time basis to recruits
|
|
What makes a reaction adverse?
|
Hospitilization is required or more than 24 hrs of duty is lost.
|
|
What does ACIP stand for?
|
U.S. Public Health Service Advisory COmmittee on Immunization Practices.
|
|
BUMEDINST 6230.15
|
Immunizations and Chemoprohylaxis
|
|
Recruits receive what shots?
|
-adenovirus types 4 and 7
-influenza -mmr -meningococcal -oral polio virus -tentanus-diptheria |
|
what prevention counseling is given about malaria
|
mosquito avoidance, personal protective measues and chemoprophylaxis
|
|
When deploying or traveling to high risk areas personnel may receive?
|
- JE vaccine
- meningococcal - typhoid |
|
Who grant immunization waivers for Navy and Marine Corps personnel?
|
Chief, BUMED
|
|
what kind of setting generate,transport,store,treat,or dispose of potentially infectious material
|
occupational
|
|
how do you package and handle anatomical waste
|
double-wall corrugated boxes/rigid containers that are double-lined with plastic bags
|
|
what is the method of treatment for microbiological
|
steam sterilization
chemical disinfectin incineration |
|
liquid or solid waste,sharps,microbiology waste, etc are what kind of waste
|
infectious waste
|
|
how do you handle sharp container
|
the container has to be closed and put in a sec container or bag which is label/color coded
|
|
waste from pt diagnosis, treatment, or immunization are subdivided into what two categories
|
infectious and non-infectious
|
|
for effective sterilization the temp must be maintained at
|
121c(250F) for 90 min at 15 psi
|
|
what is the method of treatment and disposal of bulk blood and other infectious liquid
|
gelatinization
sanitary sewer/landfill |
|
infectious waste treatment is achieved through what kind of destruction
|
incineration,heat,chemicals, radiation
|
|
the storage area for the waste should be located where
|
at or near the treatment or transport site
|
|
how do you separate infectious waste from noninfectious waste
|
at the point of orgin
|
|
BUMED INST 6280.1A
|
MANAGEMENT OF INFECTIOUS WASTE
|
|
what is the method of treatment and disposal of pathological
|
incineration /cremation
sanitary landfill/burial |
|
how long can you keep waste in storage without refrigeration
|
7 days
|
|
what is the method of disposal for microbiological
|
sanitary landfill
|
|
how do you handle blood, suctioned fluidsor other liquid waste
|
the waste may be decanted into clinical sinks unless it's prohibited by state or local regulations
|
|
what is the treatment and disposal of sharps in sharp containers
|
steam sterilization/incineration
sanitary landfill |
|
diapers,facial tissues,and absorbent materials are what kind of waste
|
noninfectious waste
|
|
Pathologicals can be disposed of by
|
- sanitary landfill
- burial |
|
Purpose of BUMEDINST 6280.1A
|
to provide minimal standards for management of infectious waste
|
|
Commanders, COs, and OICs ensure what?
|
that guidelines of BUMEDINST 6280.1A are adopted and that everything complies with state and local regulations
|
|
How often is training conducted on the management of infectious waste?
|
time of initial assignment and annual
|
|
Steam sterilization
|
-temp is set at 121 C / 250 F for 90 minutes, at 15 lbs per square inch
-bacillus stearothermophilis spore strips must be used weekly to test |
|
Chemical disinfection
|
- most appropriate for liquids
|
|
What should be included in the recording of infectious waste?
|
date, type, and amount
|
|
Can blood be washed down a sink?
|
Yes, but only a clinical sink or one used for that purpose
|
|
Who approves the purchase or leasing of an infectious waste treatment system?
|
BUMED
|
|
Define infectiosu waste
|
liquid or solid waste that contains pathogens
|
|
What should mark all infectious waste?
|
universal biohazard symbol
|
|
blood or bodily fluids can be disposed of by
|
gelatinization
|
|
WHO IS CONSIDERED NON DEPLOYABLE STAFF?
|
COMMANDER,DEPUTY COMMANDER,CMC,RLO,OIC AT BMC
|
|
WHAT IS T-AH?
|
USNS COMFORT OR USNS MERCY
|
|
HOW ARE EQUIPMENT SETS NAMED?
|
PRIOR TO DEPLOYMENT, EQUIPMENT SETS ARE NUMBERED, UPON ACTIVATION, THE FH ASSUMES THE NAME OF THE PRIMARY SOURCING COMMAND
|
|
HOW MANY FH'S ARE THERE?
|
10. SIX ACTIVE AND 4 RESERVED
|
|
LIST 5 PLATFORMS CURRENTLY USEDE IN ORDER OF PRIORITY
|
1.CRTS 2.MARFOR 3.T-AH 4.FH OCONUS MTF'S 5.OTHER ACTIVITIES (STAFF HQ,ASWBPL)
|
|
ARE FEMALES ALLOWED IN FH'S?
|
YES. DEPENDING ON THEIR BERTHING LIMITATIONS
|
|
HOW MANY COMPONENTS MAKE UP A DEPLOYED FH?
|
MANPOWER SET AND EQUIPMENT SET
|
|
WHAT IS CORE?
|
PERSONNEL DEEMED ESSENTIAL FOR CONTINUITY OF OPERATIONS. E.G. RECRUITING COMMANDS,TRAINING CENTERS,BLOOD DONOR CENTERS.
|
|
WHAT IS FH?
|
500 BED COMBAT ZONE FACILITIES
|
|
WHAT IS CRTS?
|
FORWARD DEPLOYED SURGICAL SUPPORT
|
|
WHAT IS MARFOR?
|
MEDICAL AUGMENTION SUPPORT ASSIGNED TO A MARDIV,MAW,OR FSSG. ONLY MALES ASSIGNED TO MARDIV.FEMALES MAY BE ASSIGNED TO FSSG,MAW
|
|
WHO ASSIGNS COMMANDING OFFICER OF USNS MERCY OR COMFORT?
|
NOMINATED BY CHIEF,BUMED
|
|
Infection Control function are addressed how often?
|
At least Quarterly.
|
|
What is an invasive procedure?
|
A surgical entry into the tissues, cavities organs or repair of major tramatic injuries.
|
|
What is Chemical disinfection?
|
The destruction or inhibition of most viruses and bacteria while in their growth phase.
|
|
What is a Biological Monitor?
|
Bacterial endospore test which assess whether sterlization has occured. Also known as biological indicator or biological spore test
|
|
Medical testing for HBV and HIV are at what intervals?
|
6 weeks, 12 weeks and 6 months.
|
|
What is the PPBS?
|
Planning, Programming and Budgeting system used to identify total resources required to meet Infection Control guidelines and those of OSHA and the EPA.
|
|
What is Barrier technique?
|
Use of fluid resistant materials to protect them from contamination. Rubber plastic, paper, foil.
|
|
Semicritical Items are?
|
Materials that frequently contact mucous membranes but cannot be sterlized due to their inability to withstand heat.
|
|
What is a Chemical indicator?
|
Chemical dyes used to determine whether sterlization has been met. Also know as 1. Chemical monitor 2. Dosage indicator 3. Process indicator.
|
|
Inital Infection control training is done?
|
within 90 days of reporting to a Command.
|
|
How long are infection control manuals maintained?
|
For at least three years.
|
|
What is Bioburden?
|
Number of Micro-organisms contaminating an object.
Also known as Bioload or Microbial load |
|
What are Engineering Controls?
|
Equipment or methods which remove bloodbore pathogens from the workplace.
|
|
Operating temperatures for the Prevacuum type Sterilizer are?
|
132-135 C.
|
|
Commmands must document infection control training with?
|
Names of persons attending and conduction. Dates and a summary of the contents of the training.
|
|
What is a Gravity Displacement type sterilizer?
|
A Sterilizer in which incoming steam displaces the residual air through a port or drain in or near the bottom of the sterilizer chamber.
|
|
What is a Unit Dose?
|
Quantity of materials or supplies required to treat a single patient.
|
|
Gravity Displacement Type Sterilizer.
30 minutes at? |
121-123 C (250-254 F)
15-17 lb per psi |
|
Gravity Displacement Type Sterilizer.
15 minutes at? |
132-135 C 270-274 F
30-32 psi. |
|
Non Critical Items are?
|
Materials that do not normally penetrate or contact mucous membranes but are exposed to splatter, spray or splashing of blood.
|
|
What is Sterile Sterility?
|
Free from all living micro organisms.
|
|
What is Saturated Steam Sterlization?
|
Steam heat under pressure for sufficient length of time to kill all forms of micro organisms
|
|
Critical Items are?
|
Materials that penetrate the skin, mucous membrane or bone.
|
|
What is BUMEDINST 6600.10A?
|
Dental Infection control Instruction.
|
|
Inital Infection control training is done how often after initial training?
|
Annually.
|
|
Asepsis is?
|
Process of preventing the access of micro-organisms
|
|
What is a Prevacuum type Sterilizer?
|
Sterilizer which relies on one or more pressure and vacuum excursions at the beginning or end of the cycle.
|
|
Who directs continous review and upgrade of the sterilization and infection control syllabus at the Naval School of Dental Assisting and technology (NSDAT) for dental "A" school?
|
BUMED (MED-54).
|
|
What is Dental Item Classification?
|
Dental Items are classified based on pathways through which cross contamination may occur and the location and technique of instrument use.
|
|
Dental Item are classified as?
|
Critical, Semi Critical and Non critical.
|
|
During the movement phase of amphibious operations who has overall responsibility
for HSS services to embarked personnel? |
the commander,
amphibious task force (CATF) |
|
When the tactical situation permits during combat operations, the
safest method of field disposal is _____ followed by burial ___ ft. |
burning
over 6 ft. |
|
Which platoon is the smallest, most mobile medical support platoon of
the medical battalion. |
Shock Trauma Platoon.
|
|
Who's mission is to provide integrated automation of the theater
medical environment. |
Theater Medical Information Program
(TMIP). |
|
Responsible
for coordinating and integrating HSS within their area of operations. |
Marine Corps forces (MARFOR) commanders.
|
|
What are the medical equipment and
supplies required to support the patient during evacuation |
Patient movement items.
|
|
Who provides
technical and specialized services in the field of disease vector surveillance and control, as well as providing vector control training to various agencies of the federal government. |
Navy Disease Vector Ecology and Control Centers
|
|
What is the means by which operating forces are brought
to wartime manning levels by personnel augmentation from CONUS-based activities. |
MAP Medical Augmentation Program.
|
|
Responsibility for
neutralization and disposal of clothing, equipment, and dressings removed during NBC decontamination processes resides with the command’s ______ |
NBC officer.
|
|
conducts
basic clinical and applied field research directly related to military requirements and operational needs. |
Naval Medical Research and Development Command
|
|
Who is responsible to the MEF commander
and MEF surgeon for coordinating preventive medicine efforts among the division, the wing, and the FSSG. |
Preventive Medicine Officer
|
|
Who advises the MAGTF Commander regarding medical and dental support
|
MAGTF Surgeon.
|
|
The medical batallion has ___ beds and __ operating rooms.
|
260,9
|
|
can quickly identify infectious
and biologic threats to the deployed force. |
Forward Deployed Laboratory
|
|
the process of selecting destination
MTFs with the necessary HSS capabilities for patients being medically evacuated |
Medical regulating
|
|
Institute provides research related
to immediate operational problems |
The Naval Medical Research Institute
|
|
Bas is normally divided into how many sections during the Assalt echelon
|
2
|
|
How many surgical companies does a FSSG have?
|
3
|
|
How many shock trauma platoons does a FSSG have?
|
8
|
|
AE missions are classified as _______ or ________ .
|
preplanned
immediate |
|
What are the three phases of medical support in an amphibious operation?
|
Assault Echelon
Assault follow on echelon Follow on forces. |
|
The medical batallion is made of of _ H&S company and _ surgical companies
|
1,3
|
|
Who manages the MAP?
|
BUMED
|
|
A MAW had how many aircraft groups?
|
4
|
|
The total T/E and AMALs/ADALs are designed to support a MEF in an estimated worst case scenario for a __day period of combat.
|
60
|
|
is responsible for funding AMALs/ADALs above the level prescribed by the Marine Corps order
4400 series. |
The authorizing commander.
|
|
All navy-marine corps personnel must have documented ____ in their health record
|
G6pd
|
|
Any person who is G-6-pd deficient has a risk of ______associated with taking primaquine.
|
Hemolysis
|
|
Blood donors treated for malaria in the past must wait ___ years from the date treatment was finished
|
3
|
|
Laboratory diagnosis is allowed by using
|
Giemsa's staining solution
|
|
Which mosquito carries malaria
|
Anopheles
|
|
The _____ ______ strain can quickly become fatal.
|
Plasmodium falciparum.
|
|
The _________ is a screening test for the presence of chloroquine in the urine.
|
Wilson-Edeson Test.
|
|
Disease alert report also known as
|
med 6220-3
|
|
______ & ________ can be used for the treatment of severe malaria.
|
Quinidine and Quinine.
|
|
Normally used for chemoprophylaxis in malaria.
|
Primaquine, chloroquine
|
|
All Disease Alert Reports are submitted by _____ message
|
Priority
|
|
Blood donors who visited malaria infested areas who were not treated for malaria must wait ____ to donate blood
|
6 months
|
|
Control of communicable Diseases in Man is also know as the ____
|
p-5038
|
|
The wilson-edeson test gives a ___% false negative
|
15
|
|
Used when parasites are resistant to Primapuine and chloroquine
|
Pyrimethamine-sulfadoxine (Fansidar)
|
|
Ideal drinking water temps are
|
50-60 degrees f
|
|
Transportable quick-response water purification system capable of aerating clarifying filtering and disinfecting contaminated water
|
ERDLATOR
|
|
Which chlorine agent is most preferred?
|
Calcium Hypohlirite, 65-70%
|
|
Personnel deployed for more than 6 months must submit their aar within ___ days
|
30
|
|
One urine trough is designed for every ___ people
|
100
|
|
Serious condition which may occur in as little as 24 hours in environments where the water is below 50 degrees
|
Immersion syndrome.
|
|
ROWPU gives ____ gallons of water per hour
|
600
|
|
Refrigerated space should be emptied and thoroughtly cleaned at least?
|
Once per week
|
|
Food that is held between 40 and 140 degrees will not be served if ___ hours have passed
|
4
|
|
Heat stroke, body temp is greater than
|
104
|
|
Latrines must be located ___ft from water, ___yds from food, ___ft from berthing areas.
|
100,100,50
|
|
The AAR After Action Report should be separated into three phases, what are they?
|
predeployment
deployment post-deployment |
|
One 4ft deep pit latrine is required for every __ people
|
50
|
|
Ground water must be at least ___ ft from sources of contamination.
|
100
|
|
Personnel deployed for less than 6 months must submit their aar within __ days
|
15
|
|
All food items are to be inspected by _____ at time of receipt?
|
FSO
|
|
Add ___ points to WBGT index for personnel wearing body armor.
|
10
|
|
Heat exhaustion body temp is less than
|
104
|
|
If hot water is not available, soak veges in ___ppm for ___ seconds
|
50,60
|
|
Straddel Trench Latrine serves ___ people
|
25
|
|
Who is ultimately responsible for the health and safety of their personnel?
|
Unit commander
|
|
The most common field purification system in use. Will produce potable water form all water sources but water must still be disinfected.
|
ROWPU
|
|
One soakage pit will service ___ people
|
200
|
|
White Flag
Green Flag Yellow Flag Black Flag |
<80
80-84 85-89 90-and above |
|
Temperature readings must be taken and logged at least
|
3 times a day
|
|
PERSONNEL ASSIGNED AS FOOD EMPLOYEE FOR LESS THAN 30 DAYS MUST RECEIVE ___ HOUR TRAINING?
|
2
|
|
WHAT TRAINING IS MANDATORY FOR FOOD EMPLOYEE?
|
4 HOUR FOOD SAFETY. MUST BE COMPLETED WITHIN 30 DAYS OF REPORTING TO NEW COMMAND
|
|
WHAT TRAINING IS MANDATORY FOR PERSON IN CHARGE?
|
18 HOUR FOOD SERVICE SANITATION/FOOD SAFETY TRAINING COURSE
|
|
WHAT IS THE SUPPO RESPONSIBLE FOR?
|
PROCUREMENT,RECEIPT,INSPECTION,STORAGE AND ISSUE OF FOOD ITEMS
|
|
WHAT CHAPTER OF THE P-5010 COVERS FOOD SAFETY?
|
CHAPTER ONE
|
|
IN CASE OF FOOD BORNE OUTBREAK, WHO INITIATES EPIDEMIOLOGIVCAL INVESTIGATION?
|
PMA-PREVENTIVE MEDICINE AUTHORITY
|
|
Can cheese with mold be used?
|
yes, after you remove 1/2 inch layer
|
|
What is the Temp that Milk should be received at?
|
45 degrees F
|
|
How many rings are you allowed to wear whil working in food service?
|
One, wedding band
|
|
What are some of the diseases that are prohibited while working with food?
|
Salmonella, Shigella, E Coli, Hepatitis A
|
|
Are the CS's allowed to serve frozen fish?
|
No
|
|
How must food be stored in the Food storage area?
|
6 inches up (8 on ship) and 4 in fron the wall
|
|
What is the measurment of acidity and alkalinity of a solution? 7 is neutral
|
PH Balance
|
|
What is Ware Washing?
|
Cleaning and sanatizing of food contact surfaces, equipment and utensils.
|
|
For nonactive duty records, when should the record be retired?
|
2 years of non movement
|
|
Records may be filed in alphabetical order be patient's last names in files housing of how many?
|
200 or fewer records
|
|
If a member was retired or separated prior to 31 January 1994, his/her medical and dental records were sent to _____.
|
National Personnel Records Center (NPRC)
|
|
What is the second group of the following SSN: 123-45-6789?
|
67
|
|
What are the three types of secondary records commonly used?
|
Convenience records, temporary records, and ancillary records
|
|
What would be the Family Member Prefix be for the third child?
|
03
|
|
What is the retirement year for record with the color of yellow?
|
2005,2011
|
|
What would be the Family Member Prefix be for foreign military personnel?
|
99
|
|
What is used to file Health records, outpatient, and inpatient records?
|
Terminal digit filing system (TDFS)
|
|
What is the primary group of the following SSN: 123-45-6789?
|
89
|
|
What are the three major catagories of primary records.
|
Health records, outpatient records, and inpatient records
|
|
What is the second group of the following SSN: 123-45-6789?
|
67
|
|
If a member was retired or separated after 31 January 1994, his/her medical and dental records were sent to _______
|
Department of Vetern Affairs (DVA)
|
|
Each Medical Treatment Facility or medical department must develop policies to ensure the record is __1____and the patient's __2___ is protected.
|
1. secure 2. privacy
|
|
What is the purpose of the medical record?
|
To provide an individual chronological record of medical treatment afforded members of naval service.
|
|
What color would a record be for SSN 123-45-6789?
|
Pink NAVMED 6150/28
|
|
The medical record is the property of the __ __________ and must be maintained by the MTF or DTF which has primary cognizance over the care of the patient.
|
U.S Government
|
|
What color would a record be for SSN 987-65-4321?
|
Yellow NAVMED 6150/22
|
|
What is the retirement year for record with the color of yellow?
|
2005,2011
|
|
What plays a critical role in the process of identifying unknown human remains?
|
Dental Radiology.
|
|
What are the bacis steps in Forensic Dental Identification?
|
1. Postmortem Examination and charting 2. Antemortem Record Acquisition and Record Reconstruction. 3. Ante and Postmortem record comparison.
|
|
What is the last and most important step in the Dental ID process?
|
Classification
|
|
What is an unreliable means of ID in a Medico-Legal death investigation?
|
Visual ID.
|
|
What is the software used in the role of Dental ID?
|
CAPMI Computer Assisted Postmortem Identification.
|
|
This type of Identification requires matching of Postmortem radiographs with raidographs that were taken befor death.
|
Identification of Skeletal Remains.
|
|
What materials used on teeth can with stand 1600 degrees F?
|
Gold Silver Amalgam Fused Porcelain Synthetic Porcelain Porcelain Dentures
|
|
What are the drawbacks to Visual ID?
|
In cases of Fire, Illness, Decomposition or Water Immersion.
|
|
What is an absolute inconsistency?
|
Differences between the ante and postmortem findings that are impossible and prove the remains cannot be those of the individual in question.
|
|
Of all the methods of ID, What type is best known?
|
FINGERPRINTS
|
|
Forensic Densitry is defined as?
|
The branch of forensic medcine that applies dental knowledge to civil and criminal problems.
|
|
How long is it be fore a person can be decleard legally dead?
|
7 years.
|
|
What is the most commonly used restorative material?
|
Silver Amalgam
|
|
What is the most common method of identification?
|
Visual.
|
|
What type of technology is fairly new, and may replace dental identification and fingerprint identification as the most definitive means of ID?
|
DNA Analysis OR DNA Fingerprinting.
|
|
What is a relative discrepancy
|
Differences between the ante and postmorten findings which can be explained by continued dental treatment.
|
|
What are the four categories in a radiographic comparison?
|
Exact Match Similarity Relative Discrepancy Absolute Inconsistency
|
|
Charting is done in?
|
Pen.
|
|
Areas of Forensic Dentristry?
|
Dental identification. 2. Bite mark analysis. 3. Human abuse and neglect. 4. Dental Malpractice and Negligence. 5.Dental Anthropology and Archaeology.
|
|
What is the purpose of Forensic Densistry?
|
1. Identification of Armed forces personnel as well as civilians. 2. Estate, Insurance, Legal, and Psychological considerations. 3. Manpower and Intelligence.
|
|
What are the five classifications used to establish Identity?
|
Positive ID Positive ID by Charting Only Consistent With Exclusion Unidentified.
|
|
How long does it take to expose a complete set of postmortem raidographs?
|
20 minutes
|
|
What are the two types of definitive posittive ID?
|
Fingerprints and Dental ID
|
|
Teeth can be destroyed by temperatures greater than?
|
1000 degrees F, unprotected by the teeth and lips.
|
|
What is routine dental care?
|
1.Dental examinations and advice on dental health.
2.Restoration of lost tooth structure. 3.Treatment of periodontal conditions. 4.Surgical procedures. 5.Replacement of missing teeth essential to personal appearance, the performance of military duty, or the proper mastication of food. |
|
What type of list is used for patients requiring extensive treatment?
|
Patient call list
|
|
Where is the Forensic Examination form located in
the NAVMED 6150/21-30? |
Inside back cover
|
|
Which of the phrase is written in the lower portion of the patient’s Identification box for Retired 0-7 and above personnel?
|
“FLAG/GENERAL OFFICER”
|
|
What can DENMIS do?
|
1. Dental Workload reports
2. Unit and individual operational dental readiness reports. 3. Provider Treatment Time reports 4. Patient and Unit Dental Treatment Needs reports 5. For class 3 or 4 pts that require operative or prophy, and so forth. |
|
What is the maximum time allowed for retention of loose treatment forms?
|
1 year
|
|
What forms are in the inside back cover of the dental record jacket?
|
IN ORDER:
1. NAVPERS 5510/1 2. Current status form 3. NAVMED 6600/12 4. EZ603A 5. OLD SF603s and 603As 6. SF 513 7. SF 502 8. SF 509 9. SF 515 10. SF 522 |
|
What forms are in the inside front cover of the dental record jacket?
|
1. unmounted radiographs in envelopes.
2. Seqential bitewing radiograph. 3. Panographic or full-mouth radiographs. |
|
Which program allows patients to voice and document how they are treated?
|
Patient Contact
|
|
The NAVMED 6600/3 is filed in which section of the NAVMED 6150/21-30?
|
Front of dental record jacket center page
|
|
Which NAVMED form is used to schedule dental appointments?
|
NAVMED 6600/5
|
|
What are the Priority Categories?
|
1A Members of the uniformed services on active duty.
1B Members of a Reserve Component of the Armed Forces and National Guard personnel. 2 Family member of active duty members of the uniformed services; family members of persons who died while in such a status. 3 Members of the Senior reserve Officers Training Corps. 4 Retired members of the uniformed services and their family members (including family members of deceased retired members.) 5 Civilian employees of the Federal Government. 6 All others. |
|
Dental Exam Forms and EZ 603s should be filed in which section of the NAVMED 6150/21-30?
|
Back of dental record jacket center page
|
|
The new Dental Record Jacket is which of the following NAVMED forms?
|
NAVMED 6150/21-30
|
|
When using the terminal digit filing system, how many equal sections are the central files divided into?
|
200
|
|
A patient without an SSN will have which of the following substitute SSN’s established.
|
EX: AUG 10 1945
800-08-1045 |
|
Where is the Disclosure Accounting Record located
in the NAVMED 6150/21-30? |
Back of center page
|
|
Sequential bitewing radiographs should be filed in
which section of the NAVMED 6150/21-30? |
Inside front cover of dental record jacket
|
|
Which of the following NAVMED Forms is the Health Record Receipt?
|
NAVMED 6150/7
|
|
The most current Dental Treatment Form, EZ603A is filed in which section of the NAVMED 6150/21-
30? |
Inside back cover of dental record jacket
|
|
What is emergency care?
|
This is treatment necessary to relieve pain, control bleeding, and manage acute septic conditions or injuries to the oral-facial structures.
|
|
Validated patient complaints and compliments are incorporated into which of the command’s annual assessments?
|
Quality Assurance
|
|
The dental computerized recall system uses a maximum of how many lists?
|
12
|
|
What is elective dental care?
|
Examples of elective dental are malocclusion,
orthodontics, replacing amalgam fillings with gold crowns, etc. |
|
The Request for a Medical/Dental Record
Information Form is Identified by which of the following DD numbers? |
DD 877
|
|
BUMED Instruction 6300.10 is divided into how many parts?
|
Three: Internal, External, and PT relations.
|
|
The Daily DIRS record is designed to give providers what type of a treatment record?
|
Daily
|
|
What color of record category tape is used?
|
Active Duty: Blue Resrve: Red amily memeber: Yellow Retired Green
All others: Black |
|
Where is the DD 2005, Privacy Act Statement located in the NAVMED 6150/21-30 (RECORD)?
|
Front of center page
|
|
Which NAVMED form is used as a dental appointment card?
|
NAVMED 6600/6
|
|
OPNAVINST 1752.1
|
Sexual Assault Victim Intervention
|
|
BUMEDINST 6320.70
|
Family Advocacy Program
|
|
BUMEDINST 6010.13
|
Quality Assurance Program
|
|
NAVMEDCOMINST 6320.18
|
CHAMPUS
|
|
BUMEDINST 6010.21
|
Risk Management Program
|
|
remain in one position in bed, difficulty breathing,
|
Position
|
|
Flushed, pale, cyanotic, hot, moist, clammy, cool, dry, redness, bruised, scarred, laccerated, scratched, perspiring profusely, infested with lice
|
Skin
|
|
Spinal Anesthesia is injected where
|
subarachnoid space of the spinal canal between the 3rd and 4th lumbar space (or between the 5th lumbar and 1st sacral space.
|
|
Begins moment patient is taken into operating room
|
Operative phase
|
|
What are the vitial signs for the 2nd Excitement phase
|
pinpoint to light, pulse irregular and fast, BP high
|
|
elements of the enviroment, such as noise
|
Physical barriers
|
|
what happens during depression
|
Not only are patients upset of their own personal loss but start to get affairs in order for family
|
|
5 stages of death
|
denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance
|
|
What are the vital signs for 1st Induction phase of consciousness?
|
Usual size pupil and Reactive to light, pulse irregular, BP normal
|
|
What stage is the stage of excitement, to include muscular activity and delirium, vital signs show stimulation, pt may respond violently
|
Stage 2
|
|
one's inaccurate perception of self or others
|
Psychosocial barrier
|
|
Dorsal Recumbent
|
used for heriorrhaphy
|
|
Pt must be in the best possible Psychological , spriitual, and phsysical condition
|
Pre op phase
|
|
Begins moment patient is taken into operating room
|
Operative phase
|
|
What type of block is injected into the dural sac at the 3rd and 4th lumbar space and what does it block
|
Saddle block to the perineal area of body
|
|
How long does a leg cast typically take to dry
|
24-48 hrs
|
|
What are the procedures for a long arm cast?
|
Elbow maintained in a 90 degree position and same as short arm cast
|
|
What happens during bargaining
|
people revert to a culturally reinforced concept that good behavior is rewarded, "I'd do anything if I could just turn this around"
|
|
Regional anethesia - types of
|
Topical, Local, Nerve, Spinal, Epidural, Saddle, Cuadal
|
|
What type of block is injected into the sacral canal and what does it block?
|
Cuadal block, and the umbilicus to the toes
|
|
What stage of anestheisa is the toxic or danger stage?
|
4th stage
|
|
Observations that are made by you, symptoms
|
O-Objective
|
|
May include labs or rad tests, meds, consults, patient disposition
|
P-Plan
|
|
Sensory Dysfunciont, to include hearing and speech impairments, and vision
|
Physiological Barriers
|
|
A patient that has the right to be advised in nonclinical terms of information needed to make knowledgeable decisions to constent or refuse tx.
|
Informed Consent
|
|
What stage of anesthesia is referred to as the stage of induciton or analgesia?
|
Stage 1
|
|
what are 2 ways to remove a cast
|
soaking in warm vinegar and water or cutting
|
|
The word that means - custom or practice; a set of rules or a body of principles
|
Ethics
|
|
What stage is the operative stage, to include the anesthesiologist to determine what planes that fits the procedure
|
Stage 3
|
|
Lithotomy
|
position used for vaginal hysterectomy
|
|
the diagnosis of patient's condition
|
A-Assessment
|
|
Consists of observations, Patient verbally gives these to you
|
S- Subjective
|
|
What are v.s. for 3rd operative phase?
|
pupils beginning to dilate, pulse steady and slow, BP normal
|
|
Is pt short, tall thin, well-groomed, in apparent pain,
|
General Appearance
|
|
How is a short arm cast applied?
|
3 layers of webril, make sure each layer overlaps, Dip plaster of paris into water for 5 seconds, Wrap plaster in spiral motion, overlapping by 1/3 Repeat until thick enough to provide support(4-5 layers)
|
|
appears worried, nervous, excited, depressed, refuse to talk, sleep well, lisp, stutter, sullen, bored
|
Behavior
|
|
Because this tissue is continuous throughout the body, if an infection were allowed to spread, it could reach every area of the body by moving through which of the following tissues?
|
Areolar
|
|
The valves of the heart include all of the following
|
mitral
Tricuspid atrial |
|
The head of the humerus is called the
|
glenoid fossa
|
|
What is the approximate total capacity of the adult bladder?
|
600 ml
|
|
The ability of muscles to regain their original form when stretched is known as
|
elasticity
|
|
Calcium levels in the blood are controlled by which of the following hormones?
|
Parathormone
|
|
Transmits sensation of taste
|
Facial
|
|
The venous system that carries digested materials from the intestinal tract is called the
|
abdominal
|
|
In addition to preventing excessive blood loss, the formation of a blood clot serves which, if any, of the following purposes?
|
To form the foundation for new tissue growth
|
|
Balance, coordination of movement, and harmony of motion are functions of what part of the brain?
|
Cerebellum
|
|
Actin and myosin are the two protein substances involved in
|
muscle contraction
|
|
In what part of the body is cerebral spinal fluid produced?
|
Ventricles of the brain
|
|
Which of the following are the two most prominent mineral elements of bone?
|
Ossein and calcium
|