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359 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
what does the acronym AVMA stand for
|
American veterinary medical association
|
|
who is considered the father of veterinary technology
|
Walter collins
|
|
who is NAVTA
|
national organization for vet techs
|
|
the CVMA is an accrediting body for veterinary technician programs in which country
|
canada
|
|
who is responsible for accreditation of vet tech programs in the United states
|
AVMA
|
|
what are the three things a vet tech cannot do in the veterinary hospital
|
diagnose disease, prescribe medicine, and perform surgical procedures
|
|
according to the U.S. bureau of labor statistics, the options for the veterinary technician in the work force are
|
increasing
|
|
the ultimate responsibility for all activities in the veterinary hospital belongs to the
|
veterinarian
|
|
what is the name of the national board examination given to vet techs
|
veterinary technician national exam
|
|
NCVEI established a website for veterinary technician employers to
|
Guide the management in the use of vet techs
|
|
is the committee of the AVMA that accredits veterinary technician programs
|
CVTEA
|
|
is the committee of the CVMA that accredits veterinary technician programs
|
AHT/ VT PAC
|
|
the CVTEA has essential criteria for accreditation
|
11
|
|
why are essential tasks required for accredited programs
|
to ensure a cohesive educational experience
|
|
the national examination for vet techs is developed by the and
|
PES; AAVBS
|
|
the national examination consists of questions with hours for completion
|
200; 4
|
|
veterinary technician can perform which of the following
|
surgical assisting
|
|
it is important for the veterinary technician to be cross trained, that means
|
learning all aspects of the hospital
|
|
graduate veterinary technician are skilled in radiology. this does not include
|
calibrating the machine
|
|
which is not a type of protective equipment for radiology
|
barium sulfate
|
|
the treatment room is typically not used for
|
laboratory testing
|
|
the vet tech is responsible for performing which two primary task during dentistry
|
monitoring anesthesia, cleaning and polishing teeth
|
|
the operating room technician can also be called the
|
circulating nurse
|
|
one of the most important duties for the vet tech in surgery is
|
administering anesthesia
|
|
the vet tech is responsible for and the level of patient pain
|
monitoring; assessing
|
|
an effective veterinary hospital depends on
|
dedication of the support staff and professionals
|
|
the acronym for ECFVG means
|
educational commission of forfeit veterinary graduates
|
|
the order for establishing a vet tech specialty group is
|
shared interest, establishment of an association, petition, and examination
|
|
the acronym for veterinary technician specialty group is
|
VTS
|
|
a vet tech who holds a bachelor of science degree from a 4 year, AVMA accredited college is considered a
|
veterinary technologist
|
|
in canada, the veterinary technologist a veterinary technician in the United states
|
is equivalent to
|
|
most vet assistants are
|
trained on the job
|
|
in europe, vet techs are called
|
veterinary nurses
|
|
ATLAS and CALAS are organizations which certify
|
lab animal technicians
|
|
the professional manner of a vet tech is initially based on
|
appearance
|
|
uniforms must be
|
cleaned, pressed, and fit well
|
|
it is essential to have a for a patient assessment
|
watch with a second hand
|
|
which statement is true
|
confidentiality about clients and co-workers must be maintained at all times
|
|
one trait for positive personal relations is tact, it means
|
doing and saying the right thing at the right time
|
|
what is a common form of written communication today
|
e-mail
|
|
any form of correct written communication should have
|
a salutation, correct grammar, closing statement, and signature
|
|
which item is not an indication of a professional letter
|
lined copy paper
|
|
the letter that accompanies a resume is most commonly known as a
|
cover letter
|
|
which closing is not acceptable for the letter that accompanies the resume
|
sincerely yours
|
|
it is important to dress in for a initial job interview
|
dress clothes
|
|
the best way to be less nervous during an interview is to
|
practice interviewing skills
|
|
the three phases of general adaptation syndrome are
|
alarm reaction, autonomic phase, and phase of exhaustion
|
|
common psychological response to stress are
|
anxiety, depression, and anger
|
|
which personality type suffers most from "hurry sickness"
|
type A
|
|
change in behavior, missing prescription or medicines, poor judgment, unexplained absences are most common signs of
|
substance abuse
|
|
which occupation is not governed by the states
|
USDA inspector
|
|
the judgement of the has the most impact on what a veterinary technician can and cannot do on the job in states where there are no laws to guide the professional actions of veterinary technician
|
supervising veterinarian
|
|
the laws that govern the practice of veterinary medicine and the legal roles of veterinary technicians are outlined in the document called the
|
practice act
|
|
the administrative body that regulates the practice of veterinary medicine and technology is presided over at which level of government
|
state
|
|
a veterinary technician who is the subject of a formal complaint of unethical conduct in a state that licenses technicians will be investigated by which agency
|
state boards of veterinary medicine
|
|
specialty boards of veterinary technician are associated with
|
NAVTA
|
|
NAVTA recognizes veterinary technician specialists in which genre
|
all of the above
|
|
which is not a full-scale academy of veterinary technology
|
AAEVT
|
|
VTS stands for
|
veterinary technician specialist
|
|
a veterinary technologist holds which college degree
|
bachelor's
|
|
the most common technician nomenclature does not include
|
approved
|
|
the person most often responsible for the injurious actions for a veterinary technician is the
|
supervising veterinarian
|
|
most states require which qualifications for entry into the practice of veterinary technology
|
national boards and graduation from an AVMA accredited program
|
|
which citation does not need to be reported on an application for licensure as a vet tech
|
speeding
|
|
which is not a crime of moral turpitude
|
driving under the influence of alcohol
|
|
which is not a crime of depravity
|
embezzlement
|
|
the difference between laws and regulations is
|
laws are enacted; regulations are promulgated
|
|
describe/prohibit specific required conduct and mandate general conduct
|
regulations, laws
|
|
information not commonly required on an application for vet tech licensure includes
|
VTNE passing grade
|
|
is required for professional licensure renewal by most states
|
continuing education
|
|
RACE is an acronym for which association
|
registry of continuing education
|
|
AAVSB is an acronym for which association
|
American association of veterinary state boards
|
|
common disciplinary sanctions for veterinary technician does not include
|
prison terms
|
|
a notice of disciplinary action is not delivered by
|
local police department
|
|
the licensee to be represented by an attorney at a disciplinary hearing
|
is not required
|
|
disciplinary hearing are
|
public records
|
|
the most severe sanction the board can give is
|
revocation
|
|
permanently prohibits the sanctioned individual from practicing the profession
|
revocation
|
|
sanctioned limits on the practice of a veterinary technician called
|
probation
|
|
public censure of a licensee without attendant suspension or probation is
|
reprimand
|
|
technical violations do not include
|
completion of continuing education
|
|
is the telling of information that is not accurate
|
misrepresentation
|
|
the practice of veterinary medicine by an unlicensed individual will result in
|
sanctions and or imprisonment
|
|
malpractice or professional negligence by a veterinary practitioner is best defined by which description
|
failure to provide care equivalent to that provided by individuals under similar circumstances
|
|
in most states, veterinary technician can
|
administer anesthesia
|
|
a technician know the task he/she can perform under the state's licensing laws
|
must
|
|
conduct refers to conduct that disparages the profession in the eyes of the public
|
unprofessional
|
|
the usually remedy in a tort action is
|
monetary compensation
|
|
the usual remedy for malpractice is
|
disciplinary sanctions
|
|
refers to conduct that increases the risk that negligence will occur
|
incompetence
|
|
is defined as "concerning good and bad, right and wrong, with moral duty and obligations"
|
ethics
|
|
the overriding purpose of the veterinary board and practice act is
|
protecting the public
|
|
veterinary technicians should consider the NAVTA guidelines set forth by the
|
code of ethics
|
|
if the technician is unsure of the practice act and regulations, he/she should
|
write the veterinary state board
|
|
why are ethics issues difficult to address
|
recommendations by the veterinary staff may not be followed by the client
|
|
is best defined as the actions necessary to relieve pain or suffering necessary to sustain life
|
emergency
|
|
is defined as "a licensed veterinarian is within direct eye sight and hearing range"
|
immediate supervision
|
|
is defined as "a licensed veterinarian is not on the premises, but maintains constant communication"
|
indirect supervision
|
|
according to the textbook, which state veterinary boards do not license or register technicians
|
Hawaii, utah, and florida
|
|
the design of a veterinary facility will vary depending on
|
needs of clients and species served
|
|
a mixed practice means
|
all species
|
|
general practitioner means
|
offering primary care level services
|
|
has extensive standards of excellence for the management of veterinary hospitals
|
AAHA
|
|
one primary factor in attracting new clients is
|
location
|
|
parking for employees should be the building
|
behind
|
|
deliveries of veterinary supplies should be made
|
away from client contact
|
|
which is not specific division of activity within the hospital
|
admissions
|
|
is composed of reception, examination rooms, labs, pharmacy, and rest rooms
|
outpatient
|
|
the reception area should be considered the by employees
|
the clients greeting room
|
|
which will not create positive feelings for clients
|
bright colors
|
|
as a rule, examination rooms should be available for each veterinarian
|
two
|
|
OSHA stands for
|
occupational safety and health administration
|
|
is composed of the treatment area, patient ward, isolation area, exercise area, and necropsy area
|
inpatient
|
|
the highest priority for hospital staff is
|
animal security
|
|
a refrigerator in the wards room with biologic specimens cannot store
|
human food or drink
|
|
in the large animal hospital, cannot be fed to animals because of toxicity
|
moldy hay
|
|
patient discharged should not be
|
dirty and wet
|
|
clipping and scrubbing of a surgical patient should be done entering the surgical suite
|
before
|
|
the operating room should have entrances
|
one
|
|
intense cleaning of the surgical suite should be done once a
|
day
|
|
which piece of equipment is not necessary for radiology
|
lead - lined boots
|
|
area contains the professional offices, library, employee lounge, and storage
|
support
|
|
what percentage of veterinary practices is equine related
|
4%
|
|
some large - animal veterinary hospitals have animals brought to the practice. this is called
|
haul - in facility
|
|
in a mixed practice of large and small animals, treatment areas are typically
|
separate
|
|
clients often initially evaluate the level of patient care by the
|
appearance of the building and grounds
|
|
an old saying for new graduate's is % cleanup and %medical practice
|
90/10
|
|
duties of the including hiring, inventory, finances and office protocols
|
practice manager
|
|
ward staff needs which training to complete their duties
|
on-the-job training
|
|
is also called the client relations specialist
|
receptionist
|
|
regardless the hospital setting, all personnel should have
|
job description
|
|
which is not recommendation for hiring a new employee after the initial interview
|
material status
|
|
which question is unlawful to ask during a job interview
|
national origin
|
|
an initial interview should be limited to
|
30 minutes
|
|
the most difficult task of inventory control is
|
over or under stocking
|
|
inventory is the largest expense of a veterinary hospital
|
second
|
|
controlled drugs are regulated by the
|
DEA
|
|
the most important person in nay practice is
|
the client
|
|
general office procedure knowledge is required by
|
all staff
|
|
veterinary practices should set fees according to
|
cost and delivery of services
|
|
the overhead, indirect costs of the veterinary practice do not include
|
expendables
|
|
fees are divided into which two categories
|
shopped and non shopped
|
|
which fee is the most competitive
|
shopped
|
|
the best payment form for hospitals is
|
cash
|
|
collection of % of the initial payment of estimated expenses based on the treatment plan is
|
50
|
|
a fee slip should have how many serial numbered copies attached
|
3
|
|
fee slips can reduce or eliminate
|
embezzlement
|
|
for a good client communication, the telephone should be answered by the ring
|
third
|
|
about % of all communication is verbal and % is body language
|
40/60
|
|
in instances when a client appears unreasonable, indicate that they should speak with the
|
veterinarian
|
|
the best response to a difficult client who appears to be under the influence of drugs or alcohol is
|
call the law enforcement
|
|
only a small portion of marketing is
|
advertising
|
|
in regards to marketing, the most important question the veterinarian can ask is
|
"what business am I in"
|
|
marketing can be divided into which categories
|
internal and external
|
|
a successful campaign for marketing and an expectation of client's is
|
annual reminder cards
|
|
a personal marketing approach that has a positive effect on client perception is
|
sympathy and thank you cards
|
|
which is the least effective form of communicating veterinary practice services
|
telephone soliciting
|
|
the veterinary technician must choose a practice in which the veterinarian delegates
|
billable technical hours
|
|
"how to market yourself" is an excellent resource for technicians provided by whom
|
IAMS
|
|
medical records have and purpose
|
primary and secondary
|
|
legal issues, research, and medical business information are all medical purposes
|
secondary
|
|
prevents confusion of patient and client identities
|
medical records
|
|
diagnosis, prognosis, and treatment are all medical purposes
|
primary
|
|
which is not a purpose of medical records
|
assess client physical abilities
|
|
according to the law, information in medical records is viewed as
|
not recorded, not done
|
|
to maintain confidentiality, is removed from records before they are used for teaching
|
patient markers
|
|
currently, veterinary hospital information is more efficiently managed as a result of the use of
|
computers
|
|
a majority of veterinary practices use which popular letter - sized folders for medical records
|
8 × 10
|
|
the popular - size folders have tabs where
|
edge of one end of the folder
|
|
letter - size folders are typically stored
|
vertically
|
|
a card file system typically uses which size cards
|
5×8
|
|
card files are typically stored where
|
file drawers
|
|
patient information recorded on the card file typically entered in order
|
reverse chronological
|
|
AAHA requires which size folders for accreditation
|
8×10
|
|
farm animals veterinarians typically use for records as they travel from farm to farm
|
carbonized invoice sheets
|
|
farm animal veterinarians keep immunization records on large number of animals
|
combined herd
|
|
SOMR is an acronym for
|
source - oriented medical record
|
|
POMR is an acronym for
|
problem - oriented medical record
|
|
in a SOMR, the information is added how
|
chronologically
|
|
entries in the SOMR are made in which integrates information as it comes to mind
|
free form
|
|
the major drawback of SOMR documentation is
|
lacks details
|
|
POVMR fosters communication and retrieval of information
|
excellent and rapid
|
|
is the term used for patient information recorded in a patient record
|
signalment
|
|
patient previous history does not include
|
current medications
|
|
WNL is an acronym for
|
within normal limits
|
|
in the POVMR, the patient information, physical examination, and diagnostic test are collectively known as
|
database
|
|
serves as a snapshot overview of the patient's medical history
|
master problem list
|
|
helps the clinician to list clinical signs as they become apparent without offering a specific diagnosis
|
working problem list
|
|
ongoing management of the veterinary patient is documented in notes
|
progress
|
|
the S and O in SOAP refers to
|
subjective and objective
|
|
the A and P in SOAP refers to
|
assessment and plan
|
|
in private practice, the technician often completes which part of the SOAP process
|
S and O
|
|
the physiologic, measurable data is referred to as the in the SOAP process
|
O
|
|
in the medical records, are imperative as handwriting alone may not be adequate in a court of law in identifying the author
|
initials
|
|
which is the compilation of the lab data collected from an animal
|
diagnostic flow sheet
|
|
the completed authorization form that provides the veterinary practice with legal evidence that the owner was informed of important information and agreed to purse that action is
|
doctrine of informed consent
|
|
the forms from authorization for surgery, necropsy, and euthanasia are called
|
consent
|
|
which is not a log typically kept in a veterinary office
|
cleaning and office supplies
|
|
which log is helpful for technicians who wish to improve exposure techniques
|
radiology
|
|
which controlled drug category is the most addictive
|
schedule I
|
|
the controlled drug log must have pages that
|
cannot be easily removed
|
|
all controlled drug logs must be kept for a minimum of years
|
2
|
|
there are two types of folder systems, they are
|
alphabetical and numerical
|
|
the general medical records are typically owned by the
|
veterinary hospital owner
|
|
data in a medical record must not be
|
erased or scratched out
|
|
VMDB is an acronym for
|
veterinary medical database
|
|
by law, controlled drugs must be inventoried how often
|
every two years
|
|
for which procedure is a consent form needed
|
euthanasia
|
|
ethically, information in a patient chart is
|
confidential
|
|
OSHA is an acronym for
|
occupational safety and health administration
|
|
OSHA enforces which laws that ensures worker's safety
|
federal
|
|
if a safety complaint is not adequately addressed, the proper procedure is to
|
contact the regional OSHA office
|
|
if the practice employs more than employees, you have the right to review OSHA form 3A
|
10
|
|
employees must comply with OSHA standards and rules and regulations under the
|
occupational safety and health act
|
|
in the event of an OSHA inspector, the has the right to be present
|
owner of the practice
|
|
the practice should have a collection of written safety policies called the
|
hospital safety manual
|
|
for safety, two people are required to lift patients weighing more than lbs.
|
40
|
|
the rules for preventing injury when lifting is
|
keep your back straight and lift with your legs
|
|
refigerated food, drinks, and snacks for human consumption are stored the vaccines
|
away from
|
|
when working with equipment with moving parts, which is most dangerous
|
loose clothing and jewerly
|
|
which is not a hazard in the veterinary office
|
curling irons
|
|
when storing flammable materials, place them no closer than to an ignition source
|
3 feet
|
|
emergency exits should be
|
unlocked and unobstructed
|
|
in the event of a fire, which is not the technician's responsibility
|
rescue all patients from the building
|
|
this law requires that staff be informed of all chemical exposures in the practice; this is known as the
|
right to know
|
|
bottles must be labeled and identified with OSHA labels
|
secondary
|
|
the manufacturer of a product that contains hazardous chemicals will send an MSDS for the product to the hospital. what does MSDS stand for
|
material safety data sheet
|
|
the MSDS will not contain information for the product
|
cost
|
|
ethylene oxide (EtO) is commonly used for
|
sterilizing rubber products
|
|
formalin is most commonly used for in the veterinary hospital
|
tissue biopsy
|
|
cold sterilization uses which potent chemical
|
glutaraldehyde
|
|
the most common types of injury to veterinary technicians are
|
animal related
|
|
if working in noisy areas of the hospital for any length of time, is required
|
ear plugs or muffs
|
|
when bathing an animal, which piece of equipment is least important to wear
|
sneakers
|
|
disease that can be transmitted from animal to human are called
|
zoonotic
|
|
rabies is an disease
|
viral
|
|
rabies is not typically found in which species
|
rats
|
|
which listed pathogen does not cause bacterial infection
|
microsporum
|
|
which disease is characterized by joint pain, fever, and flulike symptoms in humans after the bite of a deer tick
|
lyme
|
|
which two species are most susceptible to microsporum
|
cats an horses
|
|
which parasite appears as subcutaneous red lines in regions where the parasite larva has burrowed
|
hookworms
|
|
which parasite typically occurs in regions where ther is tight clothing
|
mites
|
|
cat litter pans and gardening are source for which potozoan
|
toxoplasma
|
|
what nonzoonotic entity is most likely to cause pinkeye or conjunctivitis in technicians
|
chylamydia
|
|
animal dental procedures can aerosolize which common pathogen that is linked to cardiac and pulmonary problems in humans
|
pasterurella
|
|
skin changes, cell damage, and gastrointestinal disorders have been linked to exposure to radiation
|
long term
|
|
the technician must be careful not to allow any part of the body to enter the xray beam as it can cause a high dose of radiation
|
primary
|
|
portable xray machines generally require exposure times to produce images
|
longer
|
|
the radiation dosimeter badge is worn on the of the for maximum measurement
|
outside, collar of the lead lined apron
|
|
radiographic processing chemicals caustic to tissue
|
are
|
|
liquid drain cleaners and developing chemicals can cause reactions
|
exothermic
|
|
anesthetic agents that are not metabolized by the patient are called
|
waste anesthetic gases
|
|
carbon dioxide absorbent is used in
|
anesthesia machine
|
|
compressed gas must be in a postion
|
chained and upright
|
|
which is not a recommended disposal of needles and syringes
|
discard in regular trash containers
|
|
cancer patients are treated with CDs. define CDs
|
cytotoxic drugs
|
|
when disposing of a syringe and needle, remove the needle first and destroy by cutting the syringe
|
never, never
|
|
an owner tells you that he can tell his dog penny knows she's done a bad thing because the dog looks so guilty when her owner discovers she's made a mess. penny's guilty behavior is really
|
submissive behavior
|
|
shutting a particular door is way to minimize inappropriate behavior by
|
managing the pet's environment
|
|
accusing a pet of being vindictive, spiteful, jealous, or rebellious is considered a explanation for unrealistic expectations
|
anthropomorphic
|
|
the process by which an animal develops appropriate social behaviors toward members of its own and other species is called
|
socialization
|
|
owners should use negatice punishment when their
|
dog will not release a toy for the owner to throw
|
|
to prevent or minimize inappropriate behavior by a pet, the owners must
|
use crate training with the puppy
|
|
appropriate crate training includes
|
acclimating the dogs very slowly to the crate
|
|
delivering punishment within a few seconds after a behavior events refers to of punishment
|
immediacy
|
|
which of the following represents an exapmle of appropriate remote training
|
handheld noisemakers
|
|
during a visit, a pet might be placed on a scale, given a tidbit, and subjected to brief handling procedures to help it feel comfortable in the clinic environment and make its next visit a more pleasant experience
|
initial
|
|
a behavior is one an animal performs, or stops performing, after learning to associate it with a specific consequence
|
operant
|
|
the appropriate response if a dog jumps up on you is to
|
turn away and move out of its reach
|
|
habituating a cat to a carrier
|
involves having the open carrier always available somewhere in the house
|
|
a househould bringing home a brand new cat should
|
confine it to one room for several days
|
|
when introducing a new cat into a household that already has a pet or pets
|
have it sleep on a towel that has been rubbed on the face and tail of one of the other animals
|
|
which of the following is not a part of the five step positive proaction plan
|
avoid negative punishment to discourage inappropriate behavoir
|
|
the impetus for animal's behavior is most likely based on
|
whether or not a previous action made the animal feel good or bad
|
|
contingency refers to
|
the predictability of an association
|
|
classical conditioning is the same thing as
|
pavlovain conditioning
|
|
counterconditioning involves
|
substituting an alternative emotional response or behavior that is incompatible with the problem behavior or emotional response you are trying to eliminate
|
|
a horse's eyes
|
have two blind spots, one directly behind the animal and one directly below the nose
|
|
an alarmed horse will
|
lower its ears, with the aural canal opening directed outward
|
|
the most common vocalization between mares and foals who are separated is the
|
whinny
|
|
a horse that extends its head, rotates its ears to the side, and everts its upper lip is displaying
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the flehmen response
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stroking the has been shown to reduce the heart rate in a horse
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withers
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conspecific describes members of
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the same species
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compared with sheep, goats are
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more overt in showing aggressive behavior in order to establish a hierarchy
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a cow that stands sideways with its head held low and perpendicular to the ground and with its feet drawn well under its body is
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threatening aggression
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hosuing a social animal singly or frequently moving them to new places
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can become a predispoding factor to a variety of behavior problems for the domestic horse
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a good reason for using psychotropic medications in animals is to
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prevent suffering from severe anxiety or phobias
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in dogs, the socialization period
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comes after the transition period
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which of the following is true about a dog's normal social behavoir
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dogs' roles as dominant or subordinate may change between individuals, depending on what is happening
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a cat who appears to like being petted but then suddenly turns and snaps at the person petting it is displaying
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irritable aggression that is thought to be normal
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according to multiple studies, the leading cause of death for pets in the united states likely is
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behavior problems
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a veterinary technician has the responsibility to support a pet's health by doing which of the following
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all of the above
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a good rule to follow when restraining animals for veterinary care is
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apply the minimum effective amount of restraint that will keep the animal and personnel safe
|
|
will pin their ears back when upset or aggressive, while the will prick its ears forward
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horse, llama, cat and dog
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concerning the punishment of dog by hanging it or shaking it by the scruff of the neck, which statement is most accurate
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this method of punishment should never be used because of the risk of injury to the dog
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an otherwise docile female animal is most likely to become aggresive toward her human handler when the handler
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appears to be a threat to her suckling young
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which type of aggression rarely poses a risk to veterinary hospital personnel during their workday
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predatory aggression
|
|
the most commonly encountered type of attack in veterinary facilities is
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canine fear biting
|
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the most dangerous animal of all the species that veterinary personnel are asked to restrain is the
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dairy breed bull
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a duck hunter brings duke, his intact, adult, male, 100lb labrador retriever, in for a heartworm test. he has trained and worked closely with duke since the dog was 6 weeks old. you take the otherwise docile dog back to the treatment room, where he suddenly begins to growl, glare, and resist restraint. he will not allow you to place a muzzle. what action will most likely result in the most rapid, safe, and successful sample collection
|
bring the hunter into the treatment room; duke will probably calm down in the presence of his owner and trainer
|
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horse display aggression by
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biting
|
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a fight between two large pigs is usually handled by
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placing a solid pannel of plywood between them
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the best way to approach a horse is
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slowly and from the front and left side
|
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you are standing alongside the withers of a stalled horse attempting to place a rope around its neck. the best action to take if the horse moves away from you is to
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attempt to stay with the horse by moving along side and holding onto the mane
|
|
a foal is best restrained by
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placing one arm under the foal's neck and one hand grasping the base of the tail
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the position of a chaing lead attached to halter that will control most horses without being to sever is
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over the nose
|
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concerning tying a horse, which statement is most accurate
|
tie a horse to an object at it should level or higher
|
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which method is acceptable for the restraint of a haltered horse that will not stand still for a minor procedure or examination
|
grabbing the skin of the neck just cranial to the should and rolling it around the clenched fist
|
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when a lifted foreleg is used as a means of equine restraint, the person holding the leg should
|
rotate and face forward with both hands supporting the foreleg
|
|
the first thing that should be done after leading a horse into a stocks is
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close and latch the rear gate
|
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before performing an obstetric procedure, the clinician wraps a mare's tail up in gauze, ties a quick release knot just below the fleshy portion, and runs off to answer her cellular phone. she calls to you to tie the tail up out of the way while she's gone. you should
|
tie the free end of gauze around the neck of the horse
|
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which statement regarding chemical restraint of the equine is true
|
a new anesthetized colt should be slapped before beginning castration to ensure he won't be aroused by the initial incision
|
|
whih technique can be used to move cattle down an alleyway
|
tailing
|
|
is often found at the end of a series of pens and alleyways and is the final capture and restraining device for cattle
|
chute or head catch
|
|
generally, the greatest danger to a handler working in close proximity to a tied cow's head is
|
getting hit in the face when the animal throws its head
|
|
a cow restrained by a halter tied to a fence becomes fidgety during an ear examination. the clinician asks you to jack her tail, meaning
|
grasp one thrid of the way down the tail and push it straight up and forwaryd until it is vertical
|
|
which species, when made very nervous or excited, is most prone to panicking and injuring itself as it attempts to escape an enclosure
|
horse
|
|
the most prudent way to capture a mohair goat is
|
with a shepherd's hook
|
|
are essential for the safety of veterinary personnel restraining pigs
|
ear plugs
|
|
the first step to take when attempting to handle a larger, aggressive dog is
|
catch the dog by the neck using a snare or a lead rope with a slip knot
|
|
which species can usually be restrained for minor procedures by one handler setting it up on its rump
|
sheep
|
|
if a dog is too large for you to lift onto the examination table by yourself, you should
|
get help so two of you can lift him
|
|
you are restraining a basenji dog for cephalic venipuncture. when the person performing the injection has placed the needle and is ready to inject the drug, he says to you, okay. he is most likely asking you
|
lift the thumb that is occluding the vein
|
|
which statement about muzzling dogs is true
|
some dogs' mouths can be restrained manually with the handler's hands
|
|
one of the most effective ways to capture and restrain an agitated cat is
|
grasp the scruff of the neck
|
|
above all else, the handling of exotic species must be performed
|
efficiently and confidently
|
|
which species is most likely to seek out a hiding place if it escapres its enclosure
|
cat
|
|
which statement about bird capture and restraint is true
|
pressure with the hand or fingers on the breast of a passerine (songbird) can cause suffocation
|
|
which statement concerning rabbit restraint is most accurate
|
a rabbit being carried with its hind legs unrestrained can kick out with enough force to permanently damage its spinal cord
|
|
a twich is
|
a nerve stimulating restraint device often applied to the upper lip of horses
|
|
concerning the veterinary technician's role in the history taking process of patient, which statement ismost accurate
|
even the best veterinarian may be unable to solve the problems of a particular patient without an accurate and complete history
|
|
the signalment of the animal includes which of the following
|
age
|
|
the client is usually most concerned with the chief complaint, which is
|
the reason the client brought the animal in for evaluation
|
|
the section of a patient's history that addresses the severity, duration, frequency, progression, trigger situations, time of the day, and character of the problem is the
|
history of the present illness
|
|
a question about whether a dog is on heartworm preventive medication is part of the dog's
|
medication history
|
|
one of the goals of the history and physical examination is to allow the clinician to formulate a list of differential diagnoses, which are
|
a list of possible diagnoses based on the history and clinical signs observed that the clinician will attempt to rule in or out using specific diagnostic tests
|
|
a complete system review requires that the following be asked
|
one or two questions about each body system
|
|
system is the most technically difficult and time consuming to examine completely; therefore, a complete examination of this system is usually reserved for the patient with a known or suspected disease of this system
|
central nervous
|
|
once a new patient is placed in an examination room, the first aspect of his or her visit usually involves the veterinary technician or veterinarian
|
obtaining a complete medical history and performing a physical examination
|
|
concerning a complete physical examination, which statement is most accurate
|
measurement of the vital signs is an important part of the complete physical examination
|
|
which body part or parameter is included in a complete integumentary examination
|
interdigital areas
|
|
observation of the nose for nasal discharge often begins the examination of which body system
|
respiratory
|
|
difficulty breathing due to stenotic (constricted) nares is most commonly seen in which kinds of dogs
|
brachycephalic
|
|
while examining an adult horse, you discover a respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute
|
this is a normal respiratory rate
|
|
the heart rates of small breed dogs are generally than those of large breed dogs
|
faster
|
|
the normal feline heart rate ranges from
|
140 to 220 beats/min
|
|
a normal capillary refill time (CRT) is
|
1 to 2 seconds
|
|
mucous membranes are normally in color and are often observed
|
pink; on the gingivae over the upper canine tooth
|
|
in dogs and cats, the ulse rate is most often evaluated over the
|
femoral artery
|
|
which of the following terms or phrases correctly describes the location of a heart murmur
|
mitral
|
|
the term grade refers to the of a heart murmur
|
loudness
|
|
during digital rectal palpation of an intact male dog, normal prostate gland can be palpated as
|
firm, bilobed, and not painful
|
|
the urinary bladder can usually be palpated in which part of the abdomen
|
caudoventral
|
|
which parameters are used to assess the brain during a nervous system examination
|
cranial nervers and mental status
|
|
a firm but gentle tap on an appropriate tendon and observation of the degree of contraction of the corresponding muscle is used in the measurement of
|
spinal reflexes
|
|
if the patellar tendon is tapped an no quadriceps muscle contraction occurs, a lesion is most likely present in the
|
spinal cord
|
|
the normal response to a firm toe pinch is
|
some acknowledgement of pain in addition to withdrawal of the leg
|
|
a normal ocular examination generally includes
|
a white sclera
|
|
a comedone is a
|
blackhead
|