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80 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
- 3rd side (hint)
What term describes the type of ammunition
assembly that consists of two pieces rammed together as a single unit? 1. Fixed 2. Separated 3. Separate-loading 4. Bagged |
2. Separated
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What ammunition assembly classification in-
cludes small-arms ammunition? 1. Fixed 2. Separated 3. Separate-loading 4. Containerized |
1. Fixed
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What term describes ammunition designed for
use in combat? 1. Combat-load 2. Service 3. Target 4. Drill |
2. Service
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What type of ammunition is NOT designed to
be fired from a gun? 1. Combat-load 2. Service 3. Target 4. Drill |
4. Drill
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Fragmentation projectiles are normally con-
structed in what manner? 1. With thick walls and a large-explosive cavity 2. With thin walls and a large-explosive cavity 3. With thick walls and a small-explosive cavity 4. With thin walls and a small-explosive cavity |
2. With thin walls and a large-explosive
cavity |
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What term describes the machined surface of
a gun projectile that acts to stabilize the pro- jectile as it passes through the gun bore? 1. Ogive 2. Stabilizer bearing 3. Bourrelet 4. Body |
3. Bourrelet
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What is the function of a cannelure on a gun
projectile? 1. To provide an aerodynamic shape to the projectile 2. To provide a rear bearing surface to sta- bilize the round in the gun bore 3. To allow for the insertion of a base fuze 4. To collect copper wiped from the rotating band |
4. To collect copper wiped from the rotating
band |
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What component of a gun projectile acts as a
seal preventing the escape of propellant gases? 1. Ogive 2. Stabilizer bearing 3. Rotating band 4. Bourrelet |
3. Rotating band
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What type of projectile is fitted with a base
fuze only? 1. AAC 2. HE-CVT 3. HE-MT/PD 4. AP |
4. AP
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What type of projectile is designed to penetrate
one third of their caliber of armor? 1. AP 2. COM 3. HC 4. HE-PD |
2. COM
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What term describes the fuze safety feature
that requires a projectile to be fired and clear of the muzzle before its fuze arms? 1. Dead time 2. Frictional arming 3. Fuze quick 4. Boresafe |
4. Boresafe
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Which of the following best describes the term
“dead time”? 1. The time of flight of a projectile fuzed with a proximity fuze 2. The time elapsed between the setting of a projectile fuze and the moment the pro- jectile is fired 3. The time elapsed between the time when a projectile is fired and the moment the fuze arms 4. The delay built into the fuze of an armor-piercing projectile that allows it time to penetrate the target before detonat- ing the projectile |
2. The time elapsed between the setting of a
projectile fuze and the moment the pro- jectile is fired |
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What type of projectile is painted olive drab
with a yellow band around the ogive? 1. Countermeasures 2. HE 3. Illumination 4. Smoke |
2. HE
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In the new lot numbering system, what infor-
mation directly follows the manufacturer’s ID symbol? 1. The year and month of manufacture 2. The lot sequence number 3. The lot suffix and alpha number 4. The lot intermix number |
1. The year and month of manufacture
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What year was the new lot numbering system
implemented? 1. 1975 2. 1976 3. 1977 4. 1978 |
4. 1978
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What projectile has light green body color
coding? 1. WP 2. HE-PD 3. ILLUM 4. AP |
1. WP
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What level of ammunition inventory accuracy
is required by the CNO? 1. 100 percent 2. 99.5 percent 3. 97.5 percent 4. 95 percent |
2. 99.5 percent
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What responsibility, if any, does a GM3 have in
maintaining an accurate ammunition ledger? 1. To make sure that ammunition items ex- pended are identified and quantities reported 2. To make sure that ammunition items are accurately stenciled 3. To make sure that ammunition items are properly stored 4. None |
4. None
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How many MSRCs would be required to
record 1,000 rounds of .45-caliber ammuni- tion, NALC/DODIC A475, consisting of three lots, if 400 rounds are condition code A and 600 rounds are condition code B? 1. 1 2. 2 3. 3 4. 10 |
3. 3
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Master Stock Record Card
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The maintenance due date of a missile is
recorded in what location on an ammunition ledger? 1. On the MSRP 2. On the lot/location card 3. On the serial/location card 4. On maintenance due date record card |
3. On the serial/location card
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What chapter of SPCCINST 8010.12 provides
detailed instructions on the makeup and main- tenance of the ammunition ledger? 1. 8 2. 10 3. 12 4. 14 |
3. 12
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Which of the following transactions is NOT
recorded on a lot/location card? 1. Ammunition ordered 2. All transactions of that lot 3. A change in condition code 4. Ammunition of that lot which was trans- ferred to another command |
1. Ammunition ordered
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Which of the following events does NOT
require the submission of an ammunition transaction report? 1. The expending of small-arms ammunition 2. A change of ammunition condition code 3. A receipt of ammunition 4. A change in ammunition storage |
4. A change in ammunition storag
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The ATR file is kept in what location?
1. In a file separate from the ledger 2. In the commanding officer’s safe 3. In a file with the ledger’ 4. With the requisition file |
3. In a file with the ledger’
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What document lists the types and quantities of
ammunition that are authorized for issue to a particular ship? 1. Initial issue allowance list 2. Ship-fill allowance list 3. Training allowance list 4. The CAlMS manual |
4. The CAlMS manual
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What format is used for ordering ammunition?
1. MILSTRIP in a Navy speed letter 2. MILSTRIP in a naval message 3. ATR in a Navy speed letter 4. ATR in a naval message |
2. MILSTRIP in a naval message
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What chapter of the CAlMS manual describes
the preparation of an ammunition requisition? 1. 8 2. 10 3. 12 4. 14 |
1. 8
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What is the purpose of a gas check seal?
1. To seal the gun bore to prevent the escape of propellant gases 2. To focus the force of propellant gases 3. To prevent propellant gases from penetrat- ing into the explosive cavity of a projectile 4. To hold the base fuzes in place |
3. To prevent propellant gases from penetrat-
ing into the explosive cavity of a projectile |
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What type of projectile is fitted with a gas
check seal? 1. Those with a solid base 2. Those with a base plug only 3. Those with a base fuze only 4. Those with either a base plug or base fuze |
4. Those with either a base plug or base fuze
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What publication contains the complete de-
scription of how to inspect projectile gas check seals? 1. NAVSEA OP-4 2. NAVSEA OP-S 3. NAVSEA SW030-AA-MMO-010 4. NAVSEA 59522-AA-HBK-0l0 |
3. Navy Gun Ammunition, NAVSEA
SW030-AA-MMO-010. |
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What type of magazine is located in the im-
mediate vicinity of the weapon it serves? 1. Primary 2. Secondary 3. Ready-service magazine 4. Ready-service stowage |
4. Ready-service stowage
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What type of magazine is designed to hold a
ship’s entire peacetime allowance of ammuni- tion? 1. Primary 2. Secondary 3. Ready-service magazine 4. Ready-service stowage |
1. Primary
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What type of magazine provides permanent
stowage of ammunition convenient to the weapon that it serves? 1. Primary 2. Secondary 3. Ready-service magazine 4. Ready-service stowage |
3. Ready-service magazine
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Which of the following publications provides
specific information concerning shipboard am- munition stowage requirements? 1. NAVSEA OP-4 2. NAVSEA OP-S 3. NAVSEA 5W030-AA-MMO-0l0 4. NAVSEA 59522-AA-HBK-0l0 |
1. NAVSEA OP-4
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Who is the custodian of all magazine keys
aboard ship? 1. The duty GM 2 The weapons officer 3. The executive officer 4. The commanding officer |
4. The commanding officer
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What is considered the controlled area on a
ship armed with nuclear weapons? 1. The space where the weapons are stored only 2. The space where the weapons are stored and all immediately adjoining spaces only 3. The space where the weapons are stored and all spaces within 50 feet only 4. The entire ship |
4. The entire ship
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What is the primary source of magazine in-
spection criterion? 1. NAVSEA OP-4 2. NAVSEA OP-S 3. OPNAV Instructions 4. MRCs |
1. NAVSEA OP-4
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What is the main purpose of the daily magazine
inspection? 1. To check material condition 2. To check and record temperatures 3. To check for gear adrift 4. To check smokeless powder samples |
2. To check and record temperatures
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Magazine inspection MRCs contain the same
criteria as is used by what inspection team? 1. ESI 2. ESO 3. PSI 4. SMI |
1. ESI explosive safety inspection
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On the daily magazine temperature report,
magazines are stated to be in satisfactory condition if they meet what requirements? 1. NAVSEA 2. PQS 3. MRC 4. Safety |
3. MRC
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What is the purpose of the exhaust ventilator
pipe and check valve in shipboard magazines? 1. To allow air to flow out of the magazine 2. To vent pressure when the space is flooded by the sprinkler system 3. To allow the space to be flooded in case of fire 4. To limit the maximum water level in the space if it is flooded |
2. To vent pressure when the space is flooded
by the sprinkler system |
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What type of magazine sprinkler system is
normally used in gun ammunition magazines? 1. Dry type 2. Wet type 3. Solenoid 4. Hydraulic jacking cylinder |
1. Dry type
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With what minimum firemain pressure are
sprinkler control valves designed to operate? 1. 40 psi 2. 50 psi 3. 70 psi 4. 100 psi |
1. 40 psi
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What type of pressure holds a class 2 valve
closed? 1. Spring pressure only 2. Firemain pressure only 3. A mechanical linkage 4. Both spring and firemain pressure |
Both spring and firemain pressure
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What factor allows firemain operating pressure
to overcome firemain pressure acting on the valve disk? 1. The increased pressure produced by the multiplier valve 2. The pressure on the valve disk is removed at actuation 3. The area of the valve disk is larger than that of the lower diaphragm washer 4. The area of the lower diaphragm washer is larger than that of the valve disk |
The area of the lower diaphragm washer is
larger than that of the valve disk |
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What sprinkler system valve allows the system
to be secured from a station other than the one from which it was activated? 1. Manual control valve 2. Hydraulically operated remote control valve 3. Spring-loaded lift check valve 4. Hydraulically operated check valve |
Hydraulically operated remote control
valve |
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What sprinkler system valve permits a main
sprinkler valve to close rapidly and com- pletely? 1. Power-operated check valve 2. Hydraulically operated remote control valve 3. Spring-loaded lift check valve 4. Hydraulically operated check valve |
Hydraulically operated check valve
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What sprinkler valve releases operating pres-
sure from a main sprinkling valve? 1. Power-operated check valve 2. Hydraulically operated remote control valve 3. Spring-loaded lift check valve 4. Hydraulically operated check valve |
Hydraulically operated remote control
valve |
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What sprinkler system component prevents a
buildup of pressure in the control piping because of valve leakage? 1. Hydraulically operated check valve 2. Orifices 3. Pressure vent check valves 4. Drain lines |
2. Orifices
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Heat-sensing devices are designed to create
pressure in response to what condition(s)? 1. Fire only 2. Rapid rise in temperature only 3. Fire and a rapid rise in temperature 4. A slow or rapid rise in temperature |
4. A slow or rapid rise in temperature
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At what temperature is the fusible link of an
HSD designed to part? 1. 155°F (±3°) 2. 160°F (±3°) 3. 165°F (±3°) 4. 175°F (±3°) |
2. 160°F (±3°)
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What force or condition activates the PRP
valve? 1. A vacuum pressure 2. A differential pressure 3. Heat 4. Barometric pressure |
2. A differential pressure
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What is the purpose of the compensating vent
on the PRP valve? 1. To equalize the system after it has been activated 2. To compensate for fluctuations in baro- metric pressure 3. To allow the PRP valve to be adjusted for different temperature ranges 4. To vent slight pressures caused by normal temperature changes |
3. To allow the PRP valve to be adjusted for
different temperature ranges |
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How much pressure is required to trip the PRP
valve? 1. 8 oz 2. 8 lb 3. 5 oz 4. 5 lb |
1. 8 oz
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What magazine alarm indicates water in the
dry side of the sprinkler system piping? 1. F 2. FD 3. FH 4. WT |
3. FH
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An MHE operator’s license is valid for what
maximum period of time? 1. l yr 2. 18 mo 3. 2 yr 4. Indefinite |
1. l yr
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What is the standard type of forklift truck used
aboard ship? 1. EX 2. EB 3. EE 4. DS |
3. EE
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What is the difference between a Mk 85 and a
Mk 100 pallet sling? 1. Weight capacity 2. Size 3. The Mk 85 is used for helo transfer only 4. The Mk 85 is used for pallets of powder charges; the Mk 100 is used for pallets of projectiles |
2. Size
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What requirement must be ever present and
maintained to validate a Qual/Cert program certification? 1. Record of the commanding officer’s signa- ture 2. Documented training 3. 3-M maintenance records 4. The certification record of the board chair- man |
2. Documented training
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What is/are the Qual/Cert program, require-
ment(s) for ammunition handling working party personnel? 1. Complete certification 2. Partial certification 3. Training, temporary certification, and con- stant supervision by certified personnel 4. Training, a safety brief, and constant su- pervision by certified personnel |
4. Training, a safety brief, and constant su-
pervision by certified personnel |
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Which of the following traits is usually found
in people who routinely engage in ordnance handling? 1. A closer observance of safety precautions 2. A neglect for safety precautions 3. A deeper understanding of safety pre- cautions 4. An instinctive safe behavior |
2. A neglect for safety precautions
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What is the major cause of damage to a missile
during handling? 1. Untrained crane operators 2. Carelessness and poor handling practices 3. Unapproved containers or canisters 4. Uncertified handling personnel |
2. Carelessness and poor handling practices
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How are missile canisters and containers
identified? 1. Serial number 2. Mark and mod number 3. Size 4. Shape |
2. Mark and mod number
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In what condition are guided missiles delivered
to the fleet? 1. In an all-up-round (AUR) status 2. In a disassembled status 3. In a repair status 4. In need of a configuration summary form |
In an all-up-round (AUR) status
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Although all missile inspections are equally
important, for what inspection should you be exceptionally thorough? 1. Routine inspection 2. Off-load inspection 3. Receipt inspection 4. Daily inspection |
3. Receipt inspection
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The results of any guided missile inspection
should be logged in what document? 1. Quarter deck log 2. PMS cycle chart 3. Launcher log 4. Guided missile service record (GMSR) |
4. Guided missile service record (GMSR)
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What action must be taken to remove the
breech bolt from the M870 shotgun? 1. Drive out the breech bolt retaining pin 2. Remove the fore-end unit from the receiver 3. Remove the bolt retainer and then pull the bolt through the ejection port 4. Remove the trigger plate assembly and pull the bolt through the bottom of the receiver |
2. Remove the fore-end unit from the receiver
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The safety switch is in what location on the
M500 shotgun? 1. On top of the receiver 2. To the rear of the trigger guard 3. To the front of the trigger guard 4. On the bottom of the receiver |
1. On top of the receiver
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The Mk 87 Mod 1 line-throwing kit launcher is
installed on an M-14 rifle in what manner? 1. The flash suppressor is removed from the rifle and the launcher is screwed onto the barrel in its place 2. The launcher is clamped to the gas cylinder of the rifle 3. The launcher is clamped around the flash suppressor 4. The launcher is slid over the flash sup- pressor and latched to the bayonet lug |
4. The launcher is slid over the flash sup-
pressor and latched to the bayonet lug |
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What factor determines the active life of a
chemical light wand? 1. Its age 2. Its chemical composition 3. The ambient temperature 4. Barometric pressure |
3. The ambient temperature
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What is the approximate total length of a roll of
shot line? 1. 330 ft 2. 500 ft 3. 550 ft 4. 600 ft |
3. 550 ft
tensile strength of 125lbs |
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What is the maximum reliable range of a
line-throwing projectile fired from an M-14 rifle? 1. 80 yd 2. 90 yd 3. 95 yd 4. 100 yd |
2. 90 yd
85 for M16 |
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What is the maximum effective range of the
M2 BMG? 1. 2,000 yd 2. 4,000 yd 3. 5,000 yd 4. 7,400 yd |
1. 2,000 yd
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The M2 BMG uses what type of operation?
1. Blowback-operated 2. Gas-operated 3. Recoil-operated 4. Spring and cam operated |
3. Recoil-operated
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Which of the following terms defines the
distance between the face of the bolt and the base of a cartridge case fully seated in the chamber of an M2 BMG? 1. Bolt gap 2. Feed space 3. Head space 4. Timing space |
3. Head space
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When firing the M2 BMG, what factor deter-
mines automatic or semiautomatic mode of operation? 1. The position of the firing selector switch 2. The position of the safety switch 3. The position of the bolt latch release lock 4. The set of triggers the operator uses |
1. The position of the firing selector switch
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After the operator of the M2 BMG releases the
trigger, what emergency action must be taken if firing continues? 1. Keep the weapon on target and allow it to expend all ammunition 2. Open the feeder cover and remove the am- munition belt 3. Break off the ammunition belt 4. Twist the ammunition belt |
4. Twist the ammunition belt
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Excessive oiling of the M2 BMG should be
avoided for what reason? 1. It is wasteful and unnecessary 2. When fired, the oil may splatter on the operator, possibly getting in his eyes 3. It is a fire hazard during sustained firing 4. It can solidify causing sluggish operation |
4. It can solidify causing sluggish operation
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What is the maximum effective range of the
M-60 machine gun? 1. 1,100 yd 2. 1,200 yd 3. 1,000 m 4. 1,200 m |
1. 1,100 yd
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When firing at a target 500 yards away, what
total number of clicks of the windage knob on an M-60 machine gun will correct for a 5-yard discrepancy? 1. 5 2. 8 3. 10 4. 20 |
1. 5
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1 mil equals 1 inch at 1,000 inches, 1 yard at 1,000 yards, 1 meter at 1,000 meters, and so on.
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