Microbiology Test 1

Microorganisms are involved in each of the following processes EXCEPT

a) food production

b) infection

c) O2 production

d) smog production

e) decomposition of organic material

Each of the following organisms would be considered a microbe EXCEPT

a) mushroom

b) yeast

c) bacterium

d) protozoan

e) virus

The term used to describe a disease-causing microorganism is

a) bacterium

b) infection

c) microbe

d) virus

e) pathogen

Common commercial benefits of microorganisms include synthesis of

a) aspirin

b) antibiotics

c) insulin

d) antibiotics and aspirin

e) antibiotics and insulin

Commercial utilization of microbial products has become increasingly popular due to their environmentally friendly nature. Removal of these products from the environment typically utilizes

a) organic solvents

b) soap

c) alcohol

d) enzymes

e) organic acids

The formal system for classifying and naming organisms was developed by

a) Aristotle

b) Robert Koch

c) Louis Pasteur

d) Ignaz Semmelweis

e) Carolus Linnaeus

In the name Staphyloccocus aureus, aureus is the

a) genus

b) family name

c) specific name

d) domain name

e) kingdom

8) A prokaryotic cell may possess each of the following cellular components EXCEPT
A) a nucleus.
B) ribosomes.
C) flagella.
D) a cell membrane.
E) a cell wall.

9) Which of the following is NOT associated with viruses?
A) capsid
B) nucleic acid
C) envelope
D) organelles
E) spikes

10) The bacterial shape of the cells in Figure 1.1 would best be described as
A) ovoid. B) bacillus. C) coccus. D) spiral. E) columnar.

11) Protozoan motility structures include
A) cilia.
B) pseudopods.
C) flagella.
D) cilia and pseudopods only.
E) cilia, flagella, and pseudopods.

12) Viruses are not considered living organisms because they
A) can only be visualized using an electron microscope.
B) are structurally very simple.
C) typically associated with disease.
D) are ubiquitous in nature.
E) cannot reproduce by themselves.

13) The infectious agent that causes AIDS is a 13) ______
A) virus.
B) mold.
C) bacterium.
D) protozoan.
E) yeast.

14) Which of the following is NOT a domain in the three-domain system? 14) ______
A) bacteria B) archaea C) eukarya D) animalia

15) Classification of organisms into three domains is based on 15) ______
A) the presence of a cell wall.
B) the number of cells in the organism.
C) cellular proteins.
D) nutritional requirements.
E) cellular organization.

16) Archaea differ from bacteria in that archaea 16) ______
A) reproduce by binary fission.
B) use organic compounds for food.
C) lack nuclei.
D) have diverse cell wall compositions.
E) are prokaryotic.

17) Who is credited with first observing cells? 17) ______
A) Louis Pasteur
B) Robert Hooke
C) Anton van Leeuwenhoek
D) Robert Koch
E) Carolus Linnaeus

18) Who is credited with first observing microorganisms? 18) ______
A) Robert Koch
B) Robert Hooke
C) Anton van Leeuwenhoek
D) Carolus Linnaeus
E) Louis Pasteur

19) Biogenesis refers to the 19) ______
A) development of life forms from preexisting life forms.
B) spontaneous generation of organisms from nonliving matter.
C) development of aseptic technique.
D) germ theory of disease.

20) If you were setting up an experiment to disprove spontaneous generation in a liquid medium, which of the following would be essential to the experiment? 20) ______
A) using a sterile liquid and eliminating exposure to microorganisms
B) adding antibiotics to the liquid
C) supplying the liquid with nutrients
D) starting with a liquid that contains microorganisms
E) adding carbon dioxide to the liquid

21) The arguments supporting spontaneous generation were finally disproved by 21) ______
A) Francesco Redi.
B) John Needham.
C) Louis Pasteur.
D) Lazzaro Spallanzani.
E) Rudolf Virchow.

22) Regarding Louis Pasteur’s experiments with the S-neck flask, which of the following statements is TRUE? 22) ______
A) The possibility of contamination was removed.
B) All preexisting microorganisms were killed.
C) A food source was provided.
D) Air exchange was involved.
E) All of the answers are correct.

23) The microbial process of converting sugars to alcohol is known as 23) ______
A) tyndallization.
B) pasteurization.
C) alcoholism.
D) lyophilization.
E) fermentation.

24) Proof that a microbe could cause disease was provided by 24) ______
A) Wasserman.
B) Semmelweis.
C) Lister.
D) Koch.
E) Pasteur.

25) The use of phenol (carbolic acid) as a wound disinfectant was first practiced by 25) ______
A) Semmelweis.
B) Pasteur.
C) Lister.
D) Holmes.
E) Koch.

26) Mycology is the study of 26) ______
A) molds.
B) mycoplasma.
C) mushrooms.
D) protozoa.
E) molds, yeast, and mushrooms.

27) The first step for directly linking a microbe to a specific disease according to Koch’s postulates is to 27) ______
A) compare the blood of a sick animal to blood obtained from a healthy animal.
B) isolate microbes from the blood of healthy animals.
C) inject a sample of blood or other body fluid from a diseased animal into a healthy animal.
D) obtain a sample of blood or other body fluid from a diseased animal.
E) culture the blood or other body fluid from a diseased animal using nutrient medium.

28) In which of the following situations would Koch’s postulates be utilized? 28) ______
A) whenever the scientific method is used to investigate a microbiological problem
B) determination of the cause of cancer in a patient
C) formulation of a vaccine against a new pathogen in a genetic engineering lab
D) development of a new antibiotic in a pharmaceutical lab
E) determination of the cause of a patient’s illness in a hospital microbiology lab

29) Robert Koch identified the cause of 29) ______
A) diphtheria.
B) tuberculosis.
C) anthrax.
D) smallpox.
E) AIDS.

30) ________ is the physician first associated with vaccination. 30) ______
A) Koch B) Escherich C) Pasteur D) Jenner E) Lister

31) Which of the following findings was essential for Edward Jenner’s vaccination process? 31) ______
A) Exposure to a milder disease form may produce immunity.
B) Disease is caused by viruses.
C) Someone who recovers from a disease will not acquire that disease again.
D) Pathogenic microorganisms infect all humans and animals in the same manner.
E) A weakened microorganism will not cause disease.

32) Antibiotics are produced by 32) ______
A) bacteria.
B) protozoa.
C) fungi.
D) viruses.
E) bacteria and fungi.

34) Who was the first scientist to pursue a “magic bullet” that could be used to treat infectious disease? 34) ______
A) Pasteur
B) Semmelweis
C) Jenner
D) Ehrlich
E) Lister

35) Fungal infections are studied by 35) ______
A) bacteriologists.
B) parasitologists.
C) herpetologists.
D) mycologists.
E) virologists.

36) Vaccinations are available for all of the following diseases EXCEPT 36) ______
A) measles.
B) strep throat.
C) mumps.
D) rubella.
E) hepatitis B.

37) Recombinant DNA refers to the 37) ______
A) study of the function of genes.
B) DNA resulting when bacterial genes are inserted in an animal genome.
C) synthesis of proteins from genes.
D) interaction between human and bacterial cells.
E) study of bacterial ribosomes.

38) Molecular biology is the study of 38) ______
A) DNA synthesis.
B) protein synthesis.
C) the structure and function of macromolecules essential to life.
D) RNA replication.
E) enzyme function.

39) Microorganisms are essential to our life. Each of the following is an example of a beneficial function of microorganisms EXCEPT 39) ______
A) agriculture.
B) alternative fuel production.
C) increased morbidity.
D) bioremediation.
E) gene therapy.

40) The major food producers for other living organisms is/are 40) ______
A) higher plants.
B) cyanobacteria.
C) algae.
D) higher plants and algae.
E) higher plants, cyanobacteria, and algae.

41) Gene therapy is currently used to treat all of the following diseases EXCEPT 41) ______
A) LDL-receptor deficiency.
B) colon cancer.
C) Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy.
D) severe combined immunodeficiency disease (SCID).
E) cystic fibrosis.

42) Recombinant DNA technology has become an increasingly important part of our life. It is used for all of the following EXCEPT 42) ______
A) vaccine production.
B) increasing the nutritional value of food.
C) drug production.
D) enhancing food longevity.
E) synthesis of water.

43) Normal microbiota are typically found in and on all the following body locations EXCEPT the 43) ______
A) mouth.
B) upper respiratory system.
C) blood.
D) colon.
E) skin.

44) Which of the following statements about biofilms is FALSE? 44) ______
A) Biofilms on medical devices cause infections.
B) Compared to free-living bacteria, biofilms are more sensitive to antibiotics.
C) Biofilms on rocks provide food for animal life.
D) Biofilms in pipes can block the flow of water.
E) Biofilms in your body protect mucous membranes from harmful microbes.

45) Development of emerging infectious disease can be a result of all of the following EXCEPT 45) ______
A) modern transportation.
B) changes in the environment.
C) microbial mutation.
D) overuse of antibiotics.
E) use of genetically modified foods.

46) Infectious disease is almost totally eradicated in our world.

47) A student has obtained a sample of pond water for study. Using the high-power lens, he observes several cells with nuclei. He can conclude that the cells are NOT bacteria.

48) The process of pasteurization to reduce food spoilage utilizes high heat to kill all bacteria present.

49) Anton van Leeuwenhoek was the first microbiologist to use a microscope to examine environmental samples for the presence of microorganisms.

50) Spontaneous generation refers to living cells arising only from other living cells.

51) Microbes are associated with life-sustaining benefits as well as life-threatening diseases.

52) All cells possess a cell wall.

53) Some viruses can contain both DNA and RNA.

54) Bovine spongiform encephalitis (BSE, or “mad cow disease”) is caused by a virus.

55) All pathogens known to infect humans have been identified at this point in time.

1) Which of the following is NOT equal to 1 mm? 1) _______
A) 10-3 m B) 100 μm C) 10 6 nm D) 0.1 cm E) 0.001 m

2) What structure does light pass through after leaving the condenser in a compound light microscope? 2) _______
A) specimen B) ocular lens C) objective lens D) illuminator

3) Which of the following pairs is mismatched? 3) _______
A) crystal violet — simple stain
B) methylene blue — simple stain
C) nigrosin — negative stain
D) basic dye — negative stain
E) acidic dye — capsule stain

4) Which of the following places the steps of the Gram stain in the correct order?
1-Alcohol-acetone
2-Crystal violet
3-Safranin
4-Iodine 4) _______
A) 2-1-4-3 B) 1-3-2-4 C) 2-4-1-3 D) 4-3-2-1 E) 1-2-3-4

5) Which of the following pairs is mismatched? 5) _______
A) alcohol-acetone — decolorizer
B) crystal violet — basic dye
C) carbolfuchsin — basic dye
D) safranin — acid dye
E) iodine — mordant

6) Which of the following is NOT true regarding the acid-fast stain? 6) _______
A) If cells are acid-fast, they are gram-negative.
B) It is used to identify members of the genus Mycobacterium.
C) Non-acid-fast microbes appear blue in a completed acid-fast stain.
D) Acid-fast cells appear red in a completed acid-fast stain.
E) Acid-fast cells retain the primary dye after treatment with acid-alcohol.

7) The purpose of a mordant in the Gram stain is to 7) _______
A) remove the simple stain.
B) make gram-negative cells visible.
C) make the flagella visible.
D) prevent the crystal violet from leaving the cells.
E) make the bacterial cells larger.

8) Which of the following places the steps in the correct sequence?
1-Staining
2-Making a smear
3-Fixing 8) _______
A) 2-3-1
B) 1-3-2
C) 3-2-1
D) 1-2-3
E) The order is unimportant.

9) The negative stain is used to 9) _______
A) visualize capsules.
B) determine Gram reaction.
C) visualize endospores.
D) determine cell size.
E) determine flagella arrangement.

10) Simple staining is often necessary to improve contrast in which microscope? 10) ______
A) phase-contrast microscope
B) fluorescence microscope
C) darkfield microscope
D) compound light microscope
E) electron microscope

11) Which microscope is used to see internal structures of cells in a natural state? 11) ______
A) darkfield microscope
B) fluorescence microscope
C) phase-contrast microscope
D) electron microscope
E) compound light microscope

12) Which microscope uses visible light? 12) ______
A) scanning acoustic microscope
B) confocal microscope
C) fluorescence microscope
D) scanning electron microscope
E) differential interference contrast microscope

13) Which microscope achieves the highest magnification and greatest resolution? 13) ______
A) fluorescence microscope
B) darkfield microscope
C) phase-contrast microscope
D) compound light microscope
E) electron microscope

14) In using this microscope, the observer does NOT look directly at an image through a lens. 14) ______
A) phase-contrast microscope
B) electron microscope
C) fluorescence microscope
D) compound light microscope
E) darkfield microscope

15) This microscope produces an image of a light cell against a dark background; internal structures are NOT visible. 15) ______
A) electron microscope
B) compound light microscope
C) phase-contrast microscope
D) fluorescence microscope
E) darkfield microscope

16) A virus measures 100 nm in length. What is its length in μm? 16) ______
A) 0.01 μm B) 1 μm C) 0.001 μm D) 10 μm E) .1 μm

17) Which of the following is NOT useful for observing living cells? 17) ______
A) darkfield microscope
B) brightfield microscope
C) scanning acoustic microscope
D) scanning electron microscope
E) phase-contrast microscope

18) A microorganism measures 5 μm in length. Its length in mm would be 18) ______
A) 50 mm. B) 0.5 mm. C) 500 mm. D) 0.005 mm. E) 0.05 mm.

19) Which of the following correctly traces the path of light through the compound microscope? 19) ______
A) condenser; light source; specimen; ocular lens; objective lens
B) light source; condenser; objective lens; specimen; ocular lens
C) light source; specimen; condenser; objective lens; ocular lens
D) light source; condenser; specimen; objective lens; ocular lens
E) condenser; light source; specimen; objective lens; ocular lens

20) In Figure 3.1, line "c" points to the microscope's 20) ______
A) illuminator. B) condenser. C) objective lens. D) ocular lens.

21) Which microscope can be used to visualize DNA or botulinum toxin? 21) ______
A) scanning electron microscope
B) compound light microscope
C) scanning tunneling microscope
D) confocal microscope
E) phase-contrast microscope

22) Which microscope is used to observe a specimen that emits light when illuminated with an ultraviolet light? 22) ______
A) electron microscope
B) darkfield microscope
C) compound light microscope
D) phase-contrast microscope
E) fluorescence microscope

23) Which microscope is most useful for visualizing a biofilm? 23) ______
A) phase-contrast microscope
B) compound light microscope
C) fluorescence microscope
D) transmission electron microscope
E) scanning acoustic microscope

24) Which microscope takes advantage of differences in the refractive indexes of cell structures? 24) ______
A) phase-contrast microscope
B) compound light microscope
C) darkfield microscope
D) electron microscope
E) fluorescence microscope

30) Which of the following pairs is mismatched? 30) ______
A) darkfield microscope —uses visible light
B) fluorescence microscope —uses a fluorescent light
C) scanning tunneling microscope —allows visualization of atoms
D) scanning electron microscope —produces a three-dimensional image
E) confocal microscope —produces a three-dimensional image

32) You are studying a cell structure that is approximately 100 nm in size. Which of the following provides the lowest magnification you can use to see this structure? 32) ______
A) scanning electron microscope
B) transmission electron microscope
C) phase-contrast microscope
D) darkfield microscope
E) brightfield microscope

33) Which microscope uses two beams of light to produce a three-dimensional color image? 33) ______
A) fluorescence microscope
B) DIC microscope
C) phase-contrast microscope
D) electron microscope
E) darkfield microscope

34) Which microscope is used to see intracellular detail in a living cell? 34) ______
A) brightfield microscope
B) fluorescence microscope
C) two-photon microscope
D) atomic force microscope
E) transmission electron microscope

35) Which microscope is used to observe viruses and the internal structure of thinly sectioned cells? 35) ______
A) brightfield microscope
B) fluorescence microscope
C) darkfield microscope
D) scanning electron microscope
E) transmission electron microscope

36) Which microscope is used to see detail of a 300-nm virus? 36) ______
A) darkfield microscope
B) phase-contrast microscope
C) electron microscope
D) DIC microscope
E) fluorescence microscope

38) Which step in the Gram stain is the critical step in differentiating gram-positive cells from gram-negative cells? 38) ______
A) alcohol-acetone B) iodine
C) safranin D) crystal violet

39) You find colorless areas in cells in a gram-stained smear. What should you apply next? 39) ______
A) an acid-fast stain
B) a capsule stain
C) a flagella stain
D) a simple stain
E) an endospore stain

40) Which microscope is best used for observing the surfaces of intact cells and viruses? 40) ______
A) scanning electron microscope
B) phase-contrast microscope
C) fluorescence microscope
D) brightfield microscope
E) darkfield microscope

44) The purpose of the ocular lens is to 44) ______
A) decrease the light.
B) decrease the refractive index.
C) improve resolution.
D) magnify the image from the objective lens.
E) increase the light.

45) ) In microscopy, the term resolution 45) ______
A) is only observed in stained specimens.
B) is improved when longer wavelengths of light are employed.
C) refers to magnification when using the electron microscope.
D) refers to the ability to distinguish fine structure and detail in a specimen.
E) is the same as the total magnification of a specimen.

46) The counterstain used in the Gram stain is a basic dye.

48) In a completed Gram stain, gram-positive bacteria are purple.

49) If acid-fast bacteria are stained with the Gram stain, they will stain gram-negative.

50) The limit of resolution of the compound microscope illuminated with visible light is approximately 0.2 μm.

51) Both phase-contrast microscopy and differential interference contrast microscopy are used to view the internal structures of cells without staining.

52) Cells viewed in darkfield microscopy appear similar to those stained with the negative stain.

53) The capsules and flagella of bacteria can be observed in gram-stained smears.

54) The greater resolution of the electron microscope compared to the compound microscope is due to the longer wavelengths of the electrons used to examine specimens.

55) Scanned probe microscopy is used to examine fine detail of molecular complexes, such as blood clots, or molecules, such as DNA.

59) Which of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding prokaryotic cells? 59) ______
A) They typically have a circular chromosome.
B) Their DNA is not enclosed within a membrane.
C) They lack membrane-enclosed organelles.
D) They lack a plasma membrane.
E) They reproduce by binary fission.

60) Each of the following statements concerning the gram-positive cell wall is true EXCEPT 60) ______
A) it is sensitive to lysozyme.
B) it protects the cell in a hypertonic environment.
C) it maintains the shape of the cell.
D) it is sensitive to penicillin.
E) it contains teichoic acids.

61) Which of the following statements best describes what happens when a bacterial cell is placed in a solution containing 5 percent NaCl? 61) ______
A) Water will move into the cell.
B) Sucrose will move into the cell from a higher to a lower concentration.
C) The cell will undergo osmotic lysis.
D) Water will move out of the cell.
E) No change will result; the solution is isotonic.

62) A gram-positive bacteria suddenly acquires resistance to the antibiotic methicillin. This trait most likely occurred due to 62) ______
A) binary fission.
B) meisosis.
C) conjugation.
D) transformation.
E) transduction.

63) By which of the following mechanisms can a cell transport a substance from a lower to a higher concentration? 63) ______
A) aquaporins
B) facilitated diffusion
C) simple diffusion
D) extracellular enzymes
E) active transport

64) Which of the following is NOT a typical characteristic of most bacterial plasma membranes? 64) ______
A) is selectively permeable
B) composed of a phospholipid bilayer
C) site of energy production
D) contains proteins
E) contains cholesterol

65) Which of the following have a cell wall? 65) ______
A) mycoplasmas
B) fungi
C) protoplasts
D) L forms
E) animal cells

67) Which of the following pairs is mismatched? 67) ______
A) endoplasmic reticulum  internal transport
B) Golgi complex  secretion
C) centrosome  food storage
D) lysosome  digestive enzymes
E) mitochondria  ATP production

68) Which of the following organelles most closely resembles a prokaryotic cell? 68) ______
A) Golgi complex
B) cell wall
C) nucleus
D) mitochondrion
E) vacuole

69) Which drawing in Figure 4.1 is a tetrad? 69) ______
A) a B) b C) c D) d E) e

70) Which drawing in Figure 4.1 possesses an axial filament? 70) ______
A) a B) b C) c D) d E) e

71) Which drawing in Figure 4.1 is streptococci? 71) ______
A) a B) b C) c D) d E) e

72) Antibiotics that target cell wall synthesis ultimately cause bacterial cell death as a result of 72) ______
A) plasmolysis.
B) inhibition of molecular transport.
C) osmotic lysis.
D) decreased synthesis of peptidoglycan.
E) cell shrinkage.

73) Bacteria are a commonly used organism for studies of genetic material in the research laboratory. The nucleic acids must first be isolated from the cells for these studies. Which of the following would most likely be used to lyse the bacterial cells for nucleic acid isolation? 73) ______
A) polymixins
B) water
C) alcohol
D) mycolic acid
E) lysozyme

74) Which of the following statements about gram-negative cell walls is FALSE? 74) ______
A) They are toxic to humans.
B) They have an extra outer layer composed of lipoproteins, lipopolysaccharides, and phospholipids.
C) Their Gram reaction is due to the outer membrane.
D) They protect the cell in a hypotonic environment.
E) They are sensitive to penicillin.

75) Which of the following structures is NOT found in some prokaryotic cells? 75) ______
A) pilus
B) flagellum
C) cilium
D) peritrichous flagella
E) axial filament

76) Functions of the glycocalyx include all of the following EXCEPT 76) ______
A) biofilm formation.
B) source of nutrition.
C) binary fission.
D) protection against dehydration.
E) increased virulence.

77) Which structure acts like an “invisibility cloak” and protects bacteria from being phagocytized? 77) ______
A) capsule
B) slime layer
C) cell wall
D) fimbriae
E) cell membrane

78) Which of the following is NOT part of the passive transport process? 78) ______
A) plasma membrane
B) concentration gradient
C) aquaporins
D) transporter proteins
E) ATP

79) Which of the following terms best describes the cell in Figure 4.2? 79) ______
A) peritrichous flagella
B) amphitrichous flagella
C) lophotrichous flagella
D) axial filament
E) monotrichous flagella

80) In bacteria, photosynthetic pigments are found in 80) ______
A) chromatophores.
B) ribosomes.
C) cytoplasm.
D) chloroplasts.
E) mesosomes.

81) The difference between simple diffusion and facilitated diffusion is that facilitated diffusion 81) ______
A) moves materials from a lower to a higher concentration.
B) requires transporter proteins.
C) does not require ATP.
D) requires ATP.
E) moves materials from a higher to a lower concentration.

83) You have isolated a motile, gram-positive cell with no visible nucleus. You can safely assume that the cell 83) ______
A) lives in an extreme environment.
B) has 9 pairs + 2 flagella.
C) has a mitochondrion.
D) has a cell wall.
E) has cilia.

84) Fimbriae and pili differ in that 84) ______
A) there are only one or two pili per cell.
B) pili are used for motility.
C) pili are used to transfer DNA.
D) pili are used for transfer of DNA and motility.
E) pili are used for attachment to surfaces.

85) In Figure 4.3, which diagram of a cell wall is a gram-negative cell wall? 85) ______
A) a
B) b
C) both a and b
D) neither a nor b
E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.

86) In Figure 4.3, which diagram of a cell wall possesses molecules responsible for symptoms associated with infection? 86) ______
A) a
B) b
C) both a and b
D) neither a nor b
E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.

87) In Figure 4.3, which diagram of a cell wall has a structure that protects against osmotic lysis? 87) ______
A) a
B) b
C) both a and b
D) neither a nor b
E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.

88) In Figure 4.3, which diagram of a cell wall is decolorized by alcohol? 88) ______
A) a
B) b
C) both a and b
D) neither a nor b
E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.

89) In Figure 4.3, which diagram of a cell wall is resistant to many antibiotics (e.g., penicillin)? 89) ______
A) a
B) b
C) both a and b
D) neither a nor b
E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.

90) In Figure 4.3, which diagram of a cell wall contains teichoic acids? 90) ______
A) a
B) b
C) both a and b
D) neither a nor b
E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.

91) In Figure 4.3, which diagram of a cell wall contains porins? 91) ______
A) a
B) b
C) both a and b
D) neither a nor b
E) The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided.

92) Where are phospholipids most likely found in a prokaryotic cell? 92) ______
A) flagella
B) around organelles
C) the plasma membrane
D) ribosomes
E) the plasma membrane and around organelles

93) Where are phospholipids most likely found in a eukaryotic cell? 93) ______
A) ribosomes
B) the plasma membrane
C) surrounding flagella
D) around organelles
E) the plasma membrane, around organelles, and surrounding flagella

94) Which of the following is NOT found in mitochondria and prokaryotes? 94) ______
A) cell wall
B) binary fission
C) circular chromosome
D) 70S ribosomes
E) ATP-generating mechanism

95) Which of the following statements is correct about diffusion? 95) ______
A) It requires an expenditure of energy by the cell.
B) It is an active process in which molecules move from a region of lower concentration to one of higher concentration.
C) It may require a transport protein.
D) It is a passive process in which molecules move from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration.
E) It involves movement of molecules down a concentration gradient and may require a transport protein.

96) Oxygen crosses a plasma membrane 96) ______
A) by osmosis.
B) through facilitated diffusion.
C) through porins.
D) through simple diffusion.
E) with the help of a nonspecific transporter.

97) In a hypertonic solution, a bacterial cell will typically 97) ______
A) burst.
B) plasmolyze.
C) osmolyze.
D) lyse.
E) stay the same.

98) What will happen if a bacterial cell is placed in distilled water with lysozyme? 98) ______
A) The cell will plasmolyze.
B) Lysozyme will diffuse into the cell.
C) Water will leave the cell.
D) The cell will undergo osmotic lysis.
E) No change will result; the solution is isotonic.

99) How do spirochetes and spirilla differ? 99) ______
A) Spirochetes have a rigid, corkscrew shape while spirilla are helical and more flexible.
B) Spirochetes and spirilla are basically the same organisms and the terms can be used interchangeably.
C) Spirilla are found in chains of cells whereas spirochetes exist as individual cells.
D) Spirilla have an external flagella but spirochetes have axial filaments.
E) Spirochetes do not have a cell wall but spirilla do.

100) Which one of the following pairs is mismatched? 100) _____
A) ribosomes - protein storage
B) sulfur granules - energy reserve
C) metachromatic granules - phosphate storage
D) lipid inclusions - energy reserve
E) gas vacuoles - flotation

101) Which of the following are NOT energy reserves? 101) _____
A) polysaccharide granules
B) sulfur granules
C) metachromatic granules
D) lipid inclusions
E) carboxysomes

102) Which of the following is NOT a functionally analogous pair? 102) _____
A) 9+2 flagella - bacterial flagella
B) nucleus -nucleiod region
C) mitochondria - prokaryotic plasma membrane
D) cilia - pili
E) chloroplasts - thylakoids

103) The DNA found in most bacterial cells 103) _____
A) utilizes histones for chromosomal packaging.
B) is found in multiple copies.
C) is surrounded by a nuclear membrane.
D) is linear in structure.
E) is circular in structure.

104) The cell walls of bacteria are responsible for the shape of the bacteria and the difference in the Gram stain reaction.

106) Cells placed in a hypotonic solution tend to lose water due to osmotic pressure.

107) Small, hydrophobic molecules pass through a cell membrane most easily by diffusion.

108) Spheroplasts, protoplasts, and mycoplasms are bacterial cells without cell walls.

109) Endospores are a reproductive structure.

110) The internal structure of eukaryotic cilia and flagella are the same.

111) Many enzymes in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells are compartmentalized within organelles.

113) If you observe rod-shaped red cells after the Gram stain, you can assume their cell walls contain endotoxin.

1) Which of the following compounds is NOT an enzyme? 1) _______
A) coenzyme A
B) dehydrogenase
C) sucrase
D) β-galactosidase
E) cellulase

2) Which compound is being reduced in the reaction shown in Figure 5.1? 2) _______
A) isocitric acid and α-ketoglutaric acid
B) NAD+
C) NADH
D) α-ketoglutaric acid and NAD+
E) NADH and isocitric acid

3) Which organism is NOT correctly matched to its energy source? 3) _______
A) photoautotroph - CO2
B) chemoautotroph - Fe2+
C) chemoautotroph-NH3
D) chemoheterotroph - glucose
E) photoheterotroph - light

4) Which of the following statements about anaerobic respiration is FALSE? 4) _______
A) It yields lower amounts of ATP when compared to aerobic respiration.
B) It requires cytochromes.
C) It involves the reduction of an organic final electron acceptor.
D) It generates ATP.
E) The complete Kreb’s cycle is utilized.

5) What type of reaction is in Figure 5.2? 5) _______
A) transamination
B) decarboxylation
C) reduction
D) dehydrogenation
E) oxidation

6) What is the fate of pyruvic acid in an organism that uses aerobic respiration? 6) _______
A) It is oxidized in the electron transport chain.
B) It is catabolized in glycolysis.
C) It is converted into acetyl CoA.
D) It reacts with oxaloacetate to form citrate.
E) It is reduced to lactic acid.

8) How is ATP generated in the reaction shown in Figure 5.4? 8) _______
A) oxidative phosphorylation
B) photophosphorylation
C) substrate-level phosphorylation
D) fermentation
E) glycolysis

9) Fatty acids are oxidized in 9) _______
A) glycolysis.
B) the Entner-Doudoroff pathway.
C) the Krebs cycle.
D) the electron transport chain.
E) the pentose phosphate pathway.

10) Which of the graphs in Figure 5.5 best illustrates the activity of an enzyme that is saturated with substrate? 10) ______
A) a B) b C) c D) d E) e

11) Which of the following is the best definition of oxidative phosphorylation? 11) ______
A) Electrons are passed through a series of carriers to O2.
B) Electrons are passed through a series of carriers to an organic compound.
C) ATP is directly transferred from a substrate to ADP.
D) A proton gradient allows hydrogen ions to flow back into the cells through transmembrane protein channels, releasing energy that is used to generate ATP.

12) Which of the following statements about substrate-level phosphorylation is FALSE? 12) ______
A) It involves the direct transfer of a high-energy phosphate group from an intermediate metabolic compound to ADP.
B) It occurs in glycolysis.
C) It occurs in the Krebs cycle.
D) No final electron acceptor is required.
E) The oxidation of intermediate metabolic compounds releases energy that is used to generate ATP.

13) Which of the following statements about photophosphorylation is FALSE? 13) ______
A) The oxidation of carrier molecules releases energy.
B) Energy from oxidation reactions is used to generate ATP from ADP.
C) Light liberates an electron from chlorophyll.
D) It requires CO2.
E) It occurs in photosynthesizing cells.

15) The advantage of the pentose phosphate pathway is that it produces all of the following EXCEPT 15) ______
A) NADPH.
B) precursors for the synthesis of amino acids.
C) precursors for the synthesis of glucose.
D) three ATPs.
E) precursors for nucleic acids.

16) Which of the following statements about beta oxidation is FALSE? 16) ______
A) It is a method of catabolizing fatty acids.
B) It involves the formation of 2-carbon units.
C) It is a step in glycolysis.
D) It is used in petroleum degradation.
E) It involves the formation of acetyl-CoA.

17) In noncyclic photophosphorylation, O2 is released from 17) ______
A) H2O.
B) C6H12O6.
C) sunlight.
D) chlorophyll.
E) CO2.

18) Which of the following is the best definition of fermentation? 18) ______
A) the complete catabolism of glucose to CO2 and H2O
B) the partial reduction of glucose to pyruvic acid
C) the partial oxidation of glucose with organic molecules serving as electron acceptors
D) the production of energy by oxidative-level phosphorylation
E) the production of energy by both substrate and oxidative phosphorylation

19) Which of the following is NOT necessary for respiration? 19) ______
A) quinones
B) cytochromes
C) a source of electrons
D) flavoproteins
E) oxygen

20) Which one of the following would you predict is an allosteric inhibitor of the Krebs cycle enzyme, α-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase? 20) ______
A) NADH
B) α-ketoglutaric acid
C) NAD+
D) citric acid
E) ADP

21) In green and purple bacteria, electrons to reduce CO2 can come from 21) ______
A) CO2.
B) H2S.
C) C6H12O6.
D) chlorophyll.
E) H2O.

23) Which of the following uses CO2 for carbon and H2 for energy? 23) ______
A) chemoautotroph B) photoautotroph
C) photoheterotroph D) chemoheterotroph

24) Which of the following uses glucose for carbon and energy? 24) ______
A) chemoautotroph B) photoautotroph
C) chemoheterotroph D) photoheterotroph

25) Which of the following has bacteriochlorophylls and uses alcohols for carbon? 25) ______
A) chemoautotroph B) photoautotroph
C) chemoheterotroph D) photoheterotroph

26) Cyanobacteria are a type of 26) ______
A) chemoautotroph. B) chemoheterotroph.
C) photoheterotroph. D) photoautotroph.

27) Which of the following statements are true?
1-Electron carriers are located at ribosomes.
2-ATP is a common intermediate between catabolic and anabolic pathways.
3-ATP is used for the long-term storage of energy and so is often found in storage granules.
4-Anaerobic organisms are capable of generating ATP via respiration.
5-ATP can be generated by the flow of protons across protein channels. 27) ______
A) 1, 2, 3
B) 2, 3, 5
C) 1, 3, 4
D) 2, 4, 5
E) All of the statements are true.

28) Microorganisms that catabolize sugars into ethanol and hydrogen gas would most likely be categorized as 28) ______
A) aerobic respirers.
B) heterolactic fermenters.
C) anaerobic respirers.
D) alcohol fermenters.
E) homolactic fermenters.

29) Which of the following statements regarding metabolism is FALSE? 29) ______
A) Anabolic reactions are degradative.
B) Heat may be released in both anabolic and catabolic reactions.
C) ATP is formed in catabolic reactions.
D) ADP is formed in anabolic reactions.

31) Which of the following statements regarding the Entner-Doudoroff pathway is TRUE? 31) ______
A) NADH is generated.
B) ATP is generated.
C) It involves the pentose phosphate pathway.
D) It involves glycolysis.
E) NADH and ATP are generated.

32) Assume you are working for a chemical company and are responsible for growing a yeast culture that produces ethanol. The yeasts are growing well on the maltose medium but are not producing alcohol. What is the most likely explanation? 32) ______
A) The temperature is too low.
B) The temperature is too high.
C) Not enough protein is provided.
D) O2 is in the medium.
E) The maltose is toxic.

33) The rates of O2 and glucose consumption by a bacterial culture are shown in Figure 5.6. Assume a bacterial culture was grown in a glucose medium without O2. Then O2 was added at the time marked X. The data indicate that 33) ______
A) these bacteria don't use O2.
B) these bacteria cannot grow anaerobically.
C) aerobic metabolism is more efficient than fermentation.
D) these bacteria get more energy anaerobically.

35) If a cell is starved for ATP, which of the following pathways would most likely be shut down? 35) ______
A) Kreb’s cycle B) glycolysis
C) pentose phosphate pathway D) Krebs cycle and glycolysis

36) Which of the following statements regarding the glycolysis pathway is FALSE? 36) ______
A) One molecule of ATP is expended.
B) Two NADH molecules are generated.
C) Two pyruvate molecules are generated.
D) Two molecules of water are generated.
E) Four ATP molecules are generated via substrate-level phosphorylation.

37) The graph at the left in Figure 5.7 shows the reaction rate for an enzyme at its optimum temperature. Which graph shows enzyme activity at a higher temperature? 37) ______
A) a B) b C) c D) d

39) Gallionella bacteria can get energy from the reaction Fe2+ → Fe3+. This reaction is an example of 39) ______
A) the Calvin-Benson cycle.
B) reduction.
C) photophosphorylation.
D) fermentation.
E) oxidation.

38) A bacterial culture grown in a glucose-peptide medium causes the pH to increase. The bacteria are most likely 38) ______
A) fermenting the glucose. B) not growing.
C) oxidizing the glucose. D) using the peptides.

40) In Figure 5.8, where is ATP produced? 40) ______
A) a B) b C) c D) d E) e

41) Refer to Figure 5.8. In aerobic respiration, where is water formed? 41) ______
A) a B) b C) c D) d E) e

42) In Figure 5.8, the structure labeled "1" is 42) ______
A) ATP synthase.
B) a cell wall.
C) a plasma membrane.
D) NAD+.
E) cytoplasm.

43) In Figure 5.8, the path labeled "2" is the flow of 43) ______
A) water. B) energy. C) glucose. D) electrons. E) protons.

44) What is the most acidic place in Figure 5.8? 44) ______
A) a B) b C) c D) d E) e

46) Catabolic reactions are generally degradative and hydrolytic.

47) The pentose phosphate pathway can be characterized as an anabolic pathway.

48) In general, ATP is generated in catabolic pathways and expended in anabolic pathways.

49) An apoenzyme that loses its coenzyme subunit will be non-functional.

50) The use of enzymes is necessary to increase the activation energy requirements of a chemical reaction.

51) Glycolysis is utilized by cells in both respiration and fermentation.

52) Carbon fixation occurs during the light-independent phase of photosynthesis.

53) Both respiration and photosynthesis require the use of an electron transport chain.

54) Both respiration and photosynthesis use water molecules for the donation of hydrogen ions.

55) Once an enzyme has converted substrates into products, the active site reverts back to its original form.