Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
126 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
example of conduction |
hot/cold pack, parrafin, ice massage, cryocuff
|
|
example of convection ? Defined: loss or gain of heating resulting from _____ moving in constant motion.
|
example: whirlpool
air/ H20 |
|
example of conversion
|
diathermy and ultrasound
|
|
example of evaporation
|
vapocoolant spray
|
|
freezer for cold packs should be kept in what temperature?
|
25 degrees
|
|
cold bath temperature?
|
55-64 degrees
|
|
controlled cold compression temperature?
|
50--77 degrees
|
|
vapocoolant spray , 3-4 sprays, spray ___ to ____ direction
|
proximal to distal
|
|
Temperature of fluidotherapy?
|
100-118 degrees
|
|
Hot packs should be kept at what temperature?
|
158-167 degrees
|
|
temperature of paraffin?
|
113-122 degrees
|
|
US for deep tissues can reach ___ depth
|
5 cm
|
|
US for superficial tissues can reach ___ depth
|
1-2 cm
|
|
coupling agent such as water for US, must be held to tx area at distance of
|
.5-3.0 cm parallel to area
|
|
area of the transducer that transmits ultrasound energy. This area is always smaller than the US head.
|
ERA (effective radiating area)
|
|
higher or lower? BNR is more favorable, resulting in less "hot spots" or discomfort...
|
lower
|
|
the average ratio of BNR
|
somewhere b/w 2:1-8:1, the higher the ratio, the more critical it is to move the transducer head more rapidly.
|
|
term for depth of penetration of US
|
frequency
1 mHz deep tissues 3 mHz superficial tissues |
|
to determine whether US is continuous or pulsed you must adjust what?
|
duty cycle
20% pulsed 100% continuous |
|
An area 2-3x the size of the transducer head requires duration of ___ mins
|
5
|
|
POOL TEMPS
pain mgmt? therex? woundcare and spasticity? |
99-110
79-92 92-96 |
|
LUMBAR TRACTION
25% of body weight is for? 50% of body weight is for? duration? |
-soft tissue stretch
-actual separation of vertebrae done for 5-30 mins |
|
CERVICAL TRACTION
force for soft tissue stretch? force for joint distraction? |
7-10 % of bodyweight
13-20% of body weight |
|
Compression for prevention of DVTs?
|
16-18 mmHg
|
|
compression for scar tissue mgmt
|
20-30 mmHg
|
|
compression range for edema control
|
30-40 mmHg
|
|
smaller electrodes----> inc/dec? current density?
|
increase
|
|
smaller electrodes inc or dec? current flow?
|
decrease
|
|
smaller electrodes inc/dec? impedance ?
|
increase
|
|
intensity in e-stim is termed _____ and can be in what units?
|
amplitude
volts, microvolts, millivolts.... |
|
in NMES, off time should be ___ times longer
|
5
|
|
What type of TENS is this?
-used for a sensory response, no motor response |
conventional tens
|
|
What type of current is used for Iontophoresis?
|
direct current
|
|
theory for into?
like charges ____. |
repel
|
|
INTO IONS
for calcific deposits |
acetate
|
|
IONTO IONS
for scar tissue, keloids, muscle spasms |
Ca chloride
|
|
IONTO IONS
for fungus |
copper sulfate
|
|
IONTO IONS
for inflammation |
dexamethasone
|
|
IONTO IONS
for adhesive capsulitis |
iodine
|
|
IONTO IONS
for analgesia |
lidocaine
|
|
IONTO IONS
for warts and joint pain |
salicylates
|
|
IONTO IONS
for dermal ulcers, wounds |
zinc oxide
|
|
These kids end up with mental retardation if left untreated, with behavioral and cognitive issues.
present a few months after birth excess phenylalanine |
PKU
|
|
these kids usually die by the age of 5 yrs old. Noticed when at 6 months they start to miss developmental milestones
|
Tay Sachs
|
|
kids with ________ usually experience loss of coordination and muscle weakness, as well as visual and hearing problems
|
mitochrondrial disorders
|
|
decreased ability to metabolize copper.
severe disability b/w 4-6 years old. Kayser fleischer rings round IRIS affects basal ganglia |
WIlsons disease
|
|
increased ph
increased bicarbonate (metabolic disorder) |
metabolic alkalosis
(bicarbonate is basic) |
|
hypoventalation is a symptom of
|
metabolic alkalosis
|
|
metabolic alkalosis is treated with
|
potassium chloride
|
|
excessive diuretic therapy can cause metabolic ____
|
alkalosis
|
|
decreased pH
decreased bicarbonate (metabolic disorder) |
metabolic acidosis
|
|
s&s of metabolic acidosis
|
hyperventalation, cardiac arrythmias
|
|
conditions that can cause metabolic acidosis?
|
renal failure, starvation, DM.......
|
|
tx for metabolic acidosis?
|
sodium bicarbonate
|
|
-type of bone affected with osteoporosis?
-caused by loss of? |
-trebecular and cortical bone
-calcium and phosphorus |
|
Osteoporosis is associated with decreased osteo____ function.
|
osteoblast
|
|
t- score for osteoporosis
|
-2.5 SD or lower
|
|
this condition is characterized by increased osteoclast activity?
excessive bone formation; increased turnover rate. |
Pagets
|
|
master gland
secretes endorphins and controls ovulation |
pituitary gland
|
|
controls the rate at which cells burn fuel from food
|
thyroid gland
|
|
gland that controls reabsorbtion of Ca and phosphate
|
Parathyroid gland
|
|
secrete epinephrine
regulates h20/sodium balance and immune system |
adrenal glands
|
|
in the pancreas
alpha cells produce ___. beta cells produce _____ . |
-glucagon
-insulin |
|
the hypothalamus regulates the ___.
|
CNS
|
|
Dwarfism is associated with ? as well as diabetes insipidus
|
hypopituitarism
|
|
gigantism and acromegaly is associated with?
|
hyperpituitarism
|
|
Addisions and cushings is associated with what type of dysfunction
|
adrenal
|
|
decreased cortisol
hypotension weight loss, anorexia |
Addisons
|
|
"moon" face and buffalo hump are associated with increased cortisol
|
Cushings disease
|
|
S&S:
fatigue/weakness decreased HR weight gain possible rhabdomyolysis |
HYPOthyroidism
|
|
S&S
weight loss anxiety increased HR aka: Graves dx |
HYPERthyroidism
|
|
tx for hyperthyroidism
|
iodine
|
|
name 3 S&S of DM
|
polydipsia
polyuria weightloss blurry vision dehydration fatigue |
|
Hypo/hyperglycemia?
-thirst, polyuria blood sugar > than? |
hyperglycemia
> 180-200 mg/dl |
|
hunger, sweating, HA, shakiness is S&S for
|
hypoglycemia
blood sugar < 70 |
|
all about bile. :)
produced in? stored in? released to ____ to assist with digestion. |
-liver
-gallbladder -duodenum |
|
The pancreas has 2 components, exocrine and endocrine parts.
exocrine part does what? endocrine part does what? |
-secretes digestive enzymes into duodenum
-secretes insulin, regulates serum glucose |
|
Air or blood in the abdominal cavity is termed ____ sign.
|
Kehr's
|
|
When someone has an electrolyte imbalance , PT should watch for........?
|
orthostatic hypotension
|
|
Type of gastritis caused by h. pylori bacteria?
tx for this? |
non erosive gastritis
proton pump inhibitor |
|
HEPATITIS (inflammatory condition of the liver)
which type? transmitted through personal contact, fecal oral route flulike symptoms self limiting |
A
|
|
TYPE OF HEPATITIS?
transmitted through needles and sex. associated with liver failure |
C
|
|
S&S of cirrhosis
|
ascites, jaundice, edema, itching, encephalopathy
|
|
acute renal failure can be caused 2ndary to ?
|
shock, hemmorrhage, burns, PE, kidney stones
|
|
chronic renal failure is caused by?
|
DM, HTN, kidney dx
|
|
NKF stages
score <15 is considered? |
kidney failure
|
|
incontinence associated with involuntary detrusor muscle activation.
|
urge incontinence
|
|
incontinence associated with narrowed or obstructed urethra, prolapsed pelvic organs
|
overflow
|
|
Pregnant women should exercise at _______ % max HR for __ mins
|
50-60%
30 mins |
|
CANCER STAGING
present only in layer of cells in which it began |
stage 0
|
|
CANCER STAGING
in the tissue of origin but no lymph involvement |
stage 1
|
|
CANCER STAGING
spreading into adjacent tissues, lymph nodes may show signs of micro metastasis |
stage 2
|
|
CANCER STAGING
fixation to deeper structures, high likelihood of tissue involvement |
stage 3
|
|
CANCER STAGING
metastasis to another organ or bone |
stage 4
|
|
4 characteristics of a synovial joint
|
joint cavity
articular cartilage synovial fluid fibrous capsule |
|
Capsule sensory nerves?
liagments? |
-pacinian corpuscles, ruffini endings
-free nerve endings, golgi tendon organs |
|
shoulder OPP
|
55 and
30 horiz add |
|
ankle OPP
|
10 pf
|
|
cervical rotation comes from which joint mainly?
|
atlantoaxial joint
|
|
Delorme principle?
1st set 2nd 3rd |
50%
75% 100% of 10 rep max |
|
Oxford technique
1st set 2nd 3rd |
100%
75% 50% |
|
RLA
1. initial contact 2. 3. 4. |
2. loading response
3. midstance 4.terminal stance |
|
RLA
(swing parts) 5. pre swing 6. 7. 8. |
6. initial swing
7.midswing 8. terminal swing |
|
RLA 1-8
|
heel strike
loading response midstance terminal stance preswing initial swing midswing terminal swing |
|
how much hip flexion maximally needed? during which phase?
|
30 degrees
swing, loading response |
|
max hip extension during gait is ___ degrees and needed at ___ ?
|
10 degrees
terminal stance |
|
max knee flexion during gait is ___ degrees and needed during ___?
|
60 degrees
initial swing |
|
max knee extension is 0 degrees and needed during?
|
terminal swing/initial contact
|
|
max PF needed during gait is __ degrees at ___ ?
|
20 degrees
pre swing |
|
reasons for circumduction gait
|
decreased hip/knee flex or insufficient DF
|
|
special test (+) for rupture of long head of the biceps
|
ludington's test
|
|
speeds test?
|
forearm supination shoulder flex to 90 degrees and resist.
(+) for bicipital tendonitis |
|
Adson's maneuver
|
rotate head to involved side, extend and LR shoulder
(+) if pulse diminishes |
|
3 tests for lateral epicondylitis
|
lateral epicondylitis test
Mill's Cozen's |
|
Medial epicondylitis test
|
supinate and extend wrist and extend elbow
|
|
resisting middle finger
|
lateral epicondylitis test
|
|
pronation, wrist flexion, elbow ext
tests for? |
mills test, lat epi
|
|
UPPER LIMB TENSION TEST
for median/musculocutaneous? |
shoulder depression, 10 degrees and, elbow extension, supination, finger and thumb extension
|
|
if 3rd MCP is level with 2nd /4th MCP
|
(+) dislocated lunate; Murphy's sign
|
|
What is the tripod sign?
|
sitting at EOB, passively extend knee...
(+) person leans back (trunk ext) tight HS |
|
normal anteversion?
|
8-15 degrees
|
|
MR foot 30 degrees
tests for anterolaterall instability |
slocums
|
|
ER foot 15 degrees
checks for anteromedial instability |
houghstons
|
|
Pt is prone, knee flexed to 90, cup heels, MR and LR tibia as you apply compressive force; this test is called ____. and tests for?
|
Apley's
meniscus |
|
Normal LR of tibia in adult
|
12-18 degrees
|
|
Normal Q angles for men and women?
|
men: 13
women: 18 |