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42 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
What percentage of cases does the marginal mandibular nerve run below the inferior border of the mandible?
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19% of cases, but only of those cases where the nerve is found posterior to the facial artery and vein
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The Keen technique is used to reduce fracture of what structure?
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Zygomatic arch (through a buccal vestibule approach)
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What is the most important bony suture for future growth when treating a NASO-Septal fracture in the pediatric patient?
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The Septovomerine (it is considered a growth center)
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What is the most important factor in re-establishing the vertical facial height in pan-facial fractures?
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Reduction of mandibular condyle fractures
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Between which two anatomic layers is the safest plane of dissection during the initial elevation of a coronal flap?
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Between the galea (aponeurosis) and pericranium because at this level the frontal branch is superior to the level of dissection, less likely to be damaged
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What is the most frequently fractured area of the edentulous mandible?
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The mandibular body
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How do you differentiate between superior orbital fissure syndrom and orbital apex syndrom?
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Loss of vision. Both conditions involve opthalmoplegia due to involvement of II, IV, VI. Anesthesia due to V1. Ptosis due to loss of sympathetic tone to Mullers muscle
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What is a common cause of Binocular diplopia (as opposed to monocular!)?
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Alteration in globe position. Monocular can be caused by retinal detachment, lens dislocation, corneal scarring, or other traumatic insult to the globe
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What is the mean distance of the optic canal from the posterior ethmoidal foramen?
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5mm. This is about knowing that the optic canal is about 42 mm when measured from the rim, the PEF is ~36mm, and the Anterior EF ~24mm
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What is the greatest width of an upper eyelid defect that can be repaired by primary closure without compromising function?
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25%
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What are the classes of hemorrhage?
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Class I: Up to 15% volume loss (no changes)
Class II: 15-30% volume loss; tachypnea, tachycardia, decreased pulse pressure. Resuscitate with crystalloids Class III: 30-40% loss. Tachycardia, BP drops. Blood and crystalloid resuscitation Class IV: >40% loss. hero tactics |
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How to calculate Cerebral Perfusion Pressure?
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Subtract the Intracranial Pressure from the Mean Arterial Pressure -->((Systolic*1)+(Diastolic*2))/3
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What percentage of the total body surface is an Infant's head as compared to an adult's?
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Twice the percentage
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What is Beck's triad?
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A diagnosis for cardiac tamponade
1. Venous pressure elevation 2. Decline is arterial pressure 3. Muffled heart tones |
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What is the most common MID-facial fracture in pediatric patients?
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The nose
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What is the most common MANDIBLE fracture in pediatric patients?
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The condyles. According to this test, the angle occurs more commonly as the population ages
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What explains the relative lack of pediatric MID-facial trauma compared to adults?
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Big ol' craniums offers some protection to the midface
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What is a consideration for ORIF of condyle fractures in pediatric patients?
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Persistent malocclusion in the permanent dentition
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When do you give a patient Tetanus booster AND tetanus immunoglobulin?
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Never. The booster is if the patient received the shot 10 years ago, or 5 years ago and has a contaminated wound. The Ig is given with the tetanus series if the patient does not know when or if they ever had the tetanus shot.
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What are the indications for removal of teeth in the line of mandibular fractures?
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1. Obvious pathology (caries, perio)
2. Mobility of involved teeth 3. Teeth preventing fx reduction 4. Fractured roots 5. Exposed root apices |
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What is the recommended course of treatment for a patient with an intracapsular fx and normal occlusion?
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Observation. You don't need to do CRIMF if the occlusion is unchanged.
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What eye condition is a contraindication for exploration of an orbital floor fracture?
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Hyphema, due to the possibility of re-bleeding into the anterior chamber.
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Is chemosis likely to be the cause of diplopia?
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No. Chemosis is edema of the palpebral and bulbar conjunctiva.
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What anatomical landmark denotes where it becomes impractical to attempt repair of laceration to the facial nerves?
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Anterior to a vertical line from the lateral canthus. At this point, the branches are too small for repair to be practical
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Which sequelae of craniofacial trauma is accompanied by a strange buzzing sound?
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Carotid-Cavernous fistula.
Caused by abnormal flow of blood from a high flow (internal carotid) to a low flow system (cavernous sinus) |
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Injury to which zone of the neck is most amenable to physical examination?
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Zone 2: extends from the cricoid to the inferior border of the mandible
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What are the zones of the neck?
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Zone 1: from the clavicle to the cricoid
Zone 2: from the cridoid to the mandibular angle Zone 3: from mandibular angle to the base of the skull |
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Which muscle causes the mandibular condyle to frequently be displaced anterior and medial when fractured?
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The lateral pterygoid
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Formation of a cartilaginous callus following an initial formation of a hematoma is what type of bone healing?
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Secondary. Primary does NOT go thru a callus formation
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An MIO of 5mm immediately following 3 weeks of IMF is best explained by what process?
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Muscle splinting (and guarding)
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What is the main sensory innervation of the auricle?
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The greater auricular nerve, originates from the 2nd and 3rd cervical nerves
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Which drugs should be avoided in patient with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
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Definitely diuretics; dehydration exacerbates symptoms. But also, digitalis, nitrates, vasodilators, and beta-adrenergic agonists should also be avoided
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Which type of cardiomyopathy is most often associated with high outflow tract pressures?
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Hypertrophic.
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Caution should be given to administering local anesthetics containing vasoconstrictor to hypertensive patient treated with which medication?
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Non-selective beta blockers
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Which type of heart block is associated with increasing PR intervals?
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Mobitz Type I second degree heart block
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What is the relevance of the acronym MONA?
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Morrphine, Oxygen, Nitroglycerin, Aspirin for a patient with chest pain. Start with oxygen first!
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What are the beneficial effects of using ACE inhibitors and diuretics for treatment of CHF?
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Decrease preload and afterload
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Which type of regurgitation uccurs only during the diastolic phase of heart function?
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Aortic regurgitation
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What is the risk of sudden cardiac death in a patient with aortic stenosis?
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5%
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Wenkeback block is also known as?
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Mobitz Type I
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What factors allow you to discern between respiratory and metabolic acidosis or alkalosis?
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Simple! Respiratory you check pH and pCO2
Alkalosis you check pH and HCO3. |
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What is one of the most important causes of nosocomial pneumonia?
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mechanical ventilation
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