Patho Ii Exam Review

Massive release of histamine with consequent vasodilation and hypotension occurs with what type of shock?

Cardiogenic shock is characterized by low cardiac output, low blood pressure, and low cardiac preload. T/F

Which of the following types of shock has the highest mortality rate?

Bradycardia describes an abnormally slow heart rate.

A patient presenting with fever, hypotension, and lactic acidosis is most likely to be experiencing what type of shock?

All forms of shock are associated with inadequate tissue perfustion.

Which of the following will decrease stroke volume, potentially leading to systolic heart failure?

An example of an acyanotic heart defect is:

Initially, ventral septal defects produce a _______ shunt.

Common ventricular outflow in early embryonic heart:

Pulsus paradoxus is classically found with:

Mitral regurgitation will lead to:

Second-degree heart block type I (Wenckenback) is characterized by:

All of the following are acyanotic congenital defects except:

Which of the following are the result of aortic stenosis?

Which of the following is an accurate description of patent ductus arteriosus?

The common denominator in all forms of heart failure is:

The majority of dysrhythmias are believed to occur because of:

Rheumatic heart disease is most often a consequence of:

If an infant had transposed great arteries in conjunction with a large VSD, which of the following is possible:

Hypertrophy of the right ventricle is a compensatory response to......

The compensatory mechanisms that are triggered following myocardial infarction.....

A patient with heart failure who complains of intermittent shortness of breath during the night is experiencing....

Left-sided heart failure is characterized by:

High blood pressure increases the workload of the left ventricle because it increases_____.

Restrictive cardiomyopathy clinically mimics which of the following:

Which of the following causes Eisenmenger syndrome with a VSD?

Right-sided heart failure usually is a consequence of:

Restrictive pericarditis is associated with:

Hypotension associated with neurogenic and anaphylactic shock is due to:

Cardiogenic and hypovolemic shock can be differentiated based on differences in cardiac preload.

Cardiogenic shock is characterized by:

Low cardiac output in association with high preload is characteristic of:

After sitting in a chair for an hour, an elderly patient develops moderate lower extremity edema. His edema is most likely a consequence of:

Systolic failure is associated with a low cardiac output and low ejection fraction.

Mitral valve stenosis may lead to right ventricular failure.

Tachycardia describes an abnormally slow heart rate.

Inflammation of the inner layer of the heart wall is termed endocarditis.

Truncus arteriosus is the term for the combined fetal atria.

Acute myocardial infarction and unstable angina are both acute coronary syndromes

Inflammation of the inner heart layer is termed pericarditis

Although smoking has been linked to heart disease, it is no longer considered a major risk factor.

Coronary heart disease is also referred to as ischemic heart disease.

An ASD located high in the atrial septum is termed a sinus venosus defect.

what changes do not occur during an acute asthma episode

Another term for Croup Syndrome is:

COPD is emphysema in conjunction with:

Name for procedure to close pneumothorax by introduction of caustic substances into the pleural space:

Persistent abnormal dilation of bronchi:

Which of the following disorders does not alter neuronal function or neuronal communication?

Croup is characterized by:

Term for subjective sensation of uncomfortable breathing:

A patient with a productive cough and a localized area of infiltrate or atelectasis on x-ray probably has:

Viral pneumonia is characterized by:

Disorder characterized by hypersecretion of mucus and productive cough that continues for at least 3 months of the year for at least 2 consecutive years:

To further evaluate the diagnosis of asthma, a child has pulmonary function tests. Which test result is consistent with a diagnosis of asthma?

Copious, foul-smelling respiratory secretions are generally associated with:

Widespread atelectasis, non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema, and fibrosis are characteristic of:

An individual suffering from occupational lung disease due to working in a coal mine would be diagnosed with:

Restriction of which electrolytes is recommended in the management of high blood pressure?

High blood pressure increases the workload of the left ventricle because it increases:

A patient with a blood pressure consistently measured at 140/80 is correctly diagnosed as having stage 1 hypertension.

norepinephrine would cause vasoconstriction?

The most important factor regarding increased peripheral resistance is vasoconstriction.

Peripheral edema is a result of:

A venous thromboembolus is most likely to form _______ and lodge in the ________.

vasoconstriction would result in an increase in systemic blood pressure?

Blood pressure is lowest in the:

Risk factors for hypertension most often alter:

A hypertensive patient is reluctant to adhere to the prescribed plan because he feels fine and doesn't like his new diet. It can be explained to him that high blood pressure increases the risk of all of the following except:

A serious complication of deep vein thrombosis is:

A common cause of secondary hypertension is:

Stimulation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system results in a lowering of MAP

The greatest risk associated with dissecting aneurysms is rupture.

A patient with a blood pressure consistently measured at 109/92 is correctly diagnosed as having stage 1 hypertension.

Blood pressure (MAP) equals the produce of cardiac output and systemic vascular resistance (peripheral resistance)

Deposition of antigen-antibody complexes in the lung after inhalation of organic particles occurs with hypersensitivity pneumonitis.

The hypoxia associated with ARDS responds well to supplemental oxygen.

Emphysema decreases the surface area available for gas exchange.

Infants born prematurely may develop IRDS because their production of surfactant is insufficient.

Chronic bronchitis is defined as a chronic productive cough for at least 6 months for three or more consecutive years.

A person in the end-stages of which disorder are termed "blue bloaters?"

A serious complication of a thromboembolus leaving the left atrium is a cerebrovascular accident (stroke)

A common cause of lymphedema is removal of lymph nodes with surgery for breast cancer.

If viscosity of blood decreases, the resistance to blood flow decreases

Atrial natriuretic peptide:

What best describes lymphedema.

Secondary chronic orthostatic hypotension can be caused by:

a 24 hour urine collection contains 4.0 g of protein. L.E. has progressed to:

Pain in the kidney, as occurs with pyelonephritis or trauma, is a result of:

The cause of chronic pyelonephritis is:

Polycystic renal disease:

The pain that accompanies kidney disorders is called:

Polycystic kidney disease is:

If acute glomerulonephritis progresses to renal failure, what type of renal failure will it cause?

A person with acute pyelonephritis would most typically have:

The fibrosis leading to cirrhosis following alcohol abuse is primarily due to damage to hepatocytes.

Hepatitis C is a chronic condition in about 85% of cases.

Pyelonephritis is an infection of the kidney that commonly follows group A Streptococcus pharyngitis.

Colicky, spasmodic pains in the flank area are likely to occur with ureteral irritation.

Most renal calculi are composed of calcium crystals.

Unilateral renal agenesis is not compatible with life.

Alcohol abuse is the primary risk factor for chronic pancreatitis.

Alcohol abuse is the primary risk factor for chronic pancreatitis.

The reversible stage of alcoholic liver disease is:

The underlying pathologic mechanism of hemochromatosis is:

Another name for jaundice is:

Jaundice is a common manifestation of:

What type of hepatitis virus is commonly associated with post-necrotic cirrhosis?

What is the cause of primary biliary cirrhosis?

Hepatocellular failure produces all of the following except:

A complication of liver disease that is directly attributable to portal hypertension is:

Most gallstones are composed of:

The usual treatment for chronic pancreatitis includes:

A deficiency of lipid digestion or absorption commonly results in:

narcotic analgesic administration could result in a mechanical bowel obstruction:

Common manifestations of peptic ulcer disease include:

Ulcerative colitis is commonly associated with?

Type of bowel movement caused by non-absorbable substances in intestinal lumen attracting water.

All malabsorptive conditions:

Which of the following symptoms suggests the presence of a hiatal hernia?

Patients with chronic renal failure are at high risk to develop hypocalcemia.

Patients with acute renal failure commonly develop metabolic acidosis because of impaired kidney secretion of H+.

Signs and symptoms of chronic renal failure begin to appear when approximately 75% of nephrons have been lost.

Simple intestinal obstructions are due to failure of peristaltic contractions.

Long-term use of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory medications and infections with Helicobacter pylori are causative factors in peptic ulcer disease.

Diverticulitis usually is asymptomatic.

Findings associated with chronic renal failure but not likely to be found with acute renal failure include:

The stage of "renal insufficiency" is associated with:

The most helpful laboratory value in monitoring the progression of renal failure is:

In patients with polycystic kidney disease, renal failure is expected to progress over time as the cystic process destroys more nephrons. At what point will a patient enter the end stage of chronic renal failure?

pyelonephritis could produce prerenal failure

Sixty five year old C.V. was admitted to the hospital for management of dehydration associated with a severe gastrointestinal flu. Improvement in C.V.'s GFR correlates most closely with:

Sixty five year old C.V. was admitted to the hospital for management of dehydration associated with a severe gastrointestinal flu. What type of acute renal failure is C.V. at risk for?

Prerenal kidney failure, regardless of the specific cause, has a single common etiologic factor, which is:

E. Coli is the responsible organism in about 50% of lower urinary tract infections

Infectious cystitis is usually a consequence of bacterial invasion from the urethra

The usual presenting manifestation of bladder cancer is hematuria

Ureteral diverticuli are areas of dilation along the ureter.

The primary cause of stress incontinence is

When a child that has experienced dryness becomes incontinent, it is termed

Which of the following is characterized by a strong and immediate urge to void due to involuntary detrusor contraction?

Most bladder calculi are composed of

Which of the following groups is at highest risk for urinary tract infection

Voiding dysfunction due to CNS or PNS damage is termed

Diarrhea and other lower intestinal fluid losses will contribute to:

Two important renal buffers are

Which of the following arterial blood gases indicates a compensated respiratory acidosis?

For a person with the following blood gas measurements, what would be a compensatory response: pH = 7.2, PaCO2 = 40 mm Hg, HCO3 = 18 mEq/L.

Classify the following arterial blood gas: pH = 7.19, PaCO2 = 49 mm Hg, HCO3 = 24 mEq/L

Vomiting of stomach contents or continuous nasogastric suctioning may predispose to development of

Loss of upper GI contents (e.g. vomiting) may lead to metabolic acid excess, whereas loss of lower GI contents (e.g. diarrhea) may lead to metabolic acid deficit.

A person who chronically hypoventilates will have a higher than normal concentration of bicarbonate in the blood.

A patient with respiratory acidosis can correct for the disorder by hyperventilating

A patient with respiratory acidosis can compensate for the disorder by hyperventilating