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90 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Alpha-1 adrenergic receptors
A. Gs B. Gi C. Go D. Gq E. Probably both Gi and Go F. Directly open an anion channel G. Directly open a cation channel |
D. Gq
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M-1 muscarinic receptors
A. Gs B. Gi C. Go D. Gq E. Probably both Gi and Go F. Directly open an anion channel G. Directly open a cation channel |
D. Gq
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Beta-adrenergic receptors
A. Gs B. Gi C. Go D. Gq E. Probably both Gi and Go F. Directly open an anion channel G. Directly open a cation channel |
A. Gs
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AMPA receptors
A. Gs B. Gi C. Go D. Gq E. Probably both Gi and Go F. Directly open an anion channel G. Directly open a cation channel |
G. Directly open a cation channel
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D1 dopamine receptors
A. Gs B. Gi C. Go D. Gq E. Probably both Gi and Go F. Directly open an anion channel G. Directly open a cation channel |
A. Gs
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GABA-B receptors
A. Gs B. Gi C. Go D. Gq E. Probably both Gi and Go F. Directly open an anion channel G. Directly open a cation channel |
E. Probably both Gi and Go
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5HT-1 receptors
A. Gs B. Gi C. Go D. Gq E. Probably both Gi and Go F. Directly open an anion channel G. Directly open a cation channel |
B. Gi
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5HT-2 receptors
A. Gs B. Gi C. Go D. Gq E. Probably both Gi and Go F. Directly open an anion channel G. Directly open a cation channel |
D. Gq
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5HT-3 receptors
A. Gs B. Gi C. Go D. Gq E. Probably both Gi and Go F. Directly open an anion channel G. Directly open a cation channel |
G. Directly open a cation channel
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Decrease adenylate cyclase activity
A. Gs B. Gi C. Go D. Gq E. Probably both Gi and Go F. Directly open an anion channel G. Directly open a cation channel |
B. Gi
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Increase adenylate cyclase activity
A. Gs B. Gi C. Go D. Gq E. Probably both Gi and Go F. Directly open an anion channel G. Directly open a cation channel |
A. Gs
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Increase phospholipase C activity
A. Gs B. Gi C. Go D. Gq E. Probably both Gi and Go F. Directly open an anion channel G. Directly open a cation channel |
D. Gq
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Increase phospholipase A activity
A. Gs B. Gi C. Go D. Gq E. Probably both Gi and Go F. Directly open an anion channel G. Directly open a cation channel |
B. Gi
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Increase calcium release from intracellular stores
A. Gs B. Gi C. Go D. Gq E. Probably both Gi and Go F. Directly open an anion channel G. Directly open a cation channel |
D. Gq
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Activate potassium channels in the cell membrane
A. Gs B. Gi C. Go D. Gq E. Probably both Gi and Go F. Directly open an anion channel G. Directly open a cation channel |
B. Gi
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Activate calcium channels in the cell membrane
A. Gs B. Gi C. Go D. Gq E. Probably both Gi and Go F. Directly open an anion channel G. Directly open a cation channel |
A. Gs
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Increase cAMP-stimulated protein kinase A
A. Gs B. Gi C. Go D. Gq E. Probably both Gi and Go F. Directly open an anion channel G. Directly open a cation channel |
A. Gs
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Increase DAG-stimulated protein kinase C
A. Gs B. Gi C. Go D. Gq E. Probably both Gi and Go F. Directly open an anion channel G. Directly open a cation channel |
D. Gq
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Nicotinic receptors
A. Gs B. Gi C. Go D. Gq E. Probably both Gi and Go F. Directly open an anion channel G. Directly open a cation channel |
G. Directly open a cation channel
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Kappa opioid receptors
A. Gs B. Gi C. Go D. Gq E. Probably both Gi and Go F. Directly open an anion channel G. Directly open a cation channel |
E. Probably both Gi and Go
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Alpha-2 adrenergic receptors
A. Gs B. Gi C. Go D. Gq E. Probably both Gi and Go F. Directly open an anion channel G. Directly open a cation channel |
E. Probably both Gi and Go
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D2 dopamine receptors
A. Gs B. Gi C. Go D. Gq E. Probably both Gi and Go F. Directly open an anion channel G. Directly open a cation channel |
E. Probably both Gi and Go
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D5 dopamine receptors
A. Gs B. Gi C. Go D. Gq E. Probably both Gi and Go F. Directly open an anion channel G. Directly open a cation channel |
A. Gs
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GABA-A receptors
A. Gs B. Gi C. Go D. Gq E. Probably both Gi and Go F. Directly open an anion channel G. Directly open a cation channel |
F. Directly open an anion channel
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Increase calcium-stimulated protein kinase C
A. Gs B. Gi C. Go D. Gq E. Probably both Gi and Go F. Directly open an anion channel G. Directly open a cation channel |
D. Gq
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Inhibit calcium channels in the cell membrane
A. Gs B. Gi C. Go D. Gq E. Probably both Gi and Go F. Directly open an anion channel G. Directly open a cation channel |
C. Go
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Activate tyrosine kinase
A. Gs B. Gi C. Go D. Gq E. Probably both Gi and Go F. Directly open an anion channel G. Directly open a cation channel |
F. Directly open an anion channel
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Mu opioid receptors
A. Gs B. Gi C. Go D. Gq E. Probably both Gi and Go F. Directly open an anion channel G. Directly open a cation channel |
E. Probably both Gi and Go
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Kainate receptors
A. Gs B. Gi C. Go D. Gq E. Probably both Gi and Go F. Directly open an anion channel G. Directly open a cation channel |
G. Directly open a cation channel
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The euphoric effect of cocaine is due to its blockade of dopamine transporters. According to the theory of compensatory regulation, which of the following might be hypothesized to occur in a cocaine addict who is becoming tolerant to the euphoric effects of cocaine?
1. Tyrosine hydroxylase activity is being increased. 2. D2 autoreceptors are becoming more active. 3. Monoamine oxidase production is being decreased. 4. D1 dopamine receptors are being internalized at a faster rate. A = Only 1,2 and 3 are correct B = Only 1 and 3 are correct C = Only 2 and 4 are correct D = Only 4 is correct E = All of the statements are correct F = None of the statements are correct |
C = Only 2 and 4 are correct
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Nicotinic receptors
A. Gs B. Gi C. Go D. Gq E. Probably both Gi and Go F. Directly open an anion channel G. Directly open a cation channel |
G. Directly open a cation channel
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M2 muscarinic receptors
A. Gs B. Gi C. Go D. Gq E. Probably both Gi and Go F. Directly open an anion channel G. Directly open a cation channel |
B. Gi
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NMDA receptors
A. Gs B. Gi C. Go D. Gq E. Probably both Gi and Go F. Directly open an anion channel G. Directly open a cation channel |
G. Directly open a cation channel
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A person who takes amphetamine every day (an indirect dopamine agonist) may initially experience euphoria, weight loss and increased attention but after a few weeks of daily drug use, these effects wear off. Which of the following changes in dopamine neurotransmission could be the reason?
A. Tyrosine hydroxylase activity is down-regulated. B. Monoamine oxidase activity is up-regulated. C. D2 presynaptic autoreceptors are up-regulated. D. Dopamine stores are being moved into long-term pools. E. Both A and C are true. F. All of the above are true G. None of the above are true |
F. All of the above are true
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Propranolol is a very commonly used drug to treat hypertension and angina because it acts as a beta-adrenergic receptor blocker, thereby decreasing how hard the heart is stimulated to work by the autonomic nervous system. However, a clinical disadvantage to its use is that multiple increasing steps in its drug dose must be given over time to maintain the initial effect of the drug. Which of the following changes in norepinephrine neurotransmission could be the reason?
A. Beta1-postsynaptic receptors ability to couple with Gs is decreased. B. Adenylate cyclase activity becomes less sensitive to stimulation by Gs. C. Phosphodiesterase activity is increased in the postsynaptic cell. D. COMT activity is increased. E. Both A and C are true. F. All of the above are true G. None of the above are true |
G. None of the above are true
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If the potency of Drug A is greater than the potency of Drug B then the EC50 for Drug A will be greater than the EC50 for Drug B.
If the potency of Drug A is greater than the potency of Drug B then Drug A will be more clinically useful than Drug B. A = Both statements are true B = Both statements are false C = The first statement is true and the second statement is false D = The first statement is false and the second statement is true |
B = Both statements are false
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Which of the following drugs has an alpha value for its intrinsic activity that is less than zero but greater than negative one?
A. A full agonist B. An antagonist C. A full inverse agonist D. A partial agonist E. A partial inverse agonist |
E. A partial inverse agonist
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Which of the following drugs has an alpha value for its intrinsic activity that is less than one?
1. A partial agonist 2. An antagonist 3. A full inverse agonist 4. A full agonist A = Only 1,2 and 3 are correct B = Only 1 and 3 are correct C = Only 2 and 4 are correct D = Only 4 is correct E = All of the statements are correct F = None of the statements are correct |
A = Only 1,2 and 3 are correct
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According to the theory of compensatory regulation, which of the following might be hypothesized to occur in a heroin addict who is tolerant to the effects of heroin?
A. Enkephalin production would be increased. B. Phosphodiesterase would become more active. C. Metabolism of enkephalin by peptidases would be increased. D. Mu and kappa receptors would be internalized at a faster rate. E. All of the above are true F. Only C and D are true. |
F. Only C and D are true.
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According to the theory of compensatory regulation, which of the following might be expected to occur in a person taking prazosin, an alpha-1 selective adrenergic receptor antagonist every day for two months?
1. Dopamine beta-hydroxylase activity would be increased. 2. COMT would become more active. 3. Phospholipase C would become more sensitive to activation by G proteins. 4. Long-term storage pools of norepinephrine would be increased while norepinephrine storage in readily releasable pools would be decreased. A = Only 1,2 and 3 are correct B = Only 1 and 3 are correct C = Only 2 and 4 are correct D = Only 4 is correct E = All of the statements are correct F = None of the statements are correct |
B = Only 1 and 3 are correct
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According to the theory of compensatory regulation, which of the following might be expected to occur in a person taking a beta-adrenergic receptor blocker every day for two months?
A. Dopamine beta-hydroxylase activity would be increased. B. MAO-A would become more active. C. Long-term storage pools of norepinephrine would be increased while norepinephrine storage in readily releasable pools would be decreased. D. Adenylate cyclase would become less sensitive to activation by G proteins. E. All of the above are true F. Only C and D are true. |
A. Dopamine beta-hydroxylase activity would be increased.
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Which of the following statements is/are true about spare receptors?
A. They usually mean that receptor molecules are outnumbered by the effector molecules activated by that receptor. B. They make the apparent potency of a drug look lower than the actual affinity of that drug for the receptor. C. They make the slope of the receptor binding curve look more steep than normal. D. They protect the body by insults such as receptor-destroying diseases or suicide antagonists. E. All of the above are true F. Only C and D are true. |
D. They protect the body by insults such as receptor-destroying diseases or suicide antagonists.
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Which of the following is/are true about partial agonists?
A. The alpha value for its intrinsic activity is negative. B. They bind to a different subtype of receptors than do full agonists. C. In the presence of a concentration of full agonist that elicits a maximal effect, a partial agonist will look like a noncompetitive antagonist D. In the absence of any other agonist, a partial agonist will activate the receptor and elicit a response E. All of the above are true F. Only C and D are true. |
F. Only C and D are true.
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The Langmuir equation of receptor occupancy theory states that:
A. The proportion of the maximal drug response that is elicited by a particular concentration of that drug is equal to the ratio of the drug concentration being tested divided by the sum of that drug concentration and the affinity of that drug for the receptor. B. The proportion of the maximal drug response elicited by a particular concentration of that drug is equal to the intrinsic affinity of that drug times the ratio of the drug concentration being tested divided by the sum of the drug concentration being tested and the affinity of that drug for the receptor. C. The percent of the maximal drug response elicited by a particular concentration of that drug is equal to the ratio of the off-rate of the drug from the receptor to the on-rate of the drug to the receptor. D. The percent of the maximal drug response elicited by a particular concentration of that drug is equal to the amount of drug bound to the receptor divided by the total number of that drug’s receptors. |
A. The proportion of the maximal drug response that is elicited by a particular concentration of that drug is equal to the ratio of the drug concentration being tested divided by the sum of that drug concentration and the affinity of that drug for the receptor.
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Which of the following is/are criteria for a receptor-mediated effect?
A. The drug must saturate the receptors at low micromolar concentrations or less. B. There should be a drug that blocks receptor activation at low micromolar concentrations or less. C. The stereoisomers of both agonists and antagonists should have different Kd values. D. Changing the molecular structure of either an antagonist or an agonist should alter its affinity for the receptor. E. All of the above are true F. Only C and D are true. |
E. All of the above are true
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Which of the following are true about receptor‑effector systems?
1. Agonists for the receptors coupled to Gs can open calcium channels in the membrane which could result in an increase in protein phosphorylation. 2. Activation of beta adrenergic or D‑1 dopaminergic receptors activate Gs resulting in increased adenylate cyclase activity and intracellular cAMP levels. 3. Activation of protein kinases can occur via direct receptor activation or indirectly via receptor‑mediated changes in the concentrations of intracellular IP3, DAG, Ca2+ or cAMP. 4. Activation of protein kinases can result in induction of protein synthesis in the nucleus of the cell. A = 1,2 3 are correct B = 1 and 3 are correct C = 2 and 4 are correct D = 4 is correct E = All are correct |
E = All are correct
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Which of the following are true about receptor‑effector systems?
1. Agonists for the receptors coupled to Gs can open calcium channels in the membrane which could result in an increase in protein phosphorylation. 2. Activation of beta adrenergic or D‑1 dopaminergic receptors activate Gs resulting in increased adenylate cyclase activity and intracellular cAMP levels. 3. Activation of protein kinases can occur via direct receptor activation or indirectly via receptor‑mediated changes in the concentrations of intracellular IP3, DAG, Ca2+ or cAMP. 4. Activation of protein kinases can result in induction of protein synthesis in the nucleus of the cell. A = 1,2 3 are correct B = 1 and 3 are correct C = 2 and 4 are correct D = 4 is correct E = All are correct |
A = 1,2 3 are correct
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Which of the following cell functions can be regulated by activation of protein kinases?
1. Neurotransmitter synthesis and metabolism. 2. Second messenger synthesis and metabolism. 3. Protein synthesis and function. 4. Cell shape and movement. A = 1,2 3 are correct B = 1 and 3 are correct C = 2 and 4 are correct D = 4 is correct E = All are correct |
E = All are correct
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Which of the following properties or conditions determine the degree of receptor occupancy by a particular drug?
A. The alpha factor and intrinsic activity. B. Drug concentration and affinity. C. Receptor number and saturability. D. Ionic concentrations. E. A, B and C are true. |
B. Drug concentration and affinity.
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Which of the following is (are) true about log‑dose‑response curves?
A. The potency is a more important determinant of clinical usefulness than is the efficacy. B. If the slope of the log‑dose‑response curve is steeper than expected, this usually means that there are multiple receptors mediating the effect. C. If the slope of the log‑dose‑response curve is shallower than expected, this often means that there is positive cooperativity between receptors. D. The log‑dose‑response curve for a less potent agonist will lie to the left of that for a more potent agonist. E. Drugs with parallel log‑dose‑response curves often act via the same mechanism. |
E. Drugs with parallel log‑dose‑response curves often act via the same mechanism.
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Dizocilpine is a purely noncompetitive antagonist for NMDA receptors. Glutamate is a full agonist for NMDA receptors. There is a high percentage of spare NMDA receptors. How will dizocilpine affect the log‑dose response curve for glutamate?
A. Low concentrations of dizocilpine will increase the half-maximal concentration of glutamate it takes to let sodium into the neuron but will not decrease the maximal amount of sodium that can get into the neuron. B. Low concentrations of dizocilpine will decrease the slope of the log-dose response curve for glutamate to increase intracellular sodium. C. High concentrations of dizocilpine will decrease the maximal amount of sodium that glutamate can let into the cell. D. The presence of dizocilpine should make the affinity and potency of glutamate appear more equal. E. All of the above are true. |
E. All of the above are true.
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Which of the following is (are) true?
A. If the therapeutic indexes are the same for two different drugs then the certain safety factor should also be equal. B. The certain safety factor tells you whether the threshold toxic dose is greater than or less than the maximal therapeutic dose. C. A certain safety factor of 1 indicates that the drug is safe for use in the general population. D. The certain safety factor is usually greater than the therapeutic index. E. All of the above are true. |
B. The certain safety factor tells you whether the threshold toxic dose is greater than or less than the maximal therapeutic dose.
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Which of the following is (are) assumptions of the receptor occupancy theory?
A. The response to a drug is proportional to the number of receptors occupied by that drug. B. One drug molecule reversibly binds to only one receptor molecule at a time and vice versa. C. The response to a drug is determined by the intrinsic activity of that drug. D. Only A and B are true. E. All of the above are true. |
D. Only A and B are true.
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Which of the following is true about specific binding of a radioactively labeled agonist to a population of receptors in a tissue sample?
A. Specific binding is not affected by competitive antagonists that bind to that receptor. B. Specific binding is stereoselective and nonsaturable. C. The slope for the specific binding curve can indicate whether spare receptors exist for that agonist. D. Specific binding is always fully inhibited by partial agonists that bind to that receptor. E. Specific binding does not indicate whether positive cooperativity exists for that receptor. |
D. Specific binding is always fully inhibited by partial agonists that bind to that receptor.
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Which of the following might be expected to occur after prolonged exposure of a synapse to an agonist that mimicked the effects of its neurotransmitter?
A. The number of receptors for the agonist located in the post-synaptic membrane would increase. B. The number of receptors going into storage would decrease. C. The post-synaptic receptors for that agonist would uncouple from their effector proteins. D. The post-synaptic receptors would be phosphorylated at a site that made them shift into a higher affinity state for that agonist. E. The number of autoreceptors for the neurotransmitter would decrease. |
C. The post-synaptic receptors for that agonist would uncouple from their effector proteins.
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Which of the following is (are) likely to cause up‑regulation of post-synaptic Receptor R?
A. Long‑term exposure of Receptor R to high concentrations of an agonist. B. A disease that destroys the presynaptic terminals of synapses that release neurotransmitter that activates Receptor R. C. A disease that causes an increase in the activity of the presynaptic terminals of synapses containing Receptor R thus resulting in more neurotransmitter release than normal. D. Both A and B. E. Both A and C. |
B. A disease that destroys the presynaptic terminals of synapses that release neurotransmitter that activates Receptor R.
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If you took naltrexone, an opioid receptor antagonist, every day for two months, which of the following might occur?
A. Enkephalin production would be decreased. B. Long-term storage pools of enkephalin would be increased and readily releasable pools of enkephalin would be decreased. C. Metabolism of enkephalin by peptidases would be increased. D. Adenylate cyclase would become more sensitive to activation by G proteins. E. Phosphodiesterase would become more active. |
E. Phosphodiesterase would become more active.
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Which of the following is (are) legitimate explanations for why concentrations of drug that cause maximal receptor occupancy are not the same concentrations that cause the maximal biological response to that drug?
A. The drug binds to a large number of receptors with a high affinity but has negative intrinsic activity. B. The capacity of the effector system is limited compared to the total number of receptors available. C. Compensatory responses from other related physiological systems may be interfering with the dose‑response effect of the drug. D. Only B and C are true. E. All of the above are true. |
D. Only B and C are true.
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Which of the following are true about presynaptic receptors?
a. Impulse-regulating autoreceptors increase action potentials b. Heterologous presynaptic receptors can increase neurotransmitter release c. Homologous presynaptic receptors usually increase neurotransmitter release or synthesis d. Presynaptic receptors are usuallly the same subtype as post-synaptic receptors e. All of the above |
b. Heterologous presynaptic receptors can increase neurotransmitter release
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Which of the following properties or conditions determine the degree of receptor occupancy by a particular drug?
a. Receptor number and saturability b. Drug concentrations and affinity c. Ionic concentrations d. The alpha factor and intrinsic activity e. All of the above |
b. Drug concentrations and affinity
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Which of the following drugs has an alpha value for its intrinsic activity that is greater than one?
1. A partial agonist 2. An antagonist 3. A full agonist 4. A full inverse agonist A = Only 1,2 and 3 are correct B = Only 1 and 3 are correct C = Only 2 and 4 are correct D = Only 4 is correct E = All of the statements are correct F = None of the statements are correct |
F = None of the statements are correct
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Which of the following cell functions can be regulated by activation of protein kinases?
1. Ion channel opening and closing 2. Second messenger synthesis and metabolism 3. Protein synthesis and function 4. RNA transcription A = Only 1,2 and 3 are correct B = Only 1 and 3 are correct C = Only 2 and 4 are correct D = Only 4 is correct E = All of the statements are correct F = None of the statements are correct |
E = All of the statements are correct
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The sedative effects of many benzodiazepine agents decreases the longer a person uses these drugs, therefore making them take a higher dose to achieve the same sedation. According to the theory of compensatory regulation, which of the following might be hypothesized to occur in a person who is becoming tolerant to the sedative effects of benzodiazepine?
1. GAD activity is being increased 2. GABA-B autoreceptors are becoming more active 3. GABA transaminase activity is being decreased 4. GABA-A postsynaptic receptors are being internalized faster A = Only 1,2 and 3 are correct B = Only 1 and 3 are correct C = Only 2 and 4 are correct D = Only 4 is correct E = All of the statements are correct F = None of the statements are correct |
C = Only 2 and 4 are correct
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Dizocilpine is a purely noncompetitive antagonist for NMDA receptors. Glutamate is a full agonist for NMDA receptors. There is a high percentage of spare NMDA receptors. How will dizocilpine affect the log-dose response curve for glutamate?
1. Low concentrations of dizocilpine will decrease the half-maximal concentration of glutamate it takes to let sodium into the neuron but will not decrease the maximal amount of sodium that can get into the neuron. 2. Low concentrations of dizocilpine will increase the slope of the log-dose response curve for glutamate to increase intracellular sodium. 3. High concentrations of dizocilpine will not decrease the maximal amount of sodium that glutamate can let into the cell. 4. The presence of dizocilpine should make the affinity and potency of glutamate appear more equal. A = Only 1,2 and 3 are correct B = Only 1 and 3 are correct C = Only 2 and 4 are correct D = Only 4 is correct E = All of the statements are correct F = None of the statements are correct |
D = Only 4 is correct
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Delta opioid receptors
A. Gs B. Gi C. Go D. Gq E. Probably both Gi and Go F. Directly open an anion channel G. Directly open a cation channel |
G. Directly open a cation channel
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Which of the following are true about presynaptic receptors?
1. Impulse-regulating autoreceptors decrease action potentials. 2. Heterologous presynaptic receptors can increase neurotransmitter release. 3. Homologous presynaptic receptors usually decrease neurotransmitter release or synthesis. 4. Presynaptic receptors are usually the same subtype as post synaptic receptors. A = Only 1,2 and 3 are correct B = Only 1 and 3 are correct C = Only 2 and 4 are correct D = Only 4 is correct E = All of the statements are correct F = None of the statements are correct |
A = Only 1,2 and 3 are correct
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Which of the following properties or conditions determine the degree of receptor occupancy by a particular drug?
1. The alpha factor and intrinsic activity. 2. Ionic concentrations. 3. Receptor number and saturability. 4. Drug concentration and affinity. A = Only 1,2 and 3 are correct B = Only 1 and 3 are correct C = Only 2 and 4 are correct D = Only 4 is correct E = All of the statements are correct F = None of the statements are correct |
D = Only 4 is correct
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Which of the following cell functions can be regulated by activation of protein kinases?
1. Neurotransmitter synthesis and metabolism. 2. Second messenger synthesis and metabolism. 3. Protein synthesis and function. 4. Vesicle movement. A = Only 1,2 and 3 are correct B = Only 1 and 3 are correct C = Only 2 and 4 are correct D = Only 4 is correct E = All of the statements are correct F = None of the statements are correct |
E = All of the statements are correct
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Which of the following properties or conditions determine the degree of receptor occupancy by a particular drug?
1. The on-rate and the off-rate. 2. Receptor number and saturability. 3. Drug concentration and affinity. 4. The alpha factor and intrinsic activity. A = Only 1,2 and 3 are correct B = Only 1 and 3 are correct C = Only 2 and 4 are correct D = Only 4 is correct E = All of the statements are correct F = None of the statements are correct |
B = Only 1 and 3 are correct
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Which of the following properties or conditions determine the degree of receptor occupancy by a particular drug?
1. The on-rate and the off-rate. 2. Receptor number and saturability. 3. Drug concentration and affinity. 4. The alpha factor and intrinsic activity. A = 1,2 3 are correct B = 1 and 3 are correct C = 2 and 4 are correct D = 4 is correct E = All are correct |
B = 1 and 3 are correct
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Having an uncalibrated machine that measures the response.
Indicate how each of the following factors contribute most of their influence on the variability to the response to a drug. A. Mostly via pharmacodynamic variables (>90%) B. Mostly via pharmacokinetic variables (>90%) C. Do not affect either pharmacodynamic or pharmacokinetic variables. D. Significantly via both pharmacodynamic and pharmacokinetic variables |
C. Do not affect either pharmacodynamic or pharmacokinetic variables.
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Having higher circulating cortisol levels than normal.
Indicate how each of the following factors contribute most of their influence on the variability to the response to a drug. A. Mostly via pharmacodynamic variables (>90%) B. Mostly via pharmacokinetic variables (>90%) C. Do not affect either pharmacodynamic or pharmacokinetic variables. D. Significantly via both pharmacodynamic and pharmacokinetic variables |
A. Mostly via pharmacodynamic variables (>90%)
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Having hypertension.
Indicate how each of the following factors contribute most of their influence on the variability to the response to a drug. A. Mostly via pharmacodynamic variables (>90%) B. Mostly via pharmacokinetic variables (>90%) C. Do not affect either pharmacodynamic or pharmacokinetic variables. D. Significantly via both pharmacodynamic and pharmacokinetic variables |
A. Mostly via pharmacodynamic variables (>90%)
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Being addicted to pentobarbital.
Indicate how each of the following factors contribute most of their influence on the variability to the response to a drug. A. Mostly via pharmacodynamic variables (>90%) B. Mostly via pharmacokinetic variables (>90%) C. Do not affect either pharmacodynamic or pharmacokinetic variables. D. Significantly via both pharmacodynamic and pharmacokinetic variables |
D. Significantly via both pharmacodynamic and pharmacokinetic variables
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Being Chinese versus being Australian.
Indicate how each of the following factors contribute most of their influence on the variability to the response to a drug. A. Mostly via pharmacodynamic variables (>90%) B. Mostly via pharmacokinetic variables (>90%) C. Do not affect either pharmacodynamic or pharmacokinetic variables. D. Significantly via both pharmacodynamic and pharmacokinetic variables |
D. Significantly via both pharmacodynamic and pharmacokinetic variables
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Having a low body mass index.
Indicate how each of the following factors contribute most of their influence on the variability to the response to a drug. A. Mostly via pharmacodynamic variables (>90%) B. Mostly via pharmacokinetic variables (>90%) C. Do not affect either pharmacodynamic or pharmacokinetic variables. D. Significantly via both pharmacodynamic and pharmacokinetic variables |
B. Mostly via pharmacokinetic variables (>90%)
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Having just eaten a big steak.
Indicate how each of the following factors contribute most of their influence on the variability to the response to a drug. A. Mostly via pharmacodynamic variables (>90%) B. Mostly via pharmacokinetic variables (>90%) C. Do not affect either pharmacodynamic or pharmacokinetic variables. D. Significantly via both pharmacodynamic and pharmacokinetic variables |
B. Mostly via pharmacokinetic variables (>90%)
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Gender
Indicate how each of the following factors contribute most of their influence on the variability to the response to a drug. A. Mostly via pharmacodynamic variables B. Mostly via pharmacokinetic variables C. Do not affect either pharmacodynamic or pharmacokinetic variables. D. Significantly via both pharmacodynamic and pharmacokinetic variables |
D. Significantly via both pharmacodynamic and pharmacokinetic variables
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Fat to muscle ratio
Indicate how each of the following factors contribute most of their influence on the variability to the response to a drug. A. Mostly via pharmacodynamic variables B. Mostly via pharmacokinetic variables C. Do not affect either pharmacodynamic or pharmacokinetic variables. D. Significantly via both pharmacodynamic and pharmacokinetic variables |
D. Significantly via both pharmacodynamic and pharmacokinetic variables
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Stomach contents
Indicate how each of the following factors contribute most of their influence on the variability to the response to a drug. A. Mostly via pharmacodynamic variables B. Mostly via pharmacokinetic variables C. Do not affect either pharmacodynamic or pharmacokinetic variables. D. Significantly via both pharmacodynamic and pharmacokinetic variables |
B. Mostly via pharmacokinetic variables
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Receptor number
Indicate how each of the following factors contribute most of their influence on the variability to the response to a drug. A. Mostly via pharmacodynamic variables B. Mostly via pharmacokinetic variables C. Do not affect either pharmacodynamic or pharmacokinetic variables. D. Significantly via both pharmacodynamic and pharmacokinetic variables |
A. Mostly via pharmacodynamic variables
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Hepatic function
Indicate how each of the following factors contribute most of their influence on the variability to the response to a drug. A. Mostly via pharmacodynamic variables B. Mostly via pharmacokinetic variables C. Do not affect either pharmacodynamic or pharmacokinetic variables. D. Significantly via both pharmacodynamic and pharmacokinetic variables |
B. Mostly via pharmacokinetic variables
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Imprecise measurement
Indicate how each of the following factors contribute most of their influence on the variability to the response to a drug. A. Mostly via pharmacodynamic variables B. Mostly via pharmacokinetic variables C. Do not affect either pharmacodynamic or pharmacokinetic variables. D. Significantly via both pharmacodynamic and pharmacokinetic variables |
C. Do not affect either pharmacodynamic or pharmacokinetic variables.
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Neurotransmitter levels
Indicate how each of the following factors contribute most of their influence on the variability to the response to a drug. A. Mostly via pharmacodynamic variables B. Mostly via pharmacokinetic variables C. Do not affect either pharmacodynamic or pharmacokinetic variables. D. Significantly via both pharmacodynamic and pharmacokinetic variables |
A. Mostly via pharmacodynamic variables
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Diabetes mellitus
Indicate how each of the following factors contribute most of their influence on the variability to the response to a drug. A. Mostly via pharmacodynamic variables B. Mostly via pharmacokinetic variables C. Do not affect either pharmacodynamic or pharmacokinetic variables. D. Significantly via both pharmacodynamic and pharmacokinetic variables |
D. Significantly via both pharmacodynamic and pharmacokinetic variables
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Having more cyclooxygenase activity.
Indicate how each of the following factors contribute most of their influence on the variability to the response to a drug. A. Mostly via pharmacodynamic variables (>90%) B. Mostly via pharmacokinetic variables (>90%) C. Do not affect either pharmacodynamic or pharmacokinetic variables. D. Significantly via both pharmacodynamic and pharmacokinetic variables |
A. Mostly via pharmacodynamic variables (>90%)
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Having impaired kidney function.
Indicate how each of the following factors contribute most of their influence on the variability to the response to a drug. A. Mostly via pharmacodynamic variables (>90%) B. Mostly via pharmacokinetic variables (>90%) C. Do not affect either pharmacodynamic or pharmacokinetic variables. D. Significantly via both pharmacodynamic and pharmacokinetic variables |
B. Mostly via pharmacokinetic variables (>90%)
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Hepatic function contributes to variability in drug response mostly via pharmacodynamic variables.
Neurotransmitter levels contribute to variability in drug response via pharmacodynamic variables. A= Both statements are true: B= Both statements are false: C= The first statement is true and the second statement is false: D= The first statement is false and the second statement is true: |
D= The first statement is false and the second statement is true:
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Disease state contributes to variability in drug response mostly via pharmacodynamic variables.
Age contributes to variability in drug response via both pharmacokinetic and pharmacodynamic variables. A= Both statements are true: B= Both statements are false: C= The first statement is true and the second statement is false: D= The first statement is false and the second statement is true: |
D= The first statement is false and the second statement is true:
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Which of the following might be expected to occur after prolonged exposure of a synapse with an antagonist that blocked the effects of its neurotransmitter?
1. The number of post-synaptic receptors for the agonist on the postsynaptic membrane would decrease. 2. The number of receptors in storage would increase. 3. The post-synaptic receptors would uncouple from their effector proteins. 4. The post-synaptic receptors would be phosphorylated which would shift them into a higher affinity state for that agonist. A = 1,2 3 are correct B = 1 and 3 are correct C = 2 and 4 are correct D = 4 is correct E = All are correct |
D = 4 is correct
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