Phr Flashcards - Spring 2015

Which of the following activities illustrates the administrative role assumed by an HR professional?

a. Filling out EEO reports

b. Implementing the grievance process for an employee threatened with termination.

c. Evaluating the bottom-line contribution of HR programs.

d. Conducting an interviewing seminar for line managers.

Which of the following activities illustrates the operations role played by an HR professional?

a. Ensuring currency of employee records.

b. Conducting recruitment for new job openings.

c. Forming contacts with key individuals outside the organization.

d. Developing criteria for selecting supply chain partners.

Which of the following examples illustrates the strategic role played by HR today?

a. Securing off-site backup and storage of employee transactions and records.

b. Developing a system to track the number of people leaving the organization.

c. Creating a training program for conducting safe and legal terminations.

d. Working with senior and line managers to forecast workforce needs for the next five years.

Which of the following best illustrates the way in which HR's strategic role has transformed its operations role?

a. Upgrading an HRIS system.

b. Establishing relationships with key decision makers throughout the organization.

c. Taking a more active role in responding to employee complaints.

d. Analyzing job descriptions for changes to required skills that will affect recruitment and selection decisions.

The impact of demographic changes on HR is best illustrated by which of the following?

a. Need to learn more about local legislation and rule-making process.

b. Survey adequacy of existing organization communication vehicles for all employees.

c. Establishment of employee self-service centers.

d. Evaluating ethical liabilities posted by supply chain partners.

Which of the following statements about SOX is true?

a. It applies to all companies, no matter their size or whether they are publicly or privately held.

b. It relates primarily to compensation for high-level executives.

c. It has little direct effect on HR.

d. It addresses both insider training and whistleblowing activities.

The supply chain is an example of:

a. flexible internal organization boundaries.

b. a tendency to draw core competencies back into the organization.

c. an extended organization.

d. an organizational structural change required by lean manufacturing principles.

A software company is considering the acquisition of a training company that will provide documentation and training support for its key customers. The company begins a due diligence investigation. Which of the following items will have the LEAST impact on the due diligence process?

a. Obligations to retirement plans

b. History of OSHA complaints

c. Strategies to integrate compensation and benefit systems.

d. Cultural fit of the two companies.

HR can best prepare for a strategic role by

a. enhancing its ability to demonstrate return on investment.

b. expanding the size of the HR function

c. focusing on ways to cut production costs throughout the organization.

d. centralizing HR activity for greater consistency and control

Which of the following best describes a business case?

a. Cost-benefit analysis of business concept

b. Market research into acceptability of a new service or product.

c. Scenario-based test of a business plan.

d. Analysis of a problem and of possible solutions.

Which phase of a project's life cycle is most labor intensive?

a. Problem definition

b. Project planning

c. Implementation

d. Evaluation

The PRIMARY priority of a project manager who is exhibiting the interpersonal role is

a. disseminating information and helping team members.

b. building team norms and fostering harmony

c. allocating resources

d. negotiating differences and monitoring project progress

Which of the following is the MOST important role HR can play in a major change initiative?

a. Communicate regularly with employees.

b. Assume responsibility for implementing the change.

c. Question whether the change is needed.

d. Counsel people who are upset by the change.

What is the FIRST step in locating a third-part vendor to handle an employee assistance program?

a. Create an RFP

b. Conduct on-site visits

c. Analyze needs and define goals

d. Contact potential vendors

Which one of the following HR activities should NOT be outsources?

a. Payroll administration

b. Creation of online employee manuals

c. Relocation programs for employees

d. Development of goals and strategies for improving workforce skills.

Which of the following trends in technology has occurred in business management in the last decade?

a. Mobile computing

b. Stand-alone IT systems for functions within an organization

c. Less vulnerability to exterior threats

d. Less retention of data

Which of the following is an example of strategy development?

a. A company allocates resources to enable it to reach a new market for its products.

b. A company decides to market its products internationally

c. A company motivates employees to increase international sales

d. A company decides to cut back on its international advertising campaign.

A mission statement does NOT need to include

a. what the company does

b. time frame for completion

c. where the company is headed

d. who its customers are

An organization hires only experienced, top-performing people who tend to stay with the company for ten years or more. An organization would consider this situation a(n)

a. Strength

b. Weakness

c. Opportunity

d. Threat

A paper products company divides its business into commercial and consumer divisions. The commercial division decides to expand its market share by forming key account teams to provide its most important customers with better service. This is an example of.

a. Organizational strategy

b. Business unit strategy

c. Corporate vision.

d. Functional strategy.

A short-term objective is generally completed within

a. one month

b. six months to one year

c. one to two years

d. three to five years

Which of the following is NOT a part of strategy evaluation?

a. Take corrective action.

b. Identify threats or opportunities

c. Measure organizational performance.

d. Determine which people are not performing well.

An organization's debts are referred to as its

a. assets.

b. liabilities.

c. equities.

d. receivables.

A company that increases recruitment and selection efforts to staff new positions is in which phase of organizational development?

a. Introduction

b. Growth

c. Maturity

d. Decline

A company that emphasizes training to maintain workforce flexibility and improve productivity is in which phase of organizational development?

a. Introduction

b. Growth

c. Maturity

d. Decline

Which of the following actions might be a likely way to increase employee engagement?

a. Promote a higher degree of managerial control

b. Pay higher wages

c. Explore employee values and needs

d. Use a flat organizational structure

An employee who designs and develops sales training programs reports to both the executive vice president of sales and the vice president of HR. This is an example of what type of organizational structure?

a. Functional

b. Divisional

c. Matrix

d. Task

Which of the following describes the competitive strategies of an organization committed to differentiation?

a. Controlling costs, retaining key people, determining compensation strategy, and cross-training employees.

b. Exploiting all economies of scale and focusing on low-cost production to the exclusion of everything else.

c. Positioning unique product characteristics that customers will value and pay a premium price for.

Formalizing policies, procedures, and rules and communicating them to all employees

Which of the following has the GREATEST effect on wages and pensions?

a. Consumer price index

b. Amount of disposable income

c. Trade agreements

d. Inflation

Which of the following statements about the global economy is NOT correct?

a. The combined economies of Brazil, Russia, India and China may eclipse the US economy by 2020.

b. Western European economies will provides most of the economic growth in the coming decade.

c. Global alliances among organizations will become more common.

d. Growth in the global economy is fueled by middle class growth

Considering technological developments, which of the following is true?

a. Employee productivity has decreased.

b. The costnof Internet access will increase considerably in the future.

c. Introduction of new technologies will lower the stress level of workers.

d. Technology will allow organizations to provide 24-hour services to their customers.

Which of the following statements regarding labor force trends is NOT correct?

a. Lower birthrates in the 1960s and 1970s, combined with recent medical advances will leave us with an aging workforce.

b. Generation X workers are fast becoming managers

c. Entry-level jobs filled by immigrants and high school dropouts will require less training in the future.

d An increasing number of service jobs will be created, while manufacturing jobs will decline.

Which of the following is the BEST data to refer to when designing retention strategies?

a. Differences between Generation X and Generation Y.

b. Advances in technology

c. Turnover trends

d. Unemployment rates

Which of the following demographic trends is predicted?

a. More people with disabilities will be actively recruited to enter the workforce.

b. Dual-career families will decrease

c. Asians will become the largest minority group within the next five years.

d. Unions will continue to focus on traditional membership sources.

For which of the following situations would a cost-benefit analysis be an effective metric?

a. An organization wants to compare its productivity with that of similar competitors

b. A function is seeking budget to hire new staff

c. An investor is seeking information about a company's financial performance.

d. An HR function wants to confirm that its complying with legal and regulatory requirements

A major reason to use a balanced scorecard to measure strategic progress is that this approach

a. provides a more rounded assessment of the results of strategic activity.

b. can be accomplished quickly.

c. extends protection against legal risks to organizations.

d. can be repeated periodically.

Which of the following statements about audits is true?

a. They must conform to certain legal restrictions.

b. They must be completed by objective third parties.

c. They must be repeated to be reliable.

d. They can produce legal implications due to findings and subsequent actions

A company requires job applicants to are applying for a position in their distribution center to take a lifting test. Test results are consistent, and the test measures what it is intended to measure. This test is considered

a. reliable

b. valid

c. neither reliable nor valid

d. both reliable and valid

Which of the following reliability measures is most useful to an organization that requires managers to participate in assessment center activities?

a. Rater agreement

b. Parallel forms

c. Internal consistency

d. Test/retest

Which measure of variation shows how scores are spread out around a mean?

a. Range

b. Percentile

c. Standard deviation

d. Mode

If the correlations coefficient between two numbers is +1, it means that as the value of one variable increases, the value of the other

a. increases.

b. decreases.

c. stays the same.

d. cannot be predicted.

An HR professional sends a survey to 500 of 10,000 employees. This is known as a

a. population.

b. sample.

c. standard deviation.

d. normal distribution.

What is the PRIMARY benefit of appointing a chief ethics officer?

a. Other managers in the organization do not have to handle ethical issues.

b. It reduces the number of employee complains and dispute resolution sessions.

c. Legal counsel does not need to be consulted on ethical issues.

d. It allows for consistent communication of values and standards to the organization.

You are an expatriate manager in a developing country and are having difficulty with timely shipments to the U.S. Local nationals explain that customs officials will expedite shipments if they are given cash payments. Your company has a policy against offering bribes. What is the BEST course of action?

a. Adhere to local practice and offer cash payments to customs officials.

b. Have a local national handle all shipping arrangements.

c. Adhere to your company's policies and look for other solutions to your problem.

d. Ask the company for special dispensation from corporate policies.

In light of SOX expectations of boards of directors, the following are all examples of poor practices EXCEPT

a. A director does not understand the detailed accounting tactics used in structuring an executive compensation package.

b. A fellow director sleeps through many presentations at meetings.

c. The CEO appoints a director not because of qualification but because she is a childhood friends

d. A director cannot describe what the company does an how it makes money

The MOST effective corporate citizenship program is one that

a is tied to the company's strategic plan.

b. requires involvement of less-senior employees.

c. has no relationship to the company's bottom line.

d. creates visibility for the company

Early in its session, Congress passes a bill and sends it to the president. The president takes no action for ten days. What becomes of the bill?

a. It is automatically dead, since it has not been signed.

b. The bill becomes law since Congress is still in session.

The bill is sent back to Congress and passes if a two-thirds majority votes for it.

d. The bill passes automatically if Congress adjourns immediately after passing it.

Which of the following is the BEST example of a regulation?

a Civil Rights Act of 1964

b. Fair Labor Standards Act

c. Interpretation of legal matters related to expatriation

d. Process by which the Department of Labor clarifies the exempt status of employees.

Process that helps an organization focus on how to succeed in the future by evaluating the organization's current status, where it would like to be, and how to get there.

These describe what is important to an organization, dictate employee behavior and create the organization's culture.

This is a vivid, guiding image of an organization's desired future.

This specifies what the organization does, who its customers are, and the priorities it has set in pursuing its work.

This is the process for evaluating an organization's current strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats.

These are specific results, to be accomplished in three to five years, that an organization seeks to achieve in pursuing its mission.

These provide the direction that enables an organization to achieve its long-term objectives.

These serve a purpose similar to short-term objectives but are completed in one to two years.

These are milestones that must be achieved, usually within six months to one year, in order to reach long-term objectives.

These are detailed steps a unit, department or team will take in order to achieve short-term objectives.

What are the four Organizational Development phases?

What are Michael Porter's 3 Competitive Strategies?

An organization focused on _____________ strategy, is focused on optimizing processes for maximum efficiency and cost-effectiveness.

By implementing the ________________ strategy, an organization achieves a competitive edge by always being out front -- having the newest and most innovative products and service.

Organizations that implement the _______ strategy offer a unique range of services, from education to personal help, so that the customer can get the most out of their products/services.

__________ strategists believe that the most rewarding opportunities lie outside the conventional market boundaries -- in the middle of the deep, blue sea, far from familiar landmarks, with no one else around to bother your fishing.

This advantage is common for organizations that rely on knowledge workers and rely on their employees knowing more, seeing more opportunities and acting faster.

The ________ structure is generally more decentralized than the functional one because divisions are separated on the basis of product, customer or market, or region.

The ________ structure combines departmentalization by division and function to gain the benefits of both. It creates a dual rather than a single chain of command.

This term refers to the number of individuals who report to a supervisor. If too large, organizations can be slowed and supervisors have difficulty making decisions quickly. Decisions, once made, can be communicated more quickly, however,

________ serves an organization well when uniformity is imperative. Individuals are expected to follow policies and procedures; they have little discretion over how to perform their work.

_________ is a process that involves a systematic survey and interpretation of relevant data to identify external opportunities and threats and to assess how these factors affect the organization currently and how they are likely to affect the organzation in the future.

The seven factors that affect the external environment

The balanced scorecard approach was designed to provide a concise yet overall picture of an organization's performance as measured against four key areas and from the perspectives of various stakeholders. The 4 key areas assessed in a balanced scorecard are:

KPI stands for

Revenue growth, cost reduction, growth in a particular division or capturing key accounts are examples of __________ KPIs.

A _________ KPI might be measured by factors like the number of return customers, error rates in fulfilling orders or customer satisfaction ratings.

For this KPI, key processes are monitored to ensure that outcomes will be satisfactory. Specific process measures will vary by business

This KPI perspective looks at the ability of employees, the quality of information systems, and the effects of organizational alignment in supporting accomplishment of organizational goals.

The 3 steps to implementing a balanced scorecard system are:

This measurement involves comparing the dollars spent on pay and benefits to an adjusted profit figure

The average cost when an employee leaves is:

The percentage of an organization's revenues that are allocated to the direct costs of employees. It accounts for only on-payroll employees.

This measurement looks at the organization's total investment in building basic skills and improving individual productivity.

This involves measuring the time from approval of requisition until someone is on the job.

This is the organization's cost of finding and selecting quality human capital.

The four steps HR must perform in the M & A process are:

The 4 steps in Project Management are:

The 3 roles of a Project Manager and examples are:

This is an essential tool when competing for limited organizational resources. The steps to create one include a statement of the problem, objectives, potential solutions, project timeline and project metrics.

This project planning tool is also known as horizontal bar chart, milestone chart, or activity chart.

It plots the sequential steps of a project against time.

This project planning tool is an arrow diagram or road map identifying all major events.

Shows how much time is needed to complete a project.

5 common steps in a Change Management model are:

A company must immediately downsize its workforce by 15% due to shrinking markets. What important role will HR play during the process?

A. Form new work teams based on the gaps created by the layoffs.

B. Summarize industry trends and communicate them to employees.

C. Ensure that top management regularly communicates with employees.

D. Launch a new quality initiative to preserve customer satisfaction.

The following are steps in what process?

Analyze needs and define goals.

Define budget.

Create RFP.

Send RFPs to vendors.

Evaluate vendor proposals.

Choose vendor.

Negotiate contract.

Implement and monitor.

Evaluate.

The four phases of the Strategic Planning Process are:

In this phase of strategic planning, HR must:

Develop vision and mission statements.

Define organizational values.

In this phase of strategic planning, HR must:

Conduct a SWOT analysis, including an environmental scan.

Establish long-term objectives (three to five years).

Identify strategies.

In this phase of strategic planning, HR must:

Establish short-term objectives (six months to a year).

Develop action plans.

Allocate resources.

Motivate employees.

In this phase of strategic planning, HR must:

Review strategies.

Measure performance.

Take corrective action.

This summarizes a firm's financial position at one point in time.

The basic form is Assets = Liabilities + Equity.

It only records transactions measured in money (excludes humans)

This compares revenues, expenses, and profits over a specified period of time.

The basic form of the statement is:

Revenues – Expenses = Net income.

Owner withdrawals are distributions, not operating expenses.

This cornerstone of the federal antidiscrimination legislation was passed in 1964.

Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 makes it illegal to discriminate in employment on the basis of what 5 factors?

4 exceptions regarding the definition of discrimination for Title VII

This act, passed in 1967, prohibits discrimination in employment against people age 40 or over.

This act from 1978 prohibits discriminating against a woman because she is pregnant and treats pregnancy the same as any other temporary disability.

Title 1 of the Americans with Disabilities Act does what?

The ADA considers an individual disabled if they:

Signed into law in 2008, this broadened the ADA's definition of a disability.

From 1978, this covers all aspects of the selection process, including recruiting, testing, interviewing and performance appraisals. They recommend that employers be able to demonstrate that selection procedures that have an adverse impact upon minorities or women are valid in predicting or measuring performance in a particular job.

What percentage is used as the rule when determining if there is adverse impact?

This is the practice in which employers make efforts to increase the presence of women, minorities, covered veterans, and disabled individuals in the workplace and take positive steps to correct their underutilization.

This order "prohibits federal contractors and federally assisted construction contractors and subcontractors who do over $10,000 in government business in one year from discriminating in employment decisions on the basis of race, color, religion, sex or national origin."

This requires federal government contractors and subs to take affirmative action to employe and advance in employment specified categories of veterans and prohibits discrimination against such veterans.

VEVRAA applies to contracts in the amount of $25,000 or more and applies to those entered into before December 1, 2003. This amendment applies only to those entered into ON OR AFTER December 1, 2003.

This act from 1973 prohibits discrimination based on physical or mental disabilities.

This law (1952) addresses employment eligibility and employment verification. It defines the conditions for temporary and permanent employment in the US.

This act from 1986 addressed the need to curtail illegal immigration and is enforced by the Department of Homeland Security since 2003.

USCIS stands for

The 3 kinds of IMMIGRANT Visas are:

This is the most common NONIMMIGRANT work Visa andrd are issued for a period of 3 years.

This is the streamlined process for obtaining labor certification and is the first stage of the green card process for foreign nationals seeking permanent residence.

This act from 1988 requires some employers to give a minimum of 60 calendar days of advance written notice if a plant is to close or if mass layoffs will occur.

WARN applies to employers who employ:

The 3 specific provisions of the WARN Act that require notices are:

Mass layoff as defined by the WARN Act is:

Plant closings as defined by the WARN Act are:

The following exceptions still require notification under the WARN Act but do not require that notice be provided 60 days in advance. Notification must be given as soon as is practicable.

What company is using a corporate strategy of differentiation?

A. A company sells in volume and offers discounts to its best customers

B. The finished product is sold at a lower price than that of the competition

C. A company develops a product that is uniquely easy to use and charges a premium price

D. A company orders large quantities of parts to get the greatest discount

What financial document lists the revenues, expenses and profits of an organization for a designation period of time?

A. Balance sheet

B. Income statement

C. Financial statement

D. Accounting entries

What is the ESSENTIAL concept behind the stakeholder theory?

A. An organization affects and is affected by complex interests.

B. True value must be determined by the increase in a firm's net worth.

C. Organizations must see employees as partners rather than foes

All stakeholders must receive value for a firm to be considered socially responsible.

Which of the following is a compensable factor?

A. Benefits

B. Seniority

C. Exempt Status

D. Skills

What is an example of implicit culture?

A. Language

B. Food

C. Communications Style

D. Values

What is the primary advantage of a balanced scorecard approach to measuring organization performance?

A. It allows organizations to assess intangibles

B. It takes less time and effort to gather critical data

C. It does not require a financial perspective

D. It requires the involvement of the entire organizaiton

What document is a formal statement describing a company's principles and the business practices that support those principles?

A. Code of conduct

B. Mission statement

C. Strategic plan

D. Employee handbook

Which type of situation that could lead to workplace violence can be controlled by an organization?

A. Unstable economy

B. Domestic problems

C. Low employee self-esteem

D. Pressure for increased productivity

Which business function is likely to be closer to the end of the value chain?

A. Research and development

B. Operations

C. Sales and Marketing

D. Fulfillment

What will increase the potential of reaching successful outcomes in global negotiation?

A Knowledge of cultural norms and behaviors

B Consideration of prevailing interest rates

C. Understanding of the political climate

D. Focus on interests and positions of influence

This act, passed by Congress in 1995, requires that federal employee relations legislation enacted by Congress apply to the employees of Congress as well.

USERRA

Examples of penalties or damages that organizations may experience if they engage in discriminatory practices or violate EE rights legislation

In general, how many days does an individual have to file a claim with the EEOC under Title VII of the 1964 Civil Rights Act?

Which of the following statements about Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 is true?

a. It prohibits discrimination based on race, color, religion, sex or national origin.

b. It remove the limits, or "caps" on damages awarded for intentional discrimination on the basis of gender, religion or disability.

c. It prohibits employers from giving temporary preference to any underrepresented protected class.

d. It prohibits discrimination based on race, color, national origin, religion and age.

What federal agency was established to investigate charges of discrimination under Title VII.

a. NLRB

b. Workers' Compensation Board

c. EEOC

d. ADA Board

Which court ruling creates a safe harbor from punitive damages for employers with good-faith antidiscrimination practices?

a. Faragher v. City of Boca Raton

b. Kolstad v. American Dental Association

c. Meritor Savings Bank v. Vinson

d. General Dynamics Land Systems vs. Cline

Which legislation prohibits mandatory retirement based on age?

a. Older Workers' Benefit Protection Act (1990)

b. Age Discrimination in Employment Act (1967)

c. Rehabilitation Act (1973)

d. Title I of the Americans with Disabilities Act (1990)

The Rehabilitation Act of 1973 prohibits discrimination on the basis of

a. age

b. disability

c. gender

d. national origin

Which of the following statements about the ADA is true?

a. It deals exclusively with employment issues for the disabled.

b. A reasonable accommodation could include hiring an interpreter for a job interview with a deaf applicant.

c. Employers can no longer claim "undue hardship" to escape making the workplace accessible to disabled workers.

d. Current drug users are considered disabled under the definition of the act.

The Pregnancy Discrimination Act of 1978 requires employers to treat pregnancy

a. under the provisions for protected classes

b. the same as any other temporary disability

c. under existing provisions for a long-term disability

d. as a reasonable ADA accommodation

Which of the following documents establishes a worker's identity and employment authorization for Form I-9?

a. US passport

b. Driver's license with photo ID

c. US birth certificate

d. US military card

Under the Immigration Reform and Control Act of 1986, which of the following establishes employment authorization?

a. US military card

b. Government ID card

c. US Social Security card

d. Driver's license with photo ID

Under the EEOC's selection guidelines, adverse impact occurs when the selection rate for a protected class is less than what percentage of that for the group with the highest selection rate?

a. 20%

b. 50%

c. 67%

d. 80%

Which legislation protects workers displaced in the merger of two corporations?

a. Worker Adjustment and Retraining Notification Act

b. Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures

c. Executive Order 11246

d. Immigration Reform and Control Act

What is the MOST likely outcome if no reasonable cause is found during the EEOC complaint process?

a. the EEOC recommends private legal action

b. the EEOC dismisses all charges

c. the EEOC ends its involvement

d. the EEOC mediates conciliation efforts

The Privacy Act (1974) protects the employment records of employees of private companies, the federal government or both?

Who is exempt from the Employee Polygraph Protection Act (1988)?

The Consumer Credit Protection Act limits what?

This 1970 act requires full disclosure of consumer reports by consumer reporting agencies. It also requires written notice and authorization by the employee, pre-adverse action notification and adverse action notification.

This amendment to FCRA removes the requirement that an employer using a third party to conduct a workplace investigation follow the same consent and disclosure requirements. When an investigation involves suspected misconduct, a violation of law or regulations, or a violation of preexisting written policies of the employer, written consent IS NOT required.

One of the requirements of this act is that employers requesting medical information about an applicant or employee obtain a specific written consent describing in clear and conspicuous language the use of the information.

An employer can request that a polygraph test be taken by

a. an employee applying for a public relations position

b. a clerical employee who has entered treatment for substance abuse

c. an accountant whose department is under scrutiny for embezzlement

d. a recovering alcoholic who is seeking a post as a newspaper reporter

Which statement best describes the provisions of the Consumer Credit Protection Act?

a. Employers are prohibited from terminating an employee for one single indebtedness

b. Employees must provide a signed release authorizing payroll deductions

c. Employers have strict legal obligations regarding disclosure of an employee's financial information

d. Employees can set the amount of wages that can be garnished or withheld by an employer

According to the provisions of the Fair Credit Reporting Act, an organization may obtain credit information about an employee before offering a promotion if the individual

a. is a rehabilitated drug offender

b. is provided written notice and gives authorization

c. refuses to take a polygraph test

d. volunteers information about being in arrears for child support

Griggs v. Duke Power

McDonnell Douglas Corp. v. Green (1973)

Albemarle Paper v. Moody (1975)

Washington v. Davis (1976)

St. Mary's Honor Center vs. Hicks (1993)

McKennon v. Nashville Banner Publishing Co. (1995)

Class-action racial discrimination lawsuit against Coca-Cola (2000)

Employers with 100 or more employees and federal contractors with at least 50 employees and a federal contract or subcontract of >=$50,000 must submit this report of workforce data by September 30th each year.

A manager always hires young, attractive women as receptionists. This is an example of

a. disparate treatment.

b. adverse impact

c. reverse discrimination.

d. sexual harassment

A psychological exam that tends to eliminate African-American applicants is an example of

a. disparate treatment.

b. adverse impact.

c. present effects of past discrimination.

d. outmoded selection practices.

In Washington v. Davis, the Supreme Court ruled that

a. a test that has an adverse impact against a protected class is legal if it is job-related.

b. a test used for promotion or selection of employees must be a valid job predictor.

c. an employer must demonstrate a lack of discriminatory intent.

d. the burden of proof lies with the employee to show that any employment requirement is directly job-related.

An African-American is asked to fill out an EEO applicant flow form declaring race and ethnicity. Which of the following statements about this situation is true?

a. The request violates EEO regulations.

b. Compliance is mandatory.

c. The person making the hiring decision cannot be given the form.

d. The form may be incorporated in the employee's file if the employee is hired.

Which of the following provides data on the proportion of current employees in protected classes by job title within a department or organizational unit?

a. Adverse impact analysis

b. Affirmative action plan

c. Availability analysis

d. Workforce analysis

In which section of the AAP would a contractor report that it has 14% women and 28% minorities represented in its management team?

a. Organizational profile

b. Job group analysis

c. Placement goals

d. Identification of problem areas

Which of the following assesses the number of potential employees from protected classes?

a. Adverse impact analysis

b. Affirmative action plan

c. Availability analysis

d. Workforce analysis

Which of the following OFCCP activities focuses on the promotion of minorities and women to senior-level positions?

a. Desk audit

b. Corporate management compliance evaluation

c. Off-site review

d. Workforce analysis

Affirmative action plans (AAPs) are illegal when they

a. define underutilization of women and/or minorities.

b. achieve placement goals within a particular affirmative action plan year.

c. result in the discharge of qualified nonminority employees

d. remedy a specific effect of past discrimination.

Which of the following Supreme Court decision dealt with reverse discrimination?

a. Griggs v. Duke Power

b. Albemarle Paper v. Moody

c. Washington v. Davis

d. General Dynamics Land Systems, Inc., v. Cline

A Caucasian manager who continually uses an ethnic slur for a person of color is an example of

a. quid pro quo

b. adverse impact

c. reverse discrimination

d. harassment

Which of the following forms of sexual harassment occurs when an employee must give in to a supervisor's sexual demands or forfeit a pay increase?

a. Hostile environment

b. Quid pro quo

c. Whistleblowing

d. Reasonable person

Which landmark harassment case established that employers are responsible for the discriminatory acts of their employees?

a. Meritor Savings Bank v. Vinson

b. Faragher v. City of Boca Raton

c. Harris v. Forklift Systems, Inc.

d. Oncale v. Sundowner Offshore Service, Inc.

During which of the following workforce analysis phases would HR analyze the organization as it currently exists?

a. Supply analysis

b. Demand analysis

c. Gap analysis

d. Solution analysis

Turnover analysis is a technique that

a. tracks the rate of employee separations

b. utilizes information provided by individuals associated with an industry to project future industry needs

c. predicts future employment trends based on marketplace data.

d. determines if a relationship exists between two variables through the use of regression analysis and simulations.

Several HR managers are brought together to generate ideas about the impact of technology on HR management and staffing. This best describes which forecasting method?

a. Delphi technique

b. Managerial estimates

c. Multiple regression analysis

d. Nominal group technique

Which forecasting method would be used to make a statistical comparison between gross sales and the number of employees in a retail chain?

a. Delphi technique

b. Staffing ratio

c. Turnover analysis

d. Regression analysis

In which organizational approach to international human resource management is it common to have all key executive positions held by personnel from the headquarters country?

a. Ethnocentric

b. Polycentric

c. Regiocentric

d. Geocentric

Which of the following is the BEST example of an essential job function for a senior shipping specialist in an operations department?

a. Supervise shipping staff to ensure that procedures are followed.

b. Oversee the use of the organization's van when needed.

c. Accompany HR personnel at local recruiting fairs.

d. Encourage shipping staff to participate in an organization-sponsored retirement planning.

A job analysis has identified several knowledge, skill and ability requirements for salespeople responsible for selling a product line to national accounts and government agencies.

Which of the following is an example of a knowledge requirement?

a. Managing time effectively

b. Overcoming customer resistance

c. Maintaining good relations with customers

d. Identifying product features and benefits

A job analysis has identified several knowledge, skill and ability requirements for salespeople responsible for selling a product line to national accounts and government agencies.

Which of the following is an example of a skill requirement?

a. Understanding product advantages

b. Demonstrating product features

c. Knowing government procurement procedures

d. Listing major competitors

A job analysis has identified several knowledge, skill and ability requirements for salespeople responsible for selling a product line to national accounts and government agencies.

Which of the following is an example of an ability requirement?

a. Questioning for prospect need

b. Maintaining friendly relations with suppliers

c. Presenting proposals to decision makers

d. Analyzing territory for market potential

An organization has decided to add a small group of direct salespeople to its current inside sales force and has asked an external consultant to conduct a job analysis to ensure that the direct sales position contributes to the organizational objective of increasing market share. Which of the following job analysis factors would help to establish the necessary knowledge, skills and abilities of the direct sales function?

a. Job context

b. Job specifications/qualification

c. Performance criteria

d. New employee orientation

The PRIMARY purpose of a work log is to

a. compute the average time needed for key tasks.

b. identify patterns that translate into job responsibilities.

c. determine the attitude of incumbents toward the job.

d. help supervisors rank employees' efficiency.

Which of the following is NOT included in the job description?

a. Primary duties and responsibilities

b. Activities performed

c. Rate of pay

d. Working conditions

A benefit of job posting is that it

a. provides a cost-effective way to reach the largest number of applicants at one time.

b. provides an easy way to create a personnel database for job vacancies.

c. allows individuals to maximize career opportunities within an organization.

d. allows employees to indicate interest in a position that is currently filled.

A large employer generally has seven or more applicants per job. Recently, the firm was surprised by a lack of response to newspaper advertisements, resulting in several positions remaining unfilled for weeks. To expand their recruiting efforts, the firm should utilize all of the following steps EXCEPT

a. college and career fairs

b. the state employment service

c. employee referrals

d. job bidding

Which of the following recruitment methods allows candidates to talk to employers about an opening without making a formal job application?

a. Executive search firms

b. Public employment agencies

c. Employee referrals

d. Career fairs

All of the following are good examples of employment branding on an organizational Web page EXCEPT

a. an offer to receive periodic updates about career development

b. a link to information about balancing work and family life

c. information about a pro bono engagement to help the Special Olympics

d. a chance to win free flying lessons for submitting a qualified resume.

Which of the following is a long-term consideration when evaluating the effectiveness of a recruitment program?

a. EEO implications

b. Recruitment costs

c. Relative performance on the job

d. Quantity or quality of applicants

An organization begins with 600 job applicants, narrows the field to 30 qualified applicants, and schedules 30 final interviews. They offer employment to ten applicants and hire six.

What is the yield ratio of qualified applicants to total applicants.

a. 5%

b. 18%

c. 20%

d. 30%

An organization begins with 600 job applicants, narrows the field to 30 qualified applicants, and schedules 30 final interviews. They offer employment to ten applicants and hire six.

What is the yield ratio of offers to final interviews.

a. 10%

b. 30%

c. 33%

d. 50%

An organization begins with 600 job applicants, narrows the field to 30 qualified applicants, and schedules 30 final interviews. They offer employment to ten applicants and hire six.

What is the yield ratio of hires to offers?

a. 10%

b. 60%

c. 70%

d. 73%

An organization receives 250 responses to its job advertisement. They interview 95 qualified applicants, 20 of whom are African-American. Jobs are offered to two African-Americans from this group, but only one accepts the position.

What is the yield ratio of offers to African-Americans to qualified African-American applicants?

a. 5%

b. 10%

c. 15%

d. 20%

An organization receives 250 responses to its job advertisement. They interview 95 qualified applicants, 20 of whom are African-American. Jobs are offered to two African-Americans from this group, but only one accepts the position.

What is the yield ratio of African-American new hires to qualified African American applicants?

a. 5%

b. 10%

c. 15%

d. 20%

Floaters are BEST described as

a. employees scheduled to work less than a regular workweek on an ongoing basis

b. self-employed individuals hired on a contract basis for specialized services

c. people employed directly on an organization's payroll on a short-term basis or for a specific period of time to rotate among several positions or departments

d. long-term temporaries assigned to a client organization

Under which flexible staffing option would a professional employer organization (PEO) be most likely to provide temporary workers with benefits?

a. Payrolling

b. Master vendor arrangement

c. Outsourced or managed services

d. Temp-to-lease programs

A potential advantage of a small firm outsourcing its payroll function is

a. increased continuity rather than having various staff members perform the function

b. the outsourcing organization's employees will be paid only for time worked.

c. less supervisory time on the part of the HR generalist

d. the outsourcing organization's knowledge of payroll processing and administration

Which of the following is a good reason applicant notification should take place in a timely fashion?

a. Organizations are legally required to notify applicants of their status in a timely manner.

b. The recruitment process may have an impact on applicant reactions and subsequent attitudes toward the organization.

c. It lets the applicant know the interview went well.

d It keeps the recruitment process straight

Which of the following statements characterizes a nondirective interview?

a. The interviewer asks all applicants the same questions.

b. The interviewer deliberately creates a high level of anxiety

c. Each applicant is asked different questions about the same skill and ability areas

d. The interviewer's next question is determined by the applicant's response to an open question

A store is planning for expansion to a new geographic region, and applications for management-level transfers are being accepted from internal applicants. If internal recruiting efforts do not yield enough qualified candidates, a newspaper ad in the new geographic region will be run. In this situation, a structured interview process is better than an unstructured process because it

a. is possible to gather dissimilar information and compare qualifications of all candidates while reducing compliance concerns.

b. fulfills EEO requirements about protected class biases and allows the interviewer to legally document subjective impressions of the candidates' nonverbal behavior.

c. is possible to gather similar information from all candidates and ensure that the interview process is job-related and measure what is purports to measure.

d. enables interviewers to measure the sample of behavior with a high degree of consistency by scoring/tallying numerical values assigned to given behaviors.

Which of the following selection practices is illegal under federal law?

a. Obtaining information from references without an applicant's permission.

b. Requiring a job-related test that has adverse impact on minority groups.

c. Determining if an applicant has ever filed a workers' compensation claim.

d. Requiring applicants to submit to a preemployment drug test.

Which interview question has the potential to be discriminatory under federal law?

a. I notice you use a white cane. Are you legally blind?

b. Do you have any relatives who work for this organization?

c. The job requires that you lift a 20-lb. weight and place it on an overhead shelf. Can you do that several times an hour, all day long?

d. Are you over age 18?

Which of the following preemployment tests has the best potential for measuring an applicant's integrity?

a. Ability test

b. Personality test

c. Honesty test

d. Polygraph test

Which of the following selection practices is legal under federal law?

a. Taking age into consideration if an applicant volunteers the information.

b. Requesting applicants to take a polygraph test

c. Rejecting applicants on the basis of their credit record without telling them the name of the party that prepared the report

d. Requesting proof an an applicant's eduation

Which of the following statements about a reliable employment test is true?

a. It determines how the applicant handled previous work situations

b. It avoids linking the responses of successive questions.

c. It must be job-related and measure what it purports to measure.

d. It measures the sample of behavior with a high degree of consistency

An employment test is content-valid if it

a. sufficiently covers the area that it is intended to cover.

b. relates the test to some external criterion, such as particular aspects of the job.

c. establishes correlations between unrelated items

d. adequately measures intangibles such as attitudes and behaviors

Validation studies, such as predictive and concurrent validation, use which of the following?

a. Correlations

b. Multiple means of assessment

c. Multiple assessors

d. Multiple regression

A written test and a hands-on exercise that seek to assess the same criterion is an example of

a. content validity

b. construct validity

c. concurrent validity

d. predictive validity

Interviews with future co-workers is an example of a

a. stress interview technique

b. realistic job preview

c. specialized preemployment test

d. method to establish equity

Which of the following statements about medical examinations is TRUE?

a. Temporary workers can be required to submit to a medical exam before assignment

b. Preemployment health checklists can be requested before an employment offer is made

c. Exams must be job-related and may be required only after an employment offer is made

d. The exam must be completed by the organization's medical staff or a referral.

An offer letter should be sent to a candidate immediately after

a. the hiring decision is made

b. all contingencies are addressed

c. both parties review the employment contract

d. both parties verbally agree to any relocation agreement

An appropriate retention practice for an internal transfer is to

a. offer a spot bonus for accepting the new job

b. make a donation in the employee's name to the charity of his or her choice

c. promise cross-training and partnering with more experienced workers

d. provide a candid portrayal about the position and the opportunities, both short- and long-term, prior to the transfer's accepting the new position.

Which of the following statements is an example of voluntary turnover?

a. A high-performer quits to earn more money at another organization

b. Employees are downsized due to organizational financial difficulties

c. Departmental jobs are eliminated in a merger

d. A supervisor is dismissed for committing quid pro quo harassment

Systems that provide resources for line managers to increase a new hire's productivity and engagement during the first six months on a job describe

a. realistic job previewing

b. orientation

c. onboarding

d. coaching

An organization develops a plan to prepare select employees for positions that are key to achievement of the organization's strategic goals. This is an example of which type of program?

a. Socialization

b. Mentoring

c. Succession planning

d. total rewards

An organization must significantly reduce its workforce because of increased costs resulting from changes in regulatory environment. What should HR do to help the retained employees cope?

a. Survey retained employees

b. Disclose outplacement and severance terms

c. Discount any rumors

d. Explain the regulatory changes

All of the following statement accurately describe employee records management EXCEPT

a. Requirements can vary based on the number of employees

b. State requirements are always the same as federal requirements

c. Employers are required to keep all relevant records until final disposition in a lawsuit

d. Similar records may be required by more than one law

What should an employer do if the requirements for the same record differ between three laws?

a. Keep duplicates of each record in multiple files according to the different requirements

b. Make judgment about maximum retention based on the most important law

c. Retain the information for the longest period of time required

d. Keep the records for the shortest time required unless it involves a federal contractor

KSA stands for...

These two supply analysis techniques use statistics to determine whether relationships exist between two variables. A manager may use these when looking at past performance as a predictor of the future.

Labor productivity (Sales / Number of employees) has been the same for the past 4 years at $12,520. It is assumed that labor productivity will stay the same. However, sales are expected to increase to $5 million. $5mm / $12,520 = 399 employees needed. What kind of analysis is this?

Managerial estimates, Delphi technique and Nominal group technique are all examples of this type of Demand Analysis forecast that uses information from past and present to predict expected future conditions.

This forecasting approach progressively collects information from a group on a preselected issue. Participants list their ideas about the issue and return anonymously to the coordinator who then prepares and sends a second questionnaire to participants that contains all of the ideas sent in response to the first questionnaire. Participants refine each idea and resubmit. This process continues until it is clear that no new ideas are emerging.

This forecasting technique brings individuals together, face-to-face, to discuss issues in a session led by a moderator.

Regression analysis and Simulations are examples of this type of forecast used in demand analysis.

This analysis technique compares Supply analysis to the demand analysis to identify the differences in staffing levels and KSAs needed for the future.

During this type of analysis, an organization decides whether to "build", "buy" or "borrow" talent needed to attain the staffing levels and KSAs required to meet organizational objectives.

In this type of Global Approach, headquarters maintain tight control over the international operations and subsidiaries have little autonomy. Key positions at home and abroad are held by personnel from the headquarters country. This means that talent and skills transfer essentially one way and the headquarters-country HR policies and practices are exported abroad.

In this Global Approach, each international operation is treated as a distinct national entity. Local nationals are hired to manage functions but are rarely promoted to headquarters assignments. Headquarters-country personnel have little impact and talent acquisition policies are unique to each country. There is limited cross-border movement of talent and skills.

In this Global Approach, operations are managed regionally and communications and coordination within a region are high but less so between regions. Employees circulate within regions, talent acquisition is developed and coordinated within regions and there is minimal interregion transfer.

In this Global Approach, the organization is viewed as a single international enterprise rather than a collection of individual headquarters-country and international operations. The strategic plan is global in organization and talent comes from any location. Employees circulate throughout the global organization and talent and skills are deployed globally.

Which KSA is the body of information necessary for task performance?

Which KSA are the capabilities necessary to perform the job?

Which KSA is the level of proficiency needed for task performance?

The following are all part of a what?

Job title and location

Organizational relationships

Duties and responsibilities

Essential job functions

Nonessential job functions

Working conditions

Level of financial accountability

The following necessary qualifications for the job incumbent are examples of what?

Education

Experience

Training

Mental abilities

Physical efforts and skills

Judgment

Decision making

___________________ are the KSAs and other personal characteristics that work together to allow an employee to produce outstanding performance in a given area of responsibility.

(External Costs + Internal Costs) / Total number of hires in a time period = ?

((External Costs + Internal Costs) \ Total first-year compensation of hires in a time period ) x 100 = ?

The resource-based theory of the firm claims that an organization's competitive advantage is determined by its

a. Core capability

b. Relationships with suppliers and buyers

c. Superiority over rival firms

d. Ability to limit new entrants into the industry

Environmental uncertainty for an organization is a function of which two variables?

a. Costs and benefits

b. Planning and forecasting

c. Interest rates and inflation

d. Complexity and stability

A strategy that tries to gain a competitive advantage by providing exceptionally high quality is using which grand strategy?

a. Focus

b. Differentiation

c. Retrenchment

d. Cost leadership

Which form of departmentalization would be BEST if management wanted to avoid problems with duplication of personnel and facilities?

a. Customer classification

b. Matrix

c. Product-service

d. Functional

What of these recommendations would MOST LIKELY result from an environmental scanning analysis?

a. Our prices should increase three percent next year to stay consistent with our competitors.

b. The company can reduce its size through attrition without having to use layoffs if it acts now.

c. Due to expected shortages in the labor force in the next five to ten years, the company will have insufficient workers to run at full capacity.

d. Given last year's yield ratio, the company will need to recruit sixty college graduates to fill four vacancies in the design department.

An organization that calculates the cost of turnover using such measures as separation costs, replacement costs, training and development costs, and lost performance, is using

a. Outlay costs

b. Cost accounting

c. Budget prospective

d. Key performance indicators

A useful model for analyzing the profit potential of a firm within its industry is called the

a. Strategy management model

b. Five forces model

c. Environmental scanning outline

d. Resource allocation plan

Which of the following is NOT one of Porter's five forces of competition?

a. Rival firms

b. Buyers

c. Supplies

d. Technology

Deontology defines right according to

a. What is best for society

b. What is best for each individual

c. What is fair and just

d. What will harm versus help people

A company generally needs a separate staff position to handle HR functions when it reaches what size?

a. 25 employees

b. 100 employees

c. 1,000 employees

d. 2,500 employees

An organization recently completed a merger and wants to develop competency models to enhance work accomplishment. What might HR professionals recommend as first steps in building relevant competency models?

a. Request that functional areas develop their own competency models as soon as possible so that employees understand expectations.

b. Advocate that core competencies based upon strategic goals and objectives be developed for the organization as a whole.

c. Develop models based on key competencies (that apply regardless of position or industry) for today's workers in general.

d. Start the process from the ground up and have individuals prepare competency descriptions based on their own strengths and weaknesses.

To deal with aggressive global competition, an organization downsized and modified its strategic business plan. The most important thing the organization's training and development function must do to support the initiative is to:

a. identify training costs and cost-justifying training

b. promote acceptance and change in employee behavior

c. evaluate the effectiveness of current training programs.

d. link training and development to the new strategic plan.

Which of the following is NOT an example of a learning organization?

a. A software organization where employees are encouraged to join professional associations that increase their networking connections.

b. A car manufacturer that introduces a new SUV in response to market changes

c. A grocery store chain that sends one of its 30 managers to supervisory training.

d. A bank that is implementing a strategic plan

Which of the following is MOST representative of a high-context culture?

a. Simple, direct speech

b. Nonverbal communication

c. Messages aimed at an individual

d. Logical, linear explanation

An article is in the public domain if

a. there is no effect on the value of the copyrighted work.

b. it has already been reproduced by the copyright holder

c. its period of copyright is still in effect

d. it has been produced by the US government.

A training specialist uses a properly cited paragraph from a novel in order to illustrate an important learning point in a training session. The training specialist has followed which of the following?

a. Fair-use provision

b. Public domain

c. Uniform Guidelines

d. Reasonable accommodation

Under which of the following pieces of legislation must employers show that if they select certain individuals for a training session, they are not discriminating against a group of potential participants based on race, color, national origin, religion or gender?

a. Title VII, Civil Rights Act

b. Americans with Disabilities Act

c. Age Discrimination in Employment Act

d. Uniformed Services Employment and Reemployment Rights Act

An organization surveyed its customers to determine their satisfaction levels with various operations within the organization. Findings show that there have been numerous delays in the response to customer inquiries and that the delays were the result of reporting structures limiting communications to "proper channels". Which organizational development approach should be evaluated to avoid future delays?

a. Interpersonal

b. Procedural

c. Structural

d. Technological

Which of the following management consultants advocates a 14-point program and "four quality absolutes"?

a. W. Edwards Deming

b. Joseph M. Juran

c. Philip B. Crosby

d. All three consultants

Which of the following prioritizes categories from most frequent to least frequent?

a. Control chart

b. Process-flow analysis

c. Pareto chart

d. Scatter diagram

Which of the following is an illustration of the relationship between two variables?

a. Control chart

b. Process-flow analysis

c. Pareto chart

d. Scatter diagram

Which is a characteristic of an adult learner?

a. Directed by others

b. Resistant to change

c. Inflexible

d. Focus on "real-world" issues

What is a benefit of incorporating knowledge of the characteristics of adult learners into an HRD program?

a. It allows participants to learn directly from the instructor.

b. It accommodates the different learning styles of adults.

c. It creates a structured environment in which it is easy for the instructor to teach.

d. It tells participants what the best way is for them to learn.

Which learning curve is common when a trainee is learning a difficult task that also requires specific insight?

a. S-shaped curve

b. Plateau curve

c. Decreasing returns

d. Increasing returns

According to Maslow, which of the following is an example of an esteem need?

a. Opportunities for growth

b. Base salary

c. Effective team work

d. Recognition

Which intervention strategy is used when a subject receives no response at all?

a. Positive reinforcement

b. Negative reinforcement

c. Extinction

d. Punishment

Needs assessments may not be conducted in organizations because

a. gaps between employees' skills and knowledge are already known.

b. managers may prefer action over research

c. there is no existing job description

d. knowledge of what other organizations are doing precludes a costly study.

Which level is a needs assessment targeting when measuring what skills are required to perform a job effectively?

a. Individual

b. Task

c. Organizational

d. Strategic

To determine the cost of training per participant, the total cost of training is divided by which of the following?

a. Number of people actually trained

b. Percentage increase in production

c. Percentage decrease in turnover

d. Number of people selected for training

Which of the following should HR consider when defining the target audience for a training program?

a. Potential productivity gains

b. Incentives for completing the training

c. Peer group pressure

d. Knowledge and skill of participants

Which of the following is an advantage of conducting a pilot program?

a. It allows you to evaluate the sequencing of content.

b. Participants can be put at ease concerning the training.

c. It provides the instructional designer with more time to design the program.

d. It creates interest from key stakeholders

Which of the following is a primary advantage of conducting high-level managerial training off-site?

a. it will be easier to diagnose individual learning needs

b. Participants will know exactly when the training will start and end

c. A properly selected off-site location will be more conducive to effective learning.

d. It will be easier to evaluate the extent to which the training objectives are achieved.

Which of the following evaluation methods provides the MOST valuable measurement information?

a. Reaction

b. Learning

c. Behavior

d. Results

The best way for managers to measure observable changes in behavior is through the use of

a. pre/post-measures

b. performance tests

c. performance appraisals

d. questionnaires

Which measurement process assesses complex performance that is difficult to evaluate by means of a questionnaire or interview?

a. Observation

b. Simulation

c. Critical incidents

d. Reaction

The best way for managers to measure the results of training programs is to

a. compare the employees' performance against established performance standards.

b. test employees to determine whether they understand the skills and knowledge presented in training

c. ask employees to assess the effectiveness of the training

d. ask trainers to evaluate the effectiveness of the training

Which of the following is the organization's responsibility in career management?

a. Assess career options inside and outside the organization

b. Design a career path that matches organizational goals

c. Match organizational needs with individual abilities

d. Identify personal abilities and interests

An employee who is reappraising her early career plans, modifying those plans, and maintaining her work productivity is in which stage of the career development model?

a. Early career establishment and achievement

b. Mid career

c. Late career

d. Occupational preparation

In an executive coaching experience, the employee does all of the following EXCEPT

a. develop communication skills

b. learn to produce results

c. identify strengths and weaknesses

d. design a new self-performance appraisal

Succession plans provide which of the following outputs?

a. Summaries of candidate availability

b. Candidate data

c. Compensation levels

d. Position requirements

An organization has defined a group of high-performing key managers in various departments. The organization has decided to provide special development for these individuals. Which career development program is this organization implementing?

a. Dual career ladder

b. Coaching

c. Fast-track program

d Job enrichment

A difference between management and leadership is that

a. management aligns people to the vision and strategies; leadership establishes structure for accomplishing plan requirements

b management energizes people; leadership organizes people to solve problems

c. management establishes the vision; leadership establishes detailed steps and timetables

d. management delegates responsibility and authority for carrying out the plan; leadership communicates the direction by words and deeds.

The two primary dimensions of behavioral theories of leadership are

a. intelligence and task-relevant knowledge

b. consideration and self-confidence

c. consideration and initiating structure

d. initiating structure and intelligence

Which of the following exemplifies Hersey-Blanchard's situational leadership theory?

a. A leader's style must change over time as individuals develop and require a different type of direction and leadership.

b. leaders don't necessarily need personal relationships with mentors to learn from them

c. Leaders need to be charismatic because employees dislike rigid controls and inherently want to accomplish something

d. A team leader is one equally concerned with people and production (task) to the maximum degree.

In the contingency theory of leadership, which of the following refers to the degree of confidence, trust, and respect that followers have in their leader?

a. Task structure

b. Position power

c. Situational favorableness

d. Leader-member relations

Emotional intelligence generally describes the ability to

a. subordinate the emotions of others in favor of oneself.

b. empathize and manage emotions

c. eliminate emotions from strategic decision making

d. exhibit positive rather than negative emotions.

A forced-choice method of appraisal requires an appraiser to

a. measure employees against a five-point rating scale, with 1 being significantly below standard, 3 being standard and 5 being above standard.

b. mark items on a checklist that describe that characteristics and performance of the employee

c. check two of four statements: one that is most like the employee and one that is least like the employee.

d. select key statements from a list of positive and negative statements and build two ranked lists of employee strengths and weaknesses.

Which of the following narrative appraisal methods is completed by a supervisor and a human resource professional?

a. Critical incidents

b. Field review

c. Essay

d. Paired comparison

Which of the following appraisal methods includes the employee in setting goals?

a. 360-degree feedback

b. Behaviorally anchored rating scale

c. Behavior observation scale

d. Management by objectives

Which of the following performance appraisal methods was designed to combat the problems of category rating?

a. BARS

b. MBO

c. MOS

d. 360-degree feedback

An administrative assistant to the divisional manager of a major firm is extremely good with customers and does an excellent job of managing the schedule and keeping the boss informed of critical situations. Because of this, the employee receives consistently excellent appraisals in spite of the fact that paperwork is often incomplete and behind schedule. This is an example of which appraisal error?

a. Halo

b. Horn

c. Contrast

d. Bias

A manager is tempted to rate an employee's performance as excellent based on the employee's strong performance during the last six months. By deciding that the employee's earlier performance must be considered as well, the manager has avoided which appraisal error?

a. Bias

b. Leniency

c. Recency

d. Contrast

If an employee received an excellent rating because the employee was considerably more skilled than fellow workers, it would be an example of which appraisal error?

a. Bias

b. Leniency

c. Recency

d. Contrast

Which of the following is an example of a specific comment used to give feedback?

a. I like the way you relate to customers

b. You could improve the way you relate to customers

c. Your customer satisfaction index is rated 8.8

d. Customers seem to like you

HR Management decides to create a shared services center for career development counseling. Several months later, management notes high turnover in HR offices throughout the organization. What is the most likely reason for this outcome?

a. Natural elimination of redundant positions

b. Strategic workforce management

c. Poor management of the extended effects of an organizations change

d. Weak organizational communication

A needs analysis identifies several department that are expanding or facing future challenges. In this case, the needs analysis was done at which level?

a. Individual

b. Organizational

c. Task

d. Local

Over five years, an employee has been promoted from Scientist I to Scientist III and then laterally moved to the operations department as Engineer III, a position more routine than previous jobs. The employee performed well in previous positions but is clearly performing poorly in the current one. What action should the employee's manager consider?

a. Relocation

b. Transfer

c. Suspension

d. Demotion

What does an effective pre- and post-test training assessment measure?

a. Changes in knowledge before and after training

b. Overall satisfaction of employees

c. Effect of training on organizational goals

d. Time needed to improve performance

What is the difference between career planning and career management?

a. Career planning focuses on the organization's needs; career management focuses on the employee's needs.

b. Career planning focuses on developing a career path; career management focuses on individual skill assessment

c. There is no difference between career planning and career management

d. Career planning responsibility lies with the individual; career management responsibility lies with the organization

What positive outcome will result from coaching high-potential employees?

a. Employees will change jobs less frequently

b. Employees will contribute more effectively to the organization

c. Employees will be less engaged in their current jobs

d. Employees are more likely to leave the organization

What leadership theory maintains that performance depends on the interaction between situation favorableness and leadership style?

a. Situational

b. Behavioral

c. Contingency

d. Trait

How are OD intervention strategies generally characterized?

a. Task, individual or organizational

b. Interpersonal, operational, or team

c. Interpersonal, technological, or structural

d. Functional, dynamic or static

An organization recently revised its strategic business plan to enter a new vertical market. What is the MOST important thing the training department can do to support the initiative?

a. Recruit salespeople with experience in the vertical market

b. Identify the cost of training associated with the new business plan.

c. Monitor the effects of the change on the workforce

d. Determine how training can link to the business plan.

An organization wants to reduce its research and development time by 50%. Which of the following training events is MOST closely linked to this corporate goal?

a. Time management training

b. Data collection and analysis training

c. Leadership training

d. Conflict resolution training

What are 4 characteristics of a Learning Organization?

Knowledge Management focuses on

What is "Localization" in HRD?

What are Hofstede's Value Dimensions (5)?

Describe Low versus High-Context Cultures

What are the 9 SHRM HR Competencies?

When is a work in the public domain?

Organizational culture is shared values and perceptions that...

Three steps of the Organizational Development (OD) Intervention Process

What is Organizational Development?

Systems Theory is based on understanding the relationship between what three components?

Three categories of OD intervention strategies are:

Four examples of OD interventions are:

What kind of chart illustrates variations from normal in a situation over time?

What kind of chart is a visual map that lists out factors thought to affect a problem. It is used to show process failure. Also called "fish bone" or "Ishikawa".

What kind of diagram is used to see if a relationship exists between two variables?

What type of chart displays a distribution of a single type of measurement?

This chart is based on the principle that 80% of effects come from 20% of causes. In this, the bar height reflects frequency or impact of causes.

Which of the following acts requires organizations holding federal construction contracts to pay laborers and mechanics the prevailing wage of the employees in the locality where the work is performed?

a. Davis-Bacon Act

b. Walsh-Healey Act

b. Copeland Act

d. Fair Labor Standards Act

Under the FLSA, which of the following employees must be paid overtime?

a. A janitor who worked 30 hours during the workweek and was paid for 12 hours of vacation time.

b. A vice president in charge of operations who worked 50 hours in a week.

c. A nonexempt employee who worked 45 hours in a week.

d. A security guard who worked 40 hours, including 10 hours on a holiday.

Which of the following statements is true under the provisions of the Fair Labor Standards Act?

a. Public employees may elect to accumulate comp time rather than be paid in cash for overtime.

b. Private employers cannot limit the number of hours an employee works based on age.

c. Severance and vacation pay are regulated by the FLSA.

d. FLSA regulations take precedence over state regulations with regard to minimum wage when state wages are higher.

When calculating overtime, the employer must include the time for an employee who

a. spends two hours at home, waiting for a call to report to work.

b. arrives one hour early for the shift and waits in the employee waiting area.

c. arrives at 8:00 as scheduled but cannot begin work because the needed delivery doesn't arrive until 10:00

d. must commute one hour each way from home to the plant.

Which of the following issues is NOT a consideration when determining equal work under the Equal Pay Act?

a. Skills

b. Gender

c. Effort

d. Responsibility

Which of the following acts sets minimum wages, child labor standards, and overtime pay provisions for workers?

a. Davis-Bacon Act

b. Walsh-Healey Act

c. Copeland Act

d. Fair Labor Standards Act

Which legislation deters discriminatory compensation practices in the workplace and ensures that when discrimination does occur wronged employees can receive fair compensation?

a. Equal Pay Act

b. Lilly Ledbetter Fair Pay Act

c. Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act

d. IRS Intermediate Sanctions

Under the Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act, publicly traded companies are required to

a. disclose the compensation of certain executives to shareholders.

b. provide shareholders with a copy of the organization's compensation philosophy.

c. demonstrate that pay discrepancies between executives and rank-and-file employees are grounded in statistical analysis.

d. pay an excise tax on erroneously awarded incentive-based compensation paid to executives.

Which of the following philosophies would an entitlement-oriented organization embrace?

a. Lifelong employment

b. Individual rewards

c. Bringing in new talent

d. Performance-driven pay

What is a major advantage of an organization having internal equity?

a. It is a sure way to eliminate gender bias.

b. It lowers the amount the organization spends on salaries.

c. It guarantees that all employees have the same benefits.

d. It allows organizations to fairly recognize unique jobs.

An HR manager reviews widely published salary data to ensure that the organization's compensation is superior to regional competition. A potential outcome of this lead compensation philosophy is

a. less likelihood of securing federal contracts

b. improved ability to attract and retain scarce-skill employees

c. increased need for pay openness in the organization

d. fewer categories of nonexempt employees who will qualify for paid overtime.

A salary offer based on widely published salary survey data for a less-skilled position in a locale with an abundant labor pool would most likely equate to which of the following market percentiles?

a. 25th percentile

b. 50th percentile

c. 60th percentile

d. 75th percentile

Which of the following statements regarding job evaluation methods is correct?

a. Quantitative methods are more easily explained to employees.

b. Quantitative methods do not establish the relative order of jobs.

c. Nonquantitative methods evaluate the whole job.

d. Nonquantitative methods evaluate job worth.

Which of the following job evaluation methods would provide a small organization with a quick and inexpensive way to compare one job to another?

a. Ranking

b. Paired comparison

c. Point-factor

d. Factor comparison

Which of the following job evaluation methods would be MOST appropriate for an organization that has a large number of people with similar, defined jobs?

a. Paired comparison

b. Factor comparison

c. Job ranking

d. Job classification

The HR group gathered salary data but was unable to analyze it until the following year. Is the data still considered usable?

a. Yes, if the data is leveled.

b. Yes, if the data is adjusted for wage inflation

c. Yes, if the jobs studied are still comparable

d. No, salary data over six months old is unusable

Which of the following measures uses number of incumbents and salary?

a. Weighted average

b. Unweighted average

c. Median

d. Mode

What is the range spread for a job with a minimum salary of $60,000 and a maximum of $90,000?

a. 15%

b. 33%

c. 50%

d. 67%

Which of the following job classes would typically have the greatest range spread?

a. Production

b. Customer service

c. Supervisor

d. Executive

What is the compa-ratio for an employee who earns $15 per hour where the salary range has a midpoint of $12 per hour?

a. 0.03

b. 0.80

c. 1.25

d. 1.35

Which of the following statements regarding payroll is correct?

a. Social Security taxes are matched and withheld by the employer up to a yearly amount.

b. Medicare taxes are matched and withheld by the employer up to a yearly amount.

c. Voluntary deductions are withheld from employee paychecks before involuntary deductions.

d. Employers must retain paper copies of their payroll records.

Which of the following statements about flat-rate systems is true?

a. They are used most often for bargaining unit jobs.

b. They are used most often for professional jobs.

c. They are used most often in privately held organizations.

d. They are the most cost-effective approach.

A compensation method related to an employee's individual performance is known as

a. an incentive pay plan.

b. a Scanlon plan.

c. a step plan.

d. a merit pay plan.

Which compensation system guarantees an employee a base wage and then pays an additional amount for each unit produced?

a. Straight piece-rate system

b. Differential piece-rate system

c. Production bonus system

d. Commission system

Which of the following statements about person-based pay systems is true?

a. They pay higher performers more aggressively.

b. They pay more to employees with long service.

c. They pay employees for what they are capable of doing, not for what they currently do.

d. They work best in organizations with a few professional employees.

An employee has redesigned its pay structure, and a position has a pay range for the grade of $9.10 to $12.75 per hour. What term would apply to an employee in this position who is earning $8 per hour?

a. Red-circle rate

b. Green-circle rate

c. Broadbanded

d. Career-banded

Two consecutive years of mandated 10% increases in the minimum wage would probably result in which of the following?

a. Compression between the lowest-paid workers and more skilled workers for a retail trade employer

b. Less pressure on the available pool of discretionary funds to pay increases for most employers who have minimum-wage employees

c. Reduced leverage of employees making one to two times the minimum wage in asking for larger pay increases.

d. Increased pressure for larger pay increases among employees making one to two times the minimum wage.

Gainsharing is a type of

a. profit sharing

b. individual incentive plan

c. group incentive

d. commission

An advantage of a stock-based (equity-based compensation plan is that it

a. encourages participants to think more like owners.

b. provides certain income to participants.

c. is preferred by participants over equivalent amounts of cash.

d. has no cost; the equity market creates the value.

What should be the compensation basis for a sales representative whose time is spent acquainting potential customers with the organization's product line and providing technical assistance?

a. Commission

b. Volume (sales) incentive

c. Base salary that represents a large percentage of compensation

d. Sales of new products

All pay decisions should satisfy these six objectives:

The four factors that influence pay levels are:

What is a wage-level decision, wage-structure decision and an individual wage decision?

What are the three different Labor Markets (compensation)?

What are the US Justice Department's Antitrust Safety Zone guidelines for how employers can exchange salary data without violating the law when conducting do-it-yourself surveys?

What are three different types of wage surveys?