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379 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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What is the criteria for the AP axial C spine projection?
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1. ) C3 to T2 or T3 vertebral bodies should be visible.
2. ) Spinous processes are seen to be equal distances from the vertebra body lateral borders. |
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how much rotation of the body is required for an LPO projection of the thoracic spine? (from the plane of the table)
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70 degrees
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A radiograph of an RAO of the cervical spine reveals that the lower intervertebral foramina are not open. The upper vertebral foramina are well visualized. Whats the positioning error?
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insufficient rotation of the upper body
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where is the central ray placed for a lateral upper airway projection?
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at the level midway between the laryngeal prominence the the jugular notch
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Which of the following bony landmarks is located posterior to the acetabulum?
a.ASIS b. ischial tuberosity c.iliac crest d. ischial spine |
ischial spine
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True/False
only a small part of the lesser trochanter, if any, will be visible on a well positioned axiolateral lateral hip. |
True
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A radiograph of a unilateral frog leg projection reveals that the femoral neck is foreshortened and distorted. What can the tech do to improve the visibility of the neck during the repeat exposure.
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decrease the abduction of the femur 20 to 30 degrees from vertical.
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A non trauma pt comes to radiology with a history of chronic right hip pain. The pt is ambulatory but has not had previous radiographs taken of the hip. Which routine is best?
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AP pelvis and unilateral frog leg projections of the right hip.
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Which specific positioning error is present when the left iliac wing is elongated on an AP pelvis radiograph.
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rotation toward the left side.
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Which positioning error is present when the left obturator foramen is more open on an AP pelvis radiograph
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rotation toward the right
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The sacroiliac joint is classified as _________ and has a ________ mobility type.
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synovial : amphiarthrodial
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Where is the CR when performing AP bilateral "frog leg" projection?
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perpendicular to IR, 3 inches below level of ASIS
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What is the CR angle for the outlet projection ?
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20-35 degrees cephalad for males
30-45 degrees cephalad for females |
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This is an axial projection that demonstrates pelvic ring in it's entirety.
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inlet projection
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Where is the CR for inlet?
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midline point at the level of ASIS and 40 degrees caudad.
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What three bones make up the hip bone?
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Ileum, Ischium, Pubis
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How many bones make up the pelvic girdle?
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2 - hip bones
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How many bones make up the Pelvis?
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4 - Right and left innominate(hip) bones, sacrum, coccyx
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The superior margin of the Ilium.
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Iliac crest
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What are the 4 prominent processes of the ilium?
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1. Anterior Superior Iliac spine
2. anterior inferior iliac spine 3. posterior superior iliac spine 4. posterior inferior iliac spine |
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What bones make up the Ischium?
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Body (upper & lower) and Ischial ramus
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The body of the Ischium forms the posterior __ of the acetabulum
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2/5ths
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Expanded portion of the Ischium on which the trunk rests when seated
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Ischial tuberosity
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What parts make up the pubis?
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body, superior ramus, inferior ramus
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The body of the pubis forms the anterior ___ of the acetabulum
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1/5th
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Formed by junction of ischial ramus and pubis inferior ramus
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Obturator foramen
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Which cervical projection best demonstrates the zygapophyseal joints?
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lateral
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Which cervical projection best demonstrates the intervertebral foramen?
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45 degree oblique
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Which thoracic projection best demonstrates the intervertebral foramen?
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lateral
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Which thoracic projection best demonstrates the zygapophyseal joints?
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70degree oblique upside
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Which lumbar projection best demonstrates the intervertebral joints?
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lateral
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Which lumbar projection best demonstrates the zygapophyseal joints?
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45degree oblique downside
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Fracture extends through the pedicles (arch) of C2 with or without subluxation of C2 upon C3.
Occurs when the neck is subjected to extreme hyperextension. |
Hangman's Fx
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collapse of a vertebral body, associated with osteoporosis.
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Compression Fx
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A comminuted fx (splintered or crushed at site of impact) where bilateral offset or spreading of the lateral masses of C1 relative to the dens
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Jefferson Fx
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A fracture line though the base of the dens that can extend into the lateral masses or arches of C1
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Odontoid Fx
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Results from hyperflexion force that causes fx through the vertebral body and posterior elements.
Those elements include: spinous process, pedicles, facets, and transverse processes. |
Chance Fx
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Mostly malignant neoplasms that spread to distant sites through blood and lymphatics.
Can be visualized as destructive with irregular margins and decreased densities, osteoblastic, with increased densities or a combination of both |
Metastases
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Forward movement or slipping of one vertebra in relation to another
Usually occurs at L5-S1 |
Spondylolisthesis
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- A dissolution or breaking down of the vertebra.
The vertebral arch and pars interarticularis separate. On oblique the Scottie dog appears to be wearing a collar, which looks broken. |
Spondylolysis
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Failure of the posterior elements of the vertebrae to close, exposing part of the spinal cord.
Varies in severity and occurs most often at L5 |
Spina Bifida
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What anatomical landmark is at the level of the pubis symphysis?
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greater trochanter
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Which specific positioning error is present when the left iliac wing is elongated on an AP pelvis radiograph
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rotation toward the left side
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what specific positioning error is present when the left obturator foramen is more open on an AP pelvis radiograph?
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rotation toward the right
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where is the CR placed for a unilateral frogleg projection
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midfemoral neck
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what type of CR angle is required for a Judet method
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none - it's perpendicular
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where is the CR placed for the oblique projection focusing on the downside for the Judet method
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2" distal and 2" medial to the ASIS
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Where is the CR placed for the oblique projection focusing on the upside for the Judet method?
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2" distal to the upside of the ASIS
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How much leg rotation is required for an AP distal femur projection?
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5 degrees internally
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how much leg rotation is required for an AP proximal femur projection?
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15-20 degrees internally
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T or F
The femur is the longest and the strongest bone in the body |
true
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The intervertebral foramina of the lumbar spine are located at an angle of __ in relation to the midsagittal plane
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90 degrees
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the portion of each lamina of the superior and inferior articular process is the ______________
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pars interarticularis
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the zygapophyseal joints of the UPPER lumbar vertebrae are located at an angle of __ in relation to the midsagittal plane
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50 degrees
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another term for the sacral horns
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cornu of the sacrum
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which specific aspect of the sacrum articulates with the ilium to form the SI joints
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auricular surface
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which one of the following structures of the sacrum is most posterior?
a. median sacral crest b. promontory c. superior articular processes d. spinous processes |
A. median sacral crest
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the anterior ridge of the body at the first sacral segment
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promontory
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what is the term for the superior aspect of the coccyx
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base
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T or F
the long axis of the sacrum is generally angled more posteriorly in males than females |
false
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what type of joint movement occurs with the zygapophyseal joints
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plane
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what topographical landmark occurs at the level or L4-L5
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iliac crest
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which topographic landmark occurs at the vertebral level of L2-L3
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lower costal margin
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which structure is located at the ASIS
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S1-S2
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T or F
a female is more likely to suffer a Fx of the coccyx due to a backward, sitting type of fall than a male |
true
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T or F
the scottie dog is a sign demonstrated with the oblique projections with the lumbar and thoracic spine |
false
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true or false
the anterior oblique projections will demonstrate the zygapophyseal joints closest to the IR |
false
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the degree of rotation needed to demonstrate the L4-L5 zygapophyseal joints
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30 degrees
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where is the CR centered for an AP L-spine on a 14x17
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iliac crest
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an average of __ segments make up the adult coccyx
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4
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what is the formal term for tailbone
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coccyx
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the superior and inferior vertebral notches join together to form __
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intervertebral foramina
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what CR angulation should be used on an AP L5 S1 projection on a male patient
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30 deg cephalad
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true or false
the second projection for the ferguson method of the scoliosis series requires that the concave side of the curve be built up 3-4 inches by placing blocks beneathe the patient |
false
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a key advantage of a PA projection of the scoliosis study as compared with an AP projection
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reduces patient dose by 90%
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where is the CR centered for an AP axial projection of the sacrum
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2" above pubis symphysis
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what kind of CR angulation is required for an AP projection of the coccyx
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10 deg caudal
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the radiographic image of an oblique lumbar spine in which the neck of the scottie dog looks broken suggests the presence of __
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spondylosis
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a destructive type of lesion with irregular margins and increased density is an indication of possible __
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osteoblastic type of metastes
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a Fx through the vertebral body and posterior elements cause by lap seat belts during an auto accident involving sudden deceleration is a __ Fx
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Chance Fx
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An anterior wedging of vertebra with the loss of body height but rarely cause neurologic symptoms
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compression Fx
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sciatic type of pain resulting from a "slipped disc" indicates
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herniated nucleus pulposus
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a congenitial condition in which the posterior aspects of the vertebrae fail to develop, exposing part of the spinal cord
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spina bifida
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true or false
the forward movement or slipping of one vertebrae in relation to another is termed spondylolysis |
false
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what CR angulation should be used for a lateral sacrum and coccyx projection
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none - cr is perpendicular
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a radiograph of an AP axial sacrum projection reveals that it is foreshortened and the sacral foramina are not cleary seen. the patient was in an AP supine posistion and the tech angled the CR 10 degrees cephalad. what specific positioning error is present?
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insufficient CR anglulation
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a radiograph of an AP axial coccyx projection reveals that the symphysis pubis is superimposed over the distal end of the coccyx. what modification will correct this problem on the repeat?
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decrease the CR angulation
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a radiograph of an AP L5-S1 projection reveals that the joint space is not open. the following factors were used on this female patient: 80 kV, 40" SID, 35 deg caudal angle, and the CR centered at the ASIS. what needs to be done in the repeat?
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change the CR angulation
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A radiograph of an AP projection of the L spine on an average size patient reveals that the psoas major muscles and transverse processes are not visible, the following factors were used: AEC center chamber, 95kV, 40" SID, grid, and 14x17 IR. which of the following modifications will help in the repeat?
A. decrease the kV B. activate all 3 AEC chambers C. decrease mAs D. increase the kV |
A. Decrease the kV
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A PT comes to the radiology department for a lumbar spine series, the initial radiographs reveal possible pathology involving the L5S1 zygapophyseal joints. which of the following positions would best demonstrate this joint space?
A. LAT L5S1 B. 30 deg obliques C. 50 deg obliques D. closely collimated and lat position of L5S1 |
B. 30 deg obliques
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How many bones make up the vertebral column ?
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26
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The spinal cord tapers off distally at the level of:
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L1-L2
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Which of the following curves is classified as being secondary?
Thoracic Cervical Sacral None of these |
Cervical
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What another name for C-2
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Axis
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Scoliosis is defined as an abnormal or exaggerated:
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lateral curvature
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Kyphosis is defined as:
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abnormal thoracic curvature with increased convexity
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What are the bony structures connected directly to the vertebral body?
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Pedicles
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The most posterior aspect of the typical vertebra is the ?
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spinous process
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The joints between the articular processes of vertebra are termed:
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zygapophyseal joints
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Which aspect of the intervertebral disk is composed of semigelatinous material ?
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nucleus pulposus
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Which of the following statements are true?
a.) all adult vertebrae are separated by intervertebral disks b.) All thoracic vertebrae have at least one facet for rid articulation c)disks are tightly bound to prevent movement within the vertebral column. |
b.) All thoracic vertebrae have at least one facet for rid articulation
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What is true for a typical adult vertebra
a. The transverse processes extend laterally from the junction of the pedicles and laminae b. the transverse processes are present only on thoracic vertebrae containing a rib. c. the spinous process extends posteriorly from the body of the vertebra d. all of these are correct |
a. The transverse processes extend laterally from the junction of the pedicles and laminae
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What makes the cervical vertebra unique?
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transverse foramina
overlapping vertebral bodies Bifid tips on spinous processes |
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where is the the articular pillar located on a cervical vertebra?
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between the superior and inferior articular processes
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which term best defines the vertebral body of C1:
a. its the smallest b. a column of bone supported by an intervertebral disk c. a large bony mass d. there is no vertebral body |
d. there is no vertebral body
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which thoracic vertebrae processes have no facets for costotransverse joints?
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T11-T12
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the zygapophyseal joints for the typical vertebra lie at an angle of ____ in relation to the midsagittal plane?
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90 degrees
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The most prominent aspect of the thyroid cartilage corresponds to the vertebral level of:
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C5
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The zygapophyseal joints for the thoracic spine lie at an angle of ____ in relation to the midsagittal plane?
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70 to 75 degrees
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T2-T3 intervertebral disk space is found at the level of the:
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jugular notch
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the gonion corresponds to the vertebral level of:
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C3
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Which positioning factor is most important to open up the intervertebral joint space for a lateral thoracic spine projection.
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keep vertebral column parallel to tabletop.
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which position and or projection of the cervical spine will best demonstrate the zygapophyseal joint spaces between C1- and C2?
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AP open mouth
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along with the upper incisors, what other bony landmark must be aligned for the AP open mouth projection?
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base of skull
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How much CR angulation is required for the AP axial projection for the cervical spine?
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15 to 20 degrees cephalad
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Why are the oblique projections RAO/LAO preferred over the RPO/LPO projections of the cervical spine?
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less thyroid and breast dose
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Which of the following projections will demonstrate the left intervertebral foramina of the cervical spine?
RAO LPO lateral LAO |
LAO
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Which of the following positions will best demonstrate the zygapophyseal joints of the cervical spine?
AP axial Posterior obliques lateral anterior obliques |
lateral
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Which is NOT correct for AP axial C spine projection?
a. C3 to T2 or T3 vertebral bodies should be visible b. spinous processes are seen to be equal distances from the vertebral body lateral borders c. center of the collimation is at C4 d. All of these are correct |
d. All of these are correct
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A patient comes into the department for an L spine study, he has a history of Spondylolithesis of L5. What projection will best demonstrate the severity of this?
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Lateral L5-S1
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A PT comes to the department for a follow up of the L spine. The PT had a spinal fusion at the level of L3-L4 4 months ago. Which projection will best demonstrate the degree of movement at the fusion site?
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lateral hyperflexion and hyperextension
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A female PT is brought to the ER because of an MVA. her chief complaint is pain in the lower lumbar region. The physician orders a lumbar series, but upon question they learn the patient is pregnant. The physician still wants the radiographs done, what can be done to protect the patient and fetus?
A. use higher kV and less mAs B. increase SID C. shield as much as feasibly possible D. All of the Above |
D. ALL OF THE ABOVE
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true or false
The "nose" of the scottie dog represents the spinous process of a lumbar vertebrae |
false
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true or false
the pelvis must remain stationary for an AP right and left bending projections |
true
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for a lateral L5-S1 projection, the CR must be parallel to __.
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interiliac line
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how much obliquitey is required for the posterior oblique projections of the SI joints
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25-30 degrees
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true or false
the LPO position for the SI joints will demonstrate the right joint |
true
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a radiograph of the left SI joint demonstrates it open and clearly seen. which position was performed?
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RPO
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radiographs of oblique projections of the SI joints do not clearly demonstrate the inferior/distal aspect of the joints. what can the tech do to better visualize them?
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angle CR 15-20 degrees
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where is the CR centered for posterior oblique projections of the SI joints
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1" medial to the upside of the ASIS
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where is the CR centered for a lateral L5S1 projection
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1.5" inferior to the iliac crest and 2" posterior to the ASIS
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in the adult sacrum, how many segments are fused together to form the one bone?
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5
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the large winglike mass on each side of the sacral base
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Ala
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where is the longitudinal plane of the lumbar spine positioned for an AP oblique projection
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2" medial to the elevated ASIS
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where does the CR enter the body on an AP axial projection of the lumbosacral junction
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at the level of the ASIS
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occasionally a PT may be placed in the prone position for sacral radiography and a PA projection is performed. What is the CR angulation for this
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15 degrees caudal
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compared with the spinous processes of the cervical and thoracic vertebrae, the lumbar spinous processes are __
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larger and more blunt
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each SI joint is obliqued posteriorly __ degrees
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25 to 30 degrees
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which position or projection of the lumbar series best demonstrates a possible compression Fx
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lateral
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true or false
the lower margin of the IR must include the symphysis pubis for a scoliosis series |
false
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Which of the following factors does NOT apply to a lateral projection of the cervical spine?
a. 72 inch SID b.suspend respiration upon full inspiration c.perform horizontal beam lateral projection if trauma is suspected d. center CR to thyroid cartilage |
b.suspend respiration upon full inspiration
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Why is the chin extended for a lateral projection of the cervical spine?
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to prevent superimposition of the mandible upon the spine.
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True/False
The PA projection JUDD is intended to demonstrate the zygapophyseal joint between C1 and C2. |
false
The AP(Fuchs) or PA(Judd) demonstrate the dens and other structures of C1 to C2 within the foramen magnum. |
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True/False
The posterior cervical obl projections demonstrate the intervertebral foramina and pedicles on the side closest to the IR. |
false
The posterior cervical obliques demonstrate the intervertebral foramina and pedicles on the side of the patient farthest from the IR. |
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What type of CR angle is required for LPO/RPO position of the cervical spine?
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15 degrees cephalad
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What will enhance the visibility of the vertebral bodies during a lateral projection of the thoracic spine?
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Use a breathing technique
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Which of the following positions will best demonstrate the left zygapophyseal joints of the thoracic spine?
LPO RPO RAO lateral |
RPO
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How much rotation of the body is required for an LPO projection of the thoracic spine from the plane of the table?
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70 degrees
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which projection will project the dens within the shadow of the foramen magnum?
a.AP open mouth b.AP Fuchs c. twining method d none of these |
b.AP Fuchs
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A radiograph of an AP open mouth projection of the cervical spine reveals that the zygapophyseal joints are not symmetric. No fracture or subluxation are present. Which positioning error most likely lead to this outcome.
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rotation of the spine
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A pt enters the ER because of a motor vehicle accident. The pt is on a back board wearing a cervical collar. The technologist is concerned about the artifacts that the collar will project on the spine during the lateral. What should the tech do?
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leave the collar on
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A lateral thoracic spine reveals that the upper aspect of the thoracic spine is obscured by the patients shoulders. which changes will best demonstrate this region of the spine.
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perform cervicothoracic (swimmers) lateral position
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A patient comes to radiology for a thoracic spine routine who has a history of arthritis of the spine. The radiologist requests that additional projections be taken to demonstrate the zygapophyseal joints. What positions are ideal to demonstrate these structures?
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70 degree oblique projection
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true/false
An RPO position of the cervical spine requires a 45 degree obl of the body with a 15 degree caudad CR angle |
False
cephalad for RPO/LPO |
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true/false
The anterior oblique thoracic spine demonstrates the upside zygapophyseal joints. |
false
posterior thoracic obl demonstrate upside anterior thoracic obl demonstrate downside |
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A digital (CR) radiograph taken of the lateral thoracic spine demonstrates poor visibility of the spine.
Factors: 14x17 80 KV 80MAS 40 inch SID collimation to the IR What needs to be changed? |
collimation to the spine instead of the IR
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A pt has recently had spinal fusion surgery and his physician wants to assess the cervical spine for anteroposterior mobility. what projection would you perform?
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hyperflexion and hyperextension projection
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The following factors were used for an AP axial cervical spine and the intervertebral joints are not open. What needs to be changed?
40 inch SID slight extension of the skull 5 degree cephalad angle grid CR centered to thyroid cartilage |
increase CR angle
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When performing a lateral thoracic spine the tech notices that the scatter radiation reaching the IR is obscuring the spine, what can be done to fix this?
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place a lead mat on the tabletop just posterior to the patient.
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A radiograph of an AP open mouth reveals that the base of the skull is superimposed over the dens. What positioning error led this this outcome?
|
excessive extension of the skull
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A radiograph of a lateral projection of the cervical spine reveals that the ramus of the mandible is superimposed over the spine. What could the tech have done to prevent this?
|
increase the extension of the skull
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An RAO cervical spine reveals the lower intervertebral foramina are not open. the upper vertebral foramina are well visualized. What error led to this?
|
insufficient rotation of the upper body.
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The AP open mouth projection reveals that the base of the skull and upper incisors are superimposed, but they are obscuring the upper portion of the dens. What projection can be performed on nontrauma pts to fix this?
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perform the Fuchs or Judd method.
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Which projection will best demonstrate a compression fracture of the thoracic spine?
|
lateral projection
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A pt is in a MVA and arrives on a back board in a cervical collar. The initial lateral only shows C1-C6. Because the patient has broad and thick shoulders, which projection should be done to demonstrate the lower cervical spine.
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swimmers
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What is the correct anatomic name for the Adams apple?
|
laryngeal prominence
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What is the name for the structure that serves as a lid over the larynx to prevent aspiration of food or fluid?
|
epiglottis
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Which of the following technical factors is best for an adult lateral thoracic utilizing a breathing technique.
75 kv, 200 mA, 1/20 sec, 40 inch 120 kv, 800mA, 1/40 sec, 72 inch 75 kV 200 mA, 2 sec, 40 inch 74 kv, 20mA, 2 sec, 40 inch |
74 kv, 20mA, 2 sec, 40 inch
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True/False
when doing lateral projection of upper airway, exposure should be made during a slow deep inspiration rather than at the end of inspiration. |
true
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Which positioning line must be placed perpendicular to the plane of the IR for an AP projection of the upper airway?
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Acanthiomeatal
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where does the spinal cord taper off?
|
conus medullaris
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The costotransverse joint is formed between the
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tubercle of the rib and the transverse process of the vertebrae
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The articulations between C1 and the occipital condyles of the skull are termed:
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alantooccipital articulations
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A fracture line through the base of the dens that can extend into the lateral masses or arches of C1
|
odointoid fx
|
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Collapse of vertebral body associated with osteoporosis.
|
COMPRESSION FRACTURE
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a comminuted fracture where bilateral offset or spreading of the lateral masses of C1 relative to the dens
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jefferson fx
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|
|
fracture exends through the pedicles of C2 with or without subluxation of C2 upon C3. occurs when the neck is subjected to extreme hyperextension.
|
hangmans fx
|
|
|
A depression or pit located at the center of the femoral head
|
fovea capitis
|
|
|
which of the bones of the pelvic girdle is the largest?
|
ilium
|
|
|
TRUE/FALSE
The false pelvis forms the birth canal in females |
false
|
|
|
which bony landmark should not be, or only slightly visible on a correctly positioned AP pelvis?
|
lesser trochanter
|
|
|
where is the CR for an AP pelvis projection?
|
midway between the ASIS and symphysis pubis
|
|
|
to minimize distortion of the femoral neck for an AP bilateral frog leg projection, the lower limbs should be abducted _____ to ____ degrees
|
20 to 30
|
|
|
what type of CR angle is required for the AP axial "outlet" projection for a male patient?
|
20 to 35 cephalad
|
|
|
how is the cassette aligned for an axiolateral danelius miller method projection
|
parallel to the femoral neck
|
|
|
Which projection is best suited for the patient with limited movement of both lower limbs, such as both hips fractured, to demonstrate lateral perspective of the proximal femur?
|
clements-nakayama
|
|
|
which of the following structures is not an aspect of the proximal femur?
intertrochanteric crest fovea capitis obturator foramen lesser trochanter |
obturator foramen
|
|
|
Which of the following structures is considered to be most inferior or distal?
fovea capitis lesser trochanter femoral neck greater trochanter |
lesser trochanter
|
|
|
T or F
The term pelvic girdle refers to the total pelvis including the sacrum and coccyx |
false
|
|
|
which bones fuse to form the acetabulum?
|
ishium, pubis, and ilium
|
|
|
which of the following bony structures cannot be palpated?
ischial spine ASIS ischial tuberosity symphysis pubis |
ischial spine
|
|
|
Which bone of the pelvic girdle forms the anterior inferior aspect?
|
pubis
|
|
|
the lesser sciatic notch is an aspect of the :
|
ischium
|
|
|
More oval or heart shaped pelvic inlet is male of female?
|
Male
|
|
|
Wider and shallow general shape of the pelvis? Male/female
|
Female
|
|
|
obtuse angle of pubic arch ? Male/Female
|
female
|
|
|
Acute angle of pubic arch? male/female
|
male
|
|
|
abduction of femurs recommended for AP bilateral frog leg projection
|
40-45 degrees
|
|
|
Which position will best demonstrate the posterior (ilioschial) column and anterior (ilipubic) column of the pelvis?
|
posterior obl judet method
|
|
|
what the CR ANGLE for AP axial outlet for a female?
|
30 to 45 degrees
|
|
|
proper name of the method used for unilateral frog leg projection?
|
modified cleaves
|
|
|
Angle for inlet projection?
|
40 caudad
|
|
|
A pt may have separation of the symphysis pubis, AP pelvis doesn't show it, what other projection should be taken?
|
AP axial outlet projection
|
|
|
the ischium is divided into what two segments?
|
body and ramus
|
|
|
What exam used to be used to measure the fetal head in comparison with the maternal pelvis to predict possible birthing problems?
|
Caphalapelvimetry
|
|
|
The hip joint is classified as?
|
ball and socket
|
|
|
What is the best technique to use to blur out the lung markings on an oblique sternum?
|
breathing technique
|
|
|
Why is the RAO sternum preferred of the LAO sternum?
|
RAO projects the sternum over the shadow of the heart
|
|
|
Which of the following statements is true about radiography for ribs above the diaphragm?
-suspend respiration upon inspiration -perform the study with the PT recumbent -use a kV range of 85-95 -always include an AP projection as part of the routine |
suspend respiration upon inspiration
|
|
|
Which position will best demonstrate the axillary portion of the left ribs?
|
LPO
|
|
|
T OR F
A right or left letter marker may be placed over the area of interest to indicate the location of trauma to the ribs? |
FALSE
|
|
|
What condition may occur with trauma to the ribs?
|
pneumothorax
|
|
|
What is the degree of obliquity recommended for an RAO sternum on an asthenic patient?
|
20*
|
|
|
Which position can replace an RAO sternum if the patient can not lay prone?
|
LPO
|
|
|
Where is the CR centered for a PA projection of the sternoclavicular joints?
|
3" distal to vertebra prominens
|
|
|
How much rotation and which oblique are required to best demonstrate the left Sternoclavicular joints
|
10*-15* LAO
|
|
|
Which two projections are required with an injury to the right anterior upper ribs?
|
PA and LAO
|
|
|
Which two projections must be taken with an injury to the left posterior lower ribs?
|
AP and LPO
|
|
|
Which kV range is recommended for an AP study of the ribs found below the diaphragm
|
70-80kV
|
|
|
The disease or condition may be associated with postoperative complications of heart surgery
|
Osteomyelitis
|
|
|
Fx of adjacent ribs in two or more places with associated pulmonary injury
|
flail chest rib fractures
|
|
|
A congenital defect characterized by anterior protrusion of the lower sternum and xyphoid process
|
pectus carinatum (pigeon breasts)
|
|
|
A radiograph of an RAO sternum reveals that it is partially superimposed over the spine. What must be done to eliminate this problem during the repeat exposure
|
increase rotation of the body
|
|
|
A radiograph of a lateral projection of the sternum reveals the patient's ribs are superimposed over the sternum. What needs to be done to eliminate this on the repeat exposure?
|
ensure the patient is not rotated
|
|
|
A radiograph of an RAO sternum demonstrates excessive lung markings obscuring the sternum. A 1 second exposure time and a breathing technique were used. What will need to be done to produce a more diagnostic image?
|
Increase the exposure time and decrease the mA
|
|
|
A patient enters the ER with an injury to the left anterior lower ribs. Which projections should be taken to demonstrate this injury?
|
PA and RAO
|
|
|
An amblatory patient enters the ER with a possible injury to the right upper posterior ribs. Which projections should be taken to demonstrate this injury
|
Erect AP and RPO
|
|
|
A patient enters the ER with blunt trauma to the sternum. The patient is in great pain and can not lie prone on the table or stand erect. What projections should be used to best demonstrate the sternum.
|
LPO and horizontal beam lateral
|
|
|
A patient enters the ER with trauma to the bony thorax. The inital radiographs reveal there are fractured ribs and a possible pneumothorax of the left thorax. The physicians order a chest study to confirm the pneumothorax but the patient can not stand. What projection will best demonstrate the pneumothoax
|
right lateral decubitus
|
|
|
Initial PA projections of the SC joints. The vertebral column is preventing a clear view of it. Which projection which best demonstrate the left SC joint without superimposition over the spine
|
LAO
|
|
|
Which of the following positioning considerations does NOT apply to the study of lower ribs?
-perform projection recumbent -use kV ranges of 65-70 -exposure on full expiration - |
use a kV range of 65-70
|
|
|
the lower margin of each rib contains blood vessels and nerves termed __?
|
costal groove
|
|
|
which thoracic vertebrae possess no facets for costotransverse joints
|
T11-T12
|
|
|
the bony thorax contains ribs, sternum, and __
|
thoracic vertebrae
|
|
|
what is classified as a floating rib
-1st rib -2nd and 3rd ribs -10th rib -11th rib |
11th rib
|
|
|
true or false:
the ideal, general position for a study of ribs below the diaphragm is recumbent |
true
|
|
|
which of the following technical considerations does NOT apply to a rib study for injury to the left upper anterior ribs
-PA projection -Erect position -RAO projection for ancillary ribs -expose upon expiration |
expose upon expiration
|
|
|
the liver is located primarily in the __ of the abdomen
|
RUQ
|
|
|
the liver is divided into __ major and __ minor lobes
|
two, two
|
|
|
the liver secretes __ mL of bile per day
|
800-1000
|
|
|
the main function of bile is to :
|
emulsify fats
|
|
|
the distal end of the gallbladder is termed __
|
fundus
|
|
|
what is the primary purpose of the membranous folds located within the cystic duct
|
prevents distention or collapse of the cystic duct
|
|
|
where is bile formed?
|
liver
|
|
|
which of the following functions are performed by the gallbladder
-storage of bile -concentration of bile -contraction and release of bile -all of the above |
ALL OF THE ABOVE
|
|
|
What is the primary function of cholecystokinin
|
stimulates the gallbladder to contract
|
|
|
what is an older term for the hepatopancreatic sphincter
|
sphincter of Oddi
|
|
|
"chole-" is a prefix for terms concerning the __
|
bile
|
|
|
radiographic exam of the biliary ducts only is termed?
|
cholangiography
|
|
|
which of the following structures is not considered to be an accessory organ of digestion
-liver -pancreas -salivary glands -kidneys |
kidneys
|
|
|
saliva contains certain enzymes to begin the digestion of __
|
starch
|
|
|
the act of swallowing is termed__
|
deglutition
|
|
|
which of the following structures is not one of the salivary glands
-parotid -sublingual -submandibular -supramandibular |
supramandibular
|
|
|
the esophagus is located __ to the larynx
|
posterior
|
|
|
which two forces or processes propel food down the esophagus
|
peristalsis and gravity
|
|
|
the opening between the stomach and esophagus is termed :
|
esophagogastric junction
|
|
|
the dilated portion of the distal esophagus is termed:
|
cardiac antrum
|
|
|
which of the following is not a main portion of the stomach?
-fundus -pylorus -body -cardium |
cardium
|
|
|
which term describes the outer, lateral border of the stomach
|
greater curvature
|
|
|
what is the term for longitudinal mucosal folds found within the stomach
|
rugae
|
|
|
toward which section of the stomach will barium gravitate with the patient in the prone position
|
body and pylorus
|
|
|
Which part of the small intestine has a feathery appearance when filled with barium?
|
Jejunum
|
|
|
Which part of the small intestine has the largest diameter
|
Duodenum
|
|
|
Which part of the small intestine is the shortest
|
Duodenum
|
|
|
which part of the small intestine makes up 3/5 of it's entirety?
|
Ileum
|
|
|
Which aspect of the large intestine is located highest, or most superior, in the abdomen?
|
Left Colic flexure
|
|
|
Which of these structures is not part of the colon?
Transverse colon right and left colic flexures rectum |
rectum
|
|
|
which part of the large intestine is located between the rectum and the descending colon?
|
sigmoid colon
|
|
|
which part of the large intestine has the widest diameter
|
cecum
|
|
|
which part of the colon has the greatest amount of potential movement?
|
transverse colon
|
|
|
term for the three bands of muscle that pull the large intestine into pouches?
|
taenia coli
|
|
|
which aspect of the stomach is attached to the duodenum
|
pylorus
|
|
|
which specific part of the pancreas is adjacent to the C-loop of the duodenum
|
head
|
|
|
which division of the duodenum contains the duodenal bulb or cap?
|
first (superior)
|
|
|
once food enters the stomach and is mixed with gastic secretions it is termed:
|
chyme
|
|
|
what substances are not digested chemically
|
minerals
|
|
|
which aspect of the GI tract is primarily responsible for the absorption of digestive end products and along with water, minerals, and vitamins
|
small intestine
|
|
|
a high and transverse stomach will be found in a __ patient
|
hypersthenic
|
|
|
a stomach with the duodenal bulb at the level of L2 would be found in __ patients
|
sthenic
|
|
|
what is the classification of barium sulfate as contrast media
|
radiopaque
|
|
|
true or false
sodium bicarbonate is often used as negative contrast medium during an upper GI series |
false
|
|
|
PT must be NPO a minimum of ____ hours before the small bowel series?
|
8 hours
|
|
|
twisting of the intestine on its own mesentery is termed ____
|
volvulus
|
|
|
A telescoping or invagination of one part of the intestine into another is ______
|
intussusception
|
|
|
The stovepipe radiographic sign is often seen with ______
|
chronic ulcerative colitis
|
|
|
which radiographic sign is frequently seen with adenocarcinoma of the large intestine
|
napkin ring or apple core
|
|
|
which of the following conditions would contraindicate the use of a cathartic before a bairum enema?
|
obstruction
|
|
|
T/F
Synthetic latex tips are safe to use for latex sensitive patients |
True
|
|
|
T/F
Rectal retention enema tips should be fully inflated by the tech before beginning a barium enema |
false
|
|
|
At what stage of respiration should the enema tip be inserted into the rectum?
|
suspended expiration
|
|
|
in which position is the patient for enema tip insertion ?
|
Sims
|
|
|
true or false
swallowed room air can be used a negative contrast medium during an upper GI series |
true
|
|
|
which clinical indication would mandate the use of an oral, water soluble contrast agent
|
patient with possible perforated bowel
|
|
|
what type of contrast media is ideal for demonstrating a diverticulum within the stomach
|
double contrast barium/negative contrast agent
|
|
|
what patient care concerns would prevent the use of oral, water soluble contrast media
|
patient is sensitive to iodine
|
|
|
true or false
digital fluoro does not require the use of an image intensifier |
false
|
|
|
which one of the following is not one of the cardinal principles of radiation protection
-time -distance -shielding -intensity |
intensity
|
|
|
gastritis is defined as inflammation of the __
|
stomach
|
|
|
what is an example of the condition of GERD
|
esophegeal reflux
|
|
|
what is the most common diagnostic procedure performed to diagnose GERD
|
endoscopy
|
|
|
most esophagrams begin with the patient
|
erect
|
|
|
during the initial enema tip insertion, the tip is aimed?
|
toward the umbilicus
|
|
|
The ideal KV range for double contrast barium enema is
|
90 -100
|
|
|
T/F
the opening leading into the intestine for the pt with a colostomy is termed stoma? |
true
|
|
|
T/F
The height of the enema bag should not exceed 36in above the radiographic table |
False
24 inches |
|
|
Central ray and image receptor centering for a 1 hour small bowel radiograph should be ____
|
at the level of the crest
|
|
|
Why is PA rather than AP recommended for a small bowel ?
|
better separation of the loops of intestine
|
|
|
Which postion best demonstrates the left colic flexure?
|
LAO
|
|
|
During a double contrast BE procedure the radiologist suspects a polyp in the descending colon. Which position would best demonstrate this?
|
right lateral decubitus
|
|
|
A radiograph of an AP barium enema reveals poor visualization of the sigmoid due to excessive superimposition of the sigmoid colon and rectum. How be this be better visualized?
|
Angle the CR 30 to 40 cephalad with AP projection
|
|
|
A patient comes to radiology with possible diverticulosis. Which of the following studies is most diagnostic for detecting this condition?
|
double contrast barium enema
|
|
|
why would a patient undergo valsalvas manuever during an esophagram
|
to demonstrate possible reflux
|
|
|
what procedure will not demonstrate possible esophageal reflux
|
reverse trendelenburg method
|
|
|
patient prep for an adult upper GI series include :
|
NPO for 8 hrs prior to procedure
|
|
|
what kV ranges should be used for an upper GI series using barium sulfate
|
100-125kV
|
|
|
centering of the CR for an esophagram should be to the vertebral level of __
|
T5 or T6
|
|
|
pt comes to radiology for a double contrast barium enema. The pt cannot lie on her side during the study. Which projection could replace the lateral rectum projection.
|
ventral decubitus
|
|
|
During a single contrast barium enema the radiologist detects a possible defect within the right colic flexure. which projections and or positions best demonstrates this region of the colon?
|
LPO
|
|
|
Pt comes to radiology with a history or rectocele. Which procedure best demonstrates this condition?
|
evacuative proctogram
|
|
|
infant is brought to the ED with a possible intussusception. Which procedure may actually correct this condition?
|
Barium or air enema
|
|
|
What is another term for the AP axial projection taken during a barium enema procedure.
|
butterfly position
|
|
|
While attempting to insert the enema tip into the rectum, the tech experiences resistance. What should be the next step taken by the tech?
|
Have the radiologist insert it using fluoroscopic guidance
|
|
|
Why is it important for the tech to review the pts chart and inform the radiologist before beginning the BE exam if a biopsy was performed as part of a prior sigmoidoscopy or colonoscopy procedure?
|
The biopsy of the colon may weaken that portion of the colon, which could lead to a perforation during the BE exam,
|
|
|
T/F
A single stage double contrast barium enema involves instilling both negative and positive contrast media at the same time |
True
|
|
|
During flouro, the radiologist detects a possible polyp in the ascending colon. He asks the tech to produce a radiograph that will best demonstrate this region of the large intestine. Which position will work?
LAO LPO lateral AP axial projection |
LPO
|
|
|
Methycellouse is introduced into the small intestine during enteroclysis to ______
|
dilate the loops of the small intestine
|
|
|
intussusception is most common in ____
|
children younger than 2 years
|
|
|
The most common or typical type of colon cancer is ___
|
adenocarcinoma
|
|
|
whats the KV range when a water soluble contrast agent is used?
|
80 - 90 KV
|
|
|
The direction the CR is angled for an AP axial projection of the sigmoid colon is ____ and the CR is angled _____ for a PA axial projection of the same region.
|
Cephalad ; Caudad
|
|
|
The typical adults small intestine (intact) measures.
|
15 to 18 feet
|
|
|
T/F
The terms large intestine and colon are synonymous |
False
|
|
|
Pouches or sacculations found along the mucosal wall of the large intestine are termed ___
|
Haustra
|
|
|
in which abdominal quadrant would the sigmoid colon be located primarily?
|
LLQ
|
|
|
Which aspect of the GI tract is primarily responsible for digestion. adsorption, and reabsorption?
|
small intestine
|
|
|
where is the CR centered for the 15 min radiograph during a small bowel series?
|
2 inches above the crest.
|
|
|
common parasitic infection of the lumen of the small intestine.
|
giardiasis
|
|
|
chronic inflammatory disease of the GI tract
|
regional enteritis
|
|
|
obstruction of the small intestine due to the cessation of peristalsis?
|
adynamic or paralytic ileus
|
|
|
new growth observed in the intestine as filling defects.
|
neoplasm
|
|
|
obstruction of the small intestine
|
ileus
|
|
|
how much obliquity is required for an RAO esophagus?
|
35-40*
|
|
|
what type of breathing instructions should be given to a patient during an esophagram using thin barium
|
shallow breathing and continued swallowing during exposure
|
|
|
a radiograph taken during an esophagram using thin barium mixture demonstrates that there is very little contrast medium in the esophagus. what points will improve filling the esophagus? (the exposure was made on inspiration after the last swallow)
|
make sure the patient drinks during exposure
|
|
|
a patient comes to the radiology department for an upper GI series. her history indicates that there may be a tumor present posterior to the stomach. what is the best projection or position that will best demonstrate this?>
|
right lateral
|
|
|
A patient comes to the department for an esophagram. the radiologist is concerned about the upper portion of the esophagus, near the level of T1, which did not visualize well on the previous routine projection-position esophagram. which special projection or position will be best to demonstrate this region?
|
swimmer's lateral position
|
|
|
one radiograph of an upper GI series needs to be repeated. the tech is unsure of which oblique projection is seen on the radiograph. the fundus is filled with air, and the pylorus and duodenal bulb are profiled and filled with barium. the patient was recumbent for all the projections.which position needs to be repeated?
|
RAO
|
|
|
a patient comes to the department for an upper GI series. the patient has a clinical history of hiatal hernia. which projection is helpful in demonstrating this condition
|
AP trendelenburg
|
|
|
the mucosal fold found within the cyctic duct are termed:
|
spiral valves
|
|
|
the hepatopancreatic sphincter is located at the :
|
terminal end of the common bile duct
|
|
|
cholelithiasis is defined as :
|
the condition of having gallstones
|
|
|
The jugular notch corresponds to the level of
|
T2-T3
|
|
|
The xiphoid process corresponds to the vertebral level of
|
T9-T10
|
|
|
Which of the following is not a recognized term for the superior margin of the sternum?
sternal notch Manubrial notch jugular notch suprasternal notch |
Sternal notch
|
|
|
At what age does the xiphoid process become completely ossified?
|
40 years
|
|
|
which of the following connects to the anterior aspect of the ribs of the sternum?
sternal tendons costocartilage costovertebral joints |
costocartilage
|
|
|
T/F
The tubercle portion of a typical rib connects the anterior end of the ribs to the sternum. |
False
|
|
|
T/F
the only bony connection between the shoulder girdle and the bony thorax is the acromioclavicular joint. |
False
|
|
|
The sternal angle is a palpable landmark at the level of
|
T4-T5
|
|
|
which pair of ribs attaches to the sternum at the level of the sternal angle?
|
Second
|
|
|
in the erect adult bony thorax, the posterior portion of a typical rib is ____ higher or more superior to the anterior portion.
|
3 to 5 inches
|
|
|
which of the following ribs is considered to be false?
7th 1st 9th none of these |
9th
|
|
|
the angular notch is located :
|
on the lesser curvature
|
|
|
if the patient lays supine on an UGI, where would most of the barium settle within the stomach?
|
in the fundus
|
|
|
which projection will best demonstrate the proximal esophagus?
|
swimmers lateral
|
|
|
which upper GI projection will best demonstrate the duodenal bulb in profile
|
RAO
|
|
|
which upper GI projection will best demonstrate the retrogastic space
|
right lateral
|
|
|
how much rotation of the body is required for an LPO projection during an upper GI
|
30-60*
|
|
|
which aspect of the rib articulates with the thoracic vertebral body?
|
head
|
|
|
which ribs are considered to be true ribs
|
1-7
|
|
|
T/F
the degree of rotation for the RAO projection of the sternum is dependent on the size of thoracic cavity |
True
|
|
|
Which of the following statements is true about floating ribs
do not possess a head do not possess costovertebral joint do not possess costocatilage they are ribs 10 - 12. |
do not possess costocartilage
|
|
|
The widest aspect of the thorax occurs at the level of __
|
the eighth or ninth rib
|
|
|
What is the joint classification and type of movement for the sternoclavicular joints
|
synovial with diarthodial (plane) movement
|
|
|
which sections of the intestine will most likely be filled with air with the patient in the prone position during a double contrast BE?
|
Ascending colon, descending colon, and rectum
|
|
|
Which condition produces the "cobblestone" or "string" sign
|
regional enteritis (crohns)
|
|
|
When are small bowel series deemed to be complete?
|
once the contrast media passes the ileocecal valve
|
|
|
for an average adult, the amount of barium ingested is__________ for a small bowel series
|
one 16 once cup
|
|
|
The term describing a double contrast small bowel procedure
|
enteroclysis
|
