Radt B3B Fluoroscopy Study Guide 2017

1. Using fluoroscopy to position patients prior to taking routine radiographic film is __________ by the state of California, Radiologic Health Branch.

2. True/False: Persons who have been instructed in the safe operation of fluoroscopic equipment must demonstrate competency at their place of employment before they can operate fluoroscopic equipment.

3. What are the two fluoroscopic certificate/permits which licentiates (physicians) of the healing arts must hold before performing fluoroscopic procedures in the state of California?

Describe both radiologist and regular physicians.

4. Fluroscopic x-ray output, and patient dose, is [directly, inversely] proportional to the mA used.

5. Tube current for non-digital fluoroscopy typically ranges between:

6. During non-digital fluoroscopic filming, the mA utilized by the x-ray machine is:

7. During digital fluoroscopic filming, the mA utilized by the x-ray machine is:

8. Which of the following will occur as the field (FOV) is reduced with tighter collimation?

a. image will become brighter

b. image will not become brighter

c. image quality will improve

d. image quality will be reduced

9. The exposure rate measured at the panel or tabletop shall be as low as practicable and may not exceed ________ rads per minute.

This converts to _______ Gyt.

10. In fluoroscopic systems equipped with automatic brightness control and under the table x-ray tube, as the image intensifier is moved away from the patient:

1. patient dose decreases.

2. patient dose increases.

3. more x-rays are intercepted at the II.

4. fewer x-rays are intercepted at the II.

11. A dead man type fluoroscopic switch:

1. terminates the exposure when pressure is applied.

2. terminates the exposure when pressure is released.

3. can be operated by the foot switch.

12. The blurring of the image as the fluoroscopic camera is moved rapidly during a procedure is called: ____________.

13. When using an image intensified non-digital fluoroscopy unit, a fall in brightness at the periphery of an image is called: _____________.

14. Which of the following statements concerning the x-ray tube and intensifier are true?

a. may be energized by removing the interlocking mechanism.

b. the fluoroscopic tube can be energized when in the parked position

c. must be interlocked in order for the fluoroscopic tube to be energized

15. Fluoroscopic exposures should be "on" and then "off" as compared to a "continuous on" time as doubling the exposure time will [increase, double, triple] radiation dose to the patient and operator.

16. The Bucky slot cover and protective curtains/drapes must have a minimum of ______ mm of [lead, aluminum] equivalency for adequate protection.

17a. The cumulative manual-reset timer may not exceed ________ minutes.

17b. When the fluoroscopic time has exceeded a predetermined time, the cumulative manual reset timer must:

1. produce an audible signal. (true or false)

2. interrupt the x-ray beam. (true or false)

18. Excessive lighting in the fluoroscopy room:

a. helps perceive dim images brighter

b. may result in an increase in technical factors

c. enhances visualization of the black and white TV image.

d. helps properly adjust the overall luminescence of the TV image.

19. The mottle level of an image can be adjusted by:

1. changing mA

2. changing kVp

3. changing the exposure factors.

4. changing the number of available photons

20. Total image brightness gain of an image intensifier system consist of ____a____ and ______b_____ gain. To calculate gain, assume that modern image intensifiers are constructed with a ____c____ inch output phosphor.

21. The ability of the image intensifier tube to increase the illumination level of the image is called its ___________________.

22. The electrons in the II tube are sped by the [a: anode, cathode, lenses].

The same component maintains a high potential difference of about ____b____ volts or ____c____ kVp.

23. The increased brightness if the output phosphor is due to:

1. flux gain.

2. minification gain.

3. smaller size of the output phosphor.

4. additional energy of the electrons when they are sped up in the II tube.

Choose from above.

24. What is the conversion factor of an image intensifier that has a 14-inch input phosphor, a standard image intensifier and a flux gain of 100?

25a. Conversion factor (brightness gain) [diminishes, increases] image intensity and quality as the tube ages.

26. In magnification mode, the FOV is [increased, decreased, unchanged].

25b. What is the formula which measures the "conversion factor"?

28a. With Cesium Iodide image intensifiers tubes, contrast and resolution are [increased, decreased] compared to Zinc Cadmium Sulfide tubes.

28b. Resolution with Cesium Iodide tubes is _____ lp/mm.

30a. True/False: When comparing a 9" II mode to a 6" II mode, the 9" mode is used to view a larger anatomic area and is considered the regular non-magnification mode.

30b. True/False: The 6" II mode is considered the magnification mode (compared to 9") and this uses more exposure to compensate for the overall decreased brightness of the image and lower overall quality?

31. Which of the following statements concerning a dual mode unit in the 6-inch mode with "ABC/AEC/AERC" are true?

a. patient dose is reduced.

b. has a reduced flux gain.

c. kVp is automatically increased.

d. the area used for the output phosphor is decreased.

32. A warped image occurs due to the curvature of the input phosphor with non-digital image intensifying units. This warped image is called ________________.

33. Veiling glare [increases, decreases] contrast because of the light scatter in the image intensifier and an increased "background signal".

33. Veiling glare is [more, much less] prominent with digital fluoroscopy units.

34. The circuit that interfaces with the x-ray generator to adjust the kVp and mA are known as what?

34. True/False: The circuit that interfaces with the x-ray generator to adjust the kVp and mA keep the light input constant and stable to the II input phosphor.

35. Radiation not serving any useful purpose that combines both leakage and scatter radiation is called?

36. A raster pattern is a TV scanning pattern that scans in a series of [horizontal, vertical] scan lines

37. How is Flicker (3) in the television picture avoided?

38. Grid ratios are generally [higher, lower] with fluoroscopy units as compared to general diagnostic table grid ratios.

39. Patient exposure in cinefluorography is [greater, lesser] than exposure received with other recording systems such as video tape recording.

40. When automatic exposure rate control is used, the useful beam exposure rate shall be measured with a phantom equivalent to _____a_____ inches of Lucite or ____b____ inches of water to simulate a patient.

41. Which of following are characteristics of Charged-Coupled Devices (CCD)?

a. have replaced traditional video camera tubes in modern fluoroscopy units.

b. useful in high-speed imaging which eliminates lag.

c. solid state technology which lowers power consumption.

d. useful in cardiac imaging

42. Pulsed fluoroscopy uses short bursts of radiation (<__a___ msec or less) to significantly [increase, decrease] exposure to the patient and personnel in the x-ray room.

43a. With HLC, the maximum tabletop dose rate for high-level fluoroscopy is ______ rads per minute when not using recording devices.

43b. With HLC, this type of fluoroscopy is used for what type of radiography.

43c. True/False, with HLC, an audible signal is optional to be heard when the high level boost is "on".

44. How does a dead pixel appear on an image intensified fluoroscopic image on the video monitor?

45. Under what the two conditions should an unexposed border be visible on the image receptor?

46. The intensity of the x-ray beam at the tabletop of a fluoroscope should not exceed _______ of operating tube current at a setting of 80 kVp.

49. For fluoroscopes with ABC/ABS, the operator must monitor the x-ray tube current (mA) and potential (kVp) at least once each....

(a) [day, week, month]

and a written log (b) [must be kept, is not required].

49. For fluoroscopes with ABC/ABS, it must be evaluated and the dose rate shall be made by a qualified physicist at least once every [year, 3 years].

49. How long are the logs (monitoring of tube current (mA) and potential (kVp) kept?

50. To lower unnecessary dose to the patient, the operator, and other room personnel, the radiographer would:

a. [minimize, maximize] the patient-to-image intensifier distance.

50. To lower unnecessary dose to the patient, the operator, and other room personnel, the radiographer would:

b. true/false: limit the use of last image hold to view a static image for a longer period of time to reduce "continuous" exposure dose.

50. To lower unnecessary dose to the patient, the operator, and other room personnel, the radiographer would:

c. true/false: take off the spacer on a mobile fluoroscopic unit to maintain proper source-to-skin distance.

50. To lower unnecessary dose to the patient, the operator, and other room personnel, the radiographer would:

d. true/false: use short looks while fluoroscopy unit is on whenever practical to minimize dose.

50. To lower unnecessary dose to the patient, the operator, and other room personnel, the radiographer would:

e. true/false: limit the utilization of frame grab.

50. To lower unnecessary dose to the patient, the operator, and other room personnel, the radiographer would:

f. true/false: use the regular foot switch, not the High-Level Fluoroscopy switch.

51. The source-to-skin distance for mobile fluoroscopy (C-arm) units requires a minimum distance of ______ cm or _____ inches.

52. During mobile fluoroscopy, the maximum permissible dose rate of ______ rads/minute may not exceed at 30 cm from the input surface of the fluoroscopic image assembly.

53. When mobile equipment is routinely used in operating rooms in a fixed location, appropriate structural shielding is optional for these rooms.

54. Which of the following statement(s) concerning the spacer on a mobile fluoroscopic equipment is/are correct?

a. functions as a lock.

b. it should never be removed.

c. it is used to maintain the correct 12" source-to-skin distance.

55. True or false: Licentiates (physicians) who possess a valid Radiology Supervisor & Operator certificate (radiologist) may be authorized to operate fluoroscopy equipment on human beings in California.

55. True or false: Licentiates (physicians) who possess a valid Fluoroscopy Supervisor & Operator certificate (orthopedist, cardiologist etc) may be authorized to operate fluoroscopy equipment on human beings in California.

55. Who holds the Fluoroscopy Supervisor & Operator certificate?

55. Who holds the Radiology Supervisor & Operator certificate?

55. Who holds a valid Fluroscopy permit?

56. When must individuals who hold fluoroscopy permits require to provide their certification document to their employer?

57. True/False: Radiographers may use fluoroscopic x-ray equipment only under the supervision of a Fluoroscopy Supervisor and Operator.

58. The California Control Regulations states that any person who violates any part of the provisions of these regulations is guilty of a [misdemeanor, felony].

59. True/False: X-Ray Supervisors and Operators may:

1. expose human beings to radiation

2. supervise the activities of techs who hold the technologist fluoroscopy permit.

3. expose human beings to x-radiation only within the scope of their professional licenses.

60. True or false: CRT's can use fluoroscopic equipment for fluoroscopic positioning and exposure if they have a fluoroscopy permit.

60. True or false: CRT's are not authorized to report any diagnosis to a patient although ordered by a licentiate of the healing arts.

60. True or false: CRT's may not use any title implying the right to practice any of the healing arts

61. Which records must be kept for x-ray machines?

a. when a new machine is acquired

b. when a machine is transferred or sold.

c. when a machine is destroyed or disposed of.

d. each calibration, survey, or test.

62. How long should an individual's dosimetry records for occupational workers MUST be kept?

63. A fluoroscopy permit renewal must be filed [10 days, 15 days, 30 days] prior to the noted expiration date.

64. What is a radiation safety officer (RSO)?

65. True or False: X-Ray tube housing must be a "diagnostic" type and provide leakage radiation at < 100 mrads/hour at 1 meter.

or,

< 100 mR per hour @ 1 meter.

< 100 mGya per hour @ 1 meter.

66. The fluoroscopy supervisor shall document, in writing, clinical training completion documents to all certified radiologic technologists in CA who have successfully completed the competency based clinical education for the facility where they utilize fluoroscopy.

67. The time required by the eye for recognition of an image is called _____________ time.

This time equals _______ seconds.

68. Conventional (older) fluoroscopy uses _________ or night vision.

68. Intensified fluoroscopy uses _________ or daylight vision.

68. Daylight vision uses _______ of the eye.

68. Night/dim vision uses _______ of the eye.

69. The ability of the eye to resolve separate and distinct objects is called _________ __________.

70. Fluroscopic table tilt for fixed units is ____a____ degrees to the upright position,

and ____b____ in the trendelenberg position.

71. Analog conventional fluoroscopy is [more, less] noisy than digital fluorscopy unit because they have [more, less] SNR?

71. A low SNR equals [gain, loss] of contrast resolution.

72. What is the full name for DAP?

72. What is the full name for KAP?

72. True/False: Do DAP and KAP assess the absorbed dose risk of an exam compared with the area irradiated.