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376 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
PBH-2.3.
The proportion of children aged 0-12 years in developing countries is: A) approx. 10-12% B) approx. 20% C) approx. 20-25% D) approx. 30% |
approx. 30%
|
|
PBH-2.4.
The term "communal diagnosis" means: A) the consensual health diagnoses within a community B) the determination, analysis, and evaluation of the communal and health profiles C) the determination of the priorities of a diagnosis |
the determination, analysis, and evaluation of the communal
and health profiles |
|
PBH-2.10.
The term "perinatal mortality" means: A) the number of fatalities among live-born neonates during the first 6 days of life B) the number of fatalities among live-born neonates during the first 27 days of life C) the number of stillbirths plus the number of fatalities among live-born neonates during the first 6 days of life D) the number of stillbirths |
the number of stillbirths plus the number of fatalities among
live-born neonates during the first 6 days of life |
|
PBH-2.26.
The term "lethality" means: A)the intensity of a disease B) the ratio of fatal cases among patients with the given disease C) the mortality rate of a given disease D) the morbidity conditions of a given disease |
the ratio of fatal cases among patients with the given disease
|
|
PBH-2.38.
According to the results of the "KOMOV Study", all of the following belong to the 3 most frequent ICD main groups in Hungary, EXCEPT: A) skin and connective tissue diseases B) upper respiratory tract and respiratory system diseases C) cardiovascular diseases D) gastrointestinal diseases |
skin and connective tissue diseases
|
|
PBH-2.39.
According to the results of the "KOMOV Study", what is the approximate percentage of the population in need of continuous follow-up care? A) 15% B) 25% C) 40% D) 60% |
40%
|
|
BH-2.54.
Establishing the community diagnosis includes all of the following steps, EXCEPT: A) the health diagnosis B) the environmental factors C) an analysis of the quality of life D) a study of the factors influencing behavior E) the profile of the culture F) the administrative and organizational issues |
the environmental factors
|
|
PBH-2.55.
Essential components defining the term "risk factor" include all of the following, EXCEPT: A) the presence of factors and influences that increases the likeli hood of the development of the disease B) a causal relationship exists between the presence of risk factors and the development of the disease C) the relationship between the disease and the relevant risk factors is often not absolute, instead it implies statistical correlation D) the correlation between the presence of multiple risk factors and the likelihood of the development of the disease is not linear |
a causal relationship exists between the presence of risk factors
and the development of the disease |
|
PBH-2.57.
Risk factors for the development of a myocardial infarction include all of the following, EXCEPT: A) an excess bodyweight B) an elevated cholesterol level C) a lack of exercise D) alcohol abuse E) an A-type personality F) smoking |
alcohol abuse
|
|
PBH-2.66.
The application of gamma-globulin (immunoglobulin) currently manufactured in Hungary is effective for post-exposure protection in: A) a hepatitis A infection B) a hepatitis B infection C) a hepatitis C infection D) a hepatitis D infection E) none of the above |
a hepatitis A infection
|
|
PBH-2.101.
The pathomechanism of respiratory conditions caused by vegetable dust include(s): A) the allergenic properties of the dust B) the inflammatory effects of fungi and bacteria C) both of the above D) none of the above |
both of the above
|
|
PBH-2.92.
Which of the following may cause cancer of the urinary bladder? A) cadmium B) mercury C) aniline dyes D) lead |
aniline dyes
|
|
PBH-2.104.
Hemangiosarcoma may develop as a result of prolonged exposure to: A) asbestos B) polyvinylchloride (PVC) C) beryllium D) chlorinated hydrocarbon |
polyvinylchloride (PVC)
|
|
PBH-2.114.
Which of the following microorganisms is the vector for the plague? A) Necator americanus B) Xenopsylla cheopis C) Sallitor macarencus D) Shylla nomatius |
Xenopsylla cheopis
|
|
PBH-2.115.
Which of the following diagnostic methods is used for establishing the diagnosis of a glanders infection: A) Strauss' reaction B) hemagglutination inhibition test C) hemadsorption inhibition test D) Nidal's reaction |
Strauss' reaction
|
|
PBH-2.116.
The length of the incubation period of anthrax is: A) several hours B) 2 weeks C) 3-4 days D) 21 days |
3-4 days
|
|
PBH-2.127.
The mechanism of the development of resistance to antibiotics includes the transmission of the resistance factor by: A) bacteriophages B) viruses C) plasmids D) lysogenic conversion |
plasmids
|
|
PBH-2.130.
Streptococcus pyogenes is the pathogen of: A) a puerperal infection B) diarrhea outbreaks in hospitals C) pemphigus D) Lyell's syndrome (toxic epidermal necrolysis) |
a puerperal infection
|
|
PBH-2.132.
Starting from the date of the last positive stool culture, a typhoid carrier is obliged to present for laboratory tests: A) bimonthly for 6 months B) bimonthly for one year C) monthly for one year D) monthly for 6 months |
monthly for one year
|
|
PBH-2.140.
The presence of proglottides in the gastrointestinal tract is a characteristic feature of. A) echinococcosis (hydatid disease) B) taeniasis (beef tapeworm infection) C) hymenolepidosis (dwarf tapeworm infection) D) toxoplasmosis |
taeniasis (beef tapeworm infection)
|
|
PBH-2.150.
In enteric fever caused by S. paratyphi, the length of the incubation period is: A) 1- 4 days B) 3-14 days C) 14 -21 days D) 21-30 days |
1- 4 days
|
|
PBH-2.155.
All of the following are characteristic epidemiologic features of yersiniosis, EXCEPT: A) the length of the incubation period is 10 days B) Yersinia enterocolitica is an animal pathogen C) the sources of infection include infected humans and animal carriers of the pathogen D) according to experience gained so far, the index of infectivity is low |
Yersinia enterocolitica is an animal pathogen
|
|
PBH-2.160.
Which of the following statements regarding typhoid fever is valid? A) the causative pathogen can be cultured from the blood throughout the entire disease period B) the causative pathogen can be cultured from the urine in the initial third of the disease period C) the causative pathogen can be cultured from the stool in the last third of the disease period D) serum hemagglutinins are present from the second week of the disease period |
serum hemagglutinins are present from the second week of the
disease period |
|
PBH-2.187.
Oncogenic viruses: A) contain a viral oncogene B) contain a cellular oncogene C) are the result of genetic manipulation D) play an established role in oncogenesis |
contain a viral oncogene
|
|
PBH-2.188.
Serum hepatitis corresponds to: A) hepatitis A B) hepatitis B C) non-A non-B hepatitis D) chronic aggressive hepatitis |
hepatitis B
|
|
PBH-2.191.
Which of the following belongs to the PAN substances? A) ozone B) sulphur dioxide C) aluminium hydroxide D) carbon monoxide |
ozone
|
|
PBH-2.194.
The increased degradation of structural proteins results from a deficiency of A) calcium B) potassium C) magnesium D) sodium |
sodium
|
|
PBH-2.214.
Ethionine is an: A) antihistamine B) antivitamin C) amino acid antagonist |
amino acid antagonist
|
|
PBH-2.229.
The diversity of the surface antigens of the HIV virus is caused by frequent changes of the nucleotides in the: A) env gene sequence B) vif gene sequence C) gag gene sequence D) tat gene sequence |
env gene sequence
|
|
PBH-2.231.
The infectivity of the HIV virus decreases when a mutation occurs in the: A) tat gene sequence B) rev gene sequence C) vif gene sequence D) env gene sequence |
vif gene sequence
|
|
PBH-2.236.
A proper epidemiologic control measure for measles: A) the occurrence of the infection should be reported to the local infectious disease control centre B) laboratory testing is not mandatory C) continuous disinfection is unnecessary D) isolation is unnecessary after clinical reovery |
laboratory testing is not mandatory
|
|
PBH-2.237.
A proper epidemiologic control measure for rubella: A) isolation of the patient from pregnant women is unnecessary B) continuous disinfection is unnecessary C) laboratory testing is mandatory D) rubella infections and any cases of the congenital rubella syndrome should be reported |
rubella infections and any cases of the congenital rubella syndrome
should be reported |
|
PBH-2.240.
The primary portal of entry for tricresyl-phosphate is the: A) skin B) mucous membranes C) lung D) secretory organs |
skin
|
|
PBH-2.242.
The length of the incubation period of gonorrhoea is: A) 2 days B) 14 days C) 3-7 days D) several hours |
3-7 days
|
|
PBH-2.247.
An oncogenic substance is: A) selenium B) vinyl chloride C) polyvinyl pyrrolidine D) polyethylene |
vinyl chloride
|
|
PBH-2.269.
All of the following are principal causes of indoor nosocomial infections, EXCEPT: A) mycobacteria B) Escherichia coli C) Staphylococcus aureus D) Aspergillus flavus |
Escherichia coli
|
|
BH-2.272.
Which of the following statements regarding the hepatitis B virus is valid? A) the hepatitis B virus belongs to the family of DNA viruses B) hepatitis B viruses can be detected as Dane-particles C) the surface antigens of the virus are polypeptides D) the surface antigens of the virus are glycoproteins |
the surface antigens of the virus are glycoproteins
|
|
PBH-2.282.
Cellular oncogenes: 1) are homologous in all species 2) display partial homogenity with viral oncogenes 3) can be found in all human cells 4) have the same functions as homeobox genes |
E
|
|
PBH-2.289.
Environmental noise is an etiologic factor in the development of 1) neurosis 2) hypertension 3) hearing loss 4) Raynaud's syndrome |
A
|
|
PBH-2.292.
Alcohol: 1) binds to opiate receptors 2) is a vasodilator and reduces the morbidity due to myocardial infarction 3) causes Alzheimer's disease 4) facilitates the scavenging of free radicals |
C
|
|
PBH-2.294.
Which of the following are not carcinogenic substances? 1) chromium compounds 2) mercury compounds 3) nickel compounds 4) ortho-tricresyl-phosphate |
C
|
|
PBH-2.295.
Protective immunization against hepatitis B is recommended for: 1) the personnel of infectious disease departments 2) the personnel of hemodialysis units 3) dentists 4) laboratory staff |
E
|
|
PBH-2.304.
Potential sources of epidemiological data include: 1) demographic statistics 2) hospital morbidity and mortality statistics 3) the statistics of screening programs 4) social insurance statistics |
E
|
|
PBH-2.305.
The term "iceberg phenomenon": 1) is used to describe latent morbidity phenomena 2) means diseases not presented to the health care delivery system for treatment 3) means that medical care is delivered, although not for the actual diagnosis 4) indicates diseases of unknown etiology |
A
|
|
PBH-2.316.
Vaccines produced by recombinant technology contain: 1) the gene sequence encoding the antigens 2) only the antibodies with potent activity against the pathogen microorganism 3) all the antigens 4) antigens that play a role in the devlopment of resistance to the pathogen |
D
|
|
PBH-2.320.
Diets deficient in protein may cause: 1) kwashiorkor 2) starvation edema 3) marasmus 4) pellagroid conditions |
E
|
|
PBH-2.353.
Smokers are better protected against the development of Alzheimer's disease than non-smokers because the influence of nicotine on dopamine metabolism is highly preventive. |
C
|
|
PBH-2.380.
Polycyclic hydrocarbon constituents of tobacco smoke are pluripotent carcinogens because these substances form adducts in the blood. |
B
|
|
PBH-2.385.
Air pollution has dramatic effects on human health because its influence is more significant than that of soil contamination. |
B
|
|
PBH-2.434.
The control of environmental conditions reduces the incidence of malignant disease because environmental factors are responsible for the development of malignant disease in at least 10% of cases. |
A
|
|
PBH-2.439.
Stroke can be prevented by appropriately scheduled screening and intervention because factors other than dietary ones are also involved in its etiology. |
A
|
|
PBH-2.505.
Vitamin A has a protective effect against malignancy because crystalline vitamin A has a toxic effect on tumor cells. |
C
|
|
PBH-2.536.
Associate the following term(s) with their corresponding statement(s)! A) Sensitivity B) Specificity C) Predictive value D) Validity E) Relative risk 1) indicates that the method or test in fact measures the targeted parameter 2) has a negative value in healthy individuals 3) has a positive value in ill individuals 4) indicates the risk of developing the disease of a given case if the individual exposes himself to the effects of certain risk factors 5) indicates the prevalence of patients among the cases indicated positive by this method |
DBAEC
|
|
PBH-2.539.
Associate the following term(s) with their corresponding statement(s)! A) Life expectancy at birth B) Probable life expectancy C) Normal life expectancy D) Average life expectancy E) None of the above 1) the number of deaths per year 2) the average of the age of the members of a population alive at a given time 3) the age characteristic of most of the individuals deceased during the year 4) the possible length of life in years for a neonate, assuming that mortality conditions will not change 5) the period during which the number of individuals born in the same year is halved |
EDCAB
|
|
PBH-2.541.
Associate the following term(s) with their corresponding statement(s)! A) Mechanical biological concept B) Functional physiological concept C) Corticovisceral pathology D) Psychosomatic concept 1) the environment in its completeness is manifested by the complexity of social conditions 2) concentrates on the method of processing social effects 3) regards both health and disease as purely biological phenomena 4) its essential principle is the regulative coordination of functions; disordered coordination results in the development of lesions |
CDAB
|
|
PBH-2.544.
Associate the following term(s) with their corresponding statement(s)! A) Health promotion B) Disease prevention C) None of the above 1) it regards health as the lack of disease 2) it is a medical model 3) it is a facilitatory and enabling approach 4) it is a complex consideration of health issues 5) a model of active participation 6) the application of experimental models in practice |
BBAAAC
|
|
The most frequently used indicator for the quality of life is:
A) the life expectancy rate at birth B) the life expectancy rate without chronic disease and disability C) the life expectancy rate at 60 years of age D) the raw mortality rate |
PBH-2.2.
B |
|
Reliable indicators of a quality-life include:
A) the amount of the gross domestic product B) the unemployment rate C) the raw mortality rate D) crime statistics E) leisure utilization statistics |
PBH-2.5.
C |
|
The term "descriptive epidemiology" means:
A) the obseivationanddescription of phenomena prwailing in the population B) the research and testing of associations and correlations C) the application of experimental instruments for the description of phenomena D) the establishment and testing of the zero-hypothesis |
PBH-2.8.
A |
|
The leading diseases causing disability are:
A) psychiatric conditions B) malignancies C) musculoskeletal diseases D) cardiovascular diseases |
PBH-2.13.
D |
|
All of the following are characteristic features of drug dependence,
EXCEPT: A) anxiety and nervous behavior B) excessive smoking C) weight gain D) poor personal hygiene |
PBH-2.18.
C |
|
Which of the following is used as health indicators of a population?
A) demographic parameters B) somatometric parameters C) epidemiologic parameters D) all of the above E) none of the above |
PBH-2.19.
D |
|
A pyramid shaped age distribution tree is characteristic of countries with:
A) an increasing population B) a decreasing population C) a stagnant population |
PBH-2.21.
A |
|
Where is the World Health Organization's principle headquarters?
A) London B) Geneva C) New York D) Vienna |
PBH-2.22.
B |
|
The initiative "Health for all" means:
A) the achievement of a health level that ensures complete physical, mental, and social well being B) the achievement of a health level that is based on the rights and responsibilities of the individual as well as the society C) the achievement of a health level that ensures complete physical, mental, and economic well being D) the provision of a health level that ensures a socially and financially productive life for every individual |
PBH-2.24.
D |
|
Epidemiology can be regarded as the study of
A) the etiology of human diseases B) the incidence and causes of human death C) the distribution of human diseases and the incidence of their determining factors D) the functional parameters of the health care delivery system |
PBH-2.29.
C |
|
Which of the following statements regarding the infant mortality rate
is correct? A) the numerator contains the number of neonates who died during the first month of life B) this is the ratio of neonatal deaths during the first week of life per thousand live births C) this is the ratio of infant deaths during the first year of life per thousand live births |
PBH-2.30.
C |
|
All of the following are valid statements regarding the significance of
hypertension, EXCEPT: A) it is the most prevalent disease in the main group of cardiovascular disorders B) absenteeism from work associated with cardiovascular disorders is mainly due to hypertension C) it is a prevalent cause of death in the mortality statistics D) hypertension is extremely demanding on nursing and health care facilities |
PBH-2.45.
C |
|
All of the following are risk factors for hypertension, EXCEPT:
A) a high bodyweight B) a hereditary disposition C) an excessive intake of sodium D) the regular use of alcohol E) smoking |
PBH-2.48.
E |
|
All of the following factors influence the impact of diabetes mellitus
on public health, EXCEPT: A) insulin dependent (type I) diabetes mellitus decreases the average life expectancy by 15% B) the prevalence of disability is 2-3 times higher than in the normal population C) the prevalence of blindness is 10 times higher than in the total population D) the prevalence of limb amputations is 20-30 times higher than in the normal population |
PBH-2.51
A |
|
All of the following are valid statements regarding diabetes mellitus,
EXCEPT: A) the prevalence of diabetes depends on the diagnostic criteria which are applied B) the prevalence of diabetes increases with advancing age C) the prevalence of diabetes is higher in males D) adult onset diabetes is called type II, non-insulin dependent diabetes |
PBH-2.52.
C |
|
The term "incidence" is defined as:
A) the number of new cases occurring over a specified time-period B) the total number of cases over a specified time-period C) the contingence of the occurrence of diseases D) the number of chronic cases over a specified time-period |
PBH-2.59.
A |
|
Primary hepatocellular carcinoma may develop in:
A) hepatitis E B) hepatitis D C) hepatitis C D) hepatitis B |
PBH-2.65.
D |
|
In Hungary, the mortality rate resulting from malignant disease is
highest in tumors of the: A) stomach B) large intestine C) rectum D) lung |
PBH-2.68.
D |
|
Valid statements regarding cohort studies include:
A) these are usually longitudinal studies B) these are descriptive studies C) these are analytic studies |
PBH-2.72.
A |
|
Which of the following nosocomial infections is the most common in
Hungary? A) pneumonia B) surgical wound infections C) septic conditions D) urinary tract infections |
PBH-2.77.
D |
|
Which of the following hospital departments is afflicted by the highest
relative incidence of nosocomial infections? A) hospital nurseries B) intensive care units C) departments of surgery D) departments of urology |
PBH-2.79.
B |
|
What is the mortality rate of rabies?
A) 20-40% B) 50-60% C) 70-80% D) 100% |
PBH-2.82.
D |
|
Case Study:
Several patients present at your office simultaneously, with symptoms occurring 2-3 hours after a meal. Their complaints include malaise, nausea and vomiting although they have no fever. Which of the following food-poisonings is the likely cause of this condition? A) botulism B) salmonellosis C) staphylococcal food poisoning (caused by S. aureus) D) Clostridium perfringens food poisoning |
PBH-2.91.
C |
|
In which of the following types of food poisonings should a blood
sample be sent to the laboratory for examination? A) staphylococcal food poisoning B) botulism C) campylobacteriosis D) salmonellosis |
PBH-2.96.
B |
|
Initial hearing-loss resulting from exposure to noise is detectable at
a freqency of: A) 1000 Hz B) 2000 Hz C) 3000 Hz D) 4000 Hz |
PBH-2.100.
D |
|
Contraindications to post-exposure active immunization for rabies
include(s): A) pregnancy B) rheumatoid arthritis C) active tuberculosis D) all of the above E) none of the above |
PBH-2.102.
E |
|
The recent fecal contamination of drinking water is suggested by a
high concentration of. A) chloride B) nitrate C) sulphate D) ammonia E) nitrite |
PBH-2.103.
D |
|
The hepatitis A virus can be isolated from the stool of an infected
individual: A) immediately after the onset of jaundice B) a week before the onset of jaundice C) only during the period of jaundice D) 2-3 weeks before the onset of jaundice |
PBH-2.108.
D |
|
A child with polio should be isolated:
A) at home B) in the hospital (in the department of infectious diseases) C) no isolation is necessary |
PBH-2.109.
B |
|
Which of the following diagnostic methods is used for establishing
the diagnosis of a brucellosis infection? A) the detection of the virus B) Wright's reaction C) Ascoli's thermoprecipitation D) Geck's India ink stain |
PBH-2.113.
B |
|
The pathogen of Q fever is:
A) Coxiella burneth B) Chlamydia sp. C) Miyagawanella sp. D) viruses |
PBH-2.118
A |
|
A high concentration of detergents is characteristic of:
A) industrial sewage B) agricultural sewage C) domestic sewage D) sewage of health-care institutions |
PBH-2.120.
C |
|
Leukemia may develop insidiously with prolonged exposure to:
A) methylbromide B) benzene C) trichlorethylene D) carbon tetrachloride |
PBH-2.121.
B |
|
Organic phosphate esters:
A) inhibit the activity of phosphophosphorylase B) inhibit the activity of acetylcholinesterase C) inhibit the activity of malate dehydrogenase D) stimulate the activity of pseudocholinesterase |
PBH-2.123.
B |
|
The reservoir of yellow fever is/are:
A) infected monkeys and humans B) mosquitoes C) tsetse fly D) rat |
PBH-2.137.
A |
|
Measures important for the prevention of toxoplasmosis include:
A) the hygenic control of domestic dogs B) avoiding the ingestion of undercooked meat C) avoiding the ingestion of game meat D) supplementing the diet of pregnant women with meat |
PBH-2.139.
B |
|
In infectious mononucleosis, preventive measures include that:
A) the patient should be isolated B) laboratory testing is mandatory C) reporting is not required D) continuous disinfection is necessary |
PBH-2.149.
D |
|
A characteristic feature of typhoid fever is:
A) an isolated elevation of the H antigen titers B) an elevation of the O antigen titers and a reduction of the H antigen titers C) a reduction of the O antigen titers D) the simultaneous elevation of both O and H antigen titers |
PBH-2.158.
D |
|
The positivity of the Gruber-Widal reaction for typhoid fever:
A) is of diagnostic value when the antigen titers are 1:200 or greater B) is of diagnostic value when the antigen titers are 1:50 or greater C) is reliable in the range of 1:100 to 1:3200 D) is the sole important feature as the antibody titers are irrelevant |
PBH-2.163.
B |
|
Vaccines to be administered according to a continuous immunization
schedule include: A) age-specific, mandatory immunizations B) seasonal immunizations C) immunizations required to travel abroad D) campaign immunizations |
PBH-2.178.
A |
|
Components of the chemotherapeutic index include:
A) the toxic dose B) the DL50 value C) both the tolerated and the toxic dose D) both the tolerated and the curative dose |
PBH-2.179
D |
|
The portal of entry for the tetanus pathogen is:
A) the oral mucosa B) the conjunctiva C) the excoriated skin D) the gastrointestinal tract |
PBH-2.182.
C |
|
Moeller-Barlow disease is caused by a deficiency of.
A) vitamin A B) vitamin D C) vitamin K D) vitamin C |
PBH-2.193.
D |
|
Cheilosis develops as a result of:
A) a vitamin D deficiency B) a vitamin A deficiency C) a vitamin C deficiency D) a riboflavin deficiency |
PBH-2.205.
D |
|
Vitamin A deficiency results in:
A) keratomalacia B) polyneuritis C) anemia D) ossification disorders |
PBH-2.211.
A |
|
Rachitis tarda is characteristic in:
A) the adult age B) the neonatal age C) puberty D) advanced age |
PBH-2.212.
C |
|
The additive effects of two different poisons having entered the organism
is referred to as: A) interaction B) antagonism C) summation D) synergism |
PBH-2.218.
C |
|
Considering the low success rate of therapy in affected cancer patients
already detected by screening, primary prevention is particularly important in: A) skin cancer B) breast cancer C) bronchial cancer D) rectal cancer E) cervical cancer |
PBH-2.221.
C |
|
Viral surface antigens are:
A) proteins B) polysaccharides C) lipopolysaccharides D) glycoproteins |
PBH-2.230.
D |
|
Human pathogens of tuberculosis include:
A) Mycobacterium tuberculosis hominis (in 99% of cases) B) Mycobacterium tuberculosis bovis (in 3% of cases) C) Mycobacterium tuberculosis hominis (in 97% of cases) D) Mycobacterium brevis (in 3% of cases) |
PBH-2.233.
A |
|
Which of the following plays the most important role in warm weather?
A) the sympathetic vegetative system B) the parasympathetic vegetative system C) the appendages of the skin D) the respiratory system |
PBH-2.238.
A |
|
Provided that patient compliance is high, which of the following conditions
can be treated? A) lung cancer B) bronchial cancer C) cancer of the colon D) breast cancer E) cervical cancer |
PBH-2.252.
E |
|
What is electric ophthalmia?
A) the effect of strong electric shock on the unprotected eye B) the effect of laser irradiation on the unprotected eye C) the effect of exposure to UV-light on the unprotected eye D) the effect of radiowaves on the unprotected eye |
PBH-2.263.
C |
|
In patients with an ovalbumin allergy in their medical history, the
application of viral vaccines is: 1) absolutely contraindicated 2) not contraindicated in patients over the age of 6 years 3) appropriate if antihistamines are administered simultaneously 4) possible, depending on the results of the skin test |
PBH-2.315.
D |
|
The effects of chemical (environmental) carcinogens are usually
manifested during the process of multiphasic carcinogenesis because they only cause malignancy after a decade-long exposure. |
PBH-2.402.
B |
|
The HIV virus is destroyed outside the body because it is extremely
sensitive to the changes of temperature and pH. |
PBH-2.456.
A |
|
The consumption of fish is deleterious to health because water pollutants
may accumulate in the fish liver. |
PBH-2.501.
D |
|
Associate the following term(s) with their corresponding statement(s)!
A) Lethality B) Mortality C) Age-specific mortality D) Infant death-rate E) None of the above 1) the ratio of infant mortality during the first year of life per 1000 live births 2) the most common populational measure of mortality 3) indicates the life-threatening nature of the disease 4) measures the mortality of certain age groups 5) indicates the mortality of populations with different agedistribution |
PBH-2.538.
DBACE |
|
Associate the following term(s) with their corresponding statement(s)!
A) Hard risk factor B) Soft risk factor 1) blood pressure 2) cholesterol level 3) lifestyle 4) family conditions 5) diabetes mellitus |
PBH-2.548.
AABBA |
|
Workers are required to wear individual ear protectors at noise levels
exceeding: A) 60 dB B) 75 dB C) 85 dB D) 95 dB |
PBH-2.99.
C |
|
The time to seek needed medical help is determined by:
A) the personality of the given individual B) the intensity of the signs and symptoms C) the pain-sensitivity of the individual D) all of the above E) none of the above |
PBH-2.17.
D |
|
Alcohol and drug abuse:
A) are equally prevalent in both sexes B) are more prevalent among males C) are more prevalent among females D) have an age-dependent prevalence |
PBH-2.16.
B |
|
All of the following are integral elements of communal health movements,
EXCEPT: A) self-help groups B) minority health-groups C) health societies D) the public health and medical officer service |
PBH-2.6.
D |
|
Estimates of the growth rate of the world population are made on the
presumption that the size of the population doubles every: A) 15 years B) 35 years C) 70 years D) 105 years E) 140 years |
PBH-2.73
B |
|
Which of the following factors has the greatest significance in the
transmission of nosocomial infections? A) nursing equipment B) medical instruments and devices C) contaminated hands of the staff D) ambient air |
PBH-2.76.
C |
|
All of the following statements are valid regarding dysenteriform
enterocolitis (colonic dyspepsia), EXCEPT: A) laboratory testing is mandatory B) reporting is mandatory C) laboratory testing is recommended, however not mandatory D) continuous and conclusive disinfection is necessary |
PBH-2.154
C |
|
All of the following belong to the new methods of population science
used for setting priorities and making decisions, EXCEPT: A) the magnitude of the potential loss of live years B) the standardized age and gender specific mortality C) the life expectancy without disability D) the number of live years afflicted by disability and chronic disease |
PBH-2.36.
B |
|
All of the following are important factors for studies on lifestyle,
EXCEPT. A) smoking B) alcohol consumption C) eating habits D) drug abuse E) the social support system F) physical activity G) health beliefs |
PBH-2.23.
E |
|
Which of the following malignancies is characterized by both a decreasing
incidence rate and a decreasing mortality rate? A) neoplasms of the stomach B) neoplasms of the cervix C) both of the above D) none of the above |
PBH-2.71.
A |
|
Which of the following conditions is described by the idiom "mad as a
hatter"? A) lead poisoning B) cadmium poisoning C) mercury poisoning D) beryllium poisoning |
PBH-2.192.
C |
|
How does the the incidence of cervical cancer rank among all female
malignancies? A) first place B) second place C) third place D) fourth place E) fifth place |
PBH-2.75.
C |
|
The term "emission" means:
A) the concentration of pollutants in the air just above the ground B) the emanation of air pollutants per unit of time C) the dilution of pollutants present in the air D) the annual average pollutant-concentration per individual |
PBH-2.87
A |
|
Which of the following is a WHO program for the monitoring of cardiovascular
diseases? A) TETRA-CP B) MONICA C) CINDI D) Health City |
PBH-2.12.
B |
|
Which of the following is the principal cause of a demographic boom?
A) an increase of the raw birth rate B) a reduction of the raw birth rate C) an increase of the raw mortality rate D) a reduction of the raw mortality rate |
PBH-2.58.
D |
|
The mortality rate of typhoid fever is:
A) 10% if treated B) 50% if left untreated C) 1% if treated D) 10% if left untreated |
PBH-2.159.
C |
|
The coincidence of three risk factors increases the likelihood of developing
ischemic heart disease (IHD): A) eightfold B) fourfold C) thirteenfold D) sevenfold |
PBH-2.14.
C |
|
All of the following are important elements of the social case-review,
EXCEPT: A) the etiological social factors resulting in the development of the disease B) the social effects of a disease C) the clinical therapy D) the social therapy |
PBH-2.7.
C |
|
The most frequent health risk factors include:
A) smoking B) alcohol abuse C) malnutrition or obesity D) drug abuse |
PBH-2.56
C |
|
To which of the following organizations should new malignant cases
be reported for an initial diagnostic work-up? A) to a regional oncology care center B) to the National Ministry of Health C) to a national and regional oncolgy center D) to the Census Bureau E) to all of the above |
PBH-2.74.
C |
|
Which of the following diets would you recommend to an asymptomatic
male with moderate hypercholesterolemia? A) stuffed eggs, and mixed salads B) fried fish, steamed rice, and tomato salads C) noodles with cottage cheese, cutlets, and apples D) pork fried in breadcrumbs and mashed potatoes E) gyros, arnaki, and kokoretsi |
PBH-2.83.
B |
|
What is the optimal percentage of protein-calories in the total energy
content of a balanced diet? A) 6-10% B) 10-12% C) 12-18% D) 25-30% |
PBH-2.93.
C |
|
Vitamin K is involved in the synthesis of.
A) l coagulation factor B) 2 coagulation factors C) 3 coagulation factors D) 4 coagulation factors |
PBH-2.203.
D |
|
Terms belonging to the terminology of population dynamics include:
1) the marriage and divorce rate 2) drug abuse 3) the death rate 4) alcohol abuse |
PBH-2.312.
B |
|
Marasmus predominantly afflicts:
A) infants B) adults C) children D) neonates |
PBH-2.209.
D |
|
Drawbacks of retrospective studies include:
1) their long duration 2) their unreliability 3) their high costs 4) the loss of data |
PBH-2.313.
C |
|
Which of the following specimens should be sent for a toxicology
study following mushroom poisoning? 1) the vomitus of the patient 2) the remnants of a dish prepared from the suspected poisonous mushroom 3) the gastric lavage fluid 4) a stool specimen |
PBH-2.322.
E |
|
PSY-3.6
A doctor, who smokes, asserts that smoking is beneficial because it inhibits the development of obesity is using which of the following "defense" mechanisms? A) dissociation B) intellectualization C) rationalization D) reaction formation E) projection |
rationalization
|
|
PSY- 3.21.
Important mechanisms in the development of the "ego" include: A) condensation B) rationalization C) defense D) identification |
identification
|
|
PSY-3.23.
The proportion of suicides which have already been preceded by earlier suicie attempts is: A) 10% B) 20% C) 50% D) 60% E) 100% |
60%
|
|
PSY-3.25.
Contraindications to lithium administration include: A) an administration in combination with chlorpromazine (Thorazine) B) the presence of a renal disease C) any occurrence of the symptoms of schizophrenia D) the presence of depression E) an administration in combination with imipramine (Tofranil) |
the presence of a renal disease
|
|
PSY-3.26
"Suggestion" as a form of a psychotherapy is used in: A) conversion disorder B) child psychiatry C) patients with a low IQ D) all of the above E) none of the above |
all of the above
|
|
PSY-3.29
A loss of remote memory is a typical symptom of delirium tremens A) delirium tremens B) senile dementia C) schizophrenia D) Korsakoffs syndrome E) hysteria |
Korsakoffs syndrome
|
|
PSY-3.32.
A typical exhibitionist: A) projects repressed homosexual impulses B) is impotent C) experiences loneliness and shame D) is older than 50 E) is schizophrenic |
experiences loneliness and shame
|
|
PSY-3.34.
Which of the following symptoms is least characteristic for schizophrenia? A) autistic thinking B) bizarre delusions C) hypnagogic hallucinations D) neologisms E) thought blocking |
hypnagogic hallucinations
|
|
PSY-3.35.
Physical processes involved in the development of the "superego" include all of the following EXCEPT: A) identification B) internalization C) introjection D) isolation E) idealization |
isolation
|
|
PSY-3.36.
A "projection" mechanism is most characteristic for which of the following personality disorders? A) an anancastic personality B) a schizoid personality C) a hypomanic personality D) a paranoid personality E) an antisocial personality |
a paranoid personality
|
|
PSY-3.38.
Anxiety is a common symptom of all the following conditions, EXCEPT. A) hypoglycemia B) hypothyroidism C) pheochromocytoma D) porphyria E) hypocalcemia |
hypothyroidism
|
|
PSY-3.42.
Case Study: A 56-year-old male presents with symptoms of irritability and disinterest in his daily activities. At times, he is confused and forgetful. His gait is unsteady. The deep tendon reflexes are diminished. He frequently experiences tingling in his legs. The most likely diagnosis is: A) hypothyroidism B) a cerebellar tumor C) multiple sclerosis D) a vitamin B12 deficiency E) presenile dementia |
a vitamin B12
deficiency |
|
PSY-3.43.
Bleuler's symptoms of schizophrenia (the four A's) include all of the following EXCEPT: A) ambivalence B) affective flattening C) apathy D) autism E) loose associations |
apathy
|
|
PSY-3.44.
Case Study: A 25-year-old patient complains of hearing voices speaking about him and threatening him. The patient regards them as real and suffers from them. The most likely diagnosis is: A) schizophrenia B) alcoholic hallucinations C) dementia D) hysteria E) debility |
alcoholic hallucinations
|
|
PSY-3.68.
Case Study: A young man develops an irrepressible urge to wash his hair several times a day which he explains as a means of protection against infection from others. He assures everyone that he feels well but he becomes extremely anxious if he cannot wash his hair. The most probable diagnosis is: A) automatism B) compulsive personality disorder C) hypochondriasis D) compulsive thoughts E) phobia |
compulsive personality disorder
|
|
PSY-3.76.
Case Study: A 40-year-old woman developed delusions during the past year that her husband was having an affair with her sister. She denies any hallucinations. Her emotions and her behavior correspond to the contents of the delusion. The most likely diagnosis is: A) acute paranoid disorder B) polie a deux (induced mental disorder) C) paranoia D) paranoid schizophrenia E) schizophreniform disorder with a paranoid character |
paranoia
|
|
PSY-3.80.
Which of the following types of delusions is least likely to be present in an affective disorder? A) delusions of grandeur B) nihilistic delusions C) delusions of poverty D) hypochondric delusions E) thought withdrawal |
thought withdrawal
|
|
PSY-3.83.
Catatonic motor disorder is best defined as: A) a marked hyperactivity which is commonly violent and aimless B) a generalized muscle rigidity C) waxy flexibility D) stupor or mutism, without an organic cause E) a severe psychomotor disturbance which cannot be attributed to an organic cause |
a severe psychomotor disturbance which cannot be attributed
to an organic cause |
|
PSY-3.84.
Drugs contraindicated in acute alcohol intoxication include all of the following, EXCEPT: A) diazepam (Seduxen) B) phenobarbital (Sevenal) C) disulfiram (Anticol, Antaethyl) D) glutethimide (Noxyron) E) haloperidol |
haloperidol
|
|
PSY-3.88.
Diseases that lead to mental retardation and require genetic counselling include all of the following, EXCEPT: A) Tay-Sachs disease B) galactosemia C) phenylketonuria D) Down's syndrome E) cerebral paralysis (Little's disease) |
cerebral paralysis (Little's disease)
|
|
PSY-3.90.
Symptoms of a perception disorder include: 1) hallucination 2) depersonalization 3) illusion 4) perseveration |
A
|
|
PSY-3.92.
Sleep patterns characteristic for major (endogenous) depression include: 1) frequent nightmares followed by awakening 2) waking up too early 3) a marked prolongation of the 3rd and 4th phases (delta phase) of sleep 4) a markedly decreased ratio of the REM phases |
C
|
|
PSY-3.94.
Functions of the ego include: 1) the regulation of intrapsychic conflicts 2) the regulation of instincts 3) reality testing 4) developing relationships with objects |
E
|
|
PSY-3.97.
Case Study: A 35-year-old man complains of hearing voices at night, telling him that he is a bad and guilty person. Having no other available information, which of the following conditions would you consider ? 1) schizophreniform disorder 2) personality disorder 3) hypnagogic hallucinations 4) organic hallucinations |
E
|
|
PSY-3.99.
Characteristics of a conversion (histrionic) disorder include: 1) mimicking an organic disease 2) expression of a psychiological conflict 3) seeking other people's attention in order to gain their support 4) the patient's ability to control his/her symptoms voluntarily |
A
|
|
PSY-3.105
Psychotropic drugs that can cause addiction include: 1) benzodiazepines 2) amphetamines 3) meprobamate 4) butyrophenones |
A
|
|
PSY-3.107.
Case Study: A 36-year-old man is brought to the emergency room by the police. He has been caught speeding on the highway at night without his headlights on. On examination he is agitated and belligerent. He warned the physician and the policemen that he has "friends" in high places whom he is currently in contact with and that the policemen who have incarcerated him will be punished. Diagnostic possibilities can include: 1) hyperthyroidism 2) arsenic intoxication 3) amphetamine overdose 4) Addison's disease |
B
|
|
PSY-3.114.
Visual hallucinations are characteristic for which of the following conditions? 1) acute alcohol abuse 2) (Korsakof's syndrome 3) alcohol hallucinations 4) delirium tremens |
D
|
|
PSY-3.126.
How does malingering differ from somatization disorders? 1) it occurs more rarely 2) this disease is more susceptible to therapy 3) malingering is not a psychiatric disorder 4) it may involve the abnormality of several organs |
A
|
|
PSY-3.137
Case Study: A 53-year-old woman underwent an operation for a fracture of the neck of the femur. On the second postoperative day she became agitated and incooperative. On the third day she was noted to have hallucinations and addressed the nurses by the names of her own children. Possible causes of her symptoms include: 1) alcohol withdrawal 2) intravenously administered penicillin 3) sepsis 4) general anesthesia |
A
|
|
PSY-3.146.
Which of the sexual disorders listed below are characterized by the statement that psychologically immature young males are usually aggressive to their "victims" in order to obtain sexual gratification? 1) transsexualism 2) homosexuality 3) erection disorder 4) exhibitionism |
D
|
|
PSY-3.148.
Case Study: A 22-year-old patient, during an interview, recalled that she had seen two doves sitting on the window sill, which she recognized as a future sign of an important event that would take place in her life in two weeks time. This symptom should be regarded as a(n): A) illusion B) hallucination C) delusion D) neologism E) incoherence |
delusion
|
|
PSY-3.149
The most important process in the development of the ego is: A) identification B) projection C) reaction formation D) regression E) repression |
identification
|
|
PSY-3.150.
Emotional reactions towards the physician, which reflect recent experiences and relationships outside of the therapeutic setting, may be defined as: A) acting out B) fixation C) free associations D) impulse transmission E) anxiety |
impulse transmission
|
|
PSY-3.153.
A characteristic defense mechanism involved in paranoid symptom formation is: A) reality denial B) conversion C) projection D) isolation E) acting out |
projection
|
|
PSY-3.158
characteristics of conversion disorders include all of the following, EXCEPT: A) their incidence in children is equal in both sexes B) the symptoms are involuntary C) their incidence is decreasing D) the symptoms correspond to the pathophysiology of the disorders E) they are more frequenly diagnosed in women by midadolescence |
the symptoms correspond to the pathophysiology of the disorders
|
|
PSY-3.165
The most frequent type of schizophrenia among hospital admissions is: A) the autistic type B) the catatonic type C) the hebephrenic type D) the paranoid type E) the undifferentiated type |
the paranoid type
|
|
PSY-3.169.
Which of the following focal organic mental disorders is characterized by a loss of initiative? A) temporal lobe syndrome B) injury of the frontal convexity C) injury of the frontal base D) Korsakoffs syndrome E) diencephalic syndrome |
injury of the frontal convexity
|
|
PSY-3.171.
The risk for developing schizophrenia in a sister of a schizophrenic male child is: A) 70% B) 40% C) 25% D) 12% E) 1% |
12%
|
|
PSY-3.174
Which of the following symptoms is indicative of barbiturate intoxication, rather than drug withdrawal? A) confusion B) nystagmus C) postural hypotension D) disorientation E) agitation |
nystagmus
|
|
PSY-3.193.
Case Study: A middle-aged man becomes ill with Parkinson's disease. The prescribed medication fails to improve his motor abnormalities. His mood is depressed. He says he has lost his relish for life and the only thing he does is sleep. The first steps of managing this patient include: A) to admit him to a psychiatric ward with respect to a possibility of suicide B) reassuring the patient that the prescribed medications are effective in Parkinson's disease C) a discussion with the patient about his troubles and inquiry about any suicidal ideations D) referring the patient to a neurologist or a psychiatrist saying, "let them hear his story" E) scheduling frequent therapeutic settings and calling the attention of the family members to the possibility of suicide |
a discussion with the patient about his troubles and inquiry
about any suicidal ideations |
|
PSY-3.205.
Common features of delirium and dementia include all of the following, EXCEPT: A) impaired remote memory B) distorted thought process C) cognitive impairment D) EEG abnormalities E) organic pathology |
cognitive impairment
|
|
PSY-3.208.
Dementia is characterized by all of the following statements, EXCEPT: A) demented patients are often depressed B) the ability to generalize from past experiences and to recognize the relationship between similar situations is impaired C) an early feature is an inability to recall events from the distant past D) demented patients may experience hallucinations E) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is a dementia caused by a slow virus infection |
an early feature is an inability to recall events from the distant
past |
|
PSY-3.213
Risk factors for a patient's violent behavior in a physician's office include: 1) a history of manic disease , 2) a history of suicide attempts 3) alcohol abuse 4) head trauma |
E
|
|
PSY-3.218
Which of the following statements concerning social deprivation are correct? 1) it may be associated with severe mental retardation 2) it may be associated with a severe personality disorder 3) it may be experimentally modelled in animals 4) it frequently occurs in poorly organized hospital wards |
E
|
|
PSY-3.219.
A patient with a paranoid personality usually: 1). becomes psychotic at times 2) restricts his emotions 3) avoids interpersonal conflicts 4) shows excessive sensitivity to the behavior of others |
C
|
|
PSY-3.220
A Characteristics of neurotic depression include: 1) recurrent short hypomanic episodes 2) a sustained, low-level intensity of mood 3) unresponsiveness to therapy 4) a lack of psychotic symptoms |
C
|
|
PSY-3.225.
A manic state is characterized by which of the following symptoms? 1) diffuseness and self-assurance 2) holothymic hallucinations and delusions of grandeur 3) increased activity and a decreased need for sleep 4) specific precipitating causes preceding the onset of symptoms |
A
|
|
PSY-3.227.
Delirium tremens, in its initial phase, may be effectively prevented by: 1) meprobamate 2) benzodiazepines 3) chlomethiazole (Heminevrin) 4) barbiturates |
A
|
|
PSY-3.231
The side-effects of tricyclic antidepressants include: 1) hypertension 2) dry mouth 3) diarrhea 4) blurred vision |
C
|
|
PSY-3.234.
Correct statements about illusions include: 1) they are elicited by an environmental stimulus and negatively affect sensory discrimination 2) they are a misperception of an existing environmental stimulus 3) they are more frequently observed in organic mental disorders than in functional psychiatric illnesses 4) they are not always associated with psychoses |
E
|
|
PSY-3.238.
Characteristics of personality disorders include: 1) a gradual flattening of the thought process 2) a normal sense of reality 3) delusions, observed over a long period 4) the possible occurrence of psychotic episodes |
C
|
|
PSY-3.242.
Primary (psychologic and sociopsychologic) disease advantages include which of the following? 1) the disease elicits attention and care in the environment 2) affective conflicts are repressed from consciousness 3) the disease satisfies an unconscious need for dependency 4) the patient is given all the excuses a society can offer |
A
|
|
PSY-3.243.
Which of the following defense mechanisms are common for antisocial, borderline, and histrionic personality disorders? 1) dissociation 2) denial 3) splitting 4) acting out |
E
|
|
PSY-3.248.
Conditions that may be associated with the catatonic syndrome (rigidity, mutism, catalepsia, waxy flexibility) include: 1) an affective disorder 2) viral encephalitis 3) hypnosis 4) schizophrenia |
E
|
|
PSY-3-.251
Which of the following medications are capable of eliciting mania? 1) amphetamines 2) tricyclic antidepressants 3) corticosteroids 4) reserpine |
A
|
|
PSY-3.259.
Wernicke's encephalopathy is characterized by: 1) a sudden onset 2) nystagmus and ophthalmoplegia 3) a somnolent state 4) pathologic changes in the mamillary body |
E
|
|
PSY-3.260
Characteristic symptoms of atypical (pathologic) binges include: 1) actions that are not characteristic for the individual in other situations 2) visual hallucinations 3) amnesia 4) associated epileptiform seizures |
A
|
|
PSY -3.261.
Which of the following statements concerning interrelationships between anxiety and depression are correct? 1) many depressed patients are anxious 2) many patients with a panic disorder will develop depression 3) the same therapy may be useful in both depression and anxiety 4) hereditary transmission is recognized in both depression and panic disorder |
E
|
|
PSY-3.262. MC
Which of the following conditions are associated with mutism? A) alcohol withdrawal B) conversion neurosis C) catatonic schizophrenia D) depression E) Ganser's syndrome |
BCD
|
|
PSY-3.263. MC
Echolaha is characteristic for: A) catatonic schizophrenia B) anorexia nervosa C) Alzheimer's disease D) infantile autism E) petit mal epilepsy |
ACD
|
|
PSY-3.264. MC
Characteristic symptoms of schizophrenia include: A) compulsive thoughts B) progressive dementia C) depersonalization D) waking up early in the morning E) thought withdrawal |
CE
|
|
PSY-3.265. MC
Which of the following symptoms or findings suggest a poor prognosis in acute schizophrenic psychosis? A) an IQ above the average B) flatness of affect C) an abrupt onset D) a normal premorbid personality E) marked thought disorder |
BE
|
|
PSY-3.267. MC
Which of the following statements is characteristic for tardive dyskinesia? A) recent phenothiazine therapy is usually found in the history B) the intramuscular injection of benztropine rapidly relieves the symptoms C) grimacing is typical D) intentional tremor is diagnostic for the condition E) the administration of phenothiazine may precipitate the attack |
CE
|
|
PSY-3.268. MC
Grandious delusions may occur in which of the following conditions? A) schizophrenia B) frontal lobe tumor C) manic syndrome D) compulsive neurosis E) amphetamine intoxication |
ABCE
|
|
PSY-3.269. MC
Characteristic symptoms of acute manic psychosis include: A) lack of insight B) flight of ideas C) confabulation D) distractibility E) depression in the family history |
BDE
|
|
In order to be more effective with a particular course of therapy, it is
advisable not to have any preconceptions that can govern our therapeutic attempts. |
PSY-3.2.
T |
|
It is advisable to avoid taking the parent's role when consulting
children who are neglecting their duties. |
PSY-3.3
T |
|
In a partially separated family with children who areneglecting their
duties, there is still a risk for strong loyalties among the divided family members. |
PSY-3.4.
T |
|
It is advisable to stay neutral rather than to becomeauthorative over
the family during family psychotherapy. |
PSY-3.5.
T |
|
The most accepted hypothesis explaining the biological basis for
schizophrenia is: A) the transmethylation hypothesis B) the double bind hypothesis C) the serotonin hypothesis D) the dopamine hypothesis E) the endogenous opiate hypothesis |
PSY-3.7
D |
|
A disorientation to time is characteristic of.
A) Korsakoff s syndrome B) an acute schizophrenic episode C) hypomania D) depressive psychosis E) agoraphobia |
PSY-3.8.
A |
|
In attempting to teach a child to accomplish a new task one must:
A) reinforce the child immediately following completion of the task B) reinforce the child, with a slight delay, following completion of the task C) reinforce the child, after a marked delay, following completion of the task |
PSY-3.10.
A |
|
When a 5-year-old child "throws a fit", he/she is usually punished but
at times the child gets what he/she wants. These fits are most likely to: A) become less frequent B) gradually cease C) become continuous |
PSY-3.11.
C |
|
To properly develop a good behavior in a child, it is advisable to:
A) punish the child B) reward the child C) both of the above D) none of the above |
PSY-3.13
B |
|
In attempting to reinforce the behavior of a child, it is advisable to:
A) punish the child B) praise the child C) both of the above D) none of the above |
PSY-3.15.
B |
|
Punishment is effective if:
A) it does not generate aversion towards the punishing person B) it does not result in an escape reaction C) it decreases the necessity of further punishment D) it does not reinforce an aggressive behavior E) all of the above |
PSY-3.16.
E |
|
Punishment is effective if it is applied:
A) immediately B) with a slight delay C) with marked delay D) none of the above |
PSY-3.17.
A |
|
In the following example, the best way to reinforce a child's behavior
is to tell him/her: 1) "Go to bed, I'll tell you a tale!" 2) "I'll beat you if you don't go straight to bedl" 3) "I'm happy that you've put your pyjamas on!" 4) "If you don't go to bed, you can't have breakfast in the morning!" A) answers (1),( 2), and (3) are correct B) answers (1) and (3) are correct C) answers (2) and (4) are correct D) all of the above |
PSY-3.18.
B |
|
Perception without corresponding environmental stimuli is:
A) a hallucination B) an illusion C) a delusion D) derealization E) depersonalization |
PSY-3.27.
A |
|
The occurrence of which of the following symptoms would allow
differentiation between delirium and dementia? A) an impaired judgment B) a memory deficit C) an impaired consciousness D) an impaired process of thinking E) disorientation |
PSY-3.28.
C |
|
Early in the psychiatric interview, it is important for the physician to;
A) inform the patient of the fee B) obtain details of any past psychiatric illnesses C) let patients talk about what is bothering them D) obtain information about the patient's mood E) record the family history |
PSY-3.31
C |
|
A "borderline personality disorder" is characterized by all of the
following symptoms, EXCEPT: A) impulsivity and an unpredictable behavior B) identity disturbances C) mood instability D) withdrawal from social activity E) recurrent suicidal gestures and short psychotic episodes |
PSY-3.40
D |
|
Case Study:
A 23-year-old woman complains of becoming occasionally anxious. These occurences are associated with tachycardia and excessive sweating. The condition usually develops in the morning. Which of the following tests has to be performed urgently? A) thyroid function tests B) toxicological screening C) determination of the serum sodium level D) determination of the blood glucose level E) determination of the serum ammonia level |
PSY-3.47
D |
|
Case Study:
A middle-aged waiter was admitted to the psychiatric ward in a drunken state. While in the ward his behavior became bizarre and he gradually became became disoriented to place and time. He sometimes acted as if he was taking orders or serving dishes. On examination he usually misinterpretated the antecendents and circumstances of his admission. He was unable to recall his answers to simple questions after a few minutes. He denies any hallucinations or delusions. The patient has had no prior psychiatric disorders. His relatives haven't found anything extraordinary about his behavior. The most likely diagnosis is: A) alcohol withdrawal syndrome (delirium tremens) B) acute paranoid schizophrenia C) alcoholic hallucinations D) alcohol amnestic syndrome (Korsakof's syndrome) E) manic phase (of bipolar disorder) |
PSY-3.51.
D |
|
The psychotherapy of schizophrenic patients includes all of the
following, EXCEPT: A) a warm, open relationship aiming to promote the patient's selfesteem and educating the patient about his/her disease B) a supportive psychotherapy that focuses on resolving the problems of the patient in his/her everyday life C) setting limits on the patient's behavior, including the consequences of his/her violent actions D) encouraging socialization in order to build more extensive social relationships E) encouraging the patient to express his/her anger and hostility as much as possible in the therapeutic relationship in order to reduce the intensity of these emotions outside the consulting office |
PSY-3.54.
E |
|
Case Study:
A 25-year-old female was brought to the hospital ward by ambulance. Upon examination she was febrile, confused, and a bizarre posture was observed. The results of blood and cerebrospinal fluid tests were normal. The patient was diagnosed as schizophrenic and is currently on chlorpromazine (Hibernal). Which is the most likely cause of her current symptoms? A) an acute dystonic reaction B) akathisia C) tardive dyskinesia D) a malignant neuroleptic syndrome E) an allergic reaction to chlorpromazine |
PSY-3.58.
D |
|
Statements which are characteristic for the various psychotherapeutic
methods include all of the following, EXCEPT: A) these methods aim to relieve anxiety and to improve social integration B) the theories concerning the application of the methods are specific for each of the psychiatric disorders C) these focus on childhood events and experiences D) impulsivness and resistance develop between the physician and the patient E) these methods all have a therapeutic aim and elicit a learning process in the patient |
PSY-3.59.
C |
|
Which of the following tests is important for the differential diagnosis
of organic and psychogenic impotence? A) monitoring of the serum gonadotropine levels over 24 hours B) nasopharyngeal EEG during sexual stimulation C) night-time erections D) projective tests E) monitoring of any alterations in the testosterone levels |
PSY-3.60
C |
|
Negative symptoms of schizophrenia include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) flat affect B) auditory hallucinations C) lack of motivation and initiative D) anhedonia E) poverty of thought content |
PSY-3.61.
B |
|
Hallucinations are symptoms of:
A) mood disorders B) mental disorders C) thought disorders D) abnormal perception E). disorders of concentration |
PSY-3.63.
D |
|
Delusion is characterized by all of the following statements, EXCEPT:
A) delusion is a belief that does not correspond to the experiences of the individual B) delusions are common symptoms of schizophrenia C) delusions are possible symptoms of affective disorders D) delusions may be symptoms of an organic mental disorder E) delusions may be eliminated by logical explanations |
PSY-3.64.
E |
|
Which of the following is the most common cause of the cessation of
sexual activity in married couples? A) aging B) marital discord C) physical illness D) cultural prohibition E) depression |
PSY-3.65.
B |
|
Unconscious emotions generated by a physician during psychotherapy
are best described by the term: A) projection B) impulse transmission C) acting out D) identification E) introjection |
PSY-3.69.
B |
|
Case Study:
A 15-year-old girl presents to the emergency room with severe weight loss. On examination she is cachectic, bradycardic, and hypotensive. The first course of action should be to: A) determine the family dynamics B) administer a high-protein and carbohydrate diet C) draw blood for a serum electrolyte determination and then start intravenous feeding D) arrange to have the patient admitted to the psychiatric ward E) prepare for electroconvulsive therapy |
PSY-3.72.
C |
|
Based on the results of psychiatric epidemiological studies, the most
common psychiatric disorder among the general population is: A) depression B) schizophrenia C) alcoholism D) phobias E) dementia |
PSY-3.73.
C |
|
The ratio of psychiatric disturbances among patients who seek
evaluation for somatic diseases is: A) 10% B) 20% C) 33% D) 50% E) 90% |
PSY-3.74.
C |
|
Case Study:
A 20-year-old man is admitted to the hospital. He developed hallucinations and delusions of persecution three weeks ago. He is currently agitated. Possible diagnoses, based on the DSM-III-R, include all of the following, EXCEPT: A) brief reactive psychosis B) organic mental disorder C) borderline personality disorder D) schizophrenia E) schizophreniform disorder |
PSY-3.78.
D |
|
The most important reason for monitoring the serum lithium level is:
A) to check on the patient's compliance B) because the toxic dose is very close to the therapeutic level C) because lithium is rapidly excreted from the body D) because lithium is a salt, rather than a drug E) none of the above |
PSY-3.79.
B |
|
Common complications of alcoholism include:
A) cerebral damage B) gastritis C) suicide D) polyneuropathy E) all of the above |
PSY-3.85
E |
|
Organic mental syndromes include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) delirium B) dementia C) amnestic syndromes D) paranoid disorders E) organic hallucinosis |
PSY-3.87.
D |
|
A complete psychic evaluation should include inquiries about any:
1) suicidal gestures 2) homicidal ideas 3) delusional thinking 4) hallucinations |
PSY-3.95
E |
|
Which of the following statements concerning suicide are correct?
1) the ratio of suicides with a fatal outcome decreases with age 2) women die from suicide more often than men 3) a suicide can reliably be predicted by certain clinical features 4) a conversation with the patient about his/her ideas of suicide may protect the patient from being a potential victim |
PSY-3.104
D |
|
Case Study:
A 62-year-old man seeks evaluation for weakness, a loss of initiative, a loss of weight, and abdominal discomfort. He appears to be depressed. Possible diagnoses can include: 1) dementia 2) pain killer abuse 3) pancreatic carcinoma 4) hyperthyroidism |
PSY-3.106
A |
|
Case Study:
A 67-year-old man is brought to the emergency room by the police for exposing himself in the nude to schoolchildren. There is no history of similar events in the past. Possible causes of this behavior include: 1) a petit mal seizure 2) Alzheimer's disease 3) digitalis intoxication 4) an intracranial tumor |
PSY-3.109.
C |
|
Which of the following agents have an important role in the therapy
of alcohol withdrawal delirium? 1) meprobamate and benzodiazepines 2) vitamin B complex 3) chlormethiazole (Heminevrin) 4) potassium and magnesium ions |
PSY-3.111.
E |
|
If someone is said to be disoriented, they are most likely not to
know: 1) the date 2) where they are 3) the time . 4) some famous people |
PSY-3.117.
A |
|
Which of the following statements concerning the risk of fatal suicide
are correct? 1) women are at a higher risk than men 2) the risk for the patients above the age of 65 is higher than for those between 25-35-years-old 3) the incidence of suicide is higher during times of war 4) alcohol addicts are at a higher risk for suicide |
PSY-3.120.
C |
|
Possible causes of organic anxiety disorders include:
1) the withdrawal of sedatives or sleeping pills 2) pheochromocytoma 3) an excessive use of caffeine 4) hypoparathyroidism |
PSY-3.121
A |
|
Some undesirable complications of a somatization disorder (chronic
neurosis) include: 1) the excessive use of drugs 2) secondary iatrogenic complications of invasive diagnostic interventions 3) an excessive dependence on health care 4) a frequent change of physicians |
PSY-3.125.
E |
|
The anticholinergic side-effects of tricyclic antidepressants that are fi
equently observed, especially during the therapy of elderly patients include: 1) tachycardia 2) constipation 3) the retention of urine 4) blurred vision |
PSY-3.136.
E |
|
Tricyclic antidepressants and MAO inhibitors are effective for the
treatment of 1) bulimia 2) compulsive personality disorder 3) anancastic disorder 4) atypical depression |
PSY-3.139
E |
|
The most characteristic symptoms of delirium tremens include:
1) tremor 2) sweating 3) blackouts 4) hallucinations |
PSY-3.140
E |
|
Common complications of alcoholism include:
1) cerebral damage 2) gastritis 3) hypertension 4) suicide |
PSY-3.144.
E |
|
Drugs that can cause dependence include:
1) benzodiazepines 2) antihistamines 3) barbiturates 4) tricyclic and tetracyclic antidepressants |
PSY-3.145.
B |
|
The most typical example of a simple phobia is a fear of:
A) heights B) public transportation C) dogs D) being in crowds E) social situations |
PSY-3.147.
A |
|
Case Study
A 29-year-old woman is brought to the emergency room by her husband. The woman complains of a sharp, intensive pain on the left side of her chest, accompanied by shortness of breath and palpitations. She fears that she had a heart attack. The results of her physical examination and blood tests are normal. The pain ceased after a few hours of observation and she was released. 3.155/ 1. Similar situations have occured previously, although an organic cause has never been demonstrated. What is the most likely diagnosis? A) histrionic conversion reaction B) malingering C) anancastic neurosis (panic disorder) D) hypochondriasis E) compulsive personality disorder 3.155/2. During these episodes of discomfort the patient talks about herself as if being an independent observer. This is an example of A) derealization B) depersonalization C) illusions D) hallucinations E) alienation |
PSY-3.155.
CB |
|
Which of the following food constituents has to be avoided when prescribing
a diet for patients treated with monoamino-oxidase inhibitors? A) cholesterol B) choline C) lactose D) tryptophan E) tyramine |
PSY-3.160
E |
|
Statistically recognized risk factors of schizophrenia include all of
The following, EXCEPT: A) a defective self development (defective self-object differentiation and an increased susceptibility to narcistic injuries) B) cultural, economical, and psycho-social stressors present in the environment C) birth in early spring D) a schizophrenic amongst the patient's relatives E) a history of a herpes simplex infection or viral encephalitis |
PSY-3.163.
A |
|
The leading symptom of affective disorders is a disturbance of
A) concentration and cognitive functions B) mood C) association and the thought process D) initiatives and psychomotility E) perception |
PSY-3.167
B |
|
Case Study:
A 26-year-old man presents with a history of three discrete episodes of elevated mood and hyperactivity. He has got lost several times during these episodes. Once he had experienced a loss of vision in the right visual field, which was associated with diplopia for a short period. The most likely diagnosis is: A) multiple sclerosis B) vitamin B12 deficiency C) herpes encephalitis D) systemic lupus erythematosus E) progressive paralysis |
PSY-3.172.
A |
|
Case Study:
A 43-year-old woman has been found unconscious in her garage. The car was running and the door to the garage was closed. Upon examination she is confused. The most likely cause of her confusion is: A) lead poisoning B) hypoxia C) hypoglycemia D) gasoline inhalation E) none of the above |
PSY-3.177
B |
|
A deficiency of which of the following vitamins is an important
factor in the etiology of Korsakoff s syndrome? A) vitamin B6 B) folic acid C) nicotinamide D) vitamin B 1 E) vitamin B12 |
PSY-3.178.
D |
|
Case Study:
An 8-year-old girl, in a febrile state, assumes that the curtain in her bedroom window is moving and an animal is trying to come into the room through the window. This symptom is a typical example of: A) delusion B) fantasy C) hallucination D) illusion E) phobia |
PSY-3.179
D |
|
Case study:
A physician asks an elderly male patient what he had for supper the previous day. The patient asserts that he had his christmas dinner together with his wife and children. This is late June now and the patient's wife died three years ago. Nobody visited the patient the previous day. The patient's reply is characteristic of: A) circumstantiality B) confabulation C) deja vu D) a flight of ideas E) an illusion |
PSY-3.180
B |
|
Case Study:
A 30-year-old man complains of impotence. He thinks that strangers on the street are laughing at him. He is sure that they know about his problem and that they are probably responsible for the development of his condition. This complaint should be regarded as a sign of: A) concreteness of thought B) delusions of reference C) imaginativeness D) decline of affect E) somatic delusions |
PSY-3.181.
B |
|
Which of the following is a best example for a double bind?
A) Mary's parents want her to wait to get married until she finishes high school B) John's parents encourage him to go to high school but want him to decide about his own life C) Joe's parents encourage him to go to high school but they dissuade his sister from the same thing D) Frank's parents encourage him to apply to a high school but frequently remind him of the financial sacrifices his education requires from the family E) Sophie's parents encourage her to apply to a high school but recommend to her to work for a few years first in order to earn the costs of her education |
PSY-3.182
D |
|
The psychic structure which regulates the conflicts between unconscious
drives and the reality is the: A) ego B) ego-ideal C) id D) preconscious E) superego |
PSY-3.183.
A |
|
The description: "attributing one's own unacceptable motives and
emotions to someone else" best characterizes: A) fantasy B) splitting C) regression D) projection E) identification |
PSY-3.186.
D |
|
Borderline personality disorder is characterized by all of the following,
EXCEPT: A) severe impulsiveness and unpredictable behavior B) disturbances of identity C) emotional lability D) withdrawal from social relations E) recurrent suicidal gestures and short psychotic episodes |
PSY-3.188.
D |
|
Violent behavior is most characteristic for which of the following
conditions? A) bipolar disease; manic type B) anancastic neurosis C) melancholia D) somatoform disorder E) compulsive personality disorder |
PSY-3.189.
A |
|
Case Study:
A 27-year-old woman is brought to the emergency room complaining of shortness of breath, dizziness, and a tingling in her extremities. Careful examination fails to discover any organic abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her symptoms? A) situational reaction B) endogenous anxiety C) caffeine abuse D) hyperventilation syndrome E) post-traumatic stress disorder |
PSY-3.190.
D |
|
Case Study:
A 41-year-old man complains that life does not give him what he wants. He feels disappointed and unhappy. He was depressed for a while after his girlfriend left him 8 years ago. What is the most likely diagnosis? A) psychogenic depression B) schizophrenia C) bipolar disorder; depressive phase D) dysthymia (neurotic depression) E) cyclothymia |
PSY-3.194.
D |
|
Schizophrenia is characterized by all of the following symptoms,
EXCEPT: A) incoherence of thoughts B) bizarre delusions C) auditory hallucinations D) Korsakoff's syndrome E) parathymia |
PSY-3.201.
D |
|
The use of which of the following substances is most commonly
associated with violent behavior? A) heroin B) cocaine C) amphetamines D) steroids E) alcohol |
PSY-3.203.
E |
|
Characteristics of delirium tremens include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A) an introductory grand mal seizure B) auditory hallucinations associated with clear thoughts and proper orientation C) tremors and sweating D) blackouts E) disorientation |
PSY-3.206.
B |
|
Intelligence tests have which of the following characteristics?
1) they compare the performance of an individual as compared to a large group 2) they are influenced by culture 3) they do not measure an individual's entire intellectual capacity 4) they define an IQ of 100 as average |
PSY-3.209.
E |
|
To obtain an appropriate sexual history, it is necessary for the
physician to inquire about: 1) attitudes of the family about sex 2) any history of sexual abuse 3) the first sexual experience 4) current sexual functioning |
PSY-3.211
E |
|
Symptoms usually present in somatization disorder include:
1) dysmenorrhea 2) palpitations 3) anxiety 4) nausea |
PSY-3.215.
E |
|
Characteristics of alcohol dependence include:
1) the need for drinking every day in order to maintain one's performance 2) the need to increase the amount consumed to elicit the same effect 3) tremor, sweating, and disorientation developing after two days of abstinence 4) two or more blackouts during an acute alcohol abuse period |
PSY-3.228.
E |
|
Conditions which increase the risk of subdural hemorrhage include:
1) hypertension 2) advanced age 3) atherosclerosis 4) alcoholism |
PSY-3.229
C |
|
Which of the following statements concerning juvenile suicide are FALSE?
1) the prevalence of juvenile suicide attempts has increased 2) impulsive patients are at a higher risk 3) the leading cause of death among adolescents is suicide 4) child abuse is usually not associated with suicide |
PSY-3.233
D |
|
Antidepressant-type therapy may be of use in which of the following
conditions? 1) bulimia 2) affective disorders 3) compulsive personality disorder 4) anancastic disorder |
PSY-3.241.
E |
|
Delusions are best defined as false considerations which:
1) persist for a long time despite being obviously unrealistic 2) originate from the misinterpretation of existing external stimuli 3) appear to be real to the individual 4) are pathognostic for schizophrenia |
PSY-3.245.
A |
|
Case Study:
A 17-year-old boy is brought to the emergency room by his father. The father reported that his son had taken three tablets of diazepam (Seduxen) in a suicide attempt. The boy minimized the episode, saying that he was just upset about school. The father became angry at his son for making such a fuss over nothing. The nurses started making jokes about the three diazepam "suicide". The father was impatient to take his son back home. Both were resistant to a psychiatric evaluation. 3.246/ 1. Since the overdose was not life threatening, the most appropriate treatment at this time would include: 1) calling other family members to the hospital 2) reporting the event to the boy's school and obtaining information about his academic problems 3) encouraging the father and son to stay and to be interviewed individually 4) encouraging the father to keep an eye on his son 3.246/2. Additional therapeutic approaches at this time would include: 1) initiating antidepressant therapy 2) warning the father to hide any medications kept at home 3) giving the son an excuse from school for a few days 4) suggesting a family consultation to relieve any present tensions at home 3.246/3. The son remained silent and the father insisted on going home. The following day the boy was found dead from a self-inflicted gunshot. This case represents common errors in evaluating a suicide attempt, including: 1) not adequately evaluating the son's emotions 2) not appreciating what the first suicide attempt meant to the son and his father 3) not assessing adequately the father's capacity to support his son 4) not hospitalizing the patient, even if it was against his will |
PSY-3.246.
BDA |
|
Uncommon side-effects of tricyclic antidepressant therapy include
which of the following? 1) a dry mouth 2) tremor 3) constipation 4) extrapyramidal movement disorders |
PSY-3.249.
D |
|
Which of the following somatic diseases may be associated with a
depression syndrome? 1) pancreatic carcinoma 2) hypertension 3) hypothyroidism 4) peptic ulcer disease |
PSY-3.250.
B |
|
Atherosclerotic (multi-infarct) dementias are characterized by:
1) associated internal and neurologic symptoms 2) numerous malacic foci in the brain 3) a focal loss of memory 4) a dominant inheritance pattern |
PSY-3.255.
A |
|
Case Study:
A 45-year-old man is admitted to the surgical ward. When interviewed by the nurse he states that he is married, is a father of three boys, and that he lives with his family. He had previously told his physician that he had been living with his father since his girlfriend and her two children had left him. When asked about these contradictions he became confused. Conditions that are likely to account for the patient's confabulation include: 1) Korsakoff's syndrome 2) diabetes mellitus 3) presenile dementia 4) Addison's disease |
PSY-3.257.
B |
|
Characteristic symptoms of depression include:
A) diminished concentration B) hallucinations C) hypochondriasis D) delusions of persecution E) weight loss |
PSY-3.270.
ACE |
|
Case Study:
A 39-year-old woman was treated for many years for pelvic pain. She underwent numerous examinations, even a laparotomy, all of which failed to demonstrate an organic cause. The patient denies feelings of depression and other psychiatric problems but expresses anger at her physicians who are unable to cure her. 3.162/1. What is the most likely diagnosis? A) depressive disorder B) somatization disorder C) malingering D) psychogenic pain syndrome E) conversion disorder 3.162/2. The differential diagnosis of her condition includes all of the following, EXCEPT: A) malingering B) schizophrenia C) mood disorder (bipolar) D) organic mental syndrome E) conversion disorder 3.162/3. Although the exact mechanism of this disorder is not known, there are some theories concerning the etiology. These include all of the following, EXCEPT: A) the pain offers a possibility for the patient to avoid an undesirable situation B) the patient did not learn to verbalize her emotions during childhood C) the patient experienced a disease associated with severe pain during her childhood D) the patient attempts to mislead the physician in order to achieve a better quality of care E) the pain may be regarded as a stess reaction of the central nervous system |
PSY-3.162.
DBD |
|
During family therapy, a more advisable approach is to tell each
family member that they can change for the better, rather than to stigmatize them. |
PSY-3.1.
T |
|
Case Study:
A 67-year-old woman with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is brought to the hospital by her husband. Four times in the last month, she was found wandering about the yard in her bedclothes. Which of the following etiologic factors should be considered? 1) hypoxia 2) aminophylline intoxication 3) senile dementia 4) cerebrovascular disease |
PSY-3.224.
E |
|
Case Study:
A 39-year-old man complains of severe anxiety. He feels like a stranger in his usual environment and settings. He has very strange thoughts and he has to fight to subdue them. The first step of the management of this patient is: A) to have him admitted to a psychiatric ward B) to ensure him that he has no mental disease C) to explore the current situations of his life in order to determine the subsequent steps D) to inquire about his childhood events E) to prescribe anxiolytics and to excuse the patient from work |
PSY-3.197.
C |
|
Case study:
A 60-year-old man is brought to the hospital by his relatives. He had come recently to visit them from out of town. He heard voices and saw people who were not there. He is unable to take care of his basic needs. His past medical history is uneventful although his relatives have noticed that after his wife had died he became withdrawn and less social than he had previously been. Which of the following is the least likely diagnosis? A) delirium B) schizophrenia C) dementia D) depressive psychosis E) mixed type organic mental syndrome |
PSY-3.176
B |
|
Case Study:
A 25-year-old woman who has extramarital affairs fears that her physician disapproves strongly of her behavior. This represents which of the following defense mechanisms? A) denial B) repression C) reaction formation D) isolation E) projection |
PSY-3.70.
E |
|
FM-1.4.
Factors causing a susceptibility to urinary tract infect include: A) urinary tract obstruction B) diabetes mellitus C) hyperkalemia D) prolonged tetracycline therapy E) pregnancy |
ABE
|
|
FM-1.5.
The medical history of a 45-year-old male reveals episodes of vertigo and loss of consciousness associated with sweating. Possible causes of his symptoms include: A) hyperventilation B) hyperglycemia C) Zollinger-Ellison syndrome D) pheochromocytoma E) paroxysmal tachycardia |
ADE
|
|
FM-1.6.
Possible causes of hematemesis include: A) salicylate administration B) an oral iron supplement overdose C) severe burn injury D) Menetrier's disease (giant hypertrophic gastritis) E) feeding via a nasogastric tube |
ABCD
|
|
M-1.7. MC
The use of which of the following should be avoided in patients receiving monoamino-oxidase inhibitor therapy: A) cheese B) imipramine (Melipramin) C) phentolamine (Regitin) D) pethidine (Dolargan) E) sulphonamides |
ABD
|
|
FM-1.10
Which of the following conditions is associated with a male-type distribution of hair in females? A) myxedema B) true hermaphroditism C) Laurence-Moon-Biedl syndrome D) Stein-Leventhal.syndrome (polycystic ovary) E) Cushing's syndrome |
DE
|
|
FM-1.11.
In which of the following conditions can central cyanosis be detected? A) methemoglobinemia B) ventilation-perfusion mismatch C) pulmonary arteriovenous fistula D) heatstroke E) heavy physical exercise |
ABC
|
|
FM-1.12.
Which of- the following statements about delirium tremens are correct? A) chlormethiazole (Heminevrin) is suitable for treatment B) acoustic hallucinations are common C) visual hallucinations are common D) elecroshock therapy is indicated in severe cases E) the condition may be fatal |
ABCE
|
|
FM-1.19.
Bilateral parotid gland enlargement is a symptom of A) Mikulicz's syndrome B) infectious mononucleosis C) mumps D) brucellosis E) sarcoidosis |
ACE
|
|
FM-1.20.
Which of the following statements about Conn's syndrome are correct? A) a high aldosterone level in the serum is a characteristic finding B) the plasma renin activity is elevated C) the associated hypertension is malignant in 10% of cases D) hyperkalemia is a common complication E) operative therapy is usually recommended |
AE
|
|
FM-1.21.
Recognized causes of nodular hepatomegaly include: A) postnecrotic cirrhosis B) primary biliary cirrhosis C) syphilis of the liver D) Weil's disease (Leptospira icterohemorrhagica) E) carcinomatous metastases of the liver |
ACE
|
|
FM-1.23.
Symptoms characteristic of an acute exacerbation of ulcerative colitis include: A) the development of anemia B) the occurrence of vertigo following sulfasalazine therapy C) macroscopically detected blood in the feces D) the development of generalized eruptions E) an increased erythrocyte sedimentation rate |
ACE
|
|
FM-1.22.
Which of the following symptoms are associated with Turner's syndrome? A) infantilism B) congenital abnormalities of the external genitalia C) an atrial septal defect D) retinitis pigmentosa E) a short stature |
ABE
|
|
FM-1.25.
Which of the following statements about congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis are correct? A) it is more frequent in females B) there is an increased likelihood for any offspring to be similarly afflicted C) any vomit almost never contains bile D) the pyloric ring is rarely palpable E) the majority of patients require surgical therapy |
C
|
|
FM-1.27.
Which of the following conditions is associated with true hematuria? A) urinary tract tuberculosis B) acute pyelonephritis C) acute cystitis D) malignant hypertension E) renal infarction |
ACE
|
|
FM-1.30.
Primary optic nerve atrophy is a recognized complication of: A) glaucoma B) disseminated sclerosis C) Paget's disease of the skull D) neurosyphilis E) ethambutol (Sural) therapy |
BDE
|
|
FM-1.55.
Which of the following statements about gastric secretion are correct? A) approximately 250 ml gastric juice is secreted daily B) gelatinase is a normal constituent of gastric juice C) the stomach is capable of producing both acidic or alkaline secretions D) if the rate of production is slow, the Na+ concentration is high E) only the glands of the pyloric region are capable of secreting mucus |
BCD
|
|
FM-1.57.
Transient amnesia is possible: A) following head trauma B) in patients suffering from epilepsy C) in cerebrovascular insufficiency D) in Alzheimer's disease E) in patients with a temporal lobe tumor |
ABCDE
|
|
FM-1.58.
Paresthesia associated with pruritus is characteristic for which of the following conditions? A) multiple sclerosis B) temporal lobe epilepsy C) Raynaud's phenomenon D) acromegaly E) hypoventilation |
ACD
|
|
FM-1.68.
Characteristics of Korsakoff′s syndrome include: A) polyneuritis which is detected in all cases B) a clear consciousness C) impaired judgement D) morphological abnormalities in the hypothalamus E) confabulation |
BCE
|
|
FM-1.76. An opening snap is detected in:
A) mitral stenosis developing as a consequence of rheumatic carditis B) congenital mitral stenosis C) mitral insufficiency associated with a rigid posterior but a normal anterior cusp D) the presence of a myxoma in the left atrium E) severe aortic insufficiency |
ABCD
|
|
FM-1.79. MC
Specific indications for dialysis include: A) a serum potassium concentration of 7.4 mmol/l (7.4 mEq/1) B) a blood pH of 7.2 C) a blood urea concentration of 63 mmol/l (378 mg/ 100 ml) D) pericarditis E) strong lumbar pain |
ACD
|
|
FM-1.82. MC
Complications of massive irradiation include: A) an increased prevalence of leukemia B) a thrombocytopenia developing within 4 days C) an increased prevalence of visceral malignancies D) leukemoid reactions in some patients. E) hemolytic anemia |
ABCD
|
|
FM-1.86.
Which of the following statements about rubella during pregnancy are correct? A) in the first trimester, it is usually associated with a higher risk of fetal developmental abnormalities B) it causes cardiac anomalies in the newborn C) it causes deafness in the newborn D) retinopathy is a well known complication E) the virus is easily isolated from the throat of the newborn even if there is no other evidence for the disease |
ABCDE
|
|
FM-1.88. Recognized causes of recurrent pneumonia include:
A) chronic alcoholism B) multiple myeloma C) hereditary spherocytosis D) esophageal lesions E) allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis |
ABDE
|
|
FM-1.89. Barbiturates, if continuously administered can:
A) contribute to the development of convulsions B) induce physical dependence C) cause relaxation of skeletal muscles D) cause parkinsonism E) cause ataxia |
BCE
|
|
FM-1.107. MC
In acute pyelonephritis: A) a common symptom is shaking chills B) vomiting is a possible complaint C) the absence of any lumbar pain excludes the diagnosis D) an intravenous pyelogram is necessary for the diagnosis E) to confirm the diagnosis, a hemoculture should routinely be made |
AB
|
|
FM-1.112.
The prevalence of suicide is higher in: A) depressive psychosis B) psychopathic patients C) obsessive-compulsive neurosis D) chronic alcoholism E) epilepsy |
ABD
|
|
FM-1.119.
The complications of diphtheria include: A) a paralysis of the diaphragm B) airway obstruction C) bronchopulmonary diphtheria D) glossopharyngeal neuritis E) subacute sclerozing panencephalitis |
ABCD
|
|
FM-1.122.
Characteristics of a Trichinella spiralis infection include: A) prodromal diarrhea in adults B) severe muscular pain C) periorbital edema D) subconjunctival hemorrhages E) patchy subungual hemorrhages |
ABCDE
|
|
FM-1.123.
Myopathy is typically associated with: A) excessive alcohol ingestion B) McArdle's disease (phosphorylase deficiency) C) strychnine poisoning D) Guillain-Barre syndrome E) hypothyroidism |
ABE
|
|
FM-1.125.
Bullous skin lesions are observed in which of the following conditions? A) herpetiform dermatitis B) a barbiturate overdose C) Albright's disease D) ataxia-teleangiectasia E) pemphigoid |
ABE
|
|
FM-1.128.
Which of the following findings can be detected in Hodgkin's disease: A) a normochromic, normocytic anemia B) an increased erythrocyte sedimentation rate C) leukocytosis D) thrombocytosis E) eosinophilia |
ABCDE
|
|
FM-1.129.
Trichomoniasis: A) causes perinatal intertrigo B) is sexually transmitted C) causes severe systemic symptoms D) may be completely symptomless E) the disease of the newborns is transmitted from the mother |
ABD
|
|
FM-1.130.
Symptoms of a ventricular septal defect include: A) an elevated jugular vein pressure, even in the absence of cardiac failure B) a pansystolic murmur over the apex C) a systolic ejection murmur D) a Graham-Steel sound, which is a very common finding following the development of pulmonary hypertension E) a fixed, widely split second heart sound |
C
|
|
FM-1.131. Infective endocarditis is rarely associated with:
A) combined mitral valvular disease B) a patent ductus arteriosus C) cogenital bicuspid aortic stenosis D) an atrial septal defect E) advanced mitral stenosis |
DE
|
|
FM-1.136.
Nicotinamide deficiency may cause: A) high output cardiac failure B) dementia C) glossitis D) sensory polyneuropathy E) dermatitis |
BCE
|
|
FM-1.138.
Which of the following findings would suggest a benign rather than a malignant paraproteinemia? A) Bence-Jones proteinuria B) the IgG level is higher than 2 g/ 100 ml C) there is an elevated paraprotein level D) no skeletal abnormalities can be detected E) a 2-year symptomless period |
DE
|
|
FM-1.139.
Which of the following statements about nitroglycerin are correct? A) only topical application is effective in Raynaud's disease B) it causes paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea as a side-effect C) it relieves the pain caused by diffuse esophageal spasms D) it might relieve pain in biliary colic E) it alleviates the symptoms of bronchial asthma |
ACD
|
|
FM-1.140.
Which of the following statements concerning doxorubicin (Adriamycin) therapy are correct? A) the drug is applied intramuscularly B) the drug causes myelosuppression C) the drug causes cardiomyopathy D) the drug is successful in the treatment of primary hepatocellular carcinoma E) the drug should be administered daily, for a period of 21 days |
BC
|
|
FM-1.141.
A classic type migraine is characterized by which of the following? A) it cannot be diagnosed if there are no prodromal symptoms B) it shows a gradual progression C) a homonymous hemianopsia is present D) there is edema of the papilla E) frequently occuring acoustic hallucinations |
BC
|
|
FM-1.142
Progressive spinal muscular atrophy of infancy is associated with: A) severe general syncope B) fasciculation of the tongue C) a loss of function of the spinothalamic tract D) spontaneous fibrillation revealed by electromyography E) normal tendon reflexes |
ABD
|
|
FM-1.143.
The complications of meningococcal meningitis include: A) hydrocephalus B) paraparesis C) cortical blindness D) deafness E) peripheral neuropathy |
ABD
|
|
FM-1.149.
Which of the following observations help to differentiate neurosis from psychosis? A) neurotic patients characteristically disclaim reality B) endogenous experiences cause excitation in neurosis C) real illusions can occur in neurosis D) associative function is not affected in neurosis E) the 'ego' is intact in neurotic patients |
DE
|
|
FM-1.151.
Plague: A) is transmitted by droplet infection B) usually does not cause fever C) causes painful enlargement of the lymph nodes D) causes characterictic circular erythematous skin lesions E) responds to high dose penicillin therapy |
AC
|
|
FM-1.152.
In amebic dysentery: A) symptoms might be similar to those observed in duodenal ulcer B) alternating diarrhea and constipation suggest an underlying carcinoma C) intestinal movements are associated with a characteristic sweet odor D) amebiasis of the liver is a rare complication E) metronidazole (Klion) is the therapeutic drug of first choice |
AE
|
|
FM-1.158.
Infectious mononucleosis is associated with: A) periorbital swelling B) generalized lymphadenopathy C) jaundice in the majority of patients D) petechiae on the palate E) pruritus |
ABD
|
|
FM-1.164.
ECG abnormalities characteristic for acute rheumatic fever include: A) a short PR interval B) non-paroxysmal AV nodal tachycardia C) a third degree AV block D) a long QT interval E) tall, asymmetric T waves observed in the precordial leads |
BD
|
|
FM-1.165.
Which of the following statements relating to aortic regurgitation are correct? A) an early diastolic murmur revealed by auscultation during acute rheumatic valvulitis is usually transient B) angina pectoris is a more frequent complication than in aortic stenosis C) a progression of the condition usually results in accentuation of the murmur D) an accentuated first sound differentiates an Austin-Flint murmur from organic mitral stenosis E) an accentuated presystolic murmur may be detected without an associated mitral stenosis |
E
|
|
FM-1.168.
Characteristics of rheumatic polymyalgia include: A) an onset which occurs in young adulthood B) painful muscles and restriction of movements are characteristic C) that it may be associated with temporal arteritis D) a red blood cell sedimentation rate which is typically normal E) characteristic abnormalities revealed by electrmyography |
BC
|
|
FM-1.169.
Bilateral pleural effusion is observed in: A) pleural mesothelioma B) sytemic lupus erythematosus C) miliary tuberculosis D) carcinomatous lymphangitis E) sarcoidosis |
BCD
|
|
FM-1.171.
Classical symptoms of multiple sclerosis include: A) paresthesia B) retrobulbar neuritis C) a loss of position and vibration sensation D) diplopia E) a steady progression |
ABCD
|
|
FM-1.186.
In chronic lymphocytic leukemia: A) an absolute lymphocytosis is observed B) thrombocytosis is observed C) splenomegaly is always present D) the development of an acute blastic crisis is possible E) Coombs positivity is possible |
AE
|
|
FM-1.187.
Which of the following findings would suggest a thrombocyte defect rather than a coagulation abnormality? A) hemarthrosis B) bleeding from superficial abrasions C) immediate and strong bleeding from tooth extraction D) bleeding of the mucous membranes E) menorrhagia |
BCD
|
|
FM-1.188.
In classic type hemophilia: A) the inheritance pattern is autosomal recessive B) every son in the offspring of a male patient is affected C) 50% of daughters of the carrier females become carriers themselves D) hemarthrosis is a common manifestation E) spontaneous hemorrhaging in the brain frequently develops |
CD
|
|
FM-1.192.
Symptoms of rickets of infancy include: A) muscular hypertrophy B) sweating of the skin of the head C) craniotabes D) coxa vara E) an early closing of the fontanelles |
BCD
|
|
FM-1.196.
Which of the following statement about a bicuspid aortic valve is correct? A) coarctation of the aorta is sometimes associated with this anomaly B) calcification of the abnormal valve is rare C) infectious endocarditis is extremely rare D) incompetence of the valve is more frequent than stenosis of the valve E) this anomaly is frequently associated with Turner's syndrome |
A
|
|
FM-1.198.
An accentuated first heart sound is audible in which of the following conditions? A) complete heart block B) severe mitral regurgitation C) mitral stenosis D) acute myocarditis E) pulmonary embolism |
CE
|
|
FM-1.199.
Characteristic physical symptoms of pneumothorax include: A) percussion over the affected side reveals dullness B) auscultation over the affected side reveals weaker respiratory sounds C) end-rspiratory crepitations are detected D) the mediastinum is shifted towards the opposite side E) that there are decreased respiratory movements on the affected side |
BDE
|
|
FM-1.200.
Adequate procedures in the treatment of asthmatic crisis include: A) the inhalation of 40% oxygen if the PaC02 is elevated B) sedation with pethidine (Dolargan) if the patient is agitated C) the intravenous administration of hydrocortisone D) salbutamol inhalation E) water deprivation for the prevention of cardiac insufficiency |
C
|
|
FM-1.201.
Findings and parameters which help to differentiate chronic bronchitis from emphysema are: A) prolonged expiration and rales B) the PaC02 C) the diffusion capacity D) the Pa02 E) eosinophilia |
ABCD
|
|
FM-1.202.
Predisposing factors to thromboembolic disorders are: A) carcinoma of the pancreas B) a type O blood group C) oral contraceptives D) obesity E) myocardial infarction |
ACDE
|
|
FM-1.214.
Urinary calcium loss is increased in: A) osteoporosis B) osteomalacia C) primary hyperparathyroidism D) secondary hyperparathyroidism E) sarcoidosis |
CE
|
|
FM-1.216.
Recognized alterations in the ECG produced by hyperkalemia include: A) prominent U waves B) the lack of P waves C) wide QRS complexes D) ventricular tachycardia E) a depression of the ST segment |
BCD
|
|
FM-1.217.
Disadvantages of a preterm delivery include: A) the increased frequency of an intracranial hemorrhage in the newborn B) inadequate sweating leading to hyperthermia C) an immature respiratory center D) an insufficient vitamin B12 level which causes anemia E) an increased susceptibility to infections |
ACE
|
|
FM-1.223.
Characteristics of delirium tremens include: A) marked drowsiness B) a gradual onset C) visual hallucinations D) bradycardia E) illusions |
CE
|
|
FM-1.224.
Case Study: A 3-year-old child loses his appetite and subsequently refuses food. Possible causes include: A) an early onset of schizophrenia B) negative behavior C) daydreaming D) anorexia nervosa E) the parents have spoiled the child |
BCE
|
|
FM-1.233.
Clinical symptoms of cretinism are: A) obesity B) goiter C) spastic diplegia D) deafness E) mental deficiency |
CDE
|
|
FM-1.240.
In measles: A) a morbilliform erythema is observed B) a suboccipital lymphadenopathy is continuously present C) lymphopenia is a common complication D) arthritis is a possible complication E) frequent relapses are observed |
ABD
|
|
FM-1.241.
Herpes simplex infection: A) is commonly associated with carcinoma of the uterus B) may cause Kaposi's varicelliform eruptions C) may cause keratoconjunctivitis D) may cause subacute sclerosing panencephalitis E) may cause acute gingivostomatitis |
BCE
|
|
FM-1.177.
Which of the following statements about Bence-Jones proteins are correct? A) if they are present in the urine, the Albustix test is positive B) the excreted amount increases parallel with the progression of the renal disease C) they are rarely detected in benign monoclonal gammopathy D) in severe cases, hypoproteinemia develops E) they are light chain proteins |
BCE
|
|
Renal calcification is a possible complication of:
A) medullary cystic kidney disease B) renal tuberculosis C) sarcoidosis D) sickle cell anemia E) secondary hyperparathyroidism |
FM-1.1.
ABC |
|
Drugs with a bacteriostatic effect in regular doses include:
A) tetracyclines B) cephalosporins C) sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim (Sumetrolim) D) erythromycin E) amoxycillin |
FM-1.3.
ACD |
|
Which of the following conditions are usually associated with purpura?
A) Henoch-Schonlein syndrome B) hepatic cirrhosis C) systemic lupus erythematosus D) Addison's disease E) Raynaud's phenomenon |
FM-1.8.
ABC |
|
Bone density is markedly increased in:
A) osteopetrosis B) Paget's disease of the bone C) following the intake of a large amount of fluoride D) hyperparathyroidism E) renal osteodystrophy |
FM-1.9.
ABC |
|
Penicillin administration is the appropriate therapy in which of the
following complications of syphilis? A) meningitis B) aneurysm of the aorta C) interstitial keratitis D) condyloma latum E) the generalized paralysis of psychotic patients |
FM-1.14.
AD |
|
Possible therapeutic interventions in thyrotoxic crisis include:
A) a high dose of dexamethasone B) that the patient must be kept warm C) the administration of beta-blockers D) immediate propylthiouracil treatment E) the administration of iodine |
FM-1.78.
BCE |
|
Tetanus:
A) is caused by an anaerobic gram-positive rod B) bacterium is shed into the soil through the intestine of infected animals C) may cause carpopedal spasm D) infected patients frequently exhibit mental confusion at admittance E) urinary retention and constipation may develop |
FM-1.120
ABE |
|
In pyloric stenosis of infancy:
A) there is an autosomal dominant imheritance pattern B) vomiting occurs during the first week of life C) the vomit is frequently tinged with bile D) an abdominal tumor is nearly always palpable E) if left untreated complications during adulthood commonly develop |
FM-1.144.
D |