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148 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Differentiate between internal and external respiration.
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External respiration – exchange of O2 and CO2 between the inhaled air and the blood flowing through the pulmonary capillaries.
Internal respiration – exchange of O2 and CO2 between the blood in the systemic capillaries and all the cells and tissues of the body. |
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List the secondary functions of the respiratory system.
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Phonation (vocal production), regulation of body temperature, regulation of acid-base balance, sense of smell.
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List the structure and function of nostrils
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Nostrils (nares): external openings of the respiratory tube.
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List the structure and function of nasal passages
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Nasal passages: located between the nostrils and the pharynx; nasal septum separates the right and left nasal passages, hard and soft palates separate the nasal passages from the mouth. Turbinates (nasal chonchae) divide each nasal passage into 3 main passageways; they are thin scroll-like bonescovered with nasal epithelium and located dorsally and ventrally. Passages lined with pseudostratified columnar epithelium and cilia projecting up into a layer of mucus Function: Warm, humidify, and filter inhaled air.
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List the structure and function of paranasal sinuses.
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Paranasal Sinuses: ciliated outpouchings of the nasal passagescontained within spaces in certain skull bones. Most animals have 2 frontal sinuses, 2 maxillary sinuses within the frontal and maxillary bones.
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List the structure and function of pharnyx.
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Pharynx: Common passageway for respiratory and digestive systems. Soft palate divide the pharynx into the dorsal nasopharnyx ( respiratory passageway) and the ventral oropharnyx (digestive passageway). Caudal end of the pharynx opens dorsally into the esophagus and ventrally into the larynx. Reflexes control muscles around pharynx. Function: works with larynx to prevent swallowing from interfering with breathing and vice versa.
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List the structure and function of larynx.
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Larynx: Short irregular tube connecting pharynx with trachea. Composed of connected segments of cartilage (epiglottis, arytenoids cartilage, thyroid cartilage, cricoids cartilage) and surrounded by muscle. Supported in place by hyoid bone. Epiglottis – single leaf shapedprojects forward from the ventral portion of the larynx. Arytenoid cartilage: paired; attached at site of vocal cords; along with vocal cords forms boundaries of the glottis. Functions: vocal production, prevention of foreign material being inhaled, control airflow to and from the lungs..
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List the structure and function of trachea.
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Trachea: short, wide tube. Extends from larynx into thorax. Divides into 2 main bronchi that enter the lungs. Composed of fibrous tissue and smooth muscle held open by hyaline cartilage rings and lined with cilated epithelium.
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List the structure and function of bronchi.
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Bronchi: largest air passageways in the lungs. Function: passage of air from trachea into the lungs.
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List the compoents, structures and functions of alveolar ducts.
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Alveolar ducts: smallest air passageways in the lungs. Function: carry air to the alveolar sacs.
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List the compoents, structures and functions of alveoli
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Alveoli: tiny, thin-walled sacs of simple squamous epithelium surrounded by networks of capilliaries, and llined with fluid that contains surfactant. Function: site of external respiration.
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Describe the events that occur during expiration
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Expiration: Process of pushing the air out of the lungs. Results from a decrease in size of the thoracic cavity. Contraction or abdominal muscles against the diaphragm and pushes the diaphragm back into its dome shape.
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Describe the events that occur during inspiration.
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Inspiration: process of drawing air into the lungs. Results from enlargement of the volume of the thoracic cavity by the inspiratory muscles.
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List the muscles involved in inspiration and expiration.
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Inspiration: diaphragm, external intercostals muscles. Expiration: abdominal muscles and internal intercostals muscles.
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Define tidal volume.
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- Tidal volume - volume of air inspired and expired during one breath (varies according to body’s needs).
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Define minute volumes.
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Minute volume - volume of air inspired and expired during 1 minute of breathing.
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Define residual volume.
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Residual volume - volume of air remaining in the lungs after maximum expiration.
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Describe the processes of oxygen and carbon dioxide exchange between the aveoli and the blood.
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Simple diffusion of gas molecules according to concentration gradient. O2 diffuses from the alveolar air into the blood of the alveolar capillary. CO2 diffuses from the blood into the alveolus.
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describe the mechanical respiratory system,
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Mechanical: Stretch reseptors in the lung sets limits on routine resting inspiration and expiration. Respiratory center sends out nerves impulses when lungs inflate to a certain point – stops muscle contractions that produce inspiration and starts contractions to produce expiration. Another set of nerve impulses are sent when lungs deflate sufficiently – stops expiration and starts the process of inspiration again.
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describe the chemical resoiratory sysyem.
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Chemical Control System: adjusts the normal rhythmic breathing pattern produced by mechanical control system. Chemical receptors in carotid artery and aorta monitor blood CO2, Ph, and O2. Blood level of Co2 and blood Ph are usually linked.
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Describe the properties of neuroleptoanalgesia and why would it be used?
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The combination of an opioid and a tranquilizing agent that is used to induce the state of profound sedation. Useful and safe alternative to barbiturates or ketamine in high-risk or debilitated dogs ( i.e hepatic, renal and CNS disorders).
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Describe the indications and pharmacological properties of Propofol. Why has Propofol become a very popular induction agent in veterinary medicine?
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It is a substituted phenol with a chemical structure unlike that of any other anesthetic or preanesthetic agent. It has a neutral Ph and although it has a milky appearance it can safely be administered IV. It can be diluted with saline of 5% dextrose for use in small dogs and cats to achieve a more accurate dose but not dilute to a concentration less than 0.2% (2mg/ml). It should not be mixed with other fluids or drugs. It can be readily maintained in dogs for longer periods by administering additional dose(s). It is popular because of its wide margin of safety, smooth inductions, short duration, rapid and smooth recovery, rapidly metabolized, with minimal hangovers even after repeated injections.
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Describe the indications and pharmacological properties of Etomidate.
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It is a sedative-hypnotic imidazole drug used for induction of anesthesia in cats and dogs. It has a minimal effect on cardiovascular function. It does not contain a preservative and open vials should be discarded after use. It is especially useful for animals with cardiac issues or those in shock or who have sustained trauma, cranial issues..
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Why hasn’t Etomidate become a very popular induction agent in veterinary medicine?
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It is very expensive and contains no preservatives so open vials should be discarded after use.
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Describe the indications and pharmacological properties of Guaifenesin
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Muscle relaxant commonly given to large animals to induce anesthesia in combination with other drugs. It is administed by IV catheter. Recovery is usually smooth. Cannot be used without premedication or as sole induction agent as excitement during induction will be seen.
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Why is it used exclusively in large animal anesthesia?
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In small animals recovery is violent. Small animals also become very hypothermic.
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Describe each of the following classes of inhalant agents:
Nitrous Oxide |
Nitrous oxide: introduced more than 150 years ago and still used – more so in human medicine. It is delivered from a tank with a flow meter like oxygen. It is not potent and use by itself does not induce anesthesia in animals.
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Describe each of the following classes of inhalant agents:
Diethyl either |
Diethyl either: Flammable explosive gas requiring an explosion-proff refrigerator for safe storage. Fires have occurred from use of ether in conjunction with oxygen; however it maintains a stable cardiac output and BP, good muscle relaxation and analgesia.
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Describe each of the following classes of inhalant agents:
Halogentaed compounds |
Halogenated compounds: Commonly used agents are chemically similar. They are liquid at room temperature. They are stored inside the vaporizer of the anesthetic machine and evaporate on the oxygen that flows through the vaporizer.
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Describe the effects of inhalant anesthetics on the vital systems of the body.
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Dose-dependent ventilation depression, depress cardiovascular functions, some cause the heart muscle to have increased sensitivity to the effects of epinephrine, some undergo some liver metabolism, potential to decrease renal blood flow. Causes a dose related reversible depression of the CNS
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How are inhalant anesthetics distributed in the body?
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Travels from the air passages to the lung alveoli and enters the bloodstream. It reaches body tissues with greater blood flow (brain, heart, kidney) more quickly than those with lesser blood flows.
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How are inhalant anesthetics eliminated from the body?
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Most of the inhalant anesthetics are eliminated by the alveoli through expiration once the concentration of the anestics is reduced or eliminated. Some agents have lipid solubility and may accumulate in fate stores and rely on liver metabolism and renal excretion for complete elimination from the body.
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Describe the following physical properties of inhalant anesthetics:
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Vapor pressure: It determines how readily the snesthetic agent liquid evaporates in the machine vaporizer. Agents with a high vapor pressure are more volatile and require a precision vaporizer.
Solubility coefficient: Solubility is usually expressed as a partition coefficient and provide information about an anesthetic’s speed of induction, recovery, and potency. Minimum alveolar concentration: the lowest concentration that produces no response in 50% of the patients exposed to a painful stimulus. |
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Describe the indications and pharmacological properties of each of the following inhalant anesthetics:
Halothane |
Halothane: a halogenated hydrocarbon. Requires a precision vaporizer for safe use. Has rapid induction and recovery. Eliminated by lungs, liver and kidneys. Has moderate MAC, moderate rubber solubility. It is somewhat unstable and is mixed with the preservative thymol causing the need for periodic cleaning and recalibration of the vaporizer.
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Describe the indications and pharmacological properties of each of the following inhalant anesthetics:
Isoflurane |
Isoflurane: approved for use only in dogs and horse. Normally used in a precision vaporizer. Rapid induction and recovery. Patient’s depth of anesthesia can be changed rapidly during surgery. MAC is higher than halothane and thus is less potent. Causes small decrease in cardiac output, depresses respiration, eliminated mostly through the lungs, provides good muscle relaxation, little to no analgesic effect post operatively.
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Describe the indications and pharmacological properties of each of the following inhalant anesthetics:
Sevoflurane |
Sevoflurane: labeled for use in dogs. Vapor pressure is lower than isoflurane and a precision vaporizer is used. Has a more rapid induction and recovery than isoflurane. Popular in equine procedures despite increased cost. MAC is greater and therefore less potent than isoflurane. Can cause renal tubular damage in rats. Hypotension, decreased cardiac output, respiration depression and vasodilation seen. Causes adequate muscle relaxation. Paddling, excitement and muscle fasciculations may occur in recovery. Has no analgesic effect. Elimination mostly through the lungs.
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Describe the indications and pharmacological properties of each of the following inhalant anesthetics:
Methoxyflurane |
Methoxyflurane: May be used in non-precision vaporizers. Has slow induction and recovery rates. Most potent inhalation anesthetic in common use. Considerable solubility in rubber or plastics and readily dissolves in reservoirbasgs, hosed and endotracheal tubes leading to deterioration unless rinsed out after use. Use of preservative with agent requires cleaning and maintenance procedures. Has a good margin of safety for cats and dogs. Most potent respiratory depressant of all inhalants. More than half of anesthetic delivered is excreted through liver and kidneys. Has marked skeletal muscle relaxation and may have some analgesic effect.
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Describe the indications and pharmacological properties of each of the following inhalant anesthetics:
Enflurane |
Enflurane: volatile gaseous anesthetic used in human medicine, not widely seen in vet med. Induction and recovery are smooth with minimal effects on heart rate. Causes profound respiration depression and poor muscle relaxation. In dogs induces significant muscle hyperactivity and seizure-like muscle spasms.
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Describe the indications and pharmacological properties of each of the following inhalant anesthetics:
Desflurane |
Desflurane: chemically similar to isoflurane. Known for “single breath” inductions in humans. Vapor pressure is extremely high and a special vaporizer must be used which is expensive. Patient depth should be closely monitored. Does not sensitize the myocardium to epinephrine. Transient increases in heart rate and blood pressure (called sympathetic storm) see in humans but not reported in dogs.
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Describe the indications and pharmacological properties of Nitrous Oxide.
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Odorless gas used as an adjunct to other inhalation agents. Available in compressed gas tanks and does not require a vaporizer. Cannot be used alone.
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Why do you think nitrous oxide is rarely used in veterinary medicine?
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Lack of potency. Surgical plane of anesthesia cannot be reached in a healthy dog or cat with this agent alone.
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Describe the indications and pharmacological properties of Doxapram.
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Analeptic agent and respiratory stimulant. Used for puppies and kittens born via C-section to stimulation rate and depth of respiration. Has a wide margin of safety, but may cause tachycardia and arrhythmias in some patients and used with caution with those with cardiac disease. Must be used with adequate oxygen levels in the brain and not used in patients with a seizure history.
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Describe each of the following types of monitoring devices:
pulse oximeter |
Pulse oximeter: evaluates the level of oxygen saturation in the blood to help assess tissue perfusion.
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Describe each of the following types of monitoring devices
capnometer or capnograph |
Capnometer or capnograph: measurement and evaluation of the level of CO2 in the patient’s exhaled breath, or end tidal CO2. Aids in evaluating respiratory rate and quality of respirations.
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Describe each of the following types of monitoring devices
indirect blood pressure monitor |
Indirect blood pressure monitor: non-invasive method of monitoring blood pressure (Doppler and sphygmomanometer).
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Describe each of the following types of monitoring devices
direct blood pressure monitor |
Direct blood pressure monitor: monitoring of blood pressure via an arterial catheter.
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Describe each of the following types of monitoring devices
ECG |
ECG: provides a heart rate and wave formation tracing.
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Describe each of the following types of monitoring devices
surgical power tools |
Surgical “power tools”: Tools such as drills, burring drills sternotomy used for surgeries that can be powered by compressed nitrogen, batteries or electricity.
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Etomadine is particularly well suited for induction of dogs with which of the followin problems:
a) severe cardiac disease b)renal failure c)orthopedic disease d) pediatric (younger than 4 weeks) |
A
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T or F Injectable drugs that are highly fat soluble are likely to be taken up by the brain more quickly than drugs that are not fat soluble.
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True
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Which of the floowing is an example of a dissociative anesthetic?
a) Thiopental sodium b)Pentobarbitol sodium c) Ketamine hydrochloride d) Propofol |
C
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T or F One of the disadvantages of methohexital is that animals that are anesthetized with it often may demonstrate excitement during the recovery.
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True
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T or F Metabolism and elimination of ketamine hydrochloride are the same in the dog as they are in the cat.
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False
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Compared with methoyxflurane, halothane is considered to have a :
a) higher vapor pressure b) similar vapor pressure c) lower vapor pressure |
A
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T or F Halothane may sensitize the heart to catecholamines.
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True.
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T or F Halothane is moderately soluble in rubber, which may result in release of this gas from anesthetic equipment.
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True
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An anesthetic agent that has a low solubility coefficient will result in _____ iduction and recovery time.
a) slow b) moderate c) Fast |
C
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WHich of the following has the lowest solubility coefficient?
a) halothane b) isoflurane c) methozyflurane d) sevoflurane |
D
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As a rough guideline, to safely maintain a surgical plane of anesthesia, the vaporizer should be set at ______ x MAC.
a) 0.5 b) 1 c) 1.5 d) 2 e) 2.5 |
C
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T or F Isoflurane is a more potent cardiac depressant than halothane.
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False
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Propofol sometimes causes transient apnea. To avoid this, the anesthetist should:
a) give by infusion only b) premediate with opiods c) administer IV only d) titrate this drug in several blouses |
D
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To be considered effective, nitrous oxide should be used at a minimum comcentraion of:
a) 3% b) 20% - 40% c) 50% - 60 % d) more than 80% e) none of the above ranges are correct |
C
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One problem frequently associated with recovery from tiltetamine-zoalazepam in dogs is:
a) excitement b) bradycardia c) hypotension d) largynospasm |
A
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Effects of halothane on the body include:
a) vasodilation b) nystagmus c) sensitization of myocardium to catecholamines d) depression of myocardial cells e) respiratory depression |
A, C, D, E
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Effects that barbiturates may have on the body include:
a) reduction of respiratory rate b) tachycardia c) cardiac arrhythmias d) decreased blood pressure |
A, C, D
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The concentration of barbiturates entering the brain is afected by a variety of factors such as:
a) perfusion of the brain b) lipid solubility of the drug c) plasma protein levels d) blood pH of the animal e) all are correct |
E
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Effects that are commonly senn after administration of a cyclohexamine drug include:
a) increased BP b) increaed heart rate c) increased CSF pressure d) increased intraocular pressure e) all of the above |
E
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Effects that isoflurane may have on the body include:
a) hepatic toxicity b) accumulation of body fat stores c) depression of respiration d) seizures during recovery |
C
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MAC will vary with:
a) temperature of the patient b) age of the patient c) concurrent use of other drugs d) anesthetic agent e) all of the above |
E
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Factors that may affect the speed of the induction process with a volatile gaseous anesthetic include:
a) solubility coefficient of the agent b) vaporizer setting c) MAC of the agent d) concurrent use of atropine |
A, B
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Nitrous oxide may be included as part of an anesthetic protocol because it:
a) may provide a second gas effect b) will reduce the amount of volatile anesthetic needed c) has minimal depression effects on the respiratory or cardiovascular centers d) can replace oxygen in the anesthetic circuit |
A, B, C
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When pentobarbital sodium is used as an anesthetic, which of the following may be noted:
a) relatively slow onset of action b) respiratory depression c) poor analgesia d) slow recovery e) easily reversed |
A, B, C, D
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Which of the following drugs may be safely and effectively given IV or IM in a cat?
a) thiopental sodium b) telazol c) ketamine hydrochloride d) methohexital sodium |
B, C
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The recommended oxygen flow rate for semi-closed or partial rebreathing systems anesthetic systems is _________ to _________ ml/kg/minute.
A) 10 to 15 B) 20 to 25 C) 25 to 50 D) 50-100 |
C
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The most commonly recommended ratio for nitrous oxide and oxygen flow rate is:
A) 50% oxygen and 50% nitrous oxide B) 80% oxygen and 20% nitrous oxide C) 23% oxygen and 77% nitrous oxide D) 77% oxygen and 23% nitrous oxide E) 33% oxygen and 67% nitrous oxide |
e
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H size oxygen cylinders contain about _________ liters of oxygen.
A) 355 B) 659 C) 5331 D) 5570-7500 E) None of the above F) All of the above |
d
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The tidal volume of an animal is considered to be _____ ml/kg of body weight.
A) 5-10 B) 10-15 C) 15-20 D) 20-25 |
b
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Using special techniques, nonprecision vaporizers can be used for:
A) Low-flow anesthesia B) Delivery of nitrous oxide C) Elimination of carbon dioxide from the circuit D) Delivery of Isoflurane E) Two of the above |
e
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Rebreathing are conventionally thought to be best for animals over 7 kg.
A) True B) False |
a
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The minimum size for the reservoir bag should be calculated as ____________.
A) 20 ml/kg B) 60 ml/kg C) 80 ml/kg D) 1000 ml/kg |
b
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When the oxygen tank is half full, the pressure gauge will read approximately.
A) 1100 psi B) 2000 psi C) 500 psi D) 2200 psi E) None of the above |
a
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The negative pressure relief valve is particularly useful when:
A) Nitrous oxide is being used B) There is no scavenging system C) There is a failure of oxygen flow through the system D) The carbon dioxide absorber is no longer functioning |
c
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The anesthetist will know when the granules in the carbon dioxide absorber have been depleted because the:
A) Anesthetist will smell waste carbon dioxide B) Granules will be brittle C) Granules will change color D) Granules may be hard E) In the opinion of the instructor the criteria in the text are not correct and the correct answer to this question would be "There is documentation that the granules have been used from 8 to 12 hours for anesthetic procedures". |
e
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The disadvantages of low-flow anesthesia include:
A) Production of excess waste anesthetic gas B) It may allow carbon dioxide to accumulate in the circuit C) It results in the use of more anesthetic in the maintenance period D) It is difficult to use with nitrous oxide E) Two of the above |
e
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The amount of oxygen that an animal is receiving is indicated by the:
A) Oxygen tank pressure gauge B) Flowmeter C) Pressure manometer D) Vaporizer setting |
b
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If the reservoir bag is overly distended, the pop-off valve may be closed too far, the oxygen flow rate may be too high, or the waste-gas scavenging system may be improperly regulated.
A) True B) False |
A
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Pressure-reducing valves reduce the variable pressure of the gas in a cylinder to a constant pressure of approximately _________ psi.
A) 10 to 20 B) 20 to 30 C) 30 to 40 D) 40 to 50 E) 500 to 60 |
d
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Vaporizers that are "out of the circle" deliver precise anesthetic concentrations as long as the temperature and flow rates are kept at predetermined settings.
A) True B) False |
b
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The flutter valves on an anesthetic machine help________.
A) Control the direction of the movement of gasses B) Maintain a full reservoir bag C) Remove carbon dioxide D) Vaporize the liquid anesthetic |
a
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The flowmeter controls the rate at which a particular gas, such as oxygen or nitrous oxide, is delivered to the fresh-gas inlet.
A) True B) False |
a
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The pop-off valve is a part of the anesthetic machine and helps:
A) Vaporize the liquid anesthetic B) Prevent excess gas pressure from building up within the breathing circuit C) Keep oxygen flowing in one direction only D) Prevent waste gasses from reentering the vaporizer |
b
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E size oxygen cylinders contain about _________ liters of oxygen.
A) 355 B) 659 C) 5331 D) 5570-7500 E) None of the above F) All of the above |
b
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Flowmeters that have a ball for reading the gauge should be read from the _____________ of the ball.
A) Top B) Middle C) Button |
b
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An increase in the depth of anesthesia can be quickly achieved by:
A) Having high oxygen flow rates B) Having high vaporizer settings C) Using a closed anesthetic system D) Bagging the animal with the precision vaporizer on E) Two of the above F) None of the above G) All of the above |
e
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The oxygen flush valve delivers oxygen into the system at _________ to _________ L per minute.
A) 20 - 35 B) 30-75 C) 60 - 90 D) 100-125 |
b
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The negative pressure relief valve is particularly useful when:
A) Nitrous oxide is being used B) There is no scavenging system C) There is a failure of oxygen flow through the system D) The carbon dioxide absorber is no longer functioning |
c
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The recommended oxygen flow rate for semi-closed or partial rebreathing systems anesthetic systems is _________ to _________ ml/kg/minute.
A) 10 to 15 B) 20 to 25 C) 25 to 50 D) 50-100 |
c
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Which of the following are correct statements about anesthetic breathing systems?
A) A large amount of anesthetic gas must be vaporized in nonrebreathing systems for the system to be effective B) It is very difficult to scavenge excess gas from nonrebreathing systems, and hospital personnel may be exposed to waste gas using that method. C) Rebreathing systems allow the rebreathing of exhaled gasses, minus the carbon dioxide. D) All the above are correct E) None of the above are correct |
d
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Nitrous oxide is present in the tank as a ________.
A) Liquid B) Gas C) Liquid and a gas |
c
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The oxygen flush valve delivers oxygen into the system at _________ to _________ L per minute.
A) 20 - 35 B) 30-75 C) 60 - 90 D) 100-125 |
b
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E size oxygen cylinders contain about _________ liters of oxygen.
A) 355 B) 659 C) 5331 D) 5570-7500 E) None of the above F) All of the above |
b
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Which of the following are correct statements concerning cleaning and disinfection of anesthetic equipment?
A) Dome valves and the absorbent canister should be disassembled periodically and wiped dry. B) Breathing hoses and reservoir hoses should be cleaned and/or disinfected at appropriate intervals C) Hoses and tubes should be soaked in an appropriate disinfection solution and thoroughly rinsed at appropriate intervals D) Anesthetic surfaces should be cleaned with an appropriate mild disinfection solution on a regular schedule. E) All the above F) None of the above |
e
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If the reservoir bag is under-inflated, it may be due to a hole or puncture, an overactive waste-gas scavenging system, a faulty gasket on the carbon dioxide canister, a low flow rate of oxygen, no flow of oxygen, a major system leak, or a leak in the endotracheal cuff.
A) True B) False |
a
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reservoir bag that is not moving may indicate:
A) The endotracheal tube is not in the trachea B) The animal has a decreased tidal volume. C) There is a leak around the endotracheal tube D) The vaporizer is empty E) Deep doo-doo F) More than one of the above |
f
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The recommended oxygen flow rate for semi-closed or partial rebreathing systems anesthetic systems is _________ to _________ ml/kg/minute.
A) 10 to 15 B) 20 to 25 C) 25 to 50 D) 50-100 |
c
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G size oxygen cylinders contain about _________ liters of oxygen.
A) 355 B) 659 C) 5331 D) 5570-7500 E) None of the above F) All of the above |
c
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The pop-off valve is a part of the anesthetic machine and helps:
A) Vaporize the liquid anesthetic B) Prevent excess gas pressure from building up within the breathing circuit C) Keep oxygen flowing in one direction only D) Prevent waste gasses from reentering the vaporizer |
b
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Which of the following would be the correct classification of Phenobarbital?
A) Nonbarbiturate induction agent B) Systemic muscle relaxant C) Long-acting barbiturate D) Intermediate -acting barbiturate E) Ultrashort-acting barbiturate F) Dissociative agent |
c
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Which of the following would be a correct statement about the dissociative anesthetic agents?
A) Dissociative anesthesia is characterized by profound amnesia, superficial analgesia, and catalepsy B) Tranquilizers and other agents may be used with dissociative agents to produce an acceptable degree of muscle relaxation C) Dissociative agents show strong emergence delirium. This delirium may need to be corrected with suitable agents D) Two of the above are correct E) All the above are correct F) None of the above are correct |
e
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Which of the following would be the correct classification of Propofol?
A) Nonbarbiturate induction agent B) Systemic muscle relaxant C) Long-acting barbiturate D) Intermediate-acting barbiturate E) Ultrashort-acting barbiturate F) Dissociative agent |
a
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Which of the following are true statements concerning Opioids?
A) Opioids quickly cross the placental barrier and may be contraindicated for cesarean section. B) Opioids can produce excitement in many species, especially cats and horses, if given too rapidly IV. C) Opioids may be used epidurally in large animals to produce analgesia. D) Most opioids are controlled substances and care must be taken in their purchase, storage, administration, and record keeping. E) Opioids may produce mild to profound analgesia, sedation, euphoria, dysphoria, bradycardia, and excitement. F) Two of the above are correct G) All of the above are correct H) None of the above are correct |
g
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Which of the following has the lowest solubility coefficient?
A) Halothane B) Isoflurane C) Methoxyflurane D) Sevoflurane |
d
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Which of the following would be the correct classification of Thiopental?
A) Nonbarbiturate induction agent B) Systemic muscle relaxant C) Short-actting barbiturate D) Intermediate-acting barbiturate E) Ultrashort-acting barbiturate F) Dissociative agent |
c
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Which of the following are correct statements concerning Isoflurane?
A) Isoflurane has a very quick induction and recovery time when compared to halothane. B) Isoflurane is usually induced at 2.5% to 4.5% and maintained at 1% to 3%. C) Isoflurane has a wide degree of variability in patients, and therefore anesthetized animals must be closely and carefully monitored. D) Isoflurane may be used in virtually all species of animals. E) Isoflurane may predispose patients to a low mean arterial blood pressure, and steps should always be taken to maintain adequate tissue perfusion. F) Two of the above are correct G) Three of the above are correct H) All the above are correct |
h
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Supplemental oxygenation should be provided to the post-anesthetic patient for as long as possible to help facilitate a safe and successful recovery.
A) True B) False |
a
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Which of the following are correct statements about inhalant anesthetics?
A) Inhalation anesthesia is more expensive and cumbersome than injectable anesthesia due to the need for very specialized equipment B) Inhalant anesthetic potency is measured as "MAC," and the MAC value of an anesthetic is useful in comparing its potency to other inhalant anesthetics C) The ideal inhalant anesthetic has a very repulsive odor, is extremely expensive, has a high mortality rate, explodes easily, and has no analgesic qualities D) Inhalant anesthetics are considered to be self-regulating, and once equilibrium is established, close monitoring is no longer necessary E) Two of the above are correct F) Three of the above are correct G) All the above are correct |
e
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Which of the following would be the correct classification of Etomidate?
A) Nonbarbiturate induction agent B) Systemic muscle relaxant C) Long-acting barbiturate D) Intermediate -acting barbiturate E) Ultrashort-acting barbiturate F) Dissociative agent |
a
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Which of the following are correct statements about inhalant anesthetics?
A) The higher the percentage of inspired concentration, the more rapid the rise in alveolar concentration B) Anything that would inhibit respiration would slow the induction of inhalation anesthesia C) Anything that would inhibit respiration would slow the emergence from inhalation anesthesia D) MAC values may vary tremendously with the age of the animal, its temperature, concurrent disease, and other medications already administered E) Two of the above are correct F) Three of the above are correct G) All the above are correct |
g
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Which of the following are correct statements describing Halothane?
A) Halothane may cause hepatic dysfunction in patients with underlying hepatic disorders. B) Halothane produces excellent muscle relaxation. C) Halothane does not cross the placental barrier. D) Halothane is usually induced at 2% to 4%, and the maintenance is usually 0.5% to 1.5%. E) Halothane may have a high degree of variability of effect, and each patient should be carefully and closely monitored throughout the anesthetic procedure. F) Two of the above are correct G) Three of the above are correct H) All the above are correct |
g
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As a rough guideline, to safely maintain a surgical plane of anesthesia, the vaporizer should be set at ______ X MAC.
A) 0.5 B) 1 C) 1.5 D) 2 E) 2.5 |
c
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The term Atelectasis refers to:
A) Increased fluid in the alveoli B) Hyperinflation of the alveoli C) Collapsed alveoli D) A decrease in the perfusion of the blood around the alveoli |
c
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Which of the following would be the correct classification of Methohexital?
A) Nonbarbiturate induction agent B) Systemic muscle relaxant C) Long-acting barbiturate D) Intermediate-acting barbiturate E) Ultrashort-acting barbiturate F) Dissociative agent |
e
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Which of the following structures contributes to phonation in some way?
A) epithelium of the nasal passages B) blood pH C) sinuses D) olfactory sense |
c
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Which of the following describes a correct order of structures in the respiratory passageways?
A) Pharynx, trachea, larynx, bronchi, bronchioles B) Larynx, pharynx, trachea, bronchioles, bronchi C) Trachea, pharynx, larynx, bronchi, bronchioles D) Pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles E) Pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchioles, bronchi |
d
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In an animal that hypoventilates during surgery, which of the following steps is recommended?
A) bagging to increase the carbon dioxide concentration B) increasing the amount of anesthetic agent delivered to the patient C) bagging to cause more carbon dioxide than normal to be eliminated by the lungs D) rotate the patient to allow the dependent lung to fill |
c
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The exchange of gases from lungs to bloodstream occurs primarily in the:
A) Trachea B) Terminal bronchioles C) Alveoli D) Primary bronchus E) All of the above |
c
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Gas exchange in the lungs happens by the process of:
A) Osmosis B) Diffusion C) Exocytosis D) Active transport E) Filtration |
b
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In what vessel does blood leave the right side of the heart on its way to the lungs?
A) pulmonary artery B) aorta C) caudal vena cava D) pulmonary vein |
a
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The vocal cords attach to these cartilages.
A) Arytenoid B) Larynx C) Glottis D) Trachea E) pH |
a
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To be considered effective, Nitrous Oxide should be used at a minimum concentration of:
A) 3% B) 30% to 40% C) 50% to 60% D) More than 80% E) None of the above ranges are correct |
c
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The degeneration of which nerve leads to roaring in horses?
A) olfactory B) recurrent laryngeal C) vagus D) trigeminal |
b
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This is another name for pharynx.
A) Alveolar ducts B) Tidal volume C) Epiglottis D) Carotid artery E) Throat |
e
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Methoxyflurane (Metofane) is incriminated in the production of nephrotoxicity in humans and, while still in use, is probably not the best inhalent anesthetic available for use in the veterinary practice.
A) True B) False |
a
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Which of the following are correct statements about inhalant anesthetics?
A) Inhalation anesthesia is more expensive and cumbersome than injectable anesthesia due to the need for very specialized equipment B) Inhalant anesthetic potency is measured as "MAC," and the MAC value of an anesthetic is useful in comparing its potency to other inhalant anesthetics C) The ideal inhalant anesthetic has a very repulsive odor, is extremely expensive, has a high mortality rate, explodes easily, and has no analgesic qualities D) Inhalant anesthetics are considered to be self-regulating, and once equilibrium is established, close monitoring is no longer necessary E) Two of the above are correct F) Three of the above are correct G) All the above are correct |
e
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This covers the opening of the larynx when an animal swallows.
A) Alveolar ducts B) Tidal volume C) Epiglottis D) Carotid artery E) Throat |
c
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Most oxygen in the blood is transported:
A) As deoxyhemoglobin B) As gas dissolved in plasma C) As oxyhemoglobin D) As carboxyhemoglobin E) As reduced hemoglobin |
c
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Effects that Isoflurane may have on the body include:
A) Hepatic toxicity B) Accumulation in body fat stores C) Depression of respiration D) Seizures during recovery |
c
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Chemical receptors that monitor blood are found here.
A) Alveolar ducts B) Tidal volume C) Epiglottis D) Carotid artery E) Throat |
d
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In a healthy animal, what happens to the bronchial passageways during times of intense physical activity?
A) They partially bronchoconstrict. B) They bronchodilate. C) Bronchial smooth muscle partially contracts. D) Bronchial skeletal muscle relaxes. |
b
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What happens to increased amounts of mucous produced in the trachea?
A) it is coughed up B) it is pushed back to the lungs by cilia C) it is pushed into nasal passages by cilia D) it is hydrolyzed in the trachea and its byproducts are pushed into the larynx |
a
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Which of the following results from negative thoracic pressure?
A) The lungs remain fixed in place as the thoracic wall and diaphragm alternately enlarge and reduce the volume of the thorax. B) Blood is pulled into the large veins in the mediastinum and returns to the heart. C) Blood is forced out to the body. D) Inspiration and expiration are counteracted. |
b
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This is the amount of air inspired and expired in 60 seconds.
A) Soft palate B) Hilus C) Lungs D) Minute volume E) Thyroid |
d
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Which of the following are the main inspiratory muscles?
A) internal intercostal and external intercostal B) external intercostal and diaphragm C) pectoral and internal intercostal D) sternocleidomastoideus and diaphragm |
b
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Decreased ventilation can cause this to rise.
A) Mediastinum B) Larynx C) Partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the blood D) Alveoli E) Hyoid |
c
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What helps decrease surface tension within alveoli?
A) mucus B) cilia C) water D) surfactant |
d
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In what vessel does blood leave the right side of the heart on its way to the lungs?
A) pulmonary artery B) aorta C) caudal vena cava D) pulmonary vein |
a
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When the diaphragm contracts, which of the following occur?
A) It flattens somewhat. B) The lungs inflate with air. C) The liver and other abdominal organs move caudally. D) all of the above |
d
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Stretch receptors that monitor respiration are located here.
A) Soft palate B) Hilus C) Lungs D) Minute volume E) Thyroid |
c
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