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40 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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1. The adult cerebrum originates from the:
a) Diencephalon b) Telencephalon c) Mesencephalon d) Metencephalon |
b) Telencephalon
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2. Which of the following is not a function of the cerebellum?
a) Continually receives sensory information from proprioceptors b) Initiates planned motor movement c) Fine-turns and coordinates muscle movement (throwing a baseball) d) Works with the cerebrum in comparing and adjusting planned motor movement |
b) Initiates planned motor movement
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3. The inhibition of antagonistic muscle groups is accomplished by the:
a) Postcentral gyrus b) Basal nuclei c) Cerebellar peduncle d) Anterior spinothalamic tract |
b) Basal nuclei
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4. The spinothalamic tract transmits what type of sensory stimuli?
a) Two-point discrimination b) Vibration c) Weight determination d) Pain |
d) Pain
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5. Upper motor neurons of the corticospinal tract cross-over within the:
a) Medullary pyramids b) Cerebral peduncles c) Gray commissure d) Nucleus gracilis |
a) Medullary pyramids
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6. Interoceptors located within the walls of viscera and blood vessels respond to:
a) Tickle and itch b) Pain and pressure c) Temperature and vibration d) Two-point discrimination |
b) Pain and pressure
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7. Which statement is false regarding the sympathetic branch of the ANS?
a) A short pre and long postganglionic neuron is typical b) Synapses occur within autonomic ganglia c) The neurotransmitter acetylcholine is released from the postganglionic neuron d) Composed of spinal nerves within the thoracolumbar region |
c) The neurotransmitter acetylcholine is released from the postganglionic neuron
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8. Those neurons which release the neurotransmitter acetylcholine (ACh) are called:
a) Nicotinic b) Muscarinic c) Cholinergic d) Adrenergic |
c) Cholinergic
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9. During fetal development this was an opening between right and left atria.
a) Foramen ovale b) Interatrial septum c) Coronary sinus d) Ligamentum arteriosum |
a) Foramen ovale
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10. The papillary muscles are associated with the:
a) Pectinate muscles b) Trabeculae carneae c) Chordae tendineae d) cardiac plexus |
c) Chordae tendineae
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11. Angina pectoralis results from:
a) The inability to form cross-bridges between actin and myosin b) A build-up of lactic acid due to anaerobic conditions c) Intense pain down the right arm during strenuous exercise d) A reduction in blood flow (ischemia) within the internal carotid artery |
b) A build-up of lactic acid due to anaerobic conditions
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12. Which is not a characteristic for cardiac muscle tissue?
a) Striated muscle tissue composed of actin & myosin b) Extensively branched with intercalated discs between adjacent cells c) Functions best under anaerobic conditions d) An abundance of mitochondria, reflective of high ATP requirements |
c) Functions best under anaerobic conditions
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13. The closure of the atrioventricular valves is accomplished by:
a) The generation of tension on the chordae tendineae by the contraction of papillary muscles b) The contraction of the overlying atria c) The opening of the semilunar valves during ventricular relaxation d) Opposing forces generated during atrial and ventricular contraction |
d) Opposing forces generated during atrial and ventricular contraction
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14. The basic intrinsic rhythm of the heart is established by the:
a) Purkinje fibers b) Atrioventricular node c) AV Bundle d) Sinoatrial node |
d) Sinoatrial node
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15. What allows authorhythmic cells (specialized cardiac muscle) to self-depolarize?
a) Voltage gated potassium ion channels b) Chemical gated sodium ion channels c) Leaky sodium ion channels d) Continually open calcium ion channels |
c) Leaky sodium ion channels
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16. The total amount of blood within each ventricle prior to ejection is called:
a) Cardiac output b) The end diastolic volume (EDV) c) Preload stretch d) The end systolic volume (ESV) |
b) The end diastolic volume (EDV)
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17. A greater stretch causes the heart muscle to contract with greater force, this is known as:
a) Wolff’s law b) The law of isovolumeric ejection c) Archimedes law d) Starling’s law |
d) Starling’s law
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18. The term hematocrit is a measure of:
a) The percentage of hemoglobin within a blood sample b) The percentage of plasma within a blood sample c) The percentage of red blood cells within a blood sample d) The percentage of all formed elements within a blood sample |
c) The percentage of red blood cells within a blood sample
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19. This plasma protein is involved with the regulation of fluid volumes.
a) Fibrinogen b) Albumin c) Plasminogen d) Erythropoietin |
b) Albumin
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20. What condition/status initiates the process of erythropoiesis?
a) The destruction of old RBC’s within the liver b) An accumulation of iron atoms within the spleen c) A low partial pressure for dissolved oxygen (below 75mmHg) d) The release of erythropoietin from the pituitary gland |
c) A low partial pressure for dissolved oxygen (below 75mmHg)
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21. The ability of white blood cell to squeeze between endothelial cells is called:
a) Chemotaxis b) Erythropoiesis c) Hematophagia d) Diapedesis |
d) Diapedesis
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22. This white blood cell will become a macrophage within connective tissue.
a) Lymphocytes b) Megakaryocytes c) Monocytes d) Thrombocytes |
c) Monocytes
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23. During the platelet release reaction, platelets will:
a) Attached to protruding collagen fibers of the ruptured vessel b) Release growth factors to begin the repair process to damaged tissue c) Attract additional platelets through chemotaxis d) Transform into wandering macrophages |
b) Release growth factors to begin the repair process to damaged tissue
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24. The ultimate goal of the common pathway is:
a) Activate the enzyme prothrombinase b) Convert fibrin into fibrinogen c) Turn-off the clotting process d) Cause mast cells to release heparin |
b) Convert fibrin into fibrinogen
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25. What is the function of plasmin?
a) The conversion of prothrombin to thrombin b) The destruction of fibrin within blood clots (clot busting) c) One of several plasma proteins involved with fluid regulation d) Triggers the formation of blood plasma |
b) The destruction of fibrin within blood clots (clot busting)
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26. Which statement is false regarding blood types?
a) Blood type B contains the surface antigen B b) Blood type A contains antibodies A and B c) Blood type O has neither surface antigens A or B d) Blood type AB is the universal recipient |
b) Blood type A contains antibodies A and B
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27. Which area of the inner ear is responsible for static equilibrium?
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Within the vestibule (utricle and saccule) are sensory receptors called the maculae.
These sensory receptors are responsible for monitoring static equilibrium: Changes in head position Linear acceleration (straight-line changes in speed and direction) |
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28. What are the functions of the alpha and beta receptors?
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- Two types are Alpha and Beta
-- Alpha are excitatory: --- Cause vasoconstriction --- Contraction of the intestinal and urinary sphincters -- Beta's are either --- Excitatory (Beta1) increases heart rate and strength of contraction --- Inhibitory (Beta2) bronchiole dilation, dilation of coronary arteries |
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29. How do T-cells differ from B-cells?
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B lymphocytes or B-cells oversee the process of humoral immunity, the production of antibodies.
T lymphocytes or T-cells are not antibody producing cells, involved with cell-mediated immunity, which means the T-cell directly interacts with the pathogen of the infected cell. |
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30. What are the three basic characteristics to the immune system?
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Three important aspects of the adaptive immune response:
o It is specific – it recognizes and is directed against specific pathogens or foreign substances that initiate the immune response. o It is systemic – immunity is not restricted to the initial site of infection. o It has memory – after the initial exposure, it recognizes and provides an even stronger response on secondary infections. |
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31. Outline the events of the inflammatory response.
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Inflammatory response is the tissues response to injury. The four common signs of the inflammatory response are: redness, heat, swelling, and pain.
Inflammation will: o Prevent the spread of damaging agents to nearby tissues o Disposes of cellular debris and pathogens o Sets the stage of cellular repair |
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32. How does naturally acquired and passively acquired immunity differ?
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Active and Passive Humoral Immunity
When your B-cells encounter antigens and produce antibodies against them, you are exhibiting active humoral immunity. Active immunity is acquired in two ways: o Naturally Acquired is when you get a bacterial or viral infection and develop symptoms of the disease. o Artificially Acquired is when you received a vaccine. Most vaccines contain pathogens that are dead or attenuated (extremely weak) or a component of the virus. Passive immunity differs in the antibody source and the degree of protection it provides. o Passive Natural Acquired is when antibodies cross the maternal placental or are ingested through mother’s milk, these antibodies are short-lived. o Passive Artificially Acquired is when blood serum containing antibodies is administered, protection last about 2-3 weeks. |
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33. What are the three layers to the eye?
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Fibrous Tunic
Composed of a dense avascular connective tissue layer. The sclera forms the bulk of the eye, protects the eye and serves as an attachment site for extrinsic eye muscles. The anterior portion of the fibrous tunic is represented by the clear cornea. Cornea contributes to light-bending. Vascular Tunic Choroid Vascular, nutrient supply to all layers of eye Pigmented, aids light absorption Ciliary body Ring of smooth muscle anterior to choroid Ciliary process anchoring point for suspensory ligaments Iris Two layer of circular smooth muscle under autonomic control Circular muscle (sphincter pupillae) and radial muscle (dilator pupillae) Sensory Tunic (retina) Pigmented layer adjacent to the choroid; prevents the scattering of incoming light, phagocytic and vitamin storage Neural layer composed of photoreceptor cells rods and cone, bipolar cells and ganglion cells. Rods more numerous operate best under low-light conditions, along the periphery of eyeball. |
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34. What are the functions of the three layers of the eye?
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Fibrous Tunic
Composed of a dense avascular connective tissue layer. The sclera forms the bulk of the eye, protects the eye and serves as an attachment site for extrinsic eye muscles. The anterior portion of the fibrous tunic is represented by the clear cornea. Cornea contributes to light-bending. Vascular Tunic Choroid Vascular, nutrient supply to all layers of eye Pigmented, aids light absorption Ciliary body Ring of smooth muscle anterior to choroid Ciliary process anchoring point for suspensory ligaments Iris Two layer of circular smooth muscle under autonomic control Circular muscle (sphincter pupillae) and radial muscle (dilator pupillae) Sensory Tunic (retina) Pigmented layer adjacent to the choroid; prevents the scattering of incoming light, phagocytic and vitamin storage Neural layer composed of photoreceptor cells rods and cone, bipolar cells and ganglion cells. Rods more numerous operate best under low-light conditions, along the periphery of eyeball. |
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35. Explain how light is focused on the retina.
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To maintain focus on an object within 20 feet the lens must accommodate, the pupil constricts eliminating divergent light waves, and the eye converges on the object in order to project light waves on the fovea centralis.
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36. Trace the mechanical events associated with hearing beginning with the tympanic membrane
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Mechanics of Hearing
Sound waves strike the tympanic membrane causing it to vibrate. Ear ossicles amplify the tympanic vibrations; the stapes pulsates on the oval window creating pressure waves of the surrounding perilymph within the scali vestibuli. High frequency waves penetrate into the cochlear duct putting the endolymph into motion. The pressure waves of the endolymph sets the basilar membrane in motion and activating the hair cells of the organ of corti. |
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37. Describe the events associated with the cardiac cycle as illustrated on an ECG strip.
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Electrocardiogram
- A record of the electrical activity of the heart - Detects the action potentials generated by nodal tissue and cardiac muscle cells - Three recognizable waves or deflections are typical of an ECG tracing: -- P wave represents depolarization of the atria -- QRS wave represents depolarization of the ventricles -- T wave represents the repolarization of the ventricles |
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38. Which areas of the brain provide basic primitive functions (survival, fear, etc.)?
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Hypothalamus – positioned below the thalamus, control the basic functions that
regulate autonomic activities of the visceral organs. Cardiovascular regulation – heart rate and blood pressure. Body temperature regulation. Regulation of food and water intake. Regulation of sleep/wake cycles. Regulation of sex drive. Center of primitive sensations; anger, fear, pain, and pleasure. |
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39. What are the effects of the neurotransmitters: acetylcholine, epinephrine, and norepinephrine on heart rate?
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Neurotransmitters
- The neurotransmitters of the sympathetic nervous systme epinephrine and norepinephrine: -- makes the SA and AV nodes to become more permeable to sodium ions -- The atrial and ventricular muscle cells more permeable to calcium ions - The neurotransmitter acetylcholine of the parasympathetic nervous system will: -- Hyperpolarize nodal tissue by keeping potassium ion channels open, taking RMP further from threshold |
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40. Explain what long term mechanisms will the kidney use to maintain blood pressure.
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Long Term: Renal Regulation
Long term controls maintain blood pressure by altering blood volume; this involves two methods which operate on the permeability of the renal tubules located in the kidney. Direct renal mechanism – as blood volume increases or blood pressure rises, more blood is filtered and enters into the renal tubules. Because of the increased blood volume and increased pressures, the newly formed filtrate cannot be reabsorbed fast enough; water is lost during the process of urine formation. Losing excess water from the blood will reduce blood volume and lower BP. Indirect renal mechanism – involves the renin-angiotensin pathway. This ultimately results in an increase in the re-absorption of sodium ions and water within the kidney. The addition of sodium ions within the blood plasma will attacked water within the renal tubule. This results in an increase in blood volume and blood pressure |
