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100 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

(601) The equator is

b. equal distance from the poles.

(601) Any plane that passes through the center of the Earth and divides it into two equal parts forms what on the surface of the earth?

b. Great circle.

(601) Circles running east to west around the earth are called

b. parallels of latitude

(601) Parallels of latitude are parallel to the


a. equator

(601) Parallels between the equator and the north pole carry values from


a. 0° to 90°N.

(601) Parallels between the equator and the south pole carry values from


b. 0° to 90°S.

(601) The international date line is


b. designated as the 180° meridian.

(601) Starting from the prime meridian and going east to the international dateline, meridians are assigned values of


c. 0° to 180° east

(601) A correct geographic coordinate is


d. 76°S 030°W.

(601) If your aircraft is flying with a true heading of 320° and your destination point is located at a true bearing of 270°, what is your relative bearing to the destination point?


c. 310°.

(601) If you fly along the equator from 0°N10°E to 0°N15°E, how many nautical miles (NM) will you have flown?


b. 300 NM.

(601) The wind’s effect on an aircraft is


c. significant

(601) Wind moving from 225° towards 45° at a speed of 15 knots would be expressed as


b. 225°/15 knots

(601) The aircraft’s path over the Earth’s surface is called


a. track.

(601) If the aircraft is flying a true heading of 180° what are the effects of a 180°/20 knot wind on its ground speed and track?


d. Decrease in ground speed with no change in track.




(601) What is used to correct true heading and allow the aircraft to achieve the desired true course?

a. Drift correction


(601) True directions are measured from the


d. geographical poles


(601) The lines on navigation charts that connect points of equal magnetic variation are called


b. isogonic lines


(601) The lines on navigation charts that connect points of zero magnetic variation are called


a. agonic lines



(602) An inertial navigation system establishes

c. a frame of reference




(602) Which is not a basic inertial navigation system component?

c. Summing unit




(602) What inertial navigation system component measures aircraft movement?


d. Accelerometer

(602) The inertial navigation system’s accelerometers must be protected from



c. temperature and pressure changes



(602) To measure acceleration in all directions an aircraft’s inertial navigation system uses how many accelerometers?


c. 3.


(602) The changing of position with respect to some other body is called

b. motion.




(602) The rate at which motion is occurring without regard to direction is called


a. speed.

(602) The rate at which motion is occurring in a known or given direction is called



c. velocity.


(602) How many integrators are required for an inertial navigation system to indicate distance?

b. 2.




(602) The inertial navigation system (INS) provides data for the information management system/flight management system to compute all of the following except


a. altitude.

(602) The gas discharge in the inertial navigation unit (INU) section of the embedded global positioning and inertial navigation unit (EGI) is used to generate


d. monochromatic radiation beams




(602) When the ring laser gyro of the inertial navigation unit (INU) is subjected to angular rates such as those encountered during aircraft maneuvers, what happens to the laser beams’ optical path lengths?

d. One beam increases in length, the other decreases in length


(602) If the accelerometers associated with the inertial navigation unit (INU) ring laser gyro senses an applied acceleration, the accelerometer pendulum moves in response and causes a


c. proximity detector to generate a voltage




(602) Following power-up the embedded global positioning and inertial navigation unit (EGI) automatically enters what mode?

d. Initialization



(602) If the gyro compass alignment of the inertial navigation unit (INU) portion of the embedded global positioning and inertial navigation unit (EGI) is interrupted due to aircraft motion, then the alignment will

d. be prolonged by no more than the period of suspension plus 20 seconds.



(602) The embedded global positioning and inertial navigation unit (EGI) provides a pure inertial navigation solution

d. at all times


(603) Each global positioning system satellite transmits how many radio frequency signals?


b. Two, called L1 and L2.




(603) If your global positioning system has a figure of merit of 5, what is the total expected position error (EPE)?



b. 101 EPE < 200 meters

(603) The global positioning system’s navigational system has a time accuracy of



b. 100 nanoseconds




(603) The global positioning system is capable of tracking how many satellites at one time?


a. Five

(603) Which global positioning system unit provides a display for the ARN–151?


d. Indicator control


(603) The purpose of the ARN–151’s receiver unit is to


d. process the intermediate frequency signal and calculate it into a navigation solution




(603) Which receiver interface provides binary-coded decimal format communication between the global positioning system and HAVE-QUICK equipment?

c. Precise time and time interval (PTTI) interface


(603) The global positioning system interface that uses simplified computer words of specific high- and low-voltage levels is the


d. Aeronautical radio incorporated interface (ARINC) interface

(604) The tactical air navigation (TACAN) system overcomes the signal propagation limits of earlier low-frequency navigation equipment by operating in which frequency band?


b. Ultra-high frequency (UHF).



(604) A Y-channel tactical air navigation (TACAN) beacon main reference burst (MRB) consists of


c. 13 single pulses spaced 30 microseconds apart


(604) The main reference burst (MRB) is transmitted when the main lobe of the tactical air navigation (TACAN) surface beacon radiation pattern is due

c. East.


(604) When a tactical air navigation (TACAN) surface beacon receives distance measuring equipment pulses from an interrogating aircraft, the surface beacon replies with

a. 1 pulse pair.



(604) When the tactical air navigation (TACAN) main reference burst (MRB) occurs at the 15-Hz variable signal’s minimum amplitude, the azimuth to the station is

b. 90°.



(604) If the horizontal situation indicator displays a magnetic heading of 45° and magnetic bearing to the tactical air navigation (TACAN) station of 5°, then relative bearing is

d. 320°.



(604) In the tactical air navigation (TACAN) mode, if the course deviation bar on the horizontal situation indicator (HIS) is deflected two dots to the right, how many degrees off course are you?

d. 10.0°.



(604) The AN/ARN–118 is controlled by the area navigation (RNAV) system when the tactical air navigation (TACAN) control box channel selector (X or Y) is set to

a. 00.



(604) In order for two aircraft to communicate using the AN/ARN–118 in A/A mode when one aircraft is on channel 37Y, then the other aircraft must be on channel

d. 100Y.



(604) When the TEST switch on the tactical air navigation (TACAN) control box is pressed, what is the first heading indicated by the TACAN bearing pointer?

d. 270°.


(604) The tactical air navigation (TACAN) receiver transmitter (RT) automatic self-test lasts for

c. 15 seconds


(605) Tactical air navigation (TACAN) channel data and selected mode information are routed to the receiver transmitter as a

c. 16-bit ternary word.



(605) When a tactical air navigation (TACAN) station receives a pair of interrogation pulses, the interrogations are delayed for how long before they are transmitted back?

b. 50 μsec


(605) The purpose of the tactical air navigation (TACAN) receiver transmitter (RT) adapter is to convert


d. digital distance information into an analog output


(606) The basic operating principle of very-high frequency omnirange (VOR) is phase comparing the


b. 30-Hz reference and 30-Hz variable signals



(606) If the magnetic bearing to a very-high frequency omnirange (VOR) station is 225°, the phase difference between the 30-Hz reference and the 30-Hz variable signals will be

b. 45°.


(606) Very-high frequency omnirange (VOR) aural (station identification) signals are transmitted

a. continuously



(606) At a distance of 10 miles from the transmitter the instrument landing system (ILS) localizer course width is approximately

d. 4600 feet.


(606) What frequency band is used to transmit instrument landing system (ILS) glide slope information?


c. UHF.



(607) All of the following are indicating parts of the radio magnetic indicator except a

a. miles window.


(607) When an instrument landing system (ILS) frequency is selected, the ARN–127 receiver parks the horizontal situation indicator (HSI) bearing pointer at the


b. 4 o’clock position.

(607) When an instrument landing system (ILS) frequency is selected, the ARN–147 receiver parks the horizontal situation indicator (HSI) bearing pointer at the


a. 3 o’clock position

(607) In glide slope, each deviation dot on the attitude director indicator (ADI) glide slope indicator represents


a. 0.3° deviation

(607) If an aircraft is flying inbound on the 90° radial of a very-high frequency (VHF) omnirange (VOR) station, what will the outbound radial be when the aircraft passes the station?


c. 270° radial

(607) Which radial will the aircraft be positioned on if the aircraft is located north of the very-high frequency (VHF) omnirange (VOR) station?


d. 000°.

(607) Magnetic bearing to the very-high frequency (VHF) omnirange (VOR) station is 75°. In order to get a FROM flag in view on the horizontal situation indicator (HIS), manually set the selected course to


c. 210°.

(607) During instrument landing system (ILS) operation, a full-scale deflection of the horizontal situation indicator (HSI) vertical needle indicates the aircraft is off course by


d. 2.5°.



(607) In instrument landing system (ILS) operation, if the pilot’s attitude director indicator bank steering bar deflects to the left, what direction must the pilot fly to get the aircraft back on the runway

b. Fly left



(607) In instrument landing system (ILS) operation, a deflection of two dots on the attitude director indicator (ADI) glide slope deviation scale indicates that the aircraft is off the glide path by

b. 0.6°.


(607) When the instrument landing system (ILS) marker beacon amber (orange) lamp illuminates, the pilot hears a


d. 1,300-Hz tone.

(608) The ARN–147 receiver is divided into how many different receivers?


c. 3.

(608) The ARN–147 very-high frequency (VHF) omnirange (VOR)/localizer receiver can receive and process signals between 108.00 to 117.95 MHz spaced 50 MHz apart, providing


d. 160 VHF omnirange channels and 40 localizer channels

(608) The AN/ARN–147 glide slope receiver processes frequencies ranging from


a. 329.15 to 335.00 MHz


(608) The AN/ARN–147 system uses how many separate antennas?


a. 3.


(609) Which system is used to determine if an aircraft is friend or foe?


d. IFF.


(609) The ground radar and the identification, friend or foe (IFF) interrogator transmissions are synchronized so that the radar returns can be


c. displayed on the PPI together with the IFF reply.

(609) When your aircraft AIMS is replying to interrogations with personal identification (military only), then it is using what mode?


b. Mode 2.

(609) The identification, friend or foe (IFF) mode 4 interrogation consists of


c. four 0.5-microsecond pulses, spaced 2 microseconds apart

(609) In order for the identification, friend or foe (IFF) system to sense side lobe interrogations, the interrogating station will transmit a


b. P2 pulse 2 microseconds after the first interrogation pulse




(609) The identification, friend or foe (IFF) information pulses used for mode 1 replies are

b. A1, A2, A4, B1, and B2.

(609) The maximum number of identification, friend or foe (IFF) reply codes that can be selected in mode 1 is


a. 32.




(609) To prevent accidental switching, the identification, friend or foe (IFF) control box master switch must be pulled out before being turned to

c. EMER or OFF

(609) When the IDENT-OUT-MIC switch is in the MIC position, identification, friend or foe (IFF) identification of position (I/P) replies are triggered every time the


c. UHF radio is keyed.

(609) Which position of the identification, friend or foe (IFF) mode 4 code selection switch is spring loaded?


d. Hold.

(609) What is the function of the identification, friend or foe (IFF) antenna switching unit?


d. Provides switching between the bottom and the top antennas.



(609) The altitude-encoder provides the identification, friend or foe (IFF) transponder pressure altitude encoded in

b. 100-foot increments



(610) Illuminating of which monitor light on the front of the identification, friend or foe (IFF) receiver transmitter (RT) indicates satisfactory operation of the local oscillator mixer circuits?

c. XTAL CUR



(610) How many complete reply trains for identification of position (I/P) operation are generated by the coding circuits when the identification, friend or foe (IFF) system’s I/P control circuits are enabled?

b. 2.

(610) Mode IV identification, friend or foe (IFF) code settings can be retained by momentarily placing the MODE 4 CODE switch in the spring-loaded HOLD position and maintaining aircraft power for at least how long after selecting HOLD?


d. 15 seconds

(611) Which of the following is not an advantage of an active on board collision avoidance system?


b. Relies on local radar to generate transponder replies



(611) The Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance System (TCAS) surveys valid transponder traffic that is approximately

a. 15 to 40 NMs forward, 5 to 15 NMs aft, and 10 to 20 NMs on both sides of an aircraft.



(611) Which of the following in not considered a critical calculation made by the Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance System (TCAS)?

b. Speed


(611) If a yellow circle is displayed on theTtraffic Alert and Collision Avoidance System (TCAS) resoultion advisory/vertical speed indicator, then the intruder aircraft is


c. within 48 seconds CPA


(611) If the aircraft pilot is given a Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance System (TCAS) resolution advisory of "increase climb, increase climb", then the pilot should maneuver the aircraft to a


d. +2500 fpm climb

(611) What advisories are be generated if an intruder aircraft is operating a non-altitude reporting transponder?


a. Traffic advisories


(611) What is the purpose of the mode S Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance System (TCAS) function?


d. Establish and track aircraft identification and characteristics addresses.


(611) Which of the following is not a resolution advisory?


c. Change to current advisory.