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154 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
There are __ tarsals, __ metatarsals, and __ phalangeal.
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7
5 14 |
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Name the seven tarsal bones
|
Talus
Navicular Calcaneous Cuboid Lateral cuneiform Intermediate cuneiform Medial cuneiform |
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The ________ arch is shaped by the distal heads of the metatarsals.
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metatarsal
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The _________ arch extends across the transverse tarsal bones and forms a half dome.
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transverse
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The ______ longitudinal arch originates along the medial border of the calcaneous and extends forward to the distal head of the first metatarsal. The main supporter of this arch is the plantar calcaneonavicular ligament, which acts as a spring by returning the arch to its normal position after it has been stretched.
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medial
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The ______ longitudinal arch is on the lateral aspect of the foot. It is formed by the calcaneus, cuboid, and fifth metatarsal.
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lateral
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The ____ ______ is a thick white band of fibrous tissue originating from the medial aspect of the calcaneus and ending at the distal heads of the metatarsals. Supports the foot from downward forces.
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Plantar Fascia
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The medial movements that produce adduction and supination include which group of the following muscles?
a. Behind lateral malleolus muscles: peroneus longus and peroneus brevis b. In front of lateral malleolus muscles: peroneus tertius and extensor digitorum longus c. Behind the medial malleolus: tibialis posterior, flexor digitorum longus, flexor hallucis longus d. In front of medial malleolus: tibialis anterior, extensor hallucis longus e. A and B f. C and D |
f. C and D
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The lateral movements that produce abduction and pronation include which group of the following muscles?
a. Behind lateral malleolus muscles: peroneus longus and peroneus brevis b. In front of lateral malleolus muscles: peroneus tertius and extensor digitorum longus c. Behind the medial malleolus: tibialis posterior, flexor digitorum longus, flexor hallucis longus d. In front of medial malleolus: tibialis anterior, extensor hallucis longus e. A and B f. C and D |
e. A and B
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____________ ______ is when the bursa behind the calcaneus becomes chronically irritated and inflammed by constant rubbing or pressure from the heel counter of a shoe. An exostosis, or bony outgrowth, commonly forms.
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Retrocalcaneal Bursitis
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________ disease is chronic inflammation at the attachment of the Achilles tendon on the posterior calcaneus in young athletes.
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Sever's
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____ _______ is common at the bottom of the calcaneus.
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Heel bruise
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________ _______ is pain and inflammation of the plantar fascia caused by leg length discrepancy, inflexibility of medial longitudinal arch, tightness of gastroc-soleus unit. Treated with vigorous heel cored stretching and exercises to stretch plantar fascia.
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Plantar Fasciitis
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_______ fracture is a fracture at the neck of the 5th metatarsal that can occur from overuse, acute inversion, or high velocity rotational forces.
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Jones
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_______ fracture is fracture of the second metatarsal that occurs most often in running and jumping sports.
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March
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________ ____ is a condition in which the first metatarsal is abnormally short, making the second toe appear longer than the great toe.
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Morton's Toe
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____________ ______ _______ occurs in athletes with hypermobility of the metatarsals caused by laxity in the ligaments. This allows the ligaments to be prone to sprains at the metatarsal arch. Hypermobility allows the metatarsals in the foot to spread apart (splayed foot), giving the appearance of a fallen metatarsal arch. Pain in this region is termed metatarsalgia.
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Metatarsal Arch Strain
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___________ ______ _______ occurs when there is a flattening or depression of the longitudinal arch (pes planus) while the foot is in the midsupport phase, resulting in strain to the arch. Usually appears just below the medial malleolus and posterior tibial tendon. Prolonged strain will also involve the calcaneonavicular ligament and 1st cuneiform with the navicular.
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Longitudinal Arch Strain
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____ fractures may be incurred by kicking an object or stubbing a toe.
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Toe
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_______ also referred to as an exocytosis is a painful deformity of the heal of the 1st metatarsal. Often occurs from wearing shoes that are pointed, too narrow, too short, or have too high heels. Often leads to hallux valgus deformity.
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Bunions
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________ is a mass occuring in the common plantar nerve, most commonly between the 3rd and 4th metatarsal heads, where the nerve is thickest because it is receiving both branches from the medial and lateral plantar nerves.
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Neuroma
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_____ ____ is a hyperextension injury resulting in a sprain of the great toe, either from repetitive overuse or trauma.
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Turf Toe
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_______ develop from friction and can be painful because the fatty layer loses its elasticity and cushioning effect. Prone to infection.
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Calluses
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________ are a result of shearing forces acting on the skin. They develop in which fluid accumulates below the outer skin layers. The application of a skin lubricant can protect the skin against abnormal friction.
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Blisters
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A hard _____ is the most serious type. Hammer toes and hard ____ are usually associated. Hard ones from on top of the deformed toe. Soft ones form as a result of a combination of narrow shoes and excessive foot perspiration.
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corns
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_______ toenails occur when the leading side edge of the toenail has grown into soft tissue nearby, resulting in inflammation and infection. Cutting a V notch in the toenail is the care.
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Ingrown
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_________ __________ is blood under the toenail, results in loss of nail.
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Subungual hematoma
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What is the name of the ankle joint? What is the joint between the talus and the calcaneus where inversion and eversion occur?
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talocrural joint
subtalar joint |
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The anterior and posterior _________ ligaments bridge the tibia and fibula and form the distal portion of the interosseous membrane.
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tibiofibular
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The medial aspect of the ankle relatively stable because of the thick ______ ligament. This ligament and the lateral malleolus of the fibula limits the ability of the ankle to every.
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deltoid
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True/False Eversion sprains are less common than inversion ankle sprains.
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True
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The three lateral ligaments include the anterior talofibular, the posterior talofibular, and the calcaneofibular and limit (eversion/inversion) and are much more susceptible to injury.
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inversion
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Muscles that assist in ankle dorsiflexion that are in the anterior compartment consist of which of the following?
a. Peroneus brevis, peroneus longus b. Tibialis posterior, flexor digitorum longus, flexor hallucis longus c. Soleus, gastrocnemius d. Extensor digitorum longus, extensor hallucis longus, tibialis anterior |
d.
|
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Muscles that assist in ankle plantarflexion and are in the superficial posterior compartment consist of which of the following?
a. Peroneus brevis, peroneus longus b. Tibialis posterior, flexor digitorum longus, flexor hallucis longus c. Soleus, gastrocnemius d. Extensor digitorum longus, extensor hallucis longus, tibialis anterior |
c.
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Muscles that assist in ankle inversion and are in the deep posterior compartment consist of which of the following?
a. Peroneus brevis, peroneus longus b. Tibialis posterior, flexor digitorum longus, flexor hallucis longus c. Soleus, gastrocnemius d. Extensor digitorum longus, extensor hallucis longus, tibialis anterior |
b.
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Muscles that assist in ankle eversion and are in the lateral compartment consist of which of the following?
a. Peroneus brevis, peroneus longus b. Tibialis posterior, flexor digitorum longus, flexor hallucis longus c. Soleus, gastrocnemius d. Extensor digitorum longus, extensor hallucis longus, tibialis anterior |
a.
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To properly stretch the Achilles tendon complex, the ankle should be (plantarflexed/dorsiflexed) and the knee fully extended to stretch the gastrocnemius muscle, and then the knee should be flexed to about 30 degrees to stretch the soleus muscle.
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dorsiflexed
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Which of the following descriptions is a bump test?
a. Used to determine extent of inversion or eversion injuries. Excessive motion in inversion with the ankle plantarflexed indicates a sprain of the anterior talofibular ligament. b. Used when a fracture is suspected and a blow is administered on the bottom of the heel. c. Used to determine the extent of injury to the anterior talofibular ligament primarily and to the other lateral ligaments secondarily. |
b.
|
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Which of the following descriptions is a anterior drawer test?
a. Used to determine extent of inversion or eversion injuries. Excessive motion in inversion with the ankle plantarflexed indicates a sprain of the anterior talofibular ligament. b. Used when a fracture is suspected and a blow is administered on the bottom of the heel. c. Used to determine the extent of injury to the anterior talofibular ligament primarily and to the other lateral ligaments secondarily. |
c.
|
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Which of the following descriptions is a talar tilt test?
a. Used to determine extent of inversion or eversion injuries. Excessive motion in inversion with the ankle plantarflexed indicates a sprain of the anterior talofibular ligament. b. Used when a fracture is suspected and a blow is administered on the bottom of the heel. c. Used to determine the extent of injury to the anterior talofibular ligament primarily and to the other lateral ligaments secondarily. |
a.
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An (inversion/eversion) ankle sprain is most common and often results in injury to the lateral ligaments. Which ligament is most susceptible?
a. calcaneofibular b. posterior talofibular c. anterior talofibular |
c.
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True/False Eversion ankle sprains may involve an avulsion fracture of the tibia, fracture of the fibia, and tearing of the deltoid ligament.
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True
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Which ligaments are affected in a high ankle sprain and occurs with hyperdorsiflexion and external rotation of the foot when twisted on a planted foot?
a. anterior talofibular b. calcaneofibular c. anterior and posterior tibiofibular d. posterior talofibular |
c.
|
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True/False High ankle sprains have a quicker recovery time than inversion and eversion ankle sprains.
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False
|
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A fracture of the lateral malleolus of the fibula is more likely to occur than a sprain if an eversion force is applied to the ankle. After the malleolus is fractured, what ligament is susceptible to sprain?
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deltoid ligament
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Which three tendons are most susceptible to tendinitis?
a. gastrocnemius, soleus, and peroneal brevis tendons b. peroneal longus and tertius tendons c. posterior tibialis , anterior tibialis, and peroneal tendons |
c. posterior tibialis, anterior tibialis, peroneal tendons
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True/False The fibula is the most commonly fractured long bone in the body.
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FALSE tibia
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True/False Studies indicate that tibial stress fractures occur at a higher rate than those of the fibula and are prevalent in athletes involved with jumping.
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True
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Tibial stress fractures typically occur at the (middle/end) of the shaft and fibular stress fractures are more likely to occur in the (proximal/distal) part of the bone.
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middle
distal |
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What two names are associated with shin splints?
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medial tibial stress syndrome
periostitis |
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A condition that involves increasing pain specifically at the distal two-thirds of the posterior medial aspect of the tibia. A strain of the posterior tibialis muscle and its fascial sheath at its attachment to the periosteum of the distal tibia during running activities is the most likely mechanism for this injury.
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Medial Tibial Stress Syndrome
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This occurs frequently at the shin (tibia) because of the absence of muscular or adipose padding, where force is not dissipated and the periosteum receives the impact.
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Shin contusions
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Conditions in which increased pressure within one of the four compartments of the lower leg causes compression of muscular and neruovascular structures within that compartment. The anterior and deep compartments are usually involved.
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Compartment syndrome
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Which of the following categories of compartment syndrome is most serious?
a. acute compartment syndrome b. acute exertional compartment syndrome c. chronic compartment syndrome |
a.
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True/False A compression wrap should be used to treat compartment syndrome.
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False
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Inflammation of the achilles tendon that occurs because of repetitive stresses and strains on the tendon and occurs due to plantarflexion of the ankle.
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Achilles tendonitis
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Caused by a sudden, forceful plantarflexion of the ankle at the Achilles tendon. Most common in athletes above the age of 30 and occurs in activities requiring ballistic movements such as tennis and basketball.
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Achilles Tendon Rupture
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What muscle passes behind the medial malleolus?
a. peroneus tertius b. extensor digitorum longus c. extensor hallucis longus d. tibialis posterior |
d.
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What is the term used to describe a fallen medial longitudinal arch?
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pes planus
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What is a term used to describe pain in the ball of the foot?
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metatarsalgia
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What occurs when nerves become trapped between the metatarsal heads producing swelling with radiating pain?
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Neuroma
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What is the name for stress fractures that occur at the 2nd metatarsal?
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March fractures
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A bunion is a growth on which toe?
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1st
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What disorder is associated with pain on the anterior medial heel that occurs with the first step in the morning?
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plantar fasciitis
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What is the condition that is referred to as a "pump bump"?
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retrocalcaneal bursitis
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What is the condition that occurs when there is inflammation of the Achilles tendon on the posterior calcaneus in young athletes?
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Sever's disease
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A condition in which tissue fluid pressure has increased because of confines of fascia and compression of muscle, nerves, and blood vessels.
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Compartment syndrome
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When an athlete steps into a hole and ankle is forced into dorsiflexion, which ligament is involved?
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anterior tibiofibular
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What two muscles make up the lateral compartment?
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Peroneus longus and brevis
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The most common mechanism of injury of ankle complex is?
a. dorsiflexion/eversion b. plantarflexion/inversion |
b.
|
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What commonly occurs in an eversion ankle sprain?
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tearing of deltoid ligament or fracture of fibula
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The most frequently injured aspect of the ankle is the (medial/lateral) aspect.
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lateral
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Achilles tendon ruptures occur when the ankle is (dorsiflexed/plantarflexed)
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plantarflexed
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The most commonly sprained ligament in the ankle is the
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anterior talofibular ligament
|
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The lateral malleolus is part of the (tibia/fibula)
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fibula
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Condition common to the rapidly growing immature adolescent's knee. The most commonly accepted cause is the repeated pull of the patellar tendon at the tibial tubercle on the front of the tibia. Characterized by ongoing pain at the attachment of the patellar tendon at the tibial tubercle.
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Osgood-Schlatter's disease
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Occurs as a result of inflammation in the patellar or quadriceps tendon. Also known as jumper's knee. Jumping, kicking or running may place extreme tension on the knee extensor muscle complex.
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Patellar tendinitis
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Softening and deterioration of the articular cartilage on the posterior surface of the patella
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Chondromalacia Patella
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A syndrome in which the patella has a tendency to move or track in a lateral direction as the quadriceps contract. Leads to chondromalacia patella.
|
Patellofemoral syndrome
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True/False Patellar sublaxation or dislocation commonly occurs posteriorly and is more common in females than in males.
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True
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True/False Most patellar fractures are the result of indirect trauma in which a severe pull of the patellar tendon occurs against the femur when the knee is semiflexed. Direct injury most often produces fragmentation with little displacement and little bone separation.
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True
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An overuse condition commonly occuring in runners or cyclists that can be attributed to malalignment and structural assymetries of the foot and lower leg. Irritation develops over the lateral femoral condyle or at the band's insertion on the lateral side of the knee where friction is created as the knee repeatedly flexes and extends.
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Iliotibial band syndrome
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Because of repeated trauma to the knee during sport's activities, ______ ______, sometimes called joint mice, can develop within the joint cavity. This often results from osteochondritis dessicans (fragments of bone and cartilage), fragments from the menisci, pieces of torn synovial tissue, or a torn cruciate ligament.
|
loose bodies
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Develops swelling because of a problem in the knee joint and not because of bursitis. Commonly painless, causing no discomfort or disability.
|
Baker's cyst
|
|
A condition in which the bursa becomes inflammed. The prepatellar and deep infrapatellar bursae on the front of the knee have the highest incidence of irritation in sports. The prepatellar bursa often becomes inflammed from continued kneeling or falling directly on the knee, whereas the deep infrapatellar becomes irritated from overuse of the patellar tendon.
|
Bursitis
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A _____ is a thickened fold of synovial membrane.
|
plica
|
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Which of the following plica are most subject to injury?
a. infrapatellar plica b. mediopatellar plica c. suprapatellar plica |
b. mediopatellar plica
|
|
Which muscle of the quadriceps group is most susceptible to joint contusions?
|
Vastus medialis
|
|
Is the medial or lateral meniscus more prone to injury?
|
medial
|
|
True/False The medial meniscus is prone to disruption from valgus and rotational forces while the lateral meniscus is prone to varus forces.
|
True
|
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What sound is typically heard if a meniscus tear occurs? ACL? Capsule tear?
|
crunch
pop tearing sensation |
|
This test is used to detect a meniscus tear. A medial meniscus tear is noted by external rotation and a lateral meniscus tear is noted by internal rotation of the lower leg.
|
Apley's compression test
|
|
What ligament in the knee is most likely to be injured when the knee is hyperflexed from falling with full weight on the anterior aspect of the bent knee with the foot in plantar flexion. Imagine kneeling on the ground.
|
Posterior cruciate ligament
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|
What test is used to determine a PCL strain?
|
posterior drawer test
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What type of ligament strain in the knee occurs with deceleration, rotation, and valgus stresses to the knee. It is very common when an athlete lands from a jump with the knee extended as opposed to flexed. The most common noncontact mechanism for tearing this ligament is when the athlete decelerates, with the foot planted on the ground, and turns in the direction of the planted foot, forcing the tibia into internal rotation.
|
anterior cruciate ligament
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|
A tear of the ACL, MCL and medial meniscus has been referred to as the "________ _____"
|
unhappy triad
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Which test is most commonly used for checking the integrity of the ACL? If there is unchecked anterior movement of the tibia, it is a positive indicator.
|
Lachman's test
|
|
Injury to this ligament most often occurs either as a result of a laterally directed varus force from the medial side or from internal rotation of the tibia. If the force is great enough, bony fragments can be avulsed from the femur or tibia.
|
Lateral collateral ligament
|
|
True/False MCL sprains are less common than LCL sprains.
|
False
|
|
Injury to this ligament most often occurs either as a result of a medially directed valgus force from the lateral side or from external rotation of the tibia. These tears resulting from rotation combined with valgus stress with the foot fixed frequently result in ACL and occasionally PCL tears.
|
Medial Collateral Ligament
|
|
What is the special test to determine the integrity of the MCL and LCL?
|
Valgus/Varus stress test
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In first time acute knee sprains, fluid and blood effusion is not usually apparent until after a ___-hour period. However, in an ACL sprain, blood may accumulate in the joint (hemoarthrosis) during the first hour after injury.
|
24
|
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If the knee is in a locked position what might you assume?
|
a meniscus tear
|
|
Prophylactic knee braces are worn on the lateral surface of the knee to protect which ligament?
|
medial collateral ligament
|
|
___________ knee braces work to protect the knee from rotational forces or tibial translation.
|
Functional
|
|
True/False The more numerous and shorter cleats are better because the foot does not become fixed to the surface and the shoe still allows controlled running and cutting.
|
True
|
|
How much balance in strength should exist between the quadriceps muscle group and the hamstrings muscle group in football players?
|
60-75%
|
|
What lower leg muscle should be strengthened to help stabilize the knee?
|
gastrocnemius
|
|
Name the four muscles of the quadriceps group:
|
rectus femoris
vastus lateralis vastus intermedialis vastus medialis |
|
Name the three muscles of the hamstrings group
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biceps femoris
semitendinosis semimembranosis |
|
True/False Along with the hamstrings group, the gracilis, sartorius, popliteus, gastrocnemius, and plantaris help with knee flexion.
|
True
|
|
True/False The hamstrings, popliteus, sartorius, and gracilis contribute to tibial rotation.
|
True
|
|
This ligament is attached to the lateral condyle of the femur and to the head of the fibula. It resists varus forces that are applied to the medial surface of the knee.
|
Lateral collateral ligament
|
|
This ligament attaches above the joint line on the medial condyle of the femur and inserts well below the joint line. It protects the knee from valgus forces that are applied to the lateral surface of the joint and resists external tibial rotation.
|
Medial collateral ligament
|
|
This ligament prevents the femur from translating posteriorly and the tibia from translating anteriorly as well as against excessive external rotation.
|
Anterior cruciate ligament
|
|
This ligament prevents the femur from sliding anteriorly and the tibia from translating posteriorly.
|
Posterior cruciate ligament
|
|
The medial and lateral ______ are fibrocartilage disks that are shaped like bowls, thicker on the outside border and thinner on the inside. They help cushion any stresses placed on the knee joint by keeping the bony surface of the femur separated from the tibial plateau.
|
meniscus
|
|
The _______ is located in the tendon of the quadriceps muscle group on the front of the knee and moves up and down in a groove between the two femoral condyles as the quadriceps muscle group contracts and relaxes.
|
patella
|
|
The knee is considered what type of joint?
|
hinge with some rotation at the tibia
|
|
Common sites for _______ fractures in the hip include where the sartorius muscle attaches to the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS), where the rectus femoris muscle attaches to the front anterior inferior iliac spine (AIIS) and where the hamstrings muscle group attaches to the ischial tuberosity.
|
avulsion
|
|
True/False The pelvis is an extremely strong structure, and fractures stemming from sports are rare.
|
True
|
|
Repetitive stress on the pubic symphysis and adjacent bony structures by the pull of muscles in the area creating a chronic inflammatory condition. Common is distance running.
|
Osteitis Pubis
|
|
Commonly known as a hip pointer and results from a blow to the inadequately protected iliac crest.
|
Iliac crest contusion
|
|
Unusual disorder of the adolescent hip in which the epiphysis (growing end) of the femur slips from the femoral head in a backward direction. This is due to weakness of the growth plate and most often develops during periods of accelerated growth, shortly after the onset of puberty. Found mostly in boys between the ages of ten and seventeen who are very tall and thin or are obese. The femoral head or proximal femoral epiphysis slips posterior and inferior relative to the femoral neck or femoral metaphysis.
|
Slipped capital femoral syndrome
|
|
Due to a loss of blood circulation in the articular head of the femur. Occurs in children ages three to twelve and in boys more often than girls. Because of a disruption of circulation to the head of the femur, the articular cartilage dies and becomes more flattened: avascular necrosis.
|
Legg-Perthes Disease (Coxa plana)
|
|
Depression between the thigh and the abdomen. Its muscles are responsible for adduction and internal rotation of the thigh.
|
groin
|
|
Groin ______ are likely to occur early in the season, particularly if the athlete has poor strength and flexibility in these muscles.
|
strains
|
|
Occurs when the sciatic nerve is compressed or irritated by tightness or spasm of the piriformis muscle
|
Piriformis syndrome
|
|
Herniated lumbar disc pressing on the sciatic nerve as it exits the lumbar spine.
|
Sciatica
|
|
Most often results from repetitive movements such as running or pivoting of the hip that cause degeneration and breakdown of the labrum. It may also be caused by an acute injury such as a dislocation.
|
Hip labral tear
|
|
True/False Hip dislocations rarely occur in sports but when they do the thigh is flexed, adducted and internally rotated.
|
True
|
|
May occur as the result of a violent twist, either produced through an impact force delivered by another participant or by forceful contact with another object or sustained in a situation in which the foot is firmly planted and the trunk is forced in an opposing direction. It is best revealed through the athlete's inability to circumduct the thigh. Symptoms are similar to a stress fracture.
|
Hip sprain
|
|
Stress fractures of the femur are more common on the (medial/lateral) side.
|
lateral
|
|
Where do acute femoral fractures occur most often?
|
Middle third of the shaft
|
|
(Indirect/Direct) impact of femur fractures produces extensive soft tissue injury with muscle lacerations, major internal bleeding, and muscle spasms.
|
Direct
|
|
True/False The quadriceps muscle has the highest incidence of strain.
|
False hamstrings
|
|
The hamstring muscle should have at least ___ to ____ percent of the strength of the opposing quadriceps muscle.
|
60-75
|
|
True/False In order of incidence in sports injury to the thigh, quadriceps contusions rank first and hamstring strains rank second.
|
True
|
|
A severe blow or repeated blows to the thigh, usually the quadriceps muscle, can cause ectopic bone formation within the muscle known as
|
myositis ossificans traumatica
|
|
True/False Massaging and attempting to run off a quadriceps muscle contusion will promote healing
|
False
|
|
Usually develop as the result of a severe impact on the relaxed thigh, compressing the muscle against the hard surface of the femur. Immediate action includes compression by an elastic bandage with the knee flexed to 120 degrees to minimize the loss of ROM. This places quads in a stretched position and also helps to compress the injured area.
|
Quadriceps contusions
|
|
This test indicates whether there is tightness in the hip flexors.
|
Thomas Test
|
|
This test is used to determine if there is tightness in the hip extensors.
|
Straight Leg Raises
|
|
The quadriceps muscles (extend/flex) the hip while the hamstring muscles (extend/flex) the hip.
|
flex
extend |
|
The (anterior/posterior) group of hip muscles includes the iliacus and psoas muscles which flex the thigh on the trunk.
|
anterior
|
|
The (anterior/posterior) group of hip muscles includes the tensor fascia latae and gluteus medius, which abduct the thigh; the gluteus maximus, which extends the thigh; and the six deep outward rotators: the piriformis, superior gemellus, inferior gemellus, obturator internus, obturator externus and quadratus femoris.
|
posterior
|
|
The (medial/lateral) muscles that adduct the thigh are the gracilis, pectineus, and the adductor magnus, longus and brevis.
|
medial
|
|
The femur and acetabulum is stabilized by what ligament?
|
iliofemoral ligament
|
|
The sacrum is joined to other parts of the pelvis through what joint?
|
sacroiliac joint
|
|
What bones make up the pelvis?
|
Ilium, ischium and pubis
|
|
Due to repeated compression of the femoral head on the acetabulum and occurs often in cyclists. Signs of injury include vague anterior hip and groin pain and pain with internal rotation.
|
Anterior Acetabular Impingement
|
|
Also known an coxa saltans. it is caused by chronic repetitive motions and common in dancers, cheerleaders, gymnasts and runners.
|
Snapping hip syndrome
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This can occur after an iliac crest contusion, or hip pointer. There is anterior and lateral thigh numbness and entrapment of the lateral cutaneous nerve.
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Meralgia Paresthetica
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What is the pes anserine? What muscles comprise this?
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Bursa between the tibia and hamstring muscle, biceps femoris, semitendinosus, semimembranosus
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