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207 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
Type 1 diabetes occurs as a result of |
the body's immune system attacking the insulin producing beta cells of the pancreas |
|
Type 2 diabetes mellitus consists of |
array of dysfunctions characterized by hyperglycemia and resulting from the combination of resistance to insulin action, inadequate insulin secretion, and excessive or inappropriate glucagon secretion |
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Which electrolyte does insulin transport in the cell? |
Potassium |
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A person with type 1 diabetes experiences hunger, lightheadedness, tachycardia, pallor, headache, and confusion. The most probable cause of these symptoms is: |
Hypoglycemia caused by increased exercise
|
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Insulin is a protein hormone that is lipid soluble. True or False |
False. Insulin is water soluble |
|
What is panhypopituitarism |
All hormones in the anterior pituitary gland are deficient and the individual suffers from multiple complications including cortisol deficiency from lack of ACTH, thyroid deficiency from lack of TSH, and loss of secondary sex characteristics from lack of FSH and LH. Low levels of growth hormone and insulin-like growth factor 1 affect growth in children and can cause physiologic and psychological symptoms in adults |
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What is the term used to describe a patient who experiences cortisol deficiency from lack of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), thyroid deficiency from lack of thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH), and gonadal failure with loss of secondary sex characteristics from the absence of follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH)? |
panhypopituitarism |
|
How does a primary adenoma cause thyroid and adrenal hypofunction? |
The tumor has a paradoxical effect on adjacent cells, which results in hyposecretion of other anterior pituitary hormones. |
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The term used to describe a person who experiences a lack of all hormones associated with the anterior pituitary is: |
Panhypopituitarism |
|
List the clinical manifestations of hypothyroidism |
Constipation, decreased heat rate, and lethargy |
|
myxedema is the result of |
the long-standing hyposecretion of TH |
|
Which thyroid condition results from pressure exerted by a pituitary tumor? |
Hypothyroidism |
|
A deficiency of which chemical may result in hypothyroidism? |
Iodine |
|
Diagnosing thyroid carcinoma is best done with: |
fine-needle aspiration biopsy |
|
what is diabetes insipidus |
an insufficiency of ADH, leading to polyuria and polydipsia |
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What is diabetes mellitus? |
group of metabolic diseases characterized by hyperglycemia resulting from defects in insulin secretion, insulin action or both. |
|
What is SIADH? |
characterized by high levels of ADH in the absence of normal physiologic stimuli for its release |
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Diabetes insipidus, diabetes mellitus, and syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone all exhibit which symptom? |
Thirst |
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The effects of the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) secretion include solute: |
Dilution and water retention |
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Which laboratory value would the nurse expect to find if a person is experiencing syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)? |
Serum sodium (Na+) level of 120 mEq/L and serum hypoosmolality |
|
What are the effects of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)? |
Solute dilution and water retention |
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The nurse is evaluating a patient with oat cell adenocarcinoma of the lung for syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which of the following laboratory values would the nurse expect to find if the patient had SIADH? |
Serum Na+ 120 and serum hypo-osmolality |
|
A patient with a closed head injury secondary to a motorcycle accident has a urine output of 6 to 8 L/day and electrolytes are within normal limits. The nurse draws a serum ADH level and conducts a water deprivation test. With no intake for 4 hours, there is no change in the patient’s polyuria. The serum ADH level is low. These are an indication of: |
neurogenic diabetes insipidus. |
|
An organic lesion of the posterior pituitary can cause |
diabetes insipidus (DI)? |
|
If the target cells for ADH do not have receptors, the result is _____ diabetes insipidus (DI). |
nephrogenic |
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Which urine laboratory value is consistent with diabetes insipidus (DI)? |
Urine specific gravity is low. |
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The type of diabetes insipidus that is most likely to be treatable with exogenous ADH is |
neurogenic |
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Under what circumstances does antidiuretic hormone act to cause vasoconstriction? |
When vasopressin is given pharmacologically |
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What causes the microvascular complications of clients with diabetes mellitus? |
The capillary basement membranes thicken and there is endothelial cell hyperplasia |
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Retinopathy develops in patients with diabetes mellitus because: |
Retinal ischemia and red blood cell aggregation occur |
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A chronic complication of diabetes mellitus is likely to result in microvascular complications in which of the following areas? |
Eyes, Renal System and Nerves
|
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Nephropathy is a chronic complication of diabetes mellitus is caused by ________. |
microvascular complications |
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What is the first lab test that indicates a patient with type 1 diabetes is developing nephropathy? |
Protein in the urinalysis |
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What causes the macrovascular complications of clients with diabetes mellitus? |
Fibrous plaques form from the proliferation of subendothelial smooth muscle of arteries. |
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What is a description of diabetes mellitus type 2? |
There is a resistance to insulin by insulin-sensitive tissues. |
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A patient with diabetes mellitus type 1 experiences hunger, lightheadedness, tachycardia, pallor, headache, and confusion. What is the most probable cause of these symptoms? |
Hypoglycemia caused by increased exercise |
|
Hypoglycemia followed by rebound hyperglycemia is seen in: |
the Somogyi effect. |
|
Why do patients with diabetes mellitus develop hyperlipidemia? |
Because they have increases in low density lipoproteins (LDL) and triglycerides (TG) |
|
Why does retinopathy develop in patients with type 2 diabetes? |
Because of increased retinal capillary permeability and microaneurysm formation |
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What is Neurogenic DI? |
most common, caused by insufficient amounts of ADH. Occurs when any organic lesion of the hypothalamus, pituitary stalk, or posterior pituitary interferes with ADH synthesis, transport or release |
|
What is Nephrogenic DI? |
associated with insensitivity of the renal collecting tubules to ADH. Can be genetic or acquired. It is idiopathic |
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What is Dipsogenic DI? |
occurs when excessive fluid intake lowers the plasma osmolarity to the point that it falls below the threshold for ADH secretion. May be associated with psych disorders |
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Diabetes insipidus is a result of hyposecretion of |
Antidiuretic hormone |
|
The common cause of elevated levels of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion is: |
Ectopically produced ADH |
|
A patient who is diagnosed with a closed head injury has a urine output of 6 to 8 L/day. Electrolytes are within normal limits, but his antidiuretic hormone (ADH) level is low. Although he has had no intake for 4 hours, no change in his polyuria level has occurred. These symptoms support a diagnosis of: |
Neurogenic diabetes insipidus |
|
The cause of neurogenic diabetes insipidus (DI) is related to an organic lesion of the: |
Posterior pituitary |
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Which form of diabetic insipidus (DI) will result if the target cells for antidiuretic hormone (ADH) in the renal collecting tubules demonstrate insensitivity? |
Nephrogenic |
|
What is Addison's disease? |
adrenocortical insufficiency due to the destruction or dysfunction of the entire adrenal cortex. |
|
What is Hypoparathyroidism? |
condition of parathyroid hormone (PTH) deficiency |
|
What is Secondary hypoparathyroidism?
|
a physiologic state in which PTH levels are low in response to a primary process that causes hypercalcemia |
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What is Primary hypoparathyroidism? |
is a syndrome resulting from iatrogenic causes or one of many rare diseases |
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The most probable cause of low serum calcium after a thyroidectomy is: |
Hypoparathyroidism caused by surgical injury |
|
What is the most common cause of hypoparathyroidism? |
Parathyroid gland damage |
|
An adult female had a thyroidectomy this morning. She develops muscle spasms, increased deep tendon reflexes, and laryngeal spasm. What is the most common cause of these findings? |
Calcium deficit due to reduced parathormone |
|
Target cells for parathyroid hormone (PTH) are located in the: |
tubules of nephrons. |
|
Renal failure is the most common cause of ___hyperparathyroidism. |
Secondary |
|
Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) results from |
dehydration during a state of relative insulin deficiency, associated with high blood levels of sugar level and organic acids called ketones |
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What is a difference in clinical manifestations between diabetic ketoacidosis and hyperglycemic, hyperosmolar non-ketosis syndrome? |
Kussmaul respirations (DKA only) |
|
A male patient with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) has the following laboratory values: arterial pH 7.20; serum glucose 500 mg/dl; urine glucose and ketones positive; serum K+ 2 mEq/L; serum Na+ 130 mEq/L. He reports that he has been sick with the “flu” for 1 week. What relationship do these values have to his insulin deficiency? |
Decreased glucose use causes fatty acid use, ketogenesis, metabolic acidosis, and osmotic diuresis. |
|
Which clinical finding occurs first in metabolic acidosis of the patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus? |
Ketones in the urine |
|
Why does hyperkalemia develop in diabetic ketoacidosis? |
Because hydrogen shifts into the cell in exchange for potassium to compensate for metabolic acidosis |
|
What is acromegaly? |
a hormonal disorder that develops when your pituitary gland produces too much growth hormone during adulthood |
|
Which disorder is considered a co-morbid condition of acromegaly? |
Diabetes |
|
Giantism occurs only in children and adolescents because their: |
Epiphyseal plates have not yet closed. |
|
Hyperpituitarism is generally caused by: |
a pituitary adenoma. |
|
Which disorder is caused by hypersecretion of the growth hormone in adults? |
Acromegaly |
|
Norepinephrine stimulates the release of which hormone? |
Growth hormone |
|
Graves’ disease is caused by |
hyperthyroidism |
|
The signs of thyrotoxic crisis include: |
Hyperthermia and tachycardia |
|
Palpation of the neck of a person diagnosed with Graves disease would detect a thyroid that is: |
Diffusely enlarged |
|
Which of the following is an expected change in TSH in an older patient? |
Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) secretion below normal |
|
How does Graves’ disease develop? |
A development of thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulins that causes overproduction of thyroid hormones |
|
What are signs of thyroid crisis from Graves’ disease? |
Hot and moist skin with protrusion of eyeballs |
|
What pathologic changes occur in Graves’ disease? |
High levels of circulating thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulins |
|
The level of TSH in Graves’ disease is usually: |
low |
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Which lab value would be expected for the patient with hypothyroidism? |
Increased thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) |
|
Polyuria occurs with diabetes mellitus because of the: |
Resistance to insulin by insulin-sensitive tissues |
|
Type 2 diabetes mellitus is best described as a(an): |
Resistance to insulin by insulin-sensitive tissues |
|
Chronic symptoms of diabetes are due to |
vascular damage from persistent hyperglycemia. Vascular damage leads to end-organ damage |
|
Hypoglycemia occurs when |
there is an excess of insulin in relation to the available glucose. |
|
A person diagnosed with type 1 diabetes experiences hunger, lightheadedness, tachycardia, pallor, headache, and confusion. The most probable cause of these symptoms is: |
Hypoglycemia caused by increased exercise |
|
Which serum glucose level would indicate hypoglycemia in a newborn? |
28 mg/dl |
|
Which classification of oral hypoglycemic drugs decreases hepatic glucose production and increases insulin sensitivity and peripheral glucose uptake? |
Biguanide (metformin) |
|
What is the metabolic syndrome? |
is a cluster of conditions — increased blood pressure, a high blood sugar level, excess body fat around the waist and abnormal cholesterol levels — that occur together |
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What are Diabetic neuropathies?
|
a family of nerve disorders caused by diabetes |
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Amenorrhea, galactorrhea, hirsutism, and osteoporosis are each caused by a: |
Prolactinoma |
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A person has acne, easy bruising, thin extremities, and truncal obesity. These clinical manifestations are indicative of which endocrine disorder? |
Cushing disease |
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A person may experience which complications as a result of a reduction in parathyroid hormone (PTH)? |
Muscle spasms Tonic-clonic seizures Laryngeal spasms Asphyxiation |
|
What is Pheochromocytoma? |
a tumor that causes hypersecretion of adrenal medulla hormones.
|
|
Addison disease is a result of |
hyposecretion of adrenal cortex hormones |
|
Trace the electrical activity of the heart |
SA node-Atria-AV node-Purkengie fibers-ventricles |
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The cardiac electrical impulse normally begins spontaneously in the sinoatrial (SA) node because: |
it depolarizes more rapidly than other automatic cells of the heart. |
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Where are the receptors for neurotransmitters located in the heart? |
Myocardium and coronary vessels |
|
What are Alpha receptors? |
Receptors which are stimulated by norepinephrine and blocked by agents such as phenoxybenzamine, are categorized into two classes, α1 and α2, which have different actions |
|
α1 adrenergic actions include: |
contraction of the iris, decreased motility in the intestine, and potassium and water secretions from the salivary glands |
|
α2 adrenergic receptors inhibit |
adenylate cyclase, rather than activating it |
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What are Beta receptors? |
receptors which are stimulated by epinephrine and blocked by agents such as propranolol, are also categorized into two types |
|
β1 adrenergic receptors produce |
lipolysis and cardiostimulation |
|
β2 adrenergic receptors produce |
bronchodilatation and vasodilatation |
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Within a physiologic range, an increase in left ventricular end-diastolic volume (preload) leads to a(n): |
increased force of contraction. |
|
Continuous increases in left ventricular filing pressures results in which disorder? |
Pulmonary edema |
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As stated by the Frank-Starling law, there is a direct relationship between the _____ of the blood in the heart at the end of diastole and the _____ of contraction during the next systole. |
volume; strength |
|
Frank-Starling law |
Length-tension relationship of cardiac muscle |
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How does angiotensin II increase the workload of the heart after a myocardial infarction? |
By increasing the peripheral vascular resistance |
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What factor is responsible for the hypertrophy of the myocardium associated with hypertension? |
Angiotensin II |
|
what is pulses paradoxus? |
the arterial blood pressure during expiration exceeds arterial pressure during inspiration by more than 10 mmHg |
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The pulsus paradoxus that occurs as a result of pericardial effusion is significant because it reflects the impairment of the |
diastolic filling pressures of the left ventricle and reduction of blood volume in all four heart chambers. |
|
What is the significance of pulsus paradoxus that occurs in a pericardial effusion? |
It reflects impairment of the diastolic filling pressures of the left ventricle and reduction of blood volume in all four heart chambers. |
|
What are the indicators for an acute myocardial infarction (AMI)? |
EKG, Troponin I (most specific), CPK-MB, and LDH. Additionally, leukocytosis, and elevated CRP-indicate inflammation. Elevated BG |
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An individual is demonstrating elevated levels of troponin, creatine kinase (CK), and lactic dehydrogenase (LDH). These elevated levels indicate: |
myocardial infarction. |
|
Ventricular remodeling is a result of: |
myocardial ischemia. |
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When scar tissue replaces the myocardium after a myocardial infarction (MI), the forming scar tissue is very mushy and vulnerable to injury at about day _____ after MI. |
10 to 14 |
|
Acute coronary syndrome usually occurs |
when an acute thrombus forms in an atherosclerotic coronary artery |
|
What is the expected electrocardiogram pattern for a patient when a thrombus in a coronary artery lodges permanently in the vessel and the infarction extends through the myocardium from the endocardium to the epicardium? |
ST elevation (STEMI) |
|
Most individuals with acute pericarditis describe |
several days of fever, myalgias, and malaise followed by the sudden onset of severe chest pain that worsens with respiratory movements and with lying down, dysphagia, restlessness, irritability, anxiety, and weakness. |
|
A patient complains of sudden onset of severe chest pain that radiates to the back and worsens with respiratory movement and when lying down. What is causing these clinical manifestations? |
Acute pericarditis |
|
Dilated cardiomyopathy causes |
decreased ejection fraction, increased end-diastolic and residual volumes, decreased ventricular stroke volume, and biventricular failure |
|
Biventricular dilation is the result of _____ cardiomyopathy. |
congestive |
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Which form of cardiomyopathy is characterized by ventricular dilation and grossly impaired systolic function, leading to dilated heart failure. |
Dilated |
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The hallmark of _____ cardiomyopathy is a disproportionate thickening of the interventricular septum. |
hypertrophic |
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What is the most common cardiac disorder associated with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) resulting from myocarditis and infective endocarditis? |
Dilated cardiomyopathy |
|
_____ cardiomyopathy is usually caused by an infiltrative disease of the myocardium, such as amyloidosis, hemochromatosis, or glycogen storage disease. |
Restrictive |
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What type of cardiomyopathy is usually caused by infiltrative disease, such as amyloidosis? |
Restrictive cardiomyopathy |
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What type of cardiomyopathy is usually caused by ischemic or valvular heart disease? |
Dilated cardiomyopathy |
|
What type of cardiomyopathy is usually seen in alcoholics? |
Dilated cardiomyopathy |
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What type of cardiomyopathy results in muscular subaortic stenosis? |
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy |
|
What type of cardiomyopathy may be an autosomal dominant disorder? |
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy |
|
Discuss the effect of HTN on the kidney |
Vasoconstriction and the resultant decreased renal perfusion cause tubular ischemia and preglomerular arteriopathy |
|
What pathologic change occurs to the kidney’s glomeruli as a result of hypertension? |
Ischemia of the tubule |
|
Aortic stenosis impairs |
flow from the left ventricle |
|
Aortic regurgitation causes? |
Backflow into left ventricle |
|
Mitral stenosis impairs |
flow from left atrium to left ventricle |
|
Tricuspid regurgitation causes? |
Backflow into right atrium |
|
Mitral regurgitation causes? |
Backflow into left atrium |
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What is the function of P cells found in the sinoatrial node and Purkinje fibers? |
They are assumed to be the site of impulse formation |
|
What, if any, is the effect of epinephrine on 2-receptors of the heart? |
Dilate coronary arterioles |
|
The Bainbridge reflex is thought to be initiated by sensory neurons in the: |
atria |
|
Phase 0 of the action potential of the myocardial cell consist of |
depolarization and lasts 1to 2 milliseconds and represents rapid sodium entry into the cell |
|
Phase 1 of the action potential of the myocardial cell consist of |
early repolarization, in which calcium slowly enters the cell. |
|
Phase 3 of the action potential of the myocardial cell consist of |
Potassium is moved out of the cell |
|
Phase 4 of the action potential of the myocardial cell consist of |
returns to resting membrane potential |
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Depolarization of a cardiac muscle cell occurs as the result of a: |
rapid movement of sodium into the cell. |
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What occurs during phase 1 of the normal myocardial cell depolarization and repolarization? |
Early repolarization when calcium slowly enters cells |
|
Phase 0 of the normal myocardial cell depolarization and repolarization correlates with which part of the electrocardiogram (EKG)? |
QRS complex |
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Which phase of the normal myocardial cell depolarization and repolarization correlates with diastole? |
Phase 4 |
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_____ nerves can shorten the conduction time of action potential through the atrioventricular (AV) node. |
Sympathetic |
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If the sinoatrial (SA) node fails, at what rate can the atrioventricular (AV) node polarize? |
40 to 60 per minute |
|
_____ secrete surfactant, a lipoprotein that coats the inner surface of the alveoli. |
Type II alveolar cells |
|
Changes in the alveoli that cause an increase in alveolar surface tension, alveolar collapse, and decreased lung expansion are a result of: |
decreased surfactant production |
|
Surfactant produced by type II pneumocytes facilitates alveolar distention and ventilation by: |
decreasing surface tension in alveoli. |
|
What is Pulmonary ventilation?
|
the main process by which air flows in and out of the lungs |
|
The relationship between arterial perfusion and alveolar gas pressure at the base of the lungs is best described as : |
Arterial perfusion pressure exceeds alveolar gas pressure |
|
Is pressure in the pleural space : above or below atmospheric pressure
|
below |
|
What part of the brainstem is responsible for automatic rhythm of respiration? |
the DRG, a cluster of inspiratory nerve cells located in the medulla that sends efferent impulses to the diaphragm and inspiratory intercostal muscles. |
|
Stretch receptors as well as peripheral chemoreceptors send afferent impulses regarding ventilation to the: |
Dorsal respiratory group in the medulla oblongata |
|
Which part of the brainstem provides basic automatic rhythm of respiration by sending efferent impulses to the diaphragm and intercostal muscles? |
Dorsal respiratory group (DRG) |
|
If a healthcare professional needs to determine the adequacy of ventilation, _____ must be performed to measure PaCO2. |
an arterial blood gas analysis |
|
The movement of gas and air into and out of the lungs is called: |
Ventilation |
|
The relationship between arterial perfusion and alveolar gas pressure at the base of the lungs is best described as: |
arterial perfusion pressure exceeds alveolar gas pressure. |
|
The adequacy of a person’s alveolar ventilation is assessed best by monitoring: |
arterial blood gas. |
|
Stretch receptors as well as peripheral chemoreceptors send afferent impulses regarding ventilation to the: |
dorsal respiratory group in the medulla oblongata medulla oblongata |
|
Dyspnea refers to |
the sensation of difficult or uncomfortable breathing |
|
Dyspnea is NOT a result of |
decreased blood flow to the medulla oblongata. |
|
Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (PND) is a result of: |
fluid in the lungs. |
|
Stretch receptors as well as peripheral chemoreceptors send afferent impulses regarding ventilation to the: |
dorsal respiratory group in the medulla oblongata. |
|
Beta2-adrenergic receptors are expressed on the airway smooth muscle where activation causes |
bronchodilation |
|
the narrowing of the airways in the lungs (bronchi and bronchioles) |
Bronchoconstriction |
|
Air flow in air passages can get restricted due to |
- a spasmodic state of the smooth muscles in bronchi and bronchioles- an inflammation of the airways- excessive production of mucus due to an allergic reaction or irritation caused by mechanical friction of air (due to shear stress), overcooling or drying of airways. |
|
Which endogenous substances cause bronchoconstriction? |
Histamine and prostaglandin |
|
a condition in which blood pressure in the arteries of the lungs (the pulmonary arteries) is abnormally high |
Pulmonary hypertension
|
|
Which of the following is the most important cause of pulmonary artery constriction |
Low alveolar PO2 |
|
What changes occur in the lung due to Asthma? |
Inflammatory mediators are produced in asthma including Histamine, prostaglandins and leukotrienes. These cause edema of the mucous lining of the airways, bronchoconstriction and stimulation of mucous production in response to a trigger |
|
What changes occur in the lung due to Emphysema? |
the loss of elastic recoil of the lung and destruction of the supporting structures of the alveolus |
|
What changes occur in the lung due to chronic bronchitis? |
change in the lining of the bronchus due to repeated infections and loss of ciliated epithelium and replacement with goblet cells and increased mucous production. |
|
Which immunoglobulin may contribute to the pathophysiology of asthma? |
IgE |
|
Clinical manifestations of inspiratory and expiratory wheezing, dyspnea, nonproductive cough, and tachypnea are indicative of: |
asthma. |
|
The most successful treatment for chronic asthma begins with: |
elimination of the causative agent |
|
The most common route of lower respiratory tract infection is: |
aspiration of oropharyngeal secretions |
|
_____ involves an abnormally enlarged gas-exchanged system and the destruction of alveolar walls. |
Emphysema |
|
Clinical manifestations that include unexplained weight loss, dyspnea on exertion, use of accessory muscles, and tachypnea with prolonged expiration are indicative of: |
. Emphysema |
|
Smoking contributes to emphysema by: |
reducing endogenous antiproteases. |
|
n tuberculosis, the body walls off the bacilli in a tubercle by stimulating: |
apoptotic infected macrophages that activate cytotoxic T cells |
|
Which type of pulmonary disease requires more force to expire a volume of air? |
obstructive |
|
The progression of chronic bronchitis is best halted by: |
smoking cessation |
|
Which bacteria become embedded in the airway secretions in chronic bronchitis? |
Haemophilus influenzae and Streptococcus |
|
Clinical manifestations of decreased exercise tolerance, wheezing, shortness of breath, and productive cough are indicative of: |
chronic bronchitis |
|
What are the risk factors for pulmonary emboli? |
the end result of a deep vein thrombosis or blood clot elsewhere in the body |
|
What is the usual source of pulmonary emboli? |
DVT |
|
List the changes in the aging lung |
Normal alterations include (1) loss of elastic recoil, (2) stiffening of the chest wall, (3) alterations in gas exchange, and (4) increases in flow resistance. |
|
Normal physiologic changes in the aging pulmonary system include: |
stiffening of the chest wall |
|
what types of anemias are classified as a macrocytic-normochromic anemia? |
Percutaneous anemia and folate deficiency anemia |
|
Removing the stomach with its parietal cells would prevent the absorption of an essential nutrient necessary to prevent which type of anemia? |
Pernicious anemia |
|
What causes the paresthesia that occurs in vitamin b12 deficiency anemia? |
Vitamin B12 (cobalamin) plays an important role in DNA synthesis and neurologic function. |
|
_____ is used to correct the chronic anemia associated with chronic renal failure. |
Erythropoietin |
|
Deficiencies in folate and vitamin b12 alter the synthesis of which cell component? |
nuclear maturation and DNA synthesis |
|
Which nutrients are necessary for the synthesis of DNA and maturation of erythrocytes? |
Cobalamin (vitamin B12) and folate |
|
What type of anemia has a defective secretion of intrinsic factor, which is essential for the absorption of vitamin b12? |
Pernicious anemia |
|
Plasmin’s role in the clotting process is to: |
degrade the fibrin within blood clots |
|
Two important characteristics that allow erythrocytes to function as gas carriers are: |
reversible deformability and biconcavity. |
|
Which blood cells are produced when stem cells are stimulated by granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF)? |
Neutrophils |
|
The drug heparin acts in hemostasis by: |
inhibiting thrombin and AT-III. |
|
Which nutrients are necessary for hemoglobin synthesis? |
Iron and vitamin B6 (pyridoxine) |
|
Recycling of iron from erythrocytes is made possible by: |
transferrin. |
|
Mature erythrocytes are removed from the bloodstream by the: |
Spleen |
|
What is the life span of an erythrocyte? |
100 to 120 days |
|
Erythrocytes change shape to squeeze through
|
microcirculation |
|
_____ is used to correct the chronic anemia associated with chronic renal failure. |
Erythropoietin |