Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
741 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
What FM covers Physical Fitness Training?
|
FM 21-20
|
|
What are the three phases of physical conditioning?
|
Preparatory
Conditioning Maintenance |
|
About how long is the preparatory phase?
|
2 weeks
|
|
About how long is the conditioning phase?
|
The conditioning phase ends when a soldier is physically mission-capable and all personal, strength-related goals and unit-fitness goals have been met.
|
|
What is a MFT?
|
Master Fitness Trainer. A Master Fitness Trainer (MFT) is a soldier who has completed either the four-week active-component, two week reserve-component, or U.S. Military Academy’s MFT course work. Although called “masters,” MFTs are simply soldiers who know about all aspects of physical fitness training and how soldiers’ bodies function. Most importantly, since MFTs are taught to design individual and unit programs, they should be used by commanders as special staff assistants for this purpose.
|
|
What does FITT stand for?
|
Frequency, Intensity, Time, and Type (this acronym makes it easy to remember the key factors in the training program)
|
|
What is Da Form 3349?
|
Physical profile form
|
|
What is the objective of physical fitness training?
|
To enhance soldiers’ abilities to meet the physical demands of war.
|
|
What are the three periods of a normal daily exercise routine?
|
Warm-up
Conditioning Cool-down |
|
What are the commands to get a unit from a normal line formation into an extended rectangular formation?
|
Extend to the left, march
Arms downward, move Left, Face Extend to the left, march Arms downward, move Right, face From front to rear, count off Even numbers to the left, uncover |
|
What AR covers the Army Physical Fitness Program?
|
AR 350-1 Chapter 1 Section 24
|
|
Soldiers 55 years of age or older have the option of taking the 3 event APFT or what?
|
The alternate APFT. An alternate APFT is defined as push–ups, sit–ups and an alternate aerobic event (2.5–mile walk, 800–yard swim, or 6.2–mile bicycle ride).
|
|
What are the seven basic principles of exercise?
|
Regularity
Progression Overload Balance Specificity Variety Recovery |
|
What are the three phases of fitness conditioning?
|
Preparatory
Conditioning Maintenance |
|
What are the five components of physical fitness?
|
Cardio Respiratory Endurance
Muscular Strength Muscular Endurance Flexibility Body Composition |
|
How many scorers should be supplied for the APFT?
|
A minimum of 1 per every 15 soldiers
|
|
What is the DA form 705?
|
Physical Readiness Test Scorecard
|
|
Fitness tasks provide the framework for accomplishing all training requirements. The essential elements of fitness tasks can be cataloged into what four groups?
|
Collective Tasks
Individual Tasks Leader Tasks Resources required for training |
|
Name the two physical fitness formations?
|
Extended Rectangular
Circular |
|
What is the Field Manual for map reading and land navigation?
|
FM 3-25.26
|
|
What are the basic colors of a map, and what does each color represent?
|
Black - Indicates cultural (man-made) features such as buildings and roads, surveyed spot elevations, and all labels.
Red-Brown - The colors red and brown are combined to identify cultural features, all relief features, non-surveyed spot elevations, and elevation, such as contour lines on red-light readable maps. Blue - Identifies hydrography or water features such as lakes, swamps, rivers, and drainage. Green - Identifies vegetation with military significance, such as woods, orchards, and vineyards. Brown - Identifies all relief features and elevation, such as contours on older edition maps, and cultivated land on red-light readable maps. Red - Classifies cultural features, such as populated areas, main roads, and boundaries, on older maps. Other - Occasionally other colors may be used to show special information. These are indicated in the marginal information as a rule. |
|
What are military symbols?
|
Figures used to represent types of military organizations, installations, and activities
|
|
Where is the Legend of the map found?
|
Lower left margin
|
|
What are contour lines?
|
Imaginary lines on the ground connecting equal elevation, they represent high and low ground elevation.
|
|
What are 3 types of contour lines?
|
Index
Intermediate Supplementary |
|
How many Mils are in one Degree?
|
17.7 mils
|
|
How many Norths are there on a military map?
|
Three;
True north Magnetic north Grid north |
|
What shape are the contour lines that indicate a hill?
|
A hill is shown on a map by contour lines forming concentric circles. The inside of the smallest closed circle is the hilltop.
|
|
What shape are the contour lines that indicate a saddle?
|
A saddle is normally represented as an hourglass
|
|
What shape are the contour lines that indicate a valley?
|
Contour lines forming a valley are either U-shaped or V-shaped.
|
|
What shape are the contour lines that indicate a Ridge?
|
Contour lines forming a ridge tend to be U-shaped or V-shaped. The closed end of the contour line points away from high ground.
|
|
What shape are the contour lines that indicate a depression?
|
Usually only depressions that are equal to or greater than the contour interval will be shown. On maps, depressions are represented by closed contour lines that have tick marks pointing toward low ground.
|
|
What shape are the contour lines that indicate a draw?
|
The contour lines depicting a draw are U-shaped or V-shaped, pointing toward high ground.
|
|
What shape are the contour lines that indicate a spur?
|
Contour lines on a map depict a spur with the U or V pointing away from high ground.
|
|
What shape are the contour lines that indicate a cliff?
|
Cliffs are also shown by contour lines very close together and, in some instances, touching each other.
|
|
What shape are the contour lines that indicate a cut?
|
This contour line extends the length of the cut and has tick marks that extend from the cut line to the roadbed, if the map scale permits this level of detail.
|
|
What shape are the contour lines that indicate a fill?
|
This contour line extends the length of the filled area and has tick marks that point toward lower ground. If the map scale permits, the length of the fill tick marks are drawn to scale and extend from the base line of the fill symbol.
|
|
What must be done to a map before it can be used?
|
It must be oriented.
|
|
What are 5 major terrain features found on a map?
|
Hill
Ridge Valley Saddle Depression |
|
What are the 3 minor terrain features found on a military map?
|
Draw
Spur Cliff |
|
What are the 2 supplementary terrain features found on a military map?
|
Cut
Fill |
|
What is a map?
|
A map is a graphic representation of a portion of the earth’s surface drawn to scale, as seen from above.
|
|
What is an azimuth?
|
A horizontal angle, measured in a clockwise manner from a north base line, expressing direction.
|
|
What is vertical distance?
|
The distance between the highest and lowest points measured.
|
|
What is a contour interval?
|
The vertical distance between adjacent contour lines on a map.
|
|
What is the distance between grid lines on a combat map?
|
1 kilometer or 1000 meters
|
|
How many mils are there in a circle?
|
6400 mils in 360 degrees
|
|
Which north is used when using a military map?
|
Magnetic north when using a compass, and grid north when using the map
|
|
How would you hold a lensatic compass?
|
Away from metal (weapons, electrical devices), level and firm
|
|
Name two ways to hold a compass?
|
Compass-to-Cheek Method
Center-Hold Method |
|
Are topographic symbols drawn to scale?
|
No
|
|
What do topographic symbols represent?
|
Man-made and natural features
|
|
In military symbols, what colors are used for a map overlay and what do they represent?
|
Blue- Friendly forces
Red-Enemy forces Black- boundaries Yellow-contaminated area both friendly and enemy Green- engineer obstacles, both friendly and enemy |
|
What is Back Azimuth?
|
The opposite direction of an azimuth.
|
|
How do you figure out a back azimuth?
|
To obtain a back azimuth from an azimuth, add 180 degrees if the azimuth is 180 degrees or less; subtract 180 degrees if the azimuth is 180 degrees or more
|
|
What is a declination diagram?
|
Shows the angular relationship between the magnetic north, grid north and true north
|
|
What is the general rule for reading military grid coordinates?
|
Right and UP
|
|
How many sights does a compass have?
|
2
|
|
What is a benchmark?
|
A man-made marker showing points of elevation
|
|
What are parallels of latitude?
|
Measured distances going north or south of the equator
|
|
What is an aerial photograph?
|
An aerial photograph is any photograph taken from an airborne vehicle (aircraft, drones, balloons, satellites, and so forth)
|
|
What does UTM stand for?
|
Universal Transverse Mercator
|
|
The lensatic compass has a bezel ring; each bezel ring click is equal to how many degrees?
|
3
|
|
How many times would the bezel ring click if it were fully rotated?
|
120
|
|
Large cities on a map are represented by what color?
|
Black
|
|
Name two ways to orient a map?
|
Use a compass and terrain association
|
|
What is the Field Manual for Operational Terms and Graphics?
|
FM 1-02
|
|
The arrow on a compass always points what direction?
|
Magnetic north
|
|
What does the term FLOT mean?
|
Forward Line Of Troops
|
|
What are the alternate colors on a map and what do they mean?
|
Gray- alternate color for brown, Yellow- built up areas, and Pink- political boundaries
|
|
What is longitude?
|
Imaginary lines that run north to south originating in Greenwich, England and measured in degrees
|
|
What s a topographic map?
|
Portrays terrain and land forms in a measurable way as well as horizontal features of the positions represented
|
|
What is a small-scale map?
|
Those maps with scales of 1:1,000,000 and smaller are used for general planning and for strategic studies. The standard small-scale map is 1:1,000,000. This map covers a very large land area at the expense of detail.
|
|
What is a medium-scale map?
|
Those maps with scales larger than 1:1,000,000 but smaller than 1:75,000 are used for operational planning. They contain a moderate amount of detail, but terrain analysis is best done with the large-scale maps described below. The standard medium-scale map is 1:250,000. Medium scale maps of 1:100,000 are also frequently encountered.
|
|
What is a large-scale map?
|
Those maps with scales of 1:75,000 and larger are used for tactical, administrative, and logistical planning. These are the maps that you as a soldier or junior leader are most likely to encounter. The standard large-scale map is 1:50,000; however, many areas have been mapped at a scale of 1:25,000.
|
|
What does the term intersection mean?
|
Finding the location of an unknown point by sighting two or more known points
|
|
Why is a map so important?
|
When used correctly, a map can give you accurate distances, locations and heights, best routes key terrain features and cover and concealment information.
|
|
What does the term resection mean?
|
Resection is the method of locating one’s position on a map by determining the grid azimuth to at least two well-defined locations that can be pinpointed on the map.
|
|
If you find a symbol on a map that is unknown to you, where would you look?
|
The marginal data, located on the outside lower portion of the map
|
|
How many scales are there on a compass, what are they?
|
There are two;
Degrees Mils |
|
What are the 4 quadrants on a map?
|
Northeast
Southeast Northwest Southwest |
|
What are the three elements for a land navigation process known as Dead Reckoning?
|
Known starting point
Known distance Known azimuth |
|
What is the feature that makes the lensatic compass work well at night?
|
The dials and needles are luminous
|
|
What is a polar coordinate?
|
Plotting or locating an unknown point using an azimuth and a distance from a known starting point
|
|
What is the name of the map system that the U.S. uses?
|
UTM
|
|
On a lensatic compass there are two rings, an outer black ring and an inner red ring, what are they used for?
|
The inner red ring is used to find degrees, and the outer black ring is used to find mils
|
|
Name 3 field expedient methods of determining direction
|
The shadow-tip method, the watch method, and the North Star method
|
|
What is a contour level?
|
It is the vertical distance between contour lines. The amount of the contour level is located in the Marginal Information on the map.
|
|
The border line around the edge of the map is called the what?
|
Neat Line
|
|
Name the different slopes found on a map.
|
Gentle
Steep Concave Convex |
|
You must find at least how many known locations on a map and the actual ground in order to plot your location accurately?
|
At least 2
|
|
What are the three main map sizes?
|
Small
Medium Large |
|
What are two methods of measuring an azimuth?
|
Compass and a protractor
|
|
How close will an eight-digit grid get you to your point?
|
10 meters
|
|
How close will a six-digit grid coordinate get you to your point?
|
100 meters
|
|
What would you use on a map to measure actual ground distance?
|
The bar scale
|
|
What FM covers first aid for soldiers?
|
FM 4-25.11
|
|
What is Self Aid?
|
Emergency treatment one applies to oneself
|
|
Name some items that you might use as a splint from your military equipment
|
Bayonet
Rifle Entrenching tool Tent poles and stakes Web belt |
|
What is the quickest way to splint a broken leg?
|
Tie the broken leg securely to the unbroken leg
|
|
How many pressure points, which can be used to control bleeding with fingers, thumbs or hands are there on the human body?
|
11
|
|
What is the object of first aid?
|
To stop bleeding
Overcome shock Relieve pain Prevent infection |
|
What is First Aid?
|
It is the first care given to casualties before treatment by medical personnel can be made available
|
|
What is the unique feature of type "O" blood?
|
It is a universal donor
|
|
When would you not remove a casualties clothing to expose a wound?
|
If in a chemical environment or if the clothing is stuck to the wound
|
|
What soldiers are most likely to suffer heat injuries?
|
Soldiers not accustomed to the heat, overweight soldiers, prior heat casualties, and soldiers already dehydrated due to alcohol use, diarrhea, or lack of water (insufficient use of)
|
|
How high should an injured limb be elevated above the heart to control bleeding?
|
2 to 4 inches
|
|
What are the lifesaving steps? (The ABC's of medical treatment)
|
Open the airway and restore breathing
Stop the bleeding / Protect the wound Prevent shock |
|
When applying splint, where should the bandages be tied?
|
The bandages should be tied with knots against the splint
|
|
Whose first aid dressing should be used on a casualty?
|
Use the casualty’s field dressing.
|
|
How should the ends of an improved pressure dressing be tied?
|
Tie the ends together in a nonslip knot, directly over the wound site. DO NOT tie so tightly that it has a tourniquet-like effect.
|
|
What is manual pressure?
|
If bleeding continues after applying the sterile field dressing, direct manual pressure may be used to help control bleeding. Apply such pressure by placing a hand on the dressing and exerting firm pressure for 5 to 10 minutes. The casualty may be asked to do this himself if he is conscious and can follow instructions.
|
|
Should a casualty be given water to drink?
|
He should not eat or drink
|
|
Why should you dress and bandage the wound as soon as possible?
|
To protect the wound from further contamination of germs, and also to control the bleeding
|
|
What should you do to indicate that a casualty has received a tourniquet?
|
Mark his or her forehead with a T and if possible, note the time of the application of the tourniquet
|
|
Should you ever remove or loosen a tourniquet?
|
No, only qualified medical personnel can do that
|
|
Where is a tourniquet applied?
|
Place the tourniquet around the limb, between the wound and the body trunk (or between the wound and the heart). Never place it directly over a wound, a fracture, or joint. Tourniquets, for maximum effectiveness, should be placed on the upper arm or above the knee on the thigh.
|
|
How can you prevent athlete's foot?
|
Keep your feet clean, use foot powder and change socks daily
|
|
Name 3 categories of heat injuries
|
Heat cramps
Heat exhaustion Heat stroke |
|
What are the signs and symptoms of heat cramps?
|
Cramping in the extremities (arms and legs)
Abdominal Cramps (stomach) Excessive Sweating |
|
What is the treatment for heat cramps?
|
Move the casualty to a cool, shady area or improvise shade if none is available.
Loosen his clothing (if not in a chemical environment) In a chemical environment, transport the heat casualty to a noncontaminated area as soon as the mission permits. Have him slowly drink at least one canteen full of water. (The body absorbs cool water faster than warm or cold water; therefore, cool water is preferred if it is available.) Seek medical assistance should cramps continue. |
|
What are the signs and symptoms of heat exhaustion?
|
Excessive sweating with pale, moist, cool skin
Headache Weakness Dizziness Loss of appetite Cramping Nausea (with or without vomiting) Urge to defecate Chills (Gooseflesh) Rapid Breathing Tingling of Hands/Feet Confusion |
|
What would the treatment be for heat exhaustion?
|
Move the casualty to a cool, shady area or improvise shade if none is available.
Loosen or remove his clothing and boots (unless in a chemical environment); pour water on him and fan him. Have him slowly drink at least one canteen of water. Elevate his legs. If possible, the casualty should not participate in strenuous activity for the remainder of the day. Monitor the casualty until the symptoms are gone, or medical assistance arrives. |
|
What are the signs and symptoms of heat stroke?
|
Skin is red, hot and dry
Weakness Dizziness Confusion Headaches Seizures Nausea Stomach pains or cramps Respiration and pulse may be rapid and weak. Unconsciousness and collapse may occur suddenly. |
|
What would the treatment be for heat stroke?
|
Cool casualty immediately by—
Moving him to a cool, shady area or improvising shade if none is available. Loosening or removing his clothing (except in a chemical environment). Spraying or pouring water on him; fanning him to permit the coolant effect of evaporation. Massaging his extremities and skin, which increases the blood flow to those body areas, thus aiding the cooling process. Elevating his legs. Having him slowly drink at least one canteen full of water if he is conscious. Seek medical assistance immediately |
|
If a casualty were suspected of having a neck/spinal injury or severe head trauma, which method would you use for opening an airway?
|
The jaw thrust technique, because in most cases it can be done without extending the neck
|
|
What are two basic types of fractures?
|
Open (compound)
Closed (simple) |
|
What are some signs of an open fracture?
|
Bleeding.
Bones sticking through the skin. Check for pulse. |
|
What are some signs of a closed fracture?
|
Swelling.
Discoloration. Deformity. Unusual body position. Check for pulse. |
|
With an open fracture, what should you do first?
|
Stop the bleeding
|
|
What is the basic proven principle in splinting fractures?
|
"Splint them where they lie"
|
|
How tight should tourniquet be?
|
Tightened until the bright red bleeding has stopped.
|
|
What are the three types of bleeding?
|
Arterial- Blood is bright red and will spurt with each heart beat
Venous- Blood is dark red and flows in a steady stream Capillary- Blood oozes from the wound |
|
Name 4 common points for checking pulse
|
Carotid- The side of the neck
Femoral- The groin Radial- The wrist Posterial Tibial- Ankle |
|
What are some signs/symptoms of shock?
|
Clammy skin (cool, pale and damp)
Restlessness and nervousness Thirst Loss of blood Confusion Fast breathing Nausea or vomiting Blotched or bluish skin (especially around the mouth and lips) Often perspires freely May pass out. |
|
What is the treatment for shock?
|
“P.E.L.C.R.N.” (Pronounced Pell-Crin)
Position the casualty on their back Elevate the Legs Loosen clothing at neck waist or wherever it is binding Climatize (prevent too hot or too cold) Reassure (keep the casualty calm) Notify medical personnel (Help, Get a medic!!) |
|
What is a heat injury?
|
A loss of water and salt, loss of sweat while personnel work in the heat, a general dehydration of the body
|
|
What is the greatest preventive measure for disease?
|
Cleanliness
|
|
How do you stop bleeding?
|
Apply a field dressing
Manual pressure Elevate the limb Apply a pressure dressing Digital Pressure Apply a tourniquet |
|
What is CPR?
|
Cardiopulmonary resuscitation, it is used to restore a heart beat
|
|
When can measures taken to restore breathing in an individual be discontinued?
|
When a doctor tells you to stop
When others relieve you When you cannot physically continue When the casualty starts to breath on his own |
|
What is AIDS?
|
AIDS is the end stage of the HIV infection. At this point, the virus has attacked and weakened a person's immune system
|
|
Name two types of rescue breathing
|
Mouth to mouth
Mouth to nose |
|
What do the letters AIDS stand for?
|
Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome
|
|
When should a casualty not be placed in the shock position?
|
When the casualty has a:
Head injury Abdominal wound Fractured (unsplinted) leg |
|
How long is direct manual pressure applied to control bleeding?
|
5 to 10 minutes
|
|
What should you do prior to leaving an unconscious casualty?
|
Turn their head to the side to prevent them from choking on their own vomit
|
|
When should a tourniquet be used to stop bleeding?
|
As a last resort when everything else has failed or when an arm or leg has been severed off
|
|
What does COLD stand for?
|
It is a key word in cold weather protection, it stands for Keep it CLEAN, Avoid OVERHEATING, Wear it LOOSE and in layers and Keep it DRY
|
|
What are the 8 steps in evaluating a casualty?
|
Responsiveness
Breathing Pulse Bleeding Shock Fractures Burns Possible concussions (head injuries) |
|
What is the first indication of frostbite?
|
Skin becomes numb and white particles/patches form on it
|
|
What do you do to treat frostbite?
|
Remove clothing from the affected area, warm with body heat, dress the area and seek additional medical help
|
|
When should an airtight dressing be applied to a sucking chest wound?
|
As the individual breathes out
|
|
How should you position a casualty with an open abdominal wound?
|
On his back with his knees up to relieve abdominal pressure
|
|
What do you do with exposed abdominal organs?
|
Wrap them in dry clean material and place on top of the abdomen (never try to put them back in)
|
|
How do you take the Carotid pulse?
|
Carotid pulse. To check the carotid pulse, feel for a pulse on the side of the casualty’s neck closest to you. This is done by placing the tips of your first two fingers beside his Adam’s apple.
|
|
In reference to carrying a casualty, what are the two-man methods?
|
Two-Man Support Carry
Two-Man Arms Carry Two-Man Fore-and Aft-Carry Four-Hand Seat Carry Two-Hand Seat Carry |
|
In reference to carrying a casualty, what are the one-man methods?
|
Fireman's carry
Supporting carry Arms Carry Saddleback carry Pack-strap carry Pistol belt carry Pistol belt drag Neck drag LBE Carry Using Bearers LBE LBE Carry Using Casualty’s LBE Cradle Drop Drag |
|
Should you put any medication or cream on a burn?
|
No
|
|
Name the four types of burns
|
Thermal
Electrical Chemical Laser |
|
What is the primary objective in the treatment of burns?
|
Lessen or prevent shock and infection
|
|
What are the three categories used in medical evacuation?
|
Urgent- within 2 hours
Priority- within 4 hours Routine- within 24 hours |
|
What is the first aid procedure for a white phosphorous casualty?
|
Smother the flame by submerging the affected area in water or pack with mud. Then remove the particles by brushing or picking them out
|
|
What is the first step in the first aid of a burn victim?
|
Remove the casualty from the source of the burn
|
|
What are the 2 prescribed methods for opening an airway?
|
The jaw thrust
Head tilt/chin lift methods |
|
What is the major cause of tooth decay and gum disease?
|
Dental plaque
|
|
What are the 9 mild symptoms of nerve agent poisoning?
|
Unexplained runny nose
Unexplained headache Sudden drooling Difficulty seeing (dimness of vision and miosis) Tightness in the chest or difficulty in breathing Localized sweating and muscular twitching in the area of contaminated skin Stomach cramps Nausea Tachycardia followed by bradycardia (Tachycardia is an abnormally rapid heartbeat wth a heart rate of over 100 beats per minute. Bradycardia is a slow heart rate of less than 60 beats per minute) |
|
What are the 11 severe symptoms of nerve agent poisoning?
|
Strange or confused behavior.
Wheezing, dyspnea (difficulty in breathing), and coughing. Severely pinpointed pupils. Red eyes with tearing. Vomiting. Severe muscular twitching and general weakness. Involuntary urination and defecation. Convulsions. Unconsciousness. Respiratory failure. Bradycardia. |
|
What are the five levels of MOPP?
|
MOPP 0
IPE and Field Available for immediate donning Protective mask w/ filter and hood installed available MOPP 1 Overgarment and Field Gear worn Footwear covers, mask and gloves carried MOPP 2 Overgarment, Field Gear, Footwear covers worn Mask and Gloves carried MOPP 3 Overgarment, Mask and Hood, Field Gear and Overboots worn Gloves carried MOPP 4 Overgarment, Mask and Hood, Field Gear, Fotwear covers and Gloves wrn |
|
What does JSLIST stand for?
|
Joint Service Lightweight Integrated Suit Technology
|
|
What does MOPP stand for?
|
Mission Oriented Protective Posture
|
|
When under an NBC attack, when do you give warning?
|
You are here: home > study guide topics > cbrn > c.b.r.n. study guide
C.B.R.N. Study Guide C.B.R.N. Army Board Study Guide Posted Sunday, June 25, 2006 What are the five levels of MOPP? MOPP 0 IPE and Field Available for immediate donning Protective mask w/ filter and hood installed available MOPP 1 Overgarment and Field Gear worn Footwear covers, mask and gloves carried MOPP 2 Overgarment, Field Gear, Footwear covers worn Mask and Gloves carried MOPP 3 Overgarment, Mask and Hood, Field Gear and Overboots worn Gloves carried MOPP 4 Overgarment, Mask and Hood, Field Gear, Fotwear covers and Gloves wrn What does JSLIST stand for? Joint Service Lightweight Integrated Suit Technology What does MOPP stand for? Mission Oriented Protective Posture When under an NBC attack, when do you give warning? After you mask |
|
What are the proper masking procedures?
|
Stop breathing and close your eyes, don protective mask, clear mask, check the seal of the mask, sound the alarm to alert others, and continue the mission
|
|
What does C.B.R.N. stand for?
|
Chemical, Biological, Radiological and Nuclear
|
|
NBC hazards are classified into two types, what are they?
|
Immediate hazards- produce casualties immediately after attack
Residual hazards- Delayed effects |
|
What will replace the Nerve Agent Antidote Kit (NAAK) based on shelf life expiration dates?
|
The Antidote Treatment, Nerve Agent Autoinjector (ATNAA)
|
|
What is the number of Antidote Treatment Nerve Agent Autoinjector (ATNAA) that must be given as immediate first aid treatment for nerve agent poisoning?
|
3
|
|
What is the number of Nerve Agent Antidote Kits (NAAK) that must be given as immediate first aid treatment for nerve agent poisoning?
|
3
|
|
Alarms and signals convey warnings of NBC contamination. Units use easily recognizable and reliable alarm methods to respond quickly and correctly to NBC hazards. What are three types of alarms and signals?
|
Audible Alarms
Automatic Alarms Visual Signals |
|
What Field Manual covers NBC Operations?
|
FM 3-11
|
|
What Field Manual covers NBC Protection?
|
FM 3-11.4
|
|
What Field Manual covers NBC Decontamination?
|
FM 3-5
|
|
What is FM 3-7?
|
NBC Handbook
|
|
What forms do Chemical Agents come in?
|
Vapors
Solids Liquids Gases |
|
Soldiers in MOPP 4 may lose how much water per hour through perspiration?
|
1 quart or more
|
|
When fitting the protective mask, in what sequence should the straps be tightened?
|
Forehead straps
Cheek straps Temple straps |
|
Which of the NBC reports is most widely used?
|
NBC 1
|
|
What are the three types of procedures for MOPP gear exchange?
|
Buddy Team
Triple Buddy Individual |
|
What are three fundamentals of NBC defense?
|
Avoid contamination
Protection Decontamination |
|
How long should you apply pressure when using the Auto injector?
|
10 seconds
|
|
What do you do with the Auto injector after injecting?
|
Stick it through the pocket flap (upper left) so that you do not lose count and so that someone that happens to come across the casualty will know that they have already been given X amount of injections and will not give them more than needed.
|
|
The protective mask will not protect against what two types of gases?
|
Ammonia vapors or carbon monoxide
|
|
When giving Buddy Aid, whose auto injectors would you use?
|
The other person (the person's auto injectors that is receiving the medication)
|
|
When giving Buddy Aid, how long should you wait if still experiencing the symptoms of Nerve agent, to administer a second nerve agent antidote (MK1)?
|
Immediately give the second and third
|
|
When giving Self Aid, how long should you wait if still experiencing the symptoms of a Nerve Agent before administering a second MK1?
|
Wait 10 to 15 minutes; also wait 10 to 15 minutes between 2nd and 3rd
|
|
Once a unit has masked, who can make the decision to unmask?
|
The unit commander
|
|
What is the shape of the contamination markers?
|
Triangle
|
|
What type of attack does an M22 ACADA alarm warn you of?
|
Chemical (ACADA = Automatic Chemical Agent Detection Alarm)
|
|
What are the three levels of Decontamination?
|
Immediate
Operational Thorough |
|
How often should you check your protective mask during peacetime?
|
Before, during and after training events, monthly, and semi-annually. (refer to TM 3-4240-339-10 and 20&P manuals) The minumum is MONTHLY...
|
|
What are the dimensions of an NBC marker?
|
11 1/2 inches on the top by 8 inches on either side
|
|
What are the 9 mild symptoms of nerve agent poisoning?
|
Unexplained runny nose
Unexplained headache Sudden drooling Difficulty seeing (dimness of vision and miosis) Tightness in the chest or difficulty in breathing Localized sweating and muscular twitching in the area of contaminated skin Stomach cramps Nausea Tachycardia followed by bradycardia (Tachycardia is an abnormally rapid heartbeat wth a heart rate of over 100 beats per minute. Bradycardia is a slow heart rate of less than 60 beats per minute) |
|
What are the 11 severe symptoms of nerve agent poisoning?
|
Strange or confused behavior.
Wheezing, dyspnea (difficulty in breathing), and coughing. Severely pinpointed pupils. Red eyes with tearing. Vomiting. Severe muscular twitching and general weakness. Involuntary urination and defecation. Convulsions. Unconsciousness. Respiratory failure. Bradycardia. |
|
When crossing a contaminated area, what 2 things should you avoid doing?
|
Stirring up dust and touching anything
|
|
Of these 3, Nerve, Blood, and Blister agents, which causes the most casualties?
|
Nerve agents
|
|
How should an area that is suspected of contamination be crossed?
|
Quickly, avoiding depressions and vegetation
|
|
What are the 3 effects of a nuclear explosion?
|
Blast
Heat Radiation |
|
What is the color of a Nuclear (radiological) contamination marker?
|
White background with ATOM in black letters
|
|
What is the current U.S. policy regarding the use of Nuclear assets?
|
Last Resort, will use first only if necessary
|
|
What are Flash Burns?
|
Direct burns produced by the flash of thermal radiation from the fireball
|
|
What causes the most casualties in a nuclear attack?
|
The initial blast and the heat of detonation
|
|
What is the difference between Dose Rate and Total Dose?
|
Dose Rate is the amount of radiation per hour; Total Dose is the actual accumulation
|
|
Who has the authority to order the use of nuclear weapons?
|
Only the President of the U.S.
|
|
What are the 3 types of nuclear bursts?
|
Air
Ground Subsurface |
|
What does an AN VDR-2 detect and measure?
|
The AN VDR-2 detects and measures nuclear radiation from fallout and radioisotopes.
|
|
An NBC-1 report is used to determine what?
|
The initial detection of NBC weapons usage by the enemy
|
|
What FM covers Nuclear Contamination Avoidance?
|
FM 3-11.3
|
|
For maximum radiation effect, which nuclear burst would you use?
|
Air burst
|
|
What is the best way to protect against Biological agents?
|
Personal hygiene
|
|
What is a vector?
|
An insect used to disseminate biological agents (fleas, ticks, lice, mosquitoes....)
|
|
What is the current U.S. policy regarding the use of Biological assets?
|
No Use
|
|
What is meant by Biological Warfare?
|
The intentional use by an enemy, of germs or toxins, to cause death and disease among personnel, animals, plants, or more rarely, to deteriorate material
|
|
What is the color of a Biological contamination marker?
|
Blue background with BIO in red letters
|
|
What does FM 3-3 cover?
|
Chemical, Biological, Radiological and Nuclear Contamination Avoidance
|
|
What are the 4 types of microorganisms found in Biological agents?
|
Bacteria
Fungi Rickettsiae Viruses |
|
What is the best decontamination for Biological agents?
|
Warm soapy water
|
|
Where would a biological attack be most effective?
|
Cities, large troop concentrations, animals and vegetable crops
|
|
How may Chemical Agents be deployed?
|
Arterial spray
Artillery bombs Individuals (pollution of water, food and supplies) Mines Rockets |
|
What are the most effective times to use chemical agents?
|
Evening and early morning (The lack of wind and sun allows the agents to persist)
|
|
Chemical agents are classified by the U.S. into 3 categories, name them
|
Persistent
Non-Persistent Dusty |
|
What is the current U.S. policy regarding the use of Chemical assets?
|
No First Use
|
|
What is the color of the Chemical contamination marker?
|
Yellow with GAS in Red letters
|
|
What are the 4 types of Chemical agents?
|
Nerve
Blister Blood Choking |
|
What decontamination equipment is available for chemical agents?
M291 SDK |
To decontaminate your skin completely, through physical removal, absorption, and neutralization of toxic agents without long-term effects.
|
|
What decontamination equipment is available for chemical agents?
M295 IEDK |
To decontaminate your chemical protective gloves, mask, hood, overboots, LCE, and weapon.
|
|
What decontamination equipment is available for chemical agents?
M100 SDS |
To perform immediate decontamination of equipment, vehicles, and crew-served weapons.
|
|
What decontamination equipment is available for chemical agents?
FSDS |
To perform fixed-site and terrain decontamination. To perform operational and thorough decontamination of vehicles and equipment.
|
|
What decontamination equipment is available for chemical agents?
M12A1 PDDA |
To spray decontaminating agents, STB slurries and solutions, and hot, soapy water rinses during field decontamination operations. To pump water or foam to fight fires, deice items, wash vehicles, and pump various fluids.
|
|
What decontamination equipment is available for chemical agents?
M17 LDS |
To perform operational and thorough decontamination of vehicles and equipment. To provide troop showers, as necessary.
|
|
What decontamination equipment is available for chemical agents?
MPDS |
To perform operational and thorough decontamination of vehicles and equipment.
|
|
What Army regulation covers Salutes, honors and visits of courtesy?
|
AR 600-25
|
|
Salutes are not required to be rendered or returned when the senior or subordinate, or both are what?
|
In civilian attire.
Engaged in routine work if the salute would interfere. Carrying articles with both hands so occupied as to make saluting impracticable. Working as a member of a detail, or engaged in sports or social functions where saluting would present a safety hazard. In public places such as theaters, churches, and in public conveyances. In the ranks of a formation. |
|
When do you salute inside a building?
|
When reporting to your commander
When reporting to a pay officer When reporting to a military board At an indoor ceremony At sentry duty indoors |
|
What is the origin of the Salute?
|
The origin of the Hand Salute is uncertain. Some historians believe it began in late Roman times when assassinations were common. A citizen who wanted to see a public official had to approach with his right hand raised to show that he did not hold a weapon. Knights in armor raised visors with the right hand when meeting a comrade. This practice gradually became a way of showing respect and, in early American history, sometimes involved removing the hat. By 1820, the motion was modified to touching the hat, and since then it has become the Hand Salute used today.
|
|
Can you salute as a prisoner?
|
No, you have lost the right to salute
|
|
What is the proper process for reporting to an Officer indoors?
|
When reporting to an officer in his office, the soldier removes his headgear, knocks, and enters when told to do so. He approaches within two steps of the officer’s desk, halts, salutes, and reports, “Sir (Ma’am), Private Jones reports.” The salute is held until the report is completed and the salute has been returned by the officer. When the business is completed, the soldier salutes, holds the salute until it has been returned, executes the appropriate facing movement, and departs. When reporting indoors under arms, the procedure is the same except that the headgear is not removed and the soldier renders the salute prescribed for the weapon with which he is armed.
|
|
What is the proper process for reporting to an Officer outdoors?
|
When reporting outdoors, the soldier moves rapidly toward the officer, halts approximately three steps from the officer, salutes, and reports (as when indoors). When the soldier is dismissed by the officer, salutes are again exchanged. If under arms, the soldier carries the weapon in the manner prescribed for saluting..
|
|
Enlisted members generally do not exchange salutes, what are some examples of when they would exchange salutes?
|
When rendering reports in formation
When reporting to an enlisted president of a board |
|
On what command would you salute while in formation?
|
Individuals in formation do not salute or return salutes except at the command Present, ARMS.
|
|
Is the recipient of the Medal of Honor (Enlisted or Commissioned) entitled to a salute ?
|
yes
|
|
Where do you walk when walking with someone that is senior to you?
|
On the senior person's left
|
|
When meeting an officer in the open, how far away should you be before rendering the hand salute?
|
Approximately 6 paces when our paths will bring you close by, or within speaking distance when making eye contact.
|
|
Who salutes in a group of soldiers not in formation?
|
The first person to see the officer should call the group to attention and everyone should salute
|
|
When a President or Former President of the U.S. arrives and leaves an army installation, how many gun salute do they get?
|
21 gun salute, both times
|
|
When lowering the flag (retreat) the flag is folded (cocked hat) and treated as a cased color. Do persons meeting the flag detail salute the flag?
|
No. Once the flag has been folded (cocked hat), it is treated as a cased Color and not saluted by persons meeting the flag detail. The flag will be treated with the utmost dignity and respect but not be rendered any sort of honors.
|
|
Who will set the time of sounding reveille and retreat?
|
Installation Commanders
|
|
During the sounding of reveille, when is the flag hoisted?
|
On the first note of reveille
|
|
At the last note of retreat, what will happen?
|
a gun will be fired (if available) on military installations, followed by the playing of the national anthem or sound of “To The Color” (using a drum and bugle corps, a bugler, or recorded music) concurrent with the lowering of the flag. The flag will be lowered to ensure completion at the last note of the music. The same respect will be observed by all military personnel whether the national anthem is played or "To the Color" is sounded.
|
|
When foreign soldiers are invited by U.S. forces to participate in parades, where will they be positioned?
|
they will be assigned a position of honor ahead of U.S. soldiers. As a special compliment, a small escort of honor composed of U.S. soldiers will precede the foreign soldiers.
|
|
What is the official song of the U.S. Army?
|
“The Army Goes Rolling Along”
|
|
When was “The Army Goes Rolling Along” dedicated by the Secretary of the Army?
|
Veterans Day, 11 November 1956, and officially announced on 12 December 1957
|
|
During the playing of the Army Song, how will individuals stand?
|
They will stand at attention and sing the lyrics of the Army Song when played.
|
|
The Army Song is always played at the conclusion of what events?
|
Reviews
Parades Honor Guard Ceremonies. |
|
What is it customary for all Officers of a unit, organization or installation to do on New Year’s Day?
|
Call upon the commanding officer on New Year’s Day. The commander may designate a convenient hour and place for receiving such visits or omit the visit if desired. Commanders may exercise the option to have such visits take place on a day other than New Year’s Day if deemed more practical.
|
|
What personnel are included in Full Military Funeral Honors?
|
9–member team (6 pallbearers and/or firing party, a chaplain, and officer and/or NCO in charge, and a bugler (if available)). The team serves as pallbearers and the firing party, folds and presents the American flag to the next of kin, and plays “Taps.” A member of the decedent’s parent military Service will present the flag.
|
|
When meeting an officer in the open, how far away should you be before rendering the hand salute?
|
Approximately 6 paces when our paths will bring you close by, or within speaking distance when making eye contact.
|
|
Who exits a military vehicle first?
|
The senior person
|
|
What is the only time that you do not remove your headgear when reporting to an officer indoors?
|
When under arms
|
|
When are you considered to be under arms?
|
When you are carrying a weapon in your hand, by sling or by holster
|
|
How long is the call "to the color"
|
40 seconds
|
|
What are the courtesies rendered by individuals during Reveille if they are in uniform and in formation either with or without headgear?
|
Execute "Present Arms" at the command of officer or NCO in charge. Execute "Order Arms" at the command of officer or NCO in charge.
|
|
What are the courtesies rendered by individuals during Reveille if they are in uniform and not in formation either with or without headgear?
|
At the first note of music, face flag and render hand salute (if flag is not in view, face direction of music).
End salute on last note of music. |
|
What are the courtesies rendered by individuals during Retreat and To the Color if they are in uniform and in formation either with or without headgear?
|
At the first note of Retreat, execute "Parade Rest" at the command of the officer or NCO in charge. Remain at Parade Rest until given "Attention" by officer or NCO in charge.
At the first note of To the Color, execute "Present Arms" at the command of officer or NCO in charge. Execute "Order Arms" at the command of officer or NCO in charge. |
|
What are the courtesies rendered by individuals during Retreat and To the Color if they are in uniform and not in formation either with or without headgear?
|
At the first note of Retreat, face flag and stand at attention (if flag is not in view, face direction of music). Remain at attention until last note of "TO THE COLOR" has been played.
At the first note of To the Color: If outdoors, render hand salute; if indoors, stand at attention. Hold this position until the last note of music has been played. |
|
What does ASAP stand for?
|
Army Substance Abuse Program
|
|
What is the mission of ASAP?
|
The ASAP’s mission is to strengthen the overall fitness and effectiveness of the Army’s total workforce and to enhance the combat readiness of its Soldiers.
|
|
What are the objectives of ASAP?
|
Increase individual fitness and overall unit readiness.
Provide services, which are adequate and responsive to the needs of the total workforce and emphasize alcohol and other drug abuse deterrence, prevention, education, and treatment. Implement alcohol and other drug risk reduction and prevention strategies that respond to potential problems before they jeopardize readiness, productivity, and careers. Restore to duty those substance-impaired Soldiers who have the potential for continued military service. Provide effective alcohol and other drug abuse prevention and education at all levels of command, and encourage commanders to provide alcohol and drug-free leisure activities. Ensure all military and civilian personnel assigned to ASAP staff are appropriately trained and experienced to accomplish their mission. Achieve maximum productivity and reduce absenteeism and attrition among DA civilian employees by reducing the effects of the abuse of alcohol and other drugs. Improve readiness by extending services to the total Army. Ensure quality customer service. |
|
What is meant by deglamorization of alcohol?
|
Personnel will not promote any function glamorizing the use of alcohol through drinking contests, games, initiations, or the awarding of alcoholic beverages as prizes in contests.
|
|
What army Regulation covers ASAP?
|
AR 600-85
|
|
Is ASAP participation mandatory for Individuals that are command referred?
|
ASAP participation is mandatory for all Soldiers who are command referred. Failure to attend a mandatory counseling session may constitute a violation of Article 86 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ).
|
|
What will happen to Soldiers who fail to participate in or fail to respond successfully to rehabilitation?
|
Soldiers who fail to participate adequately in, or to respond successfully to, rehabilitation will be processed for administrative separation and not be provided another opportunity for rehabilitation except under the most extraordinary circumstances, as determined by the CD in consultation with the unit commander.
|
|
What are the ways that Soldiers can be identified as having a substance abuse problem?
|
Voluntary (self-identification)
Commander / Supervisor Identification Biochemical Identification Medical Identification Investigation and or Apprehension |
|
What are the objectives of rehabilitation with ASAP?
|
Return Soldiers to full duty as soon as possible.
Identify Soldiers who cannot be rehabilitated within the scope of this regulation and to advise their unit commanders. Assist and refer Soldiers who cannot be rehabilitated in the ASAP to a treatment facility in the vicinity where they reside after discharge from the Army. Help resolve alcohol and other drug abuse problems in the family, with the ultimate goal of enabling the Soldier to perform more effectively. |
|
What are the objectives of bio-chemical testing (also called a urinalysis)?
|
The objectives of Army’s Biochemical Testing Program are to:
Deter Soldiers, including those members on initial entry on AD after enlistment or appointment, from abusing drugs (including illegal drugs, other illicit substances, and prescribed medication). Facilitate early identification of alcohol and/or other drug abuse. Enable commanders to assess the security, military fitness, good order and discipline of their units, and to use information obtained to take appropriate action (for example, UCMJ, administrative, or other actions, including referral to the ASAP counseling center for screening, evaluation, and possible treatment). Monitor rehabilitation of those enrolled for alcohol and/or other drug abuse. Collect data on the prevalence of alcohol and/or other drug abuse within the Army. |
|
Commanders may direct drug testing under what conditions?
|
Unit inspections. (either the entire or part of a unit)
Search and seizures/probable cause. Competence for Duty. Rehabilitation. Mishap or Safety Inspection. Consent (specimen may be provided voluntarily by a Soldier). New Entrant. Medical. |
|
All ASAP referrals are accomplished by the Commander or 1SG using what form?
|
Completing and signing the DA 8003 Referral Form.
|
|
Can Soldiers that are enrolled in an ASAP rehabilitation program reenlist?
|
Soldiers currently enrolled in the ASAP rehabilitation program are not allowed to reenlist. However, Soldiers who need additional service time to complete their enrollment may be extended for the number of months necessary to permit completion.
|
|
Will Soldiers who are command referred to ASAP be flagged?
|
Yes, IAW AR 600-8-2 (Suspension of Favorable Personnel Action (flags)).
|
|
What Does ACS stand for?
|
Army Community Service
|
|
What does the ACS symbol represent?
|
The heart= giving, the cross= help, the gyroscope= stability
|
|
What is the ACS mission statement?
|
The mission of the ACS center is to—
Facilitate commander’s ability to provide comprehensive, coordinated, and responsive services that support readiness of soldiers, civilian employees and their families. Maximize technology and resources, adapt to unique installation requirements, eliminate duplication in service delivery, and measure service effectiveness. |
|
What Army regulation covers ACS?
|
AR 608-1
|
|
How is ACS staffed for the most part?
|
By volunteers
|
|
What is the motto of the ACS?
|
Self-help, service and stability.
|
|
Who qualifies for ACS?
|
In the United States, the following personnel are eligible for ACS assistance:
All active duty and retired military personnel and their family members, if otherwise eligible for services. Members of the Army National Guard and U.S. Army Reserve when on active duty and their family members, if otherwise eligible for services. Army appropriated fund (APF) and nonappropriated fund (NAF) employees and their family members, if otherwise eligible for services. Family members of prisoners of war or personnel missing in action, if otherwise eligible for services. Surviving family members of military personnel who died while on active duty, if otherwise eligible for services. In overseas commands, the Commander will determine eligibility according to international treatise and agreements. |
|
What can you do to help out ACS?
|
Donate Staple foodstuff to the food lockers, useable household goods, and volunteer your time.
|
|
What regulation covers the ACES?
|
AR 621-5
|
|
What regulation covers Army Learning Centers?
|
AR 621-6
|
|
What are the goals of ACES?
|
Develop confident, competent leaders.
Support the enlistment, retention, and transition of soldiers. Provide self-development opportunities for soldiers and adult family members. Provide self-development opportunities for DACs. Provide self-development opportunities for DAC ACES professional and support staff. |
|
What does TABE stand for?
|
Test of Adult Basic Education
|
|
How much of your tuition does the tuition assistance grant pay?
|
100%
|
|
Name some federal financial aid programs available to Soldiers through ACES
|
Pell Grant
Perkins Loans Guaranteed Student Loans |
|
What are some of the basic services offered by the Army Continuing Education Center?
|
Basic Skills Education Program (BSEP)
Advanced Skills Education Program (ASEP) High School Completion Program Servicemembers Opportunity Colleges (SOCAD) Veteran's Educational Assistance Program (VEAP)/Montgomery G. I. Bill (MGIB) Skill Recognition Programs Command Language Programs (Head start - Gateway) Defense Activity for Non-Traditional Education Support (DANTES) Education Counseling Services Learning Resource Centers |
|
What Soldier development programs does ACES provide?
|
Functional Academic Skills Training (FAST).
High School Completion Program. English-as-a-Second Language (ESL) Mission-related Language (Head start and Gateway). Mission-required Language. MOS Improvement Training (MOSIT). |
|
What does DANTES stand for?
|
Defense Activity for Non-Traditional Education Support
|
|
What does DANTES do?
|
DANTES provides standardized testing services free to military personnel. Family members and civilians may take DANTES tests but must pay for each test taken.
|
|
Soldiers with a GT score of less than 110 should be referred to what?
|
BSEP - Soldiers with a GT less than 100 are normally automatically eligible. Soldiers with a GT between 100 and 110 may be command referred.
|
|
Soldiers who begin their active service after what date are eligible to receive the new GI Bill?
|
July 1985, but they are required to pay $100 per month for the first 12 months
|
|
What does SOC stand for?
|
Service members Opportunity Colleges
|
|
What does SOCAD stand for?
|
Service members Opportunity College Army Degrees
|
|
AER closely coordinates with what other organization?
|
American Red Cross
|
|
What is AER?
|
AER is a private, nonprofit organization to collect and hold funds to relieve distress of members of the Army and their dependents. AER provides emergency financial assistance to soldiers (active and retired) and their families in time of distress.
|
|
What does AER stand for?
|
Army Emergency Relief
|
|
What is the Army Regulation that covers AER?
|
AR 930-4
|
|
Are you required to contribute to AER to receive help?
|
No
|
|
Who does AER help?
|
Soldiers on extended active duty and their dependents.
Members of the Reserve Components of the Army (Army National Guard and U.S. Army Reserve) on continuous active duty for more than 30 days and their dependents. (This applies to soldiers on AD for training (ADT) or serving under various sections of title 10, United States Code). Soldiers retired from active duty because of longevity or physical disability, or retired upon reaching age 60 (Reserve Components) and their dependents. Widows (ers) and orphans of soldiers who died while on active duty or after they retired. |
|
How are monetary contributions made to AER?
|
Cash, check or allotment
|
|
When is the AER annual fund campaign held army-wide?
|
March 01 through May 15
|
|
How does AER provide financial assistance?
|
AER provides financial assistance by either a loan without interest, a grant or a combination of both
|
|
What is the purpose of AER?
|
AER provides emergency financial assistance to soldiers (active and retired) and their families in time of distress.
|
|
What is the dollar limit on AER loans?
|
There is no dollar limit. AER Assistance will meet your emergency need.
|
|
Failure to repay an AER loan (unless repayment would cause undo hardship) will cause the Soldier’s name to be placed on an AER restricted list which is disseminated Army-wide. What does this mean for the Soldier?
|
Individuals who appear on this list will not be approved for AER assistance without the specific prior approval of HQ AER.
|
|
What is the AER Motto?
|
"Helping the Army Take Care Of its Own"
|
|
The minimum amount that can be contributed to AER through allotment is what amount?
|
1 dollar each month for 3 months
|
|
How is AER funded?
|
Through Voluntary Contributions from Soldiers (tax free), through unsolicited contributions, repayments of loans, and income from investments.
|
|
What is the purpose of the Army Sexual Assault Prevention and Response Program?
|
The Sexual Assault Prevention and Response Program reinforces the Army’s commitment to eliminate incidents of sexual assault through a comprehensive policy that centers on awareness and prevention, training and education, victim advocacy, response, reporting, and accountability.
|
|
The Army's policy on Army Sexual Assault Prevention and Response Program applies where and when?
|
This policy applies—
Both on and off post and during duty and non-duty hours. To working, living, and recreational environments (including both on- and off-post housing). |
|
What are the goals of the Army Sexual Assault Prevention and Response Program?
|
Create a climate that minimizes sexual assault incidents, which impact Army personnel, Army civilians, and family members, and, if an incident should occur, ensure that victims and subjects are treated according to Army policy.
Create a climate that encourages victims to report incidents of sexual assault without fear. Establish sexual assault prevention training and awareness programs to educate Soldiers. Ensure sensitive and comprehensive treatment to restore victims’ health and well-being. Ensure leaders understand their roles and responsibilities regarding response to sexual assault victims, thoroughly investigate allegations of sexual assault, and take appropriate administrative and disciplinary action. |
|
Define sexual assault.
|
Sexual assault is a crime defined as intentional sexual contact, characterized by use of force, physical threat or abuse of authority or when the victim does not or cannot consent.
|
|
Sexual assault includes what acts?
|
Rape
Nonconsensual Sodomy (oral or anal sex) Indecent Assault (unwanted, inappropriate sexual contact or fondling) Attempts to commit these acts |
|
More than half of sexual assault offenses include what?
|
Alcohol
|
|
Prevention of sexual harassment is whose responsibility?
|
The Commander’s Responsibility
|
|
Define the following terms as they apply to the Army Sexual Assault Prevention and Response Program: victim, alleged perpetrator, and perpetrator.
|
Victim - One who has been sexually assaulted.
Alleged Perpetrator - One who has been accused of committing a crime (subject). Perpetrator - One who has committed a crime (offender). |
|
What is the Army’s policy on sexual assault?
|
Sexual assault is a criminal offense that has no place in the Army. It degrades mission readiness by devastating the Army’s ability to work effectively as a team. Every Soldier who is aware of a sexual assault should immediately (within 24 hours) report incidents. Sexual assault is incompatible with Army values and is punishable under the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ) and other federal and local civilian laws.
The Army will use training, education, and awareness to minimize sexual assault; to promote the sensitive handling of victims of sexual assault; to offer victim assistance and counseling; to hold those who commit sexual assault offenses accountable; to provide confidential avenues for reporting, and to reinforce a commitment to Army values. The Army will treat all victims of sexual assault with dignity, fairness, and respect. The Army will treat every reported sexual assault incident seriously by following proper guidelines. The information and circumstances of the allegations will be disclosed on a need-to-know basis only. This policy applies— Both on and off post and during duty and non-duty hours. To working, living, and recreational environments (including both on- and off-post housing). |
|
If someone has been sexually assaulted, to whom may they report the crime?
|
Their chain of command.
Medical Treatment Facility. Military Police/Criminal Investigation Division. Chaplains. Social Work Services. Family Advocacy. Legal Services. |
|
Army Regulation 27-10 outlines the rights of crime victims, what are they?
|
The right to be treated with fairness, dignity, and a respect for privacy
The right to be protected from the accused offender The right to be notified of court proceedings The right to be present at all public court proceedings related to the assault unless the court determines that testimony by the victim would be materially affected if the victim heard other testimony at trial, or for other good cause The right to talk to the attorney for the Government in the case The right to seek restitution, if appropriate The right to information regarding conviction, sentencing, imprisonment, and release of the offender from custody. |
|
What must Commanders do to implement and supprt the Army's Sexual Assault Prevention and Response Program?
|
Ensure that assigned personnel (to include RC personnel under their jurisdiction) are familiar with the Army policy on sexual harassment.
Publish and post written command policy statements for the prevention of sexual harassment. Continually assess and be aware of the climate of command regarding sexual harassment. Identify problems or potential problems. Take prompt, decisive action to investigate all complaints of sexual harassment. Either resolve the problem at the lowest possible level or, if necessary, take formal disciplinary or administrative action. Do not allow Soldiers to be retaliated against for filing complaints. Continually monitor the unit and assess sexual harassment prevention policies and programs at all levels within area of responsibility. Ensure all leaders understand that if they witness or otherwise know of incidents of sexual harassment, they are obligated to act. If they do not, they themselves are also engaging in sexual harassment. Set the standard |
|
What are the categories of sexual harassment and give some examples?
|
Verbal – Examples of verbal sexual harassment may include telling sexual jokes; using sexually explicit profanity, threats, sexually oriented cadences, or sexual comments.
Nonverbal – Examples of nonverbal sexual harassment may include staring at someone (that is, “undressing someone with one’s eyes"), blowing kisses, winking, or licking one’s lips in a suggestive manner. Physical Contact - Examples of physical sexual harassment may include touching, patting, pinching, bumping, grabbing, cornering, or blocking a passageway; kissing; and providing unsolicited back or neck rubs. |
|
What does EO stand for?
|
Equal Opportunity
|
|
What is an EOR?
|
Equal Opportunity Representative
|
|
What rank should an EOR normally be?
|
SGT (P) through 1LT
|
|
What are some of the special commemorations / ethnic observances listed in AR 600-20?
|
January – 3rd Monday – Martin Luther King Jr. Birthday
February – 1-28/29 - African-American/Black History Month March – 1-31 - Women’s History Month April/May - Sunday to Sunday for Week Incorporating Yom Hashoah - "Days of Remembrance" for Victims of the Holocaust May – 1-31 - Asian Pacific Heritage Month August – 26 - Women’s Equality Day September/October - 15 Sep.-15 Oct. - Hispanic Heritage Month November – 1-30 - National Native American Indian Heritage Month |
|
What Army Regulation covers the EO program?
|
AR 600-20 chapter 6
|
|
What are the goals of the EO program?
|
Provide EO for military personnel and family members, both on and off post and within the limits of the laws of localities, states, and host nations.
Create and sustain effective units by eliminating discriminatory behaviors or practices that undermine teamwork, mutual respect, loyalty, and shared sacrifice of the men and women of America’s Army. |
|
What are the three policies each commander is required to publish and post on equal opportunity?
|
Written command policy statements for EO
Prevention of Sexual Harassment Equal Opportunity Complaint Procedures |
|
Soldiers are required to have how many periods of EO training per year?
|
4 (1 each quarter)
|
|
Define the term ethnic group.
|
A segment of the population that possesses common characteristics and a cultural heritage based to some degree on: faith or faiths; shared traditions, values or symbols; literature, folklore, or music; an internal sense of distinctiveness; and/or an external perception of distinctiveness.
|
|
Define the term racism.
|
Any attitude or action of a person or institutional structure that subordinates a person or group because of skin color or race.
|
|
Describe minority group
|
Any group distinguished from the general population in terms of race, religion, color, gender, or national origin.
|
|
What is sexual harassment?
|
Sexual harassment is a form of gender discrimination that involves unwelcomed sexual advances, requests for sexual favors, and other verbal or physical conduct of a sexual nature between the same or opposite genders when—
Submission to, or rejection of, such conduct is made either explicitly or implicitly a term or condition of a person’s job, pay, career, or Submission to, or rejection of, such conduct by a person is used as a basis for career or employment decisions affecting that person, or Such conduct has the purpose or effect of unreasonably interfering with an individual’s work performance or creates an intimidating, hostile, or offensive working environment. 2. Any person in a supervisory or command position who uses or condones implicit or explicit sexual behavior to control, influence, or affect the career, pay, or job of a Soldier or civilian employee is engaging in sexual harassment. Similarly, any Soldier or civilian employee who makes deliberate or repeated unwelcome verbal comments, gestures, or physical contact of a sexual nature is engaging in sexual harassment. |
|
What is an Affirmative Actions Plan (AAP)?
|
A management document that consists of statements of attainable goals and timetables. This document is required of all Army organizations, commands, agencies, and activities down to brigade (or equivalent) level. It is designed to achieve EO for all military personnel.
|
|
What action does the Army take against off-post activities, including housing and public accommodations, which arbitrarily discriminate against members of the Army and their dependents?
|
Off limits or off limits sanctions may be applied.
|
|
Who is the primary source for solving EO complaints?
|
Your Unit Chain of Command
|
|
What is the Army's written policy on EO?
|
The U.S. Army will provide EO and fair treatment for military personnel and family members without regard to race, color, gender, religion, national origin, and provide an environment free of unlawful discrimination and offensive behavior. This policy—
Applies both on and off post, during duty and non-duty hours. Applies to working, living, and recreational environments (including both on and off-post housing). |
|
What is the primary channel for correcting discriminatory practices and for communications on equal opportunity matters?
|
Chain of Command
|
|
Does every unit have an EO representative?
|
Yes, each Commander is required to appoint an EOR in the rank of SGT (P) through 1LT.
|
|
AFAP - Army Family Action Plan
|
The Army Family Action Plan (AFAP) is input from the people of the Army-to-Army leadership. It's a process that lets soldiers and families say what's working, and what isn't - AND what they think will fix it. It alerts commanders and Army leaders to areas of concern that need their attention, and it gives them the opportunity to quickly put plans into place to work toward resolving the issues.
AFAP was the brainchild of Army spouses. Each AFAP success story originated as an idea that someone decided to pursue. The Army is the only branch of DOD that has such a program. Almost 500 issues have entered the AFAP in its 17-year history. Many AFAP improvements impact quality of life for all services. AFAP is year-round - issues are continually being monitored and worked toward resolution...at local levels, MACOMs, and HQDA. |
|
What does AFAP stand for?
|
Army Family Action Plan
|
|
What Army Regulation covers the Army Family Action Plan?
|
AR 608-47
|
|
When was the AFAP program established?
|
The AFAP program was established in 1983 as a result of the Chief of Staff, Army (CSA), 1983 White Paper, “The Army Family.”
|
|
The AFAP program creates an information loop between whom?
|
The Global Army Family and Leadership. The AFAP provides a means for Army constituents to address and report issues of well-being concern to leadership at regular intervals.
|
|
The AFAP program’s process of improvement begins where?
|
At the local level, where an annual symposium is held to examine issues of concern that delegates believe need to be fixed.
|
|
The Army family has been symbolized by the Secretary of the Army as an equilateral triangle. How is each side of the triangle expressed?
|
Base: "Family of Components" (Total Force)
Second Leg: "Family of Units" Third Leg: "Family of People" |
|
The philosophy toward the family, based on the Army Family White Paper, consists of three critical elements. What are they?
|
Partnership
Wellness Sense of community |
|
What are some things that the AFAP does?
|
Gives commanders a gauge to validate concerns and measure satisfaction
Enhances Army's corporate image Helps retain the best and brightest Results in legislation, policies, programs and services that strengthen readiness and retention Safeguards well-being |
|
What types of programs are focused on in the "Family of Components"?
|
Programs relating to the Active Army, National Guard, Army Reserve and civilian employees
|
|
What type of programs are focused on in the "Family of Units"?
|
Programs relating to the unique relationship of soldiers to their units and unit ties to other components of the command, such as squad to its platoon or the platoon to its company (battery)
|
|
What is the basis for the Army theme, " The Army family"?
|
A joint announcement signed by the Secretary and the Chief of Staff of the Army. This announcement was based on the C/S white paper 1983
|
|
What types of programs are focused on in the Family of People?
|
Programs relating to all areas of concern to the service members and their families, including the military and civilian retiree
|
|
What are some activities that the American Red Cross offers?
|
CPR instruction, Blood drives, Swimming lessons, Communication services (by wire), Financial assistance, Counseling and referral services, Transplantation services, AIDS education, Health and safety services.
|
|
How is the ARC staffed for the most part?
|
By volunteers
|
|
What is the major service that Red Cross offers?
|
Communication between soldiers and their families for both problem solving and emergency (especially the notification or "red cross message")
|
|
What Army Regulation covers Red Cross?
|
AR 930-5
|
|
What Army Regulation covers the Army Retention Program?
|
AR 601-280
|
|
What are some reasons that a soldier may be ineligible for reenlistment?
|
If the soldier is barred or flagged and if the soldier is enrolled in ASAP
|
|
What is an SRB?
|
Selective Reenlistment Bonus
|
|
What is the minimum number of years that a soldier must reenlist for to be eligible for an SRB?
|
Three years
|
|
Can a Soldier request separation if a bar to reenlistment is imposed?
|
no
|
|
Describe a Bar to Reenlistment.
|
Administrative action initiated by the commander to prevent a substandard soldier from reenlisting or reentering the service
|
|
A Bar to Reenlistment is reviewed how often?
|
Every three months or 30 days prior to PCS / ETS
|
|
Who can initiate a Bar to Reenlistment?
|
Any commander in the soldier’s chain of command
|
|
Who is the final approving authority for a Bar to Reenlistment?
|
A Commander who is one approval level higher than the commanding authority
|
|
Soldiers SGM and below who have not reenlisted under the indefinite reenlistment program are required to receive Retention Interviews. When are they done?
|
Career Counselor: 30 days from arrival to unit
Unit Commander 90 days from arrival Unit Commander 15-16 months prior to ETS Career Counselor 13-14 months prior to ETS Career Counselor 4 months prior to ETS Reserve Component Career counselor 90-120 days prior to ETS |
|
Who may lift a Bar?
|
The same authority that approved the Bar may lift it with a written recommendation by the unit Commander
|
|
What type of fire extinguisher must not be used on electrical fires?
|
A water fire Extinguisher
|
|
Who is responsible for the Army Safety Program?
|
It is the responsibility of each soldier
|
|
The word SAFETY is often associated with what term?
|
Risk Management
|
|
What accounts for the majority of accidents?
|
Carelessness
|
|
Accidents are reported in accordance with what regulation?
|
AR 385-40
|
|
Name 3 safety features commonly found in any barracks.
|
Lights in stairwells
Fire lights (emergency lighting) Fire extinguisher and alarms Arms room safety procedures First aid kits CQ Safety posters Handrails Storage of dangerous tools and chemicals |
|
What safety features are stressed in the motor pool?
|
Reduced speed, no smoking except in designated areas, fire extinguishers in buildings and vehicles, proper utilization of tool safety equipment (goggles, safety toe shoes, etc.)
|
|
How often are fire extinguishers in the barracks required to be checked for serviceability, and how can this be determined?
|
Once a month, a tag on the fire extinguisher indicating the date and initials of authorized unit safety personnel
|
|
What AR covers safety?
|
AR 385-10
|
|
Where on post can you find out how many privately owned vehicle accidents that were fatal have occurred this year?
|
A sign in the vicinity of the outbound gate on post
|
|
Should there be a sponsorship program for a soldier departing a unit?
|
yes
|
|
What Army Regulation covers the Total Army Sponsorship Program?
|
AR 600-8-8
|
|
What is S-Gate?
|
S-Gate provides information for incoming soldiers entering the USAREUR Theater of command. An incoming soldier can find out who their sponsor is and how to contact them. S-Gate includes their pinpoint assignment, sponsor information, a welcome letter, a needs assessment checklist and links to other useful USAREUR web sites and regulatory information.
|
|
What DA Form is used to transmit sponsorship requirements to gaining commands?
|
DA Form 5434 or the Electronically Generated DA Form 5434-E
|
|
How soon after the DA Form 5434 is received should a sponsor be assigned?
|
10 days unless the sponsorship is declined
|
|
What are the general rules for appointing a sponsor?
|
The Soldier should be in a grade equal to or higher ranking than the incoming soldier. The sponsor should be the same sex (gender) as the sponsor. The sponsor should be familiar with the unit or activity and community
|
|
What are the six elements of the sponsorship program?
|
DA Form 5434.
Welcome letter. ACS Relocation Readiness Services. Reception. Orientation. Inprocessing. |
|
The primary goal of the Army's QOLP is to promote the development of military group commitment and cohesiveness, is essential to what?
|
Readiness (combat effectiveness).
|
|
What are some examples of the QOLP?
|
ACS / AER / ARC / EO
Postal services PX / commissary privileges AFN radio and television MWR, education services Community sports programs Recreational facilities Banking services Clubs Gyms (physical fitness centers) |
|
What does QOLP stand for?
|
Quality Of Life Program
|
|
The Army's Quality of Life program is dedicated to the precept that the Army's number one operational resource must be taken care of. What is this resource?
|
The soldier
|
|
Quality of Life needs and the programs and actions to address them, are categorized under two general headings. What are they?
|
Living conditions
Duty environment. |
|
Who is the senior enlisted advisor to the BOSS council, and approves members selected to serve on BOSS committees?
|
The Installation Command Sergeant Major
|
|
According to AR 215-1, what does the BOSS program provide?
|
It provides opportunities for active duty soldiers, with an emphasis on single and unaccompanied soldiers, to participate in physical, self-development, leisure, and educational related services.
|
|
What type of program is BOSS?
|
BOSS is categorized as a category B Morale, Welfare, and Recreation (MWR) program.
|
|
How many officers are on the BOSS council?
|
Three: President, Vice-President, and Secretary and Treasurer
|
|
What is the lowest level unit that has a BOSS council representative?
|
The battery/company level
|
|
What are the 3 pillars of BOSS?
|
Recreation and Leisure: Activities may be planned by the BOSS committee or by the BOSS committee working in conjunction with other MWR activities. Service members will assume a lead role in planning BOSS events. Events should be planned that meet the needs and desires of the single service member.
Community Service: The BOSS committee may elect to participate in community programs or projects that make a difference in the lives of others, in the community, and ultimately, in themselves. The service will be voluntary in nature and in accordance with the installation volunteer program. The program can be implemented in support of existing or established volunteer programs or programs developed by the BOSS committee. Well Being: For single service members, Well being includes those things that single service members can directly or indirectly influence to enhance their morale, living environment, or personal growth and development. The well being issue identified or raised during the BOSS meetings will be directed to the appropriated command or staff agency for resolution on the installation. |
|
What is CHAMPUS?
|
Civilian Health And Medical Program for the Uniformed Services. It is a cost-sharing program that is used to provide in-patient and outpatient care for dependants from civilian sources.
|
|
What Army regulation covers CHAMPUS?
|
AR 40-121
|
|
Who is Eligible for CHAMPUS?
|
Family members of active duty military personnel, Family members of either deceased or retired personnel, and retired military personnel and their family members under the age of 65
|
|
What Does DEERS stand for?
|
Defense Enrollment Eligibility Reporting System.
|
|
What is DEERS used for?
|
To obtain dependent ID cards for eligible spouse and children
|
|
What does NCODP stand for?
|
Noncommissioned Officer Development Program
|
|
What is the goal of NCODP?
|
The goal of the NCODP is to increase and sustain NCO combat readiness and compliment the overarching Army Noncommissioned Officer Professional Development Program.
|
|
As with all leader training and leader development, who is responsible for NCODP?
|
The command.
|
|
NCODP is typically managed by whom?
|
The CSM or Senior NCO in the organization.
|
|
What are some objectives of NCODP?
|
Develop and strengthen the skills, knowledge, and abilities to train, deploy, and lead soldiers in combat through battle focused training.
Develop NCOs who are self–aware, adaptive, competent, and confident. Realize the full potential of the NCO support channel. Foster a unit environment that enhances continued NCO leader development and encourages self–development as part of a lifelong learning process. |
|
What Army Regulation covers NCODP?
|
AR 350-1 Chap 4
|
|
What is the purpose of AR 350-1?
|
This regulation prescribes policies, procedures, and responsibilities for developing, managing, and conducting Army training and leader development
|
|
In order to accomplish battle-focused NCO development, commanders and unit NCOs should follow what procedures?
|
Link NCO development to the current skill level and duty assignments
Establish a viable unit level NCODP using unit METL as the vehicle to incorporate the following into each NCO's daily activities. Synchronize battle-focused NCODP as a component of operational assignments (experience) with the other two pillars of leader development (institutional training and self-development) Establish a systematic and continuous program Integrate the use of leader books (FM 25-l01, app B) to track individual NCO progress Emphasize coaching to achieve commitment to excellence in performance |
|
A successful NCODP will result in NCOs who can what?
|
Demonstrate the skills of current skill level and duty position per AR 611–21 and DA Pam 600–25.
Accept the duties and responsibilities of current rank and duty position per AR 600–20, AR 611–21, and FM 7–22.7. Enhance combat performance for the current and next higher rank and duty position per AR 600–20 and FM 22–100 (being revised as FM 6–22). Enhance combat leadership competencies for the current and next higher rank per FM 22–100 (being revised as FM 6–22). Train themselves and subordinates to be proficient in METL tasks and associated critical tasks per FM 7–0, FM 7–1, and FM 7–22.7. Coach subordinates to be totally committed to U.S. Army professional ethics, Warrior Ethos, and the Soldier’s Creed per FM 22–100 (being revised as FM 6–22). |
|
What does FM 6-22 cover?
|
Army Leadership (Competent, Confident and Agile)
|
|
What does FM 7-0 cover?
|
Training the force
|
|
Define Leadership.
|
Leadership is influencing people—by providing purpose, direction, and motivation—while operating to accomplish the mission and improving the organization.
|
|
What is purpose?
|
Purpose gives subordinates the reason to act in order to achieve a desired outcome.
|
|
What is direction?
|
Providing clear direction involves communicating how to accomplish a mission: prioritizing tasks, assigning responsibility for completion, and ensuring subordinates understand the standard.
|
|
What is motivation?
|
Motivation supplies the will to do what is necessary to accomplish a mission.
|
|
Describe the "Be, Know and Do".
|
Army leadership begins with what the leader must BE, the values and attributes that shape a leader’s character. Your skills are those things you KNOW how to do, your competence in everything from the technical side of your job to the people skills a leader requires. But character and knowledge—while absolutely necessary—are not enough. You cannot be effective, you cannot be a leader, until you apply what you know, until you act and DO what you must.
|
|
What are the thee principal ways that leaders can develop others through which they provide knowledge and feedback?
|
Counseling
Coaching. Mentoring. |
|
A leader’s effectiveness is dramatically enhanced by understanding and developing what areas?
|
Military Bearing
Physical Fitness. Confidence Resilience. |
|
What is military bearing?
|
Projecting a commanding presence, a professional image of authority.
|
|
What is physical fitness?
|
Having sound health, strength, and endurance, which sustain emotional health and conceptual abilities under prolonged stress.
|
|
What is confidence?
|
Projecting self-confidence and certainty in the unit’s ability to succeed in whatever it does; able to demonstrate composure and outward calm through steady control over emotion..
|
|
What is resilience?
|
Showing a tendency to recover quickly from setbacks, shock, injuries, adversity, and stress while maintaining a mission and organizational focus.
|
|
What are the three core domains that shape the critical learning experiences throughout Soldiers’ and leaders’ careers?
|
Institutional training.
Training, education, and job experience gained during operational assignments. Self-development |
|
What are the Leader Actions?
|
Influencing – getting people (Soldiers, Army civilians, and multinational partners) to do what is necessary.
Operating – the actions taken to influence others to accomplish missions and to set the stage for future operations. Improving – capturing and acting on important lessons of ongoing and completed projects and missions. |
|
What are the three levels of leadership?
|
Direct - Direct leadership is face-to-face, first-line leadership.
Organizational - Organizational leaders influence severalhundred to several thousand people. They do this indirectly, generally through more levels of subordinates than do direct leaders. Strategic - Strategic leaders include military and DA civilian leaders at the major command through Department of Defense levels. Strategic leaders are responsible for large organizations and influence several thousand to hundreds of thousands of people. |
|
What are the Army Values?
|
Loyalty
Duty Respect Selfless Service Honor Integrity Personal Courage |
|
Attributes of an Army leader can best be defined as what an Army leader is. What are the attributes of an Army leader?
|
A leader of character
A leader with presence. A leader with intellectual capactiy. |
|
Core leader competencies are what an Army leader does. What are the core leader competencies?
|
An Army leader leads
An Army leader develops An Army leader achieves. |
|
Why must leaders introduce stress into training?
|
Using scenarios that closely resemble the stresses and effects of the real battlefield is essential to victory and survival in combat.
|
|
What are intended and unintended consequences?
|
Intended Consequences are the anticipated results of a leader’s decisions and actions.
Unintended consequences arise from unplanned events that affect the organization or accomplishment of the mission.. |
|
What is communication?
|
A process of providing information
|
|
Name the two barriers of communications
|
Physical
Psychological |
|
Name some physical barriers of communication
|
Noise of battle
Distance |
|
What is counseling?
|
Counseling is the process used by leaders to review with a subordinate the subordinate’s demonstrated performance and potential.
|
|
What are the three major categories of developmental counseling?
|
Event counseling
Performance counseling Professional growth counseling |
|
Character is essential to successful leadership. What are the three major factors that determine a leaders character?
|
Army Values
Empathy Warrior Ethos |
|
What are the 7 steps to problem solving?
|
ID the problem
Gather information Develop criteria Generate possible solutions Analyze possible solutions Compare posible solutions Make and implement the decision |
|
What is reverse planning?
|
Reverse planning is a specific technique used to ensure that a concept leads to the intended end state.
|
|
To assess subordinates, leaders you must-
|
Observe and record subordinates’ performance in the core leader competencies.
Determine if the performances meet, exceed, or fall below expected standards. Tell subordinates what was observed and give an opportunity to comment. Help subordinates develop an individual development plan (IDP) to improve performance. |
|
What are the team building stages?
|
Formation
Enrichment Sustainment |
|
Name some things in a unit that affect morale
|
Mess
Military justice Supply Billets |
|
What are Beliefs?
|
Beliefs derive from upbringing, culture, religious backgrounds, and traditions.
|
|
What are the three general orders?
|
I will guard everything within the limits of my post and quit my post only when properly relieved.
I will obey my special orders and perform all my duties in a military manner. I will report violations of my special orders, emergencies, and anything not covered in my instructions to the Commander of the Relief. |
|
What two types of orders can a guard receive?
|
General orders
Special orders |
|
What are you normally responsible for at your guard post?
|
Your post and all government property in view
|
|
What is deadly force?
|
The power to cause death or severe bodily harm
|
|
What specifies the time for challenging?
|
The special orders
|
|
Who is responsible for the instruction, discipline and performance of the guards?
|
The commander of the guards
|
|
How would you challenge people in a vehicle?
|
You would challenge the same as if on foot but, make one or all of the individuals dismount the vehicle if deemed necessary.
|
|
What are the two words that the countersign consists of?
|
Challenge and Password
|
|
What is the proper use of deadly force?
|
Only the minimum amount of force necessary to make an apprehension
|
|
At what position do you hold your rifle while challenging?
|
Port arms
|
|
What Field Manual covers Guard duty?
|
FM 22-6
|
|
What are the two different types of guard mountings?
|
Formal
Informal |
|
What is your chain of command as a guard?
|
Commander of the relief,
Sergeant of the guard Officer of the guard Field officer of the day Commanding officer at the level responsible for the guard mount |
|
What type of guard is normally used to protect a unit in a tactical environment?
|
Exterior guard
|
|
What is F.O.D.?
|
Field Officer of the Day
|
|
If you sleep on duty, what could your punishment be?
|
Court Martial
|
|
What are two types of guard duty?
|
Interior guard
Exterior guard |
|
What is the normal length of time for a field officer of the day?
|
24 hrs
|
|
How long will a guard normally stay at his post?
|
2 to 4 hours
|
|
Who is normally in charge of establishing the special orders for guard posts?
|
The Post Commander
|
|
Does a guard salute indoors?
|
yes
|
|
When are guards not required to salute?
|
No salute is given by a guard who is engaged in a specific duty, the performance of which prevents saluting.
|
|
What are three examples of exterior guard?
|
Lookouts
Listening posts Outposts |
|
What are the duties of a guard?
|
They must memorize, understand, and comply with the general orders for guards. In addition, guards must understand and comply with special orders applying to their particular posts, including the use of the countersign and parole word, if they are in effect.
|
|
What is a parole word?
|
The parole (word) is used to check on the countersign when inspecting guards. Any person in time of war who discloses the parole word or countersign to any person not entitled to receive it, shall be punished by death or such other punishment as a court-martial may direct (Article 101, Uniform Code of Military Justice).
|
|
What do special orders define?
|
Exactly what a guard must do in a particular post
|
|
What is supernumerary?
|
An extra member of the guard who is used when needed to replace a guard or to perform special duties as prescribed by local directives.
|
|
When was the NCO support channel formally recognized?
|
20 December 1976
|
|
What is Sergeant's Business?
|
To train and lead soldiers
|
|
What is a Sergeant?
|
A leader
|
|
Explain the Chain of Command
|
The succession of commanders superior to subordinates through which command is exercised
|
|
Define Responsibility
|
Being accountable for what you do
|
|
How does the Chain of Command support the NCO support channel?
|
By legally punishing those who challenge a sergeant's authority
|
|
Define Duty.
|
Duty is a legal or moral obligation to do what should be done without being told to do it
|
|
What is the role of the CSM?
|
Senior Enlisted Advisor to the Battalion commander
|
|
How does a Commander exercise command?
|
Through subordinate commanders
|
|
When was the position of Sergeant Major of the Army established?
|
4 July 1966
|
|
Is the CSM in the Chain of Command?
|
No (but he supervises the NCO support channel)
|
|
What are key elements of command?
|
Authority and Responsibility
|
|
What is the NCO Support Channel?
|
It is the channel of communication that reinforces the Chain of Command
|
|
What must a Sergeant have in order to accomplish Sergeant's Business?
|
The Skill, ability and Leadership to train soldiers for combat and lead them into combat
|
|
Who is the only member of both your chain of command the your NCO support channel?
|
Your first line supervisor, section, squad or team leader
|
|
Which DA PAM covers the Geneva Convention?
|
DA PAM 27-1
|
|
What documents must POWs be allowed to keep upon capture?
|
They may keep their identity cards and personal papers.
|
|
What publication governs the rights and obligations for POWs under the Geneva Convention?
|
DA PAM 27-25
|
|
How many nations were initially represented at the first drafting of the Geneva Convention?
|
61 nations
|
|
There are four (4) international agreements that were written at the same time dealing with the treatment of POWs. What are they known as?
|
The Geneva Conventions for the Protection of War Victims.
|
|
True or False. The United States was the country where the Geneva Convention was written.
|
False. It was written in Geneva, Switzerland.
|
|
When did the Geneva Convention come into force for the United States?
|
February 2, 1955
|
|
What is the maximum non-judicial punishment that may be imposed upon a POW for minor offenses?
|
Up to 30 days confinement, extra duties and deprivation of privileges for similar periods.
|
|
If no POW of commissioned officer rank is present in a prisoner group, how often and by what means do prisoners choose their spokesman or representative?
|
They are chosen by secret ballot every six months.
|
|
How many articles govern the Geneva Convention in relation to the treatment of POWs?
|
143 articles
|
|
Name three (3) types of work that junior enlisted prisoners may be forced to perform as described in the Geneva Convention.
|
Domestic services.
Commercial business, arts and crafts. Public utility services. Transport and handling of stores that are not of military reference. Public works and construction Industrial work connected with raw materials and manufacturing. Agriculture. Administration, maintenance and installation of the camp. |
|
If captured, who are the only personnel that are not considered POWs?
|
All medical personnel and chaplains, who serve in or accompany the Armed Forces of the United States.
|
|
What is a capture card and what is it used for?
|
A post card written by a POW informing their next of kin of their whereabouts and state of health.
|
|
On what date, along with three (3) other international agreements were the Geneva Convention written?
|
August 12, 1949
|
|
As POWs, what types of work may noncommissioned officers be required to perform?
|
Supervisory work, but they may request other kinds of duty.
|
|
What does the Geneva Convention recognize as the main duty of a POW?
|
To try to escape or aide others in escaping.
|
|
What disciplinary action will be enforced if a member of the U.S. Armed Forces deliberately violates the Geneva Convention?
|
Trial by Court-Martial under UCMJ.
|
|
In 1785, a treaty was drafted with the Kingdom of Prussia and is considered the first agreement concerning wartime. Who was it drafted by and for what reason?
|
It was drafted by Benjamin Franklin, John Adams and Thomas Jefferson to improve treatment of POWs.
|
|
Under the Geneva Convention, who is the only one that may determine whether a person is entitled to be a POW or not?
|
A "competent tribunal" of the capturing nation.
|
|
True or False. POWs are required to salute the enemy camp commander if he is not an officer.
|
True
|
|
What are the three marching steps used in drill?
|
15in step
30in step 30in step, DOUBLE TIME 180 steps per minute |
|
What FM covers Drill and Ceremony?
|
FM 3-21.5
|
|
What is a review?
|
A military ceremony used to:
Honor a visiting, high-ranking commander, official, or dignitary, and or permit them to observe the state of training of a command. Present decorations and awards. Honor or recognize unit or individual achievements. Commemorate events. |
|
What are two prescribed formations for platoons?
|
line
column |
|
What is the primary purpose of drill (drill and ceremony)?
|
The purpose of drill is to enable a commander or noncommissioned officer to move his unit from one place to another in an orderly manner; to aid in disciplinary training by instilling habits of precision and response to the leader’s orders; and to provide for the development of all soldiers in the practice of commanding troops.
|
|
What are the 4 rest positions that can be given at the halt?
|
Parade rest
Stand at ease At ease Rest |
|
What is the primary value of ceremonies?
|
To render honors, preserve tradition, and to stimulate Esprit de Corps
|
|
What is a rank?
|
A line, which is only one element in depth
|
|
What foot is your leading foot?
|
Your left foot
|
|
What is the only command given from “Inspection Arms”?
|
“Ready, Port, Arms”
|
|
What is an element?
|
An individual, squad, section, platoon, company or larger unit forming part of the next higher unit
|
|
When marching, who is the only person in a platoon that is never out of step?
|
The platoon guide is the person responsible for maintaining the prescribed direction and rate of march.
|
|
What is a file?
|
A column, which has a front of only one element
|
|
If you were marching a squad, when would you give the command "squad halt"?
|
When either foot strikes the ground
|
|
What is a formation?
|
The arrangement of elements of a unit in a prescribed manner
|
|
After weapons have been issued to a unit and all other soldiers have fallen in with their weapons, what is the next command that you should give?
|
Inspection arms
|
|
While passing the colors or while the colors are passing you, when is the hand salute rendered?
|
Six paces before and six paces after
|
|
How many steps per minute is quick time?
|
120 steps per minute
|
|
How many steps per minute is double time?
|
180 steps per minute
|
|
What command is given to reverse the direction of a march?
|
Rear March
|
|
From what position are all stationary movements given?
|
Position of attention
|
|
On what foot would you give the command "Mark time march"?
|
On either foot
|
|
What is cover?
|
Aligning yourself directly behind the man to your immediate front, while maintaining correct distance
|
|
How do you measure a "step”?
|
Heel to heel
|
|
What is depth?
|
The space from front to rear of a formation including front and rear elements
|
|
What is the interval between the preparatory command and the command of execution?
|
1 step or 1 count
|
|
What are the two parts of most drill command?
|
Preparatory command
Command of execution |
|
How many steps does each rank take when a platoon is given the command of Open Ranks?
|
On the command "March", The first rank takes two steps forward, the second rank takes one step forward, the third rank stands fast and the fourth rank take two 15 inch steps to the rear
|
|
What are the 5 types of commands in a drill?
|
Two part
Combined Supplementing Directive |
|
What position is the unit guidon once a preparatory command is given?
|
The raised vertical position
|
|
What are some examples of a combined command?
|
At ease
Fall in Rest |
|
Define Cadence
|
The uniform rhythm in which a movement is executed, or the number of steps or counts per minute at which a movement is executed. Drill movements are normally executed at the cadence of quick time or double time. Quick time is the cadence of 120 counts or steps per minute; double time is the cadence of 180 counts or steps per minute.
|
|
What is Close Interval?
|
The lateral space between soldiers, measured from right to left by the soldier on the right placing the heel of his left hand on his hip, even with the top of the belt line, fingers and thumb joined and extended downward, with his elbow in line with the body and touching the arm of the soldier to his left.
|
|
What is Double Interval?
|
The lateral space between soldiers, measured from right to left by raising both arms shoulder high with the fingers extended and joined (palms down) so that fingertips are touching the fingertips of the soldiers to the right and to the left.
|
|
What is Normal Interval?
|
The lateral space between soldiers, measured from right to left by the soldier on the right holding his left arm shoulder high, fingers and thumb extended and joined, with the tip of his middle finger touching the right shoulder of the soldier to his left.
|
|
What command is given to revoke a preparatory command?
|
As You Were
|
|
Who is responsible for training and appearance of the color guard?
|
The CSM
|
|
What is a Guidon?
|
A guidon is a swallow-tailed flag carried by companies, batteries, troops, and certain detachments.
|
|
When executing a Rear March, on which foot do you pivot?
|
Both feet, turning 180 degrees to the right
|
|
What are the three methods used to teach Drill?
|
Step by step
By the numbers Talk-through method |
|
What 4 movements in marching require a 15-inch step?
|
Half step
Left step Right step Backward march |
|
How many steps should separate platoons when a company is formed?
|
5 steps
|
|
What is the only command that can be given from Inspection Arms, when performing drill with the M16?
|
Ready, Port Arms
|
|
What is the "Blue Book"?
|
A drill manual used by Baron Von Steuben (a former Prussian officer) to train the colonial army. It preceded the FM 3-21.5. It was known as "The regulations for the Order and Discipline of the Troops of the United States". This book was the first Army Field Manual
|
|
Can a command be changed after the command of execution has been given?
|
No
|
|
How far in front of the Honor Company or color company do the colors halt?
|
Ten steps
|
|
What Army Regulation covers the wear and appearance of the military uniform?
|
AR 670-1
|
|
Why is the flag worn on the right shoulder of the Utility Uniform?
|
The flag is worn on the right shoulder to give the effect of the flag flying in the breeze as the wearer moves forward.
|
|
Why are all Soldiers in the U.S. Army now authorized to wear the Reverse-Side Full-Color U.S. Flag Cloth Replica upon gaining permission from their commander?
|
The Nation is at war and will be for the foreseeable future. As an expeditionary Army, our Soldiers' commitment to fight and win our Nation's War, at home and abroad, is best exemplified by permanently wearing the U.S. Flag insignia on the utility uniforms.
|
|
What AR covers the issue and sale of personal clothing?
|
AR 700-84
|
|
When is the only time that commercially designed protective headgear is authorized for wear with uniform?
|
When operating motorcycles, bicycles or like vehicles but once the travel is complete protective headgear must be removed and army headgear donned
|
|
When must Identification Tags be worn?
|
When directed by the commander, engaged in field training, in an aircraft, or OCONUS
|
|
What does "ECWCS" stand for?
|
Extended Cold Weather Clothing System
|
|
What are the ranks that shoulder boards come in?
|
Corporal through SGM of the Army and also the Officer Ranks.
|
|
What is a CVC uniform?
|
Combat Vehicle Crewman's Uniform (Tanker's Uniform)
|
|
Exposed pens in pockets are allowed on which uniforms?
|
Hospital duty Uniforms
Food Service Uniforms Flight uniforms CVC Uniforms |
|
How is the beret properly worn?
|
The beret is worn so that the headband (edge binding) is straight across the forehead, 1 inch above the eyebrows. The flash is positioned over the left eye, and the excess material is draped over to the right ear, extending to at least the top of the ear, and no lower than the middle of the ear. Personnel will cut off the ends of the adjusting ribbon and secure the ribbon knot inside the edge binding at the back of the beret. When worn properly, the beret is formed to the shape of the head; therefore, soldiers may not wear hairstyles that cause distortion of the beret.
|
|
Who is authorized to wear insignia of branch on the Patrol cap?
|
Chaplains
|
|
When is the wear of Army uniforms prohibited?
|
In connection with the furtherance of any political or commercial interests, or when engaged in off-duty civilian employment.
When participating in public speeches, interviews, picket lines, marches, rallies, or public demonstrations, except as authorized by competent authority. When attending any meeting or event that is a function of, or is sponsored by, an extremist organization. When wearing the uniform would bring discredit upon the Army. When specifically prohibited by Army regulations. |
|
Soldiers will wear headgear with the Army uniform except under which circumstances?
|
Headgear is not required if it would interfere with the safe operation of military vehicles.
The wear of military headgear is not required while in or on a privately owned vehicle (to include a motorcycle, bicycle, or convertible automobile), a commercial vehicle, or on public conveyance (such as a subway, train, plane, or bus). Soldiers will not wear headgear indoors unless under arms in an official capacity, or when directed by the commander, such as for indoor ceremonial activities. Male and female soldiers are not required to wear headgear to evening social events (after Retreat) when wearing the Army blue and white uniforms, the enlisted green dress uniform, the Army green maternity dress uniform (females only), or the mess and evening mess uniforms. |
|
How will service ribbons be worn on the male Class A uniform?
|
The ribbons centered 1⁄8 inch above the left breast pocket. Ribbon mounts will remain centered above the pocket even if the top ribbon row is offset
|
|
How will service ribbons be worn on the female Class A uniform?
|
The ribbons centered on the left side, with the bottom row positioned parallel to the bottom edge of the nameplate. Females may adjust the placement of the ribbons to conform to individual body-shape differences
|
|
Where are unit awards worn on the male Class A uniform?
|
Emblems with or without frames are worn centered with the bottom edge of the emblem 1/8 above the right breast pocket flag
|
|
Where are unit awards worn on the female Class A uniform?
|
Emblems with or without frames are worn centered on the right side of the uniform, with the bottom edge 1⁄2 inch above the top edge of the nameplate
|
|
What are the dimensions of the dress uniform nameplate?
|
1 x 3 x 1/16 of an inch
|
|
How are marksmanship badges worn on the male Class A uniform?
|
Marksmanship badges are worn on the upper portion of the left breast pocket flap, or on the lower portion of the pocket flap, if special skill badges are worn.
|
|
How are marksmanship badges worn on the female Class A uniform?
|
Marksmanship badges are worn on the left side, 1⁄4 inch below the bottom ribbon row, or in a similar location if ribbons are not worn. Personnel may adjust the placement of badges to conform to individual body-shape differences.
|
|
Which direction does the belt tab on the army belt extend to on the male Class A uniform?
|
The wearers left
|
|
Which direction does the belt tab on the army belt extend to on the female Class A uniform?
|
The wearers right
|
|
How many marksmanship badges are authorized for wear at one time on the Class A Uniform?
|
No more than 3
|
|
What is the maximum number of clasps that can be attached to each marksmanship badge?
|
No more than 3
|
|
How are service ribbons worn on the male Class A uniform?
|
The ribbons centered 1⁄8 inch above the left breast pocket. Ribbon mounts will remain centered above the pocket even if the top ribbon row is offset
|
|
How are service ribbons worn on the female Class A uniform?
|
The ribbons centered on the left side, with the bottom row positioned parallel to the bottom edge of the nameplate. Females may adjust the placement of the ribbons to conform to individual body-shape differences
|
|
How is the Regimental Distinctive Insignia (RDI) worn on the male Class A Uniform?
|
The RDI centered 1⁄8 inch above the top of the pocket flap, or 1⁄4 inch above any unit awards or foreign badges that are worn. When the coat lapel obscures the insignia, soldiers may wear the RDI aligned to the right edge of unit awards or the nameplate.
|
|
How is the Regimental Distinctive Insignia (RDI) worn on the female Class A Uniform?
|
The RDI centered 1⁄2 inch above the nameplate, or 1⁄4 inch above any unit awards or foreign badges that are worn. When the coat lapel obscures the RDI, soldiers may wear the RDI aligned to the right edge of unit awards or the nameplate.
|
|
How is the branch insignia worn on the male Enlisted Class A uniform?
|
Enlisted males wear their branch insignia centered on the left collar, with the bottom of the disk approximately 1 inch above the notch, with the centerline of the insignia parallel to the inside edge of the lapel
|
|
How is the branch insignia worn on the female Enlisted Class A uniform?
|
Enlisted females wear their branch insignia on the left collar. The insignia is worn so the bottom of the disk is centered between the outside point and inside edge of the collar, approximately 5⁄8 inch up from the notch, with the centerline of the branch insignia parallel to the inside edge of the lapel.
|
|
How is the U.S. insignia disk worn on the male Class A uniform?
|
The bottom of the U.S. insignia disk is placed approximately 1 inch above the notch, centered on the right collar, with the centerline of the insignia parallel to the inside edge of the lapel
|
|
How is the U.S. insignia disk worn on the female Class A uniform?
|
the bottom of the U.S. insignia disk is centered on the right collar, approximately 5⁄8 inch up from the collar and lapel seam, with the centerline of the insignia parallel to the inside edge of the lapel
|
|
How are service stripes placed on the Class A uniform?
|
The service stripes are worn centered on the outside bottom half of the left sleeve on the Army green uniform coat. The service stripe is placed at an angle of 45 degrees with the lower end toward the inside seam of the sleeve, and it is placed 4 inches from the bottom of the sleeve. For each additional period of 3 years honorable service, another service stripe is added above and parallel to the first stripe, with a 1/16-inch space between stripes
|
|
One service stripe represents how many years?
|
3
|
|
What is the most noticeable difference between the Army Blue Service Uniform trousers worn by Soldiers in the ranks of PVT through SPC and those worn by NCOs in the ranks of CPL through SMA?
|
The trousers worn by Soldiers in the ranks of PVT through SPC will not have a gold stripe along the legs which can be found on the trousers worn by CPL through SMA.
|
|
As a “rite of passage” when a Soldier progresses in rank and enters the NCO Corps, what is added to the Army Blue Service Uniform?
|
The trousers will have a gold stripe added and the wear of the beret will be replaced with a Service Cap.
|
|
How will service ribbons be worn on the male Army Blue Service uniform?
|
The ribbons centered 1⁄8 inch above the left breast pocket. Ribbon mounts will remain centered above the pocket even if the top ribbon row is offset
|
|
How will service ribbons be worn on the female Army Blue Service uniform?
|
The ribbons centered on the left side, with the bottom row positioned parallel to the bottom edge of the nameplate. Females may adjust the placement of the ribbons to conform to individual body-shape differences
|
|
How is the Regimental Distinctive Insignia (RDI) worn on the male Army Blue Service Uniform?
|
The RDI centered 1⁄8 inch above the top of the pocket flap, or 1⁄4 inch above any unit awards or foreign badges that are worn. When the coat lapel obscures the insignia, soldiers may wear the RDI aligned to the right edge of unit awards or the nameplate.
|
|
How is the Regimental Distinctive Insignia (RDI) worn on the female Army Blue Service Uniform?
|
The RDI centered 1⁄2 inch above the nameplate, or 1⁄4 inch above any unit awards or foreign badges that are worn. When the coat lapel obscures the RDI, soldiers may wear the RDI aligned to the right edge of unit awards or the nameplate.
|
|
Where are unit awards worn on the male Army Blue Service uniform?
|
Emblems with or without frames are worn centered with the bottom edge of the emblem 1/8 above the right breast pocket flag
|
|
Where are unit awards worn on the female Army Blue Service uniform?
|
Emblems with or without frames are worn centered on the right side of the uniform, with the bottom edge 1⁄2 inch above the top edge of the nameplate
|
|
How are marksmanship badges worn on the male Army Blue Service uniform?
|
Marksmanship badges are worn on the upper portion of the left breast pocket flap, or on the lower portion of the pocket flap, if special skill badges are worn.
|
|
How are marksmanship badges worn on the female Army Blue Service uniform?
|
Marksmanship badges are worn on the left side, 1⁄4 inch below the bottom ribbon row, or in a similar location if ribbons are not worn. Personnel may adjust the placement of badges to conform to individual body-shape differences.
|
|
What is the maximum number of clasps that can be attached to each marksmanship badge?
|
3
|
|
How are service ribbons worn on the male Army Blue Service uniform?
|
The ribbons centered 1⁄8 inch above the left breast pocket. Ribbon mounts will remain centered above the pocket even if the top ribbon row is offset
|
|
What is the estimated lifetime of the new ACU?
|
6 months. (ACU is made with the same nylon/cotton rip-stop fabric as the current Enhanced Hot Weather BDU (EHWBDU). The current EHWBDU has an estimated wear life of six months.)
|
|
Explain the new digitized pattern
|
The new pattern is designed to work in the three primary combat environments, -- Woodland, Desert and Urban. Though not optimized for any particular environment, it is effective in all three.
|
|
Describe the rank and grade insignia on the ACU.
|
The rank and grade will be black emroidery on the digitized fabric with hook fastener, expect major and 2nd lieutenant; which will be bronze embroidery with hook fastener. The olive drab areas of the warrant officer rank will be foliage green.
|
|
Can embroidered badges be worn on the ACU?
|
No, embroidered badges will not be worn on the ACU.
|
|
Describe the Name tape / U.S. Army tape for the ACU.
|
The U.S. Army Tape will be black embroidery on the digitized fabric with hook fastener. The finished length will be 5 inches.
|
|
How is the Name tape / U.S. Army tape worn on the ACU?
|
Immediately above and parallel with the slanted chest pocket flaps
|
|
Describe the rank insignia dimensions used on the ACU.
|
Private through Colonel – 2 inches by 2 inches with hook fastener
Brigadier General and Major General – 2 inches by 2 inches overall with hook fastener Lieutenant General – 2 inches by 3 ¼ inches with both hook and loop fasteners attached. General Officer – ¾ inch stars point to vertex 1/8 inch apart |
|
Soldiers may wear up to five skill badges on the ACU. All skill badges will be worn above the U.S. Army tape in order of precedence from the wearers left. How would you wear 1,2,3,4, or and 5 skill badges?
|
1 Badge – Worn 1/8 inch above and centered on the U.S. Army tape.
2 Badges – Worn vertically 1/8 inch above and centered on the U.S. Army tape with ¼ inch between badges. 3 Badges - Worn vertically 1/8 inch above and centered on the U.S. Army tape with ¼ inch between badges. 4 Badges – Worn vertically and side by side in stacks of two, 1/8 inch above and centered on the U.S. Army tape, with 1.4 inch between badges vertically and ½ inch between badges horizontally. 5 Badges - Worn vertically and side by side in stacks of two, 1/8 inch above and centered on the U.S. Army tape, with 1.4 inch between badges vertically and ½ inch between badges horizontally. The 5th badge is placed ¼ inch above and centered on the top two badges. |
|
Branch insignia will not be worn with the ACU with one exception. Who is allowed to wear branch insignia and how is it worn?
|
U.S. Army Chaplaincy religious denomination insignia may be worn 1/8 inch above and centered on the name tape. The insignia will be pin on only.
|
|
How will the SSI (Unit Patch) and the SSI-FWTS (Combat Patch) be worn on the ACU?
|
The SSI will be worn centered on the hook and loop faced pad already provided on the left sleeve of the coat.
The SSI-FWTS will be worn centered on the hook and loop faced pad already provided on the right sleeve of the coat. |
|
How will the U.S. Flag insignia be worn on the ACU?
|
The U.S. Flag insignia is worn on the right shoulder pocket flap of the ACU coat.
|
|
How many skill tabs can be worn on the ACU?
|
No more than 3
|
|
How are skill tabs worn on the ACU?
|
Centered on the shoulder pocket flap of the hook and loop faced pad already provided on the left shoulder of the ACU coat in order of precedence IAW AR 670-1.
|
|
Can a Soldier wear the Black All weather coat as a raincoat with the ACU?
|
Yes, but only in a Garrison environment.
|
|
How is the ACU patrol cap worn with the ACU?
|
Personnel wear the patrol cap straight on the head so that the cap band creates a straight line around the head, parallel to the ground. The patrol cap will fit snugly and comfortably around the largest part of the head without distortion or excessive gaps. The cap is worn so that no hair is visible on the forehead beneath the cap. At their discretion, individuals may wear the earflaps down during cold weather, except in formation when the commander may prescribe wear policy
|
|
What type of rank is authorized to be worn on the ACU patrol cap?
|
Sewn or Pin on rank.
|
|
How is the name tape worn on the ACU Patrol Cap?
|
The name tape will be worn centered on the hook and loop pad on the back of the ACU Patrol Cap.
|
|
When the ACU trouser leg is bloused, what is the maximum distance that it may extend down the boot?
|
The bloused trouser legs should not extend below the third eyelet from the top of the boot..
|
|
Describe the proper process for washing the ACU.
|
Wash in cold water and mild detergent containing NO optical brighteners or bleach.
Tumble dry at low heat (not to exceed 130 degrees farenheit) Remove immediately from dryer and fold flat or place on a rustproof hanger to ensure heat from the dryer does not set wrinkles. To drip dry, remove from the washer/water and place on a rustproof hanger. Do not wring or twist. |
|
What are the components of the IPFU?
|
Jacket, running, gray and black.
Pants, running, black. Trunks, running, black, moisture-wicking. T-shirt, gray, short sleeve, moisture-wicking. T-shirt, gray, long sleeve, moisture-wicking. Cap, knit, black or Cap, Synthetic, Microfleece, Green |
|
When authorized by the Commander, may the IPFU be worn on and off post and on and off duty?
|
Yes, Soldiers may wear all or part of the IPFU with civilian attire off the installation, when authorized by the commander.
|
|
What is the only insignia authorized for wear on the IPFU according to AR 670-1?
|
The Physical Fitness Badge
|
|
How is the Physical Fitness Badge properly placed on the IPFU?
|
When the physical fitness badge is worn, it is sewn on the upper left front side of the IPFU T-shirt. On the IPFU running jacket, the insignia is sewn centered 1⁄2 inch above the word “Army.”
|
|
Are Soldiers authorized to wear commercially purchased gray or black spandex shorts under the IPFU trunks?
|
Yes, The length of the shorts must end above the knee or higher. The commercial shorts must be plain, with no logos, patterns, or obtrusive markings. Soldiers are not required to buy the spandex shorts.
|
|
Who are the only Soldiers authorized to wear the IPFU shirt outside of the trunks?
|
Pregnant Soldiers
|
|
Can Commanders authorize the wear of commercial items be worn with the IPFU?
|
Commanders may authorize the wear of commercial running shoes, calf-length or ankle-length, plain white socks with no logos, gloves, reflective belts or vests, long underwear, and other items appropriate to the weather conditions and type of activity. If soldiers wear long underwear or other similar items, they must conceal them from view when wearing the running jacket and pants of the IPFU.
|
|
What is the FM concerning the M4 Rifle?
|
FM 3-22.9
|
|
What is the first thing you should do when you handle a weapon?
|
Make sure you clear it
|
|
Name the five phases in Basic Rifle Marksmanship.
|
Preliminary Rifle Instruction
Downrange Feedback Field Fire Advanced Rifle Marksmanship Advanced Optics, Laser and Iron Sights |
|
What is the purpose of a weaponeer?
|
The weaponeer is capable of simulating all of the BRM live fire scenarios without firing rounds. Immediate feedback is available for critiquing the soldier's application of the integrated act of firing while using the weaponeer device to include misfire procedures.
|
|
What are the four fundamentals of marksmanship?
|
Steady Position
Proper Aim (Sight Picture) Breathing Trigger Squeeze |
|
During Preliminary Marksmanship Training (PMI), what are the only two positions taught?
|
Individual Foxhole supported
Basic Prone unsupported |
|
What are the two basic elements of the Sight Picture?
|
Sight Alignment
Placing of the Aiming Point |
|
What does the Acronym SPORTS stand for?
|
Slap, Pull, Observe, Release, Tap and Shoot
|
|
What is remedial action?
|
Remedial action is the continuing effort to determine the cause for a stoppage or malfunction and to try to clear the stoppage once it has been identified
|
|
Describe the proper procedures for applying remedial action with the M4.
|
Try to place the weapon on safe
Remove the magazine Lock the bolt to the rear Place the weapon on safe if not already done |
|
Describe the proper procedure for applying immediate action with the M4.
|
Slaps gently upward on the magazine to ensure it is fully seated, and the magazine follower is not jammed.
Pulls the charging handle fully to the rear. Observes for the ejection of a live round or expended cartridge. (If the weapon fails to eject a cartridge, perform remedial action.) Releases the charging handle (do not ride it forward). Taps the forward assist assembly to ensure bolt closure. Squeezes the trigger and tries to fire the rifle. |
|
What are the steps required in order to mechanically zero the M4?
|
Adjust the front sight post up or down until the base of the front sight post is flush with the front sight post housing.
Adjust the elevation knob counterclockwise, when viewed from above, until the rear sight assembly rests flush with the detachable carrying handle and the 6/3 marking is aligned with the index line on the left side of the carrying handle. Position the apertures so the unmarked aperture is up and the 0-200 meter aperture is down. Rotate the windage knob to align the index mark on the 0-200 meter aperture with the long center index line on the rear sight assembly. |
|
What are the steps required in order to battlesight zero the M4?
|
Adjust the elevation knob counterclockwise, when viewed from above, until the rear sight assembly rests flush with the detachable carrying handle and the 6/3 marking is aligned with the index line on the left side of the detachable carrying handle. The elevation knob remains flush.
Position the apertures so the unmarked aperture is up and the 0-200 meter aperture is down. Rotate the windage knob to align the index mark on the 0-200 meter aperture with the long center index line on the rear sight assembly. |
|
Is SPORTS an Immediate or Remedial Action?
|
Immediate action
|
|
What is immediate action?
|
Immediate action involves quickly applying a possible correction to reduce a stoppage without performing troubleshooting procedures to determine the actual cause.(SPORTS)
|
|
How many times should immediate action be applied to a weapon?
|
Once. (If Rifle still fails to fire, apply remedial action)
|
|
What is a malfunction?
|
The weapon ceasing to fire due to a stoppage resulting from mechanical failure of the weapon, magazine or ammo.
|
|
Name the different categories of malfunctions for the M4 Rifle.
|
Failure to feed, chamber or lock
Failure to fire cartridge Failure to Extract Failure to Eject |
|
What is stoppage?
|
A stoppage is a failure of an automatic or semiautomatic firearm to complete the cycle of operation.
|
|
How do you clear a stoppage?
|
Apply immediate or remedial action
|
|
What is the definition of Maximum Effective Range?
|
The greatest distance at which a soldier may be expected to deliver a target hit.
|
|
What does CLP stand for?
|
Cleaner - It contains solvents that dissolve firing residue and carbon.
Lubricant - It lays down a layer of teflon as it dries to provide lubrication. Preservative - It prevents rust from Forming. |
|
Describe the M4 Rifle.
|
A 5.56 mm, magazine fed, gas-operated, air-cooled, semiautomatic or three-round burst, hand-held, shoulder-fired weapon.
|
|
What are the 7 types of ammunition that can be used with the M4 Rifle?
|
M193 – Ball
M196 – Trace M199 – Dummy M200 – Blank (Violet tip and 7 petal rose crimp) M855 – Ball (Green Tip) M856 – Tracer (Red Tip) M862 – Short Range Training Ammunition (Plastic with a Blue Tip) |
|
Describe the weights of the M4 Rifle without mgazine and sling, with sling and loaded 20 round magazine and with sling and loaded 30 round magazine.
|
Without Magazine and Sling - 6.49 pounds
With Sling and a loaded 20 round magazine - 7.19 pounds With Sling and a loaded 30 round magazine - 7.50 pounds |
|
Describe the max effective rates of fire for the M4 Rifle.
|
Semiautomatic - 45 rounds per minute
Burst - 90 rounds per minute Sustained - 12-15 rounds per minute |
|
What is the muzzle velocity of the M4 Rifle?
|
2,970 feet per second
|
|
Describe the ranges for the M4 Rifle.
|
Maximum Range - 3,600 meters
Max Effective Range for a Point Target - 500 meters Max Effective Range for an Area Target - 600 meters |
|
Describe the Barrel Rifling for the M4 Rifle.
|
Right hand twist 1/7
|
|
What is the basic load of ammunition for the M4?
|
210 Rounds total. (7 magazines with 30 rounds in each)
|
|
The elevation knob adjusts the point of aim for the M4 Rifle how much?
|
300 to 600 meters
|
|
What is the overall length of the M4 Rifle?
|
Buttstock Closed - 29.75 inches
Buttstock Open - 33.00 inches |
|
What are the four positions for the buttstock of the M4 Rifle?
|
Closed
1/2 Open 3/4 Open Full Open |
|
What are the 8 steps in the functioning of the M4 rifle?
|
Feeding
Chambering Locking Firing Unlocking Extracting Ejecting Cocking |
|
What part of the M4 Rail Adapter System may be removed to perform PMCS?
|
Only the Lower Assembly
|
|
Describe the procedures for clearing the M4 Rifle.
|
Point the muzzle in a designated SAFE DIRECTION. Attempt to place selector lever on SAFE. If weapon is not cocked, lever cannot be placed on SAFE.
Remove the magazine by depressing the magazine catch button and pulling the magazine down. To lock bolt open, pull charging handle rearward. Press bottom of bolt catch and allow bolt to move forward until it engages bolt catch. Return charging handle to full forward position. If you have not done so before, place the selector lever on SAFE. Visually (not physically) inspect the receiver and chamber to ensure these areas contain no ammo. With the selector lever pointing toward SAFE, allow the bolt to go forward by pressing the upper portion of the bolt catch. Place the selector lever on SEMI and squeeze the trigger. Pull the charging handle fully rearward and release it, allowing the bolt to return to the full forward position. Place the selector lever on SAFE. Close the ejection port cover. |
|
How do you perform a functions check on the M4 Rifle?
|
Place the selector lever on safe. If the selector switch will not go on safe, pull the charging handle to the rear and release. Place the selector lever on safe. Pull the trigger to the rear, the hammer should not fall.
Place the selector lever on semi. Pull the trigger to the rear and hold. The hammer should fall. While holding the trigger to the rear, pull the charging handle to the rear and release. Release the trigger and pull it to the rear again. The hammer should fall. Place the selector lever on burst. Pull the charging handle to the rear and release. Pull the trigger to the rear and hold. The hammer should fall. While holding the trigger to the rear, pull the charging handle to the rear three times and release. Release the trigger and pull it to the rear again. The hammer should fall. |
|
What Army Regulation prescribes the policies for completing evaluation reports that support the Evaluation Reporting System (ERS)?
|
AR 623-3
|
|
What DA Pamphlet prescribes the procedures for completing evaluation reports that support the Evaluation Reporting System (ERS)?
|
DA Pam 623-3
|
|
What does the Evaluation Reporting System (ERS) identify?
|
The ERS identifies officers and noncommissioned officers who are best qualified for promotion and assignments to positions of higher responsibility. ERS also identifies Soldiers who should be kept on active duty, those who should be retained in grade, and those who should be eliminated.
|
|
Under the ERS a Soldier is evaluated on performance and potential. In this system, what three kinds of evaluations are given?
|
Duty evaluations. Either the DA Form 67–9 or DA Form 2166–8 is used for these evaluations.
School evaluations. Either the DA Form 1059 and DA Form 1059–1 is used for these evaluations. DA evaluations. Selection boards and personnel management systems are used for these evaluations. Duty and school evaluations are single time-and-place evaluations and are used to make DA evaluations. DA evaluations cover the entire career of an officer and noncommissioned officer. |
|
DA evaluations focus on an individual Soldier’s potential. They are judgments on their ability to perform at current and higher grades, and they are also made to judge whether an officer or NCO should be retained and given greater responsibility in their present grade. In making DA evaluations, what three factors are considered?
|
Army requirements for leaders: officers and noncommissioned officers frequently change. At times, the Army has a need for leaders with certain backgrounds, experience, and expertise. The size of the Army leader corps by law in terms of strength by grade. Army needs limit the number of selections and assignments that can be made. Thus, a leader’s potential is partially determined by how they compare with their peers.
Duty performance. Performance of duty is an extremely important factor in determining a leader’s potential. Duty performance is judged by how well a Soldier performs their assigned tasks and how well they meet Armyprofessional values uniquely established for each respective corps. Leader qualifications. It must be considered in order to meet Army needs for outstanding leaders of troop or technical units, supporting staff managers, and technical specialists. One consideration in determining qualifications is the different skills and backgrounds required by different specialties. Another consideration is a Soldier’s individual progress through specialist fields to positions of greater responsibility. In addition, their length of service, civil schooling, military schooling, or other unique skills required by the Army are considered. |
|
What is the basic strucure of the ERS?
|
Allows the rater to give shape and direction to the rated officer or noncommissioned officer’s performance.
Provides a chain-of-command evaluation of a Soldier’s performance and potential. Allows the entire evaluation reporting process to be reviewed. |
|
What is the ERS Process designed to do?
|
Set objectives for the rated Soldier that supports the organization’s overall achievement of the mission.
Review the rated Soldier’s objectives, special duties, assigned tasks, or special areas of emphasis and update them to meet current needs. Promote performance-related counseling to develop subordinates and better accompish the organization’s mission. Evaluate the rated leader’s performance. Assess the rated leader’s potential. Ensure a review of the entire process. Noncommissioned officer’s organizational rating chain use DA Form 2166–8; and DA Form 2166–8–1. |
|
What will a rating chain for an NCO consist of?
|
Rated NCO
Rater Senior Rater Reviewer |
|
Can an NCO that is on a recommended list for promotion or frocked to one of the top three NCO grades (first sergeant (1SG), SGM, or CSM) and is serving in an authorized position for the new grade, rate any NCO under their supervision, if after the rater’s promotion he/she will be senior in pay grade or date of rank to the rated NCO?
|
yes
|
|
What is an NCOER?
|
Rating chain members use the DA Form 2166–8 (NCOER) to provide DA with performance and potential assessments of each rated NCO. The DA Form 2166–8 also provides evaluation information to ensure that sound personnel management decisions can be made and that an NCO’s potential can be fully developed.
|
|
How many types of NCOERs are there?
|
There are 7:
Annual Change of Rater Relief for Cause Complete the Record 60 Day Rater Option 60 Day Senior Rater Option Temporary Duty, Special Duty or Compassionate Reassignment |
|
What is the minimum period of time for rater qualification?
|
3 Rated Months
|
|
What is the minimum period of time for senior rater qualifications?
|
2 months
|
|
When will a member of an allied force meet senior rater qualifications?
|
never
|
|
What form is used for the NCO Counseling/Checklist Record?
|
DA Form 2166-8-1
|
|
What are some of the uses of an NCOER?
|
The information in evaluation reports, the Army’s needs, and the individual Soldier’s qualifications will be used together as a basis for such personnel actions as school selection, promotion, assignment, military occupational specialty (MOS) classification, command sergeant major (CSM) designation, and qualitative management.
|
|
What is a rating scheme?
|
A rating scheme is the published rating chain of the NCO’s rating officials (rater, senior rater, and reviewer).
|
|
What forms are used for the NCOER?
|
DA 2166-8-1, NCO Counseling Checklist/Record
DA 2166-8, NCO Evaluation Report. |
|
What is the minimum time period before the initial counseling must be done?
|
Within the first 30 days of the rating period, effective date of lateral appointment to corporal, or promotion to sergeant, the rater will conduct the first counseling session with the rated NCO
|
|
The intitial counseling is slightly different than future counselings in that it primarily focuses on what areas?
|
Communicating performance standards to the rated NCO. It should specifically let the rated NCO know what is expected during the rating period. The rater shows the rated NCO the rating chain and a complete duty description, discusses the meaning of the values and responsibilities contained on the NCOER, and explains the standards for success.
|
|
Who is the last individual to sign the NCOER?
|
The rated NCO
|
|
Does the rated NCOs signature mean that the rated NCO approve of the bullets / comment on the NCOER?
|
No, The rated Soldier’s signature will only verify the accuracy of the administrative data in Part I, to include nonrated time; the rating officials in Part II; the APFT and height and weight data; and that the rated Soldier has seen the completed report.
|
|
Are NCOERs required for POWs?
|
No
|
|
What are the parts of the NCOER?
|
Part I. Administrative Data
Part II. Authentication Part III. Duty Description Part IV. Army Values/ NCO Responsibilities Part V. Overall Performance and Potential. |
|
What is the minimum period of time for the reviewer?
|
None, there is no minimum time required
|
|
Are handwritten comments allowed on the NCOER?
|
no
|
|
Will any references be made in an NCOER to an incomplete investigation (formal or informal) concerning a Soldier?
|
no
|
|
Rating an NCO's fears, inner feelings, enthusiasm, and overall confidence falls into which Values/NCO Responsibility block?
|
Physical Fitness/Military Bearing
|
|
Is the use of the 2166-8-1 mandatory for counseling all NCOs in the ranks of CPL through CSM?
|
Yes.
|
|
Who can receive an NCOER?
|
All NCOs
|
|
What annotation will be made on the NCOER for a NCO's performance as a member of a Court Martial?
|
None
|
|
What NCOER is used upon the removal of an NCO from a ratable assignment based on the decision by a member of the NCO's chain of command?
|
Relief-for-cause
|
|
What does SOI stand for?
|
Signal Operation Instructions
|
|
What does the SOI provide?
|
The organization of stations into nets
Assigns call signs Designates Net Control Stations (NCS) Assigns frequencies Changes to alternate frequencies Security Procedures to be used by Radio Operators |
|
What Field Manual covers Tactical Single-Channel Radio Communications Techniques?
|
FM 24-18
|
|
What percent of slack should you allow when laying WD1 wire?
|
20 percent
|
|
Which means of communication is least secure?
|
Radio
|
|
What are five methods of communication?
|
Radio
Sound Visual Messenger Wire |
|
Which means of communication is most secure?
|
Messenger
|
|
What is COMSEC?
|
COMmunications SECurity
|
|
What is OPSEC?
|
OPerations SECurity
|
|
List 5 factors that affect the range of radio equipment?
|
Weather
Terrain Antenna Power Location |
|
What does NCS stand for?
|
Net Control Station
|
|
What does MIJI stand for?
|
Meaconing, Intrusion, Jamming and Interference
|
|
What is the range of a TA-1 field phone?
|
Approximately 3.7 miles using field wire
|
|
How many volts are in a TA-1 field phone when squeezed?
|
100 volts
|
|
What is the maximum effective distance of a TA-312 field phone in wet and dry climates?
|
Wet - 14 miles
Dry -22 miles |
|
What does CB, LB, and CBS stand for on a TA-312 field phone?
|
CB-common battery
LB-local battery CBS- common battery signaling |
|
BA30 batteries should be installed how, in a TA-312 field phone?
|
1 up 1 down
|
|
What is WD-1?
|
Communications field wire
|
|
What does the “W” and “D” stand for in “WD-1” Wire?
|
Wire Drum
|
|
How deep should you dig when laying WD1 wire under hard-packed dirt roads?
|
6 to 12 inches
|
|
How deep should you dig WD1 wire in loose or sandy soil?
At least 3 feet How much WD1 wire is on a donut roll (MX306)? 1/2 mile How much WD1 wire is on a DR8 reel? 1/4 mile How far beyond each side of the road should wire be buried? At least 2 ft WD1 wire must be how high above a road crossing? At least 18 ft How much tape should you use when taping a splice? At least 4 inches |
How deep should you dig WD1 wire in loose or sandy soil?
At least 3 feet How much WD1 wire is on a donut roll (MX306)? 1/2 mile How much WD1 wire is on a DR8 reel? 1/4 mile How far beyond each side of the road should wire be buried? At least 2 ft WD1 wire must be how high above a road crossing? At least 18 ft How much tape should you use when taping a splice? At least 4 inches |
|
What device is used to enter FH (Frequency Hop) Data info into the SINCGARS?
|
A MX-10579 ECCM Fill Device
|
|
What do the letters AN and PRC stand for?
|
Army/Navy and Portable Radio Communicator
|
|
What is an AN/PRC-68?
|
A type of Squad radio small unit transceiver
|
|
What is the first thing you do before sending a radio message?
|
Listen to see if the Net is clear
|
|
What does SINCGARS stand for?
|
SINgle Channel Ground/Airborne Radio System
|
|
How much does the AN/PRC 77 weigh?
|
About 25 lbs
|
|
What is the approximate range of the AN/PRC 77?
|
5 to 8 KM
|
|
How many channels does the AN/PRC 77 have?
|
920
|
|
What type of knot do you use when repairing WD1 wire?
|
A square knot
|
|
Most infantry radios are _____ Modulated?
|
FM
|
|
What does EPLRS Stand for?
|
Enhanced Position Location Reporting System
|