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258 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
What is the definition of Integum?
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Covering
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True or False the dermis is thicker than the epidermis?
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True
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The hypodermis is also called the?
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Superficial Fascia
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This layer of the skin is made of keratinized stratified squamous epithelium
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The epidermis
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The layer of the epidermis where active mitosis occurs
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The Stratum Basale
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Layers of the Epidermis
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Corneum, Lucidum, Granular, Spinosum and Basale
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The system that includes the skin and its derivatives, including the sweat and oil glands, hair and nails is called?
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Integumentary System
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This skin layer contains nerve fibers, blood vessels, and smooth muscle cells
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Dermis
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A thickening of the epidermis caused by persistent friction is called a?
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Callus
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These layers of the epidermis contain dead keratiinocytes.
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Corneum and Lucidum
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This layer of the epidermis has 3-5 cell layers in which keratinocyte appearance changes drastically and the cells are dying
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Granulosum
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The Stratum Basale is also known as the?
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Stratum Germinativum
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The stratum spinosum is also called the?
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"prickly layer"
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What are the two layers of the Dermis?
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Papillary and the reticular
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Fingerprints are formed by?
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epidermal ridges that cover the dermal papillae
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The reticular of the dermis is made of?
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dense irregular connective tissue
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When skin is exposed to high tempertures what are some consequences?
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Dermal Papillae do not contract, There is no increased Melanin production, Blood vessels dialate, and there is no increased metosis production
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This causes the pinkish hue of fair skin due to Red Blood Cells circulating throught the dermal capillaries
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Hemoglobin
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Sweat glands are also called?
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Sudoriferous Glands
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Sweat glands are distributed over the entire surface of the skin except?
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nipples and parts of external genitalia
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How many sweat glands are there per person?
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More than 2.5 million
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What are the two types of sweat glands?
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Eccrine and apocrine
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Eccrine sweat glands are also called
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Merocrine sweat glands
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Where are eccrine sweat glands located?
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Abundant on palm, soles and forehead
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What is the pH of sweat?
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Between 4-6 (acidic)
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Each of these sweat glands are a simple coiled tubular gland that secretes through the dermis.
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Eccrine
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Sweat is a ______filtrate of blood
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hypotonic
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This is 99% water with salts, Vit C antibodies, dermicidin wates sure as urea ammonia and lactic acid
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Sweat
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These sweat glands are found in the axillary (under arm) and anogential (pubic) areas?
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Apocrine sweat glands
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They are larger than eccrine glands
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Apocrine
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Their ducts empty into hair follicles and contains true sweat plus fats and proteins
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Apocrine sweat glands
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These are modified apocrine glands found in the inner ear, that secretes Cerumen (ear wax)
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Ceruminous Glands
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Are Mammary glands sweat glands?
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Yes a specialized sweat gland
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Are Sebaceous Glands Holocrine Glands?
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Yes
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These are oil glands, simple alveolar glands found all over Except palms and soles of feet
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Sebaceous Glands
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Sebaceous Glands secrete ?
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Sebum
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Is sebum secreted into a hair follicle or directly to the skin surface?
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both
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Can Sebum be bactericidal?
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yes
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The white crescent that lies over the thick nail matrix is called the?
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Lunula
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The main function of hair on the human is to?
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sense insects on the skin before they sting us
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The central core of hair is called?
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Medulla
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What is Alopecia?
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Baldness or hair loss
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What is abnormal Lateral curvature of the spine?
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Scoliosis
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What is exaggerated thoracic curvature?
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Kyphosis (hunch back)
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What is exggerated lumbar curvature?
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Lordosis (sway back)
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How many cervical vertebrae are there?
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7
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This usually involves rupture of the annulus fibrosus followed by protrusion of the spongy nucleus pulposus through the annulus
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Herniated disc
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What is unique about cervical vertebrae?
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They have a transverse foramen
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The C1 vertebrae is known as?
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Yes Vertebrae
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Which vertebrae artivulate with the ribs?
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Thoracic vertebrae
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How many thoracic vertebrae are there?
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12
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The body of this vertebrae is heart shaped, with two facets on each side to receive the head of the ribs
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Thoracic vertebrae
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Where does the spinal cord end?
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L-2 Lumbar 2
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How many Lumbar vertebrae are there?
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5
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This contains the thoracic vertebrae, the ribs and the sternum and costal cartilages
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The bony Thorax
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This bone contains the manubrium, the body and the xiphoid process
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The Sternum
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What are the functions of the bony thorax?
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Protect vital organs, supports shoulder girdle and upper limbs, and provides attachment points for the muscles of the neck, back, chest and shoulders
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What is the indentation at the top of the Sternum Manubrium?
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Jugular or Suprasternal notch
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This attaches the upper limbs to the body trunk
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Pectoral Girdle or shoulder girdle
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This secures the lower limbs
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Pelvic girdle or hip girdle
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The shoulder girdle consists of?
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The clavicle and the scapula
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The inferior border of the rib has a ______ that carries the ntercostal nerves and arteries
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Costal Groove
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This is a knoblike area on the rib that articulates with the transverse process of the vertebra
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Tubercle
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This bone is flattened at its lateral acromial end which articulates with the scapula
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Clavicle
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This is the only S shaped bone in the body
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Clavicle
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Each Scapula has three borders the?
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Superior, medial (vertebral) and the lateral (axillary)
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This articulates with the humerus of the arm forming the shoulder joint
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Glenoid Cavity
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This is a nerve passage medial to the coracoid process on the Scapula
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Suprascapular Notch
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This is the area between the shoulder and the elbow
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The arm
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This is the sole bone of the arm
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humerus
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these bones make up the forearm
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Ulna and Radius
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This includes the carpus, the metacarpals and the phalanges
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the hand
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This is the slight constriction inferior to the head of the humerus
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Anatomical neck
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The greater and lesser tubercle on the humerous is separated by?
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Bicipital Groove or Intertubercular groove
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This is the most frequently fractured part of the humerus
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Surgical neck
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This is the roughened attachment site for the deltoid muscle on the humerous
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Deltoid tuberosity
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This marks the course for the radial nerve on the humerous
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Radial Groove
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Where is the coronoid fossa?
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superior to the trochlea on the humerous
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What is the antebrachium?
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forearm
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In the anatomical position the radius lies?
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Laterally (on the thumb side)
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In the anatomical position the ulna lies?
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Medially
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True or false the ulna is slightly longer than the radius?
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True
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This bone is mainly responsible for forming the elbow
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Ulna
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The two big prominences on the ulna separated by the trochlear notch?
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Olecranon process and the coronoid process
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The head of the Ulna has a _______ where a ligament runs to the wrist
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Styloid process
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The head of this bone is shaped like a nail
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Radius
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This anchors the biceps of the arm to the radius
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Radial Tuberosity
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What is a colle's facture?
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a break in the distal radius (by the wrist)
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How many phalanges are there in the hand?
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14
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What is the joint between metacarpal 1 and the trapezium bone called?
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Saddle joint
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The hip bone forms from the fusion of?
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Ilium, ischium and the pubis
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What is the deep socket where the head of the femur articulates?
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Acetabulum
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The large flaring bone that forms the superior region of the coxal bone is?
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Ilium
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The sciatic nerves passes through here
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Greater sciatic notch
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This defines the pelvic brim
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The arcuate line
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This receives the weight of the body when sitting
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ischial tuberosity
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The hole in the hip is called?
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Obturator foramen
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The femur length is about ___ of a person's height
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25%
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What are the three segments of the lower limb?
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Thigh (femur) the leg and the foot
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The indentation on the head of the femur is the
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Fovea capitis
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What is the weakest part and most common facture part of the femur?
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neck
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The intertrochanteric line is on the ____ of the femur
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front
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The intertrochanteric crest is on the ____ of the femur
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back
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What bones form the lower leg?
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Tibia and Fibula
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this bone does not contribute to the knee joint, only helps to stablilize the ankle joint
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Fibula
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This part of the fibula forms the prominent ankle bulge and articulates with the talus
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Lateral Malleolus
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This bone receives the weight of the body from the femur and transmits it to the foot
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Tibia or shinbone
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This part of the tibia forms the medial bulge of the ankle
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Medial Malleolus
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What does the foot skeleton contain?
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Tarsus, the metatarsus and the phalanges
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The two large tarsal bones that carry the most weight are the?
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Talus (ankle) and the Calcaneus (heel)
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The enlarged head of the first metatarsal forms the?
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"ball of the foot"
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The metatarsus has?
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5 small long metatarsal bones
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What are the three arches of the foot?
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Medial longitudinal arch, Transverse arch and Lateral longitudinal arch
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What is skeletal cartilage made up of?
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Variety of cartilage tissue which consists mainly of water
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The high water content of cartilage makes it?
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resilient and able to spring back to its orginal shape after being compressed
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Does Cartilage have nerves and blood vessels?
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No
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What is cartilage surrounded by?
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Dense irregular connective tissue called Perichondrium
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Does the perichondrium contain blood vessels?
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yes
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Is cartilage thick?
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No due to its lack of blood vessels
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What are the three types of cartilage
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hyaline, elastic, and fibrocartilage
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What are the basic components of cartilige
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Cells called chondrocytes encased in lacuna within an extracellular matrix contianing a jelly like ground substance and fibers
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This hyaline cartilage covers the ends of most bones at moveable joints
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Articular cartilages
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This hyaline cartilage connects the ribs to the sternum
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Costal cartilages
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Where is elastic cartilage found?
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External ear and epiglottis
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What are the two ways cartilage grows?
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Appositional and Intersititial
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This literally means "growth from the outside" it occurs when the perichondrium secrets new matrix against the external surface of the eisting cartilage
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Appositional growth
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This literally means "growth from the inside" occurs when the chondrocytes divide and secrete new matrix expanding the cartilage from within
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Interstitial growth
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When does cartilage growth end?
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During adolescence when the skeleton stops growing
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the 206 bones of the skeleton may be classified according to their texture into two types
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Compact bone and Spongy bone
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Bones may be classified on the basis of their gross anatomy into four types
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Long bones, short bones, Flat bones, Irregular bones
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The femur, phalanges and all limb bones except patellas, carpals and tarsals are?
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Long Bones longer than they are wide
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The tarsals and carpals are types of?
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Short bones, cubed shaped
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These are found in the skull, the sternum, the scapula and the ribs
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Flat bones, thin with two wafers of compact bone with a layer of spongy between
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Vertebrae and coccyx are considered?
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Irregular bones
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Where is red bone marrow located in adults?
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in the trabecular cavities of the spongy bone of the flat bones and the proximal epiphysis of the humerus and femur
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This is a large rounded projection on a bone
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Tuberosity
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This is a narrow ridge of bone
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Crest
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This is a very large, blunt irregularly shaped process
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Trochanter
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This is a narrow ridge of bone, not as prominent as a crest
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Line
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This is a small rounded process or projection
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Tubercle
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Raised area above a condyle
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Epicondyle
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A sharp, slender, pointed projection
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Spine
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A prominence or projection
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Process
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This is a space within a bone filled with air lined with a mucous membrane
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A sinus
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Two types of bone cavities
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Antrum and sinus
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A canal like passage that allow blood vessels and nerves to pass through
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meatus
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a shallow, basin like depression in a bone, oftern serving as an articular surface
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a fossa
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a furrow in a bone
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groove
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narrow slit like opening in a bone
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fissure
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round or oval opening in a bone
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foramen
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All bone has a dense outer layer consisting of ?
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compact bone that is solid and smooth
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Internal to compact bone is the?
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Spongy bone, which is honeycom bed with needle-like pieces called trabeculae
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This bone has a tubular bone shaft called the diaphysis consisting of a bone collar surrounding a hollow medullary cavity which is filled with yellow bone marrow in adults
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long bones
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These are at the ends of the long bone and consist of an internal spongy bone covered by an out layer of compact bone
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Epiphyses
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The epiphyseal line is located between the epiphyses and diaphysis and is a remnant of the
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epiphyseal plate
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The external surface of the bone is surrounded by a periosteum, which is secured to the underlying bone by perforating
|
"Sharpey's fibers"
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The internal surface of the bone is lined by a connective tissue membrane called the
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endosteum
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This organic component of bone build up bones
|
Osteoblasts
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This organic component of bone Tears down bones
|
Osteoclasts
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This is a mature bone cell
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Osteoctytes
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A mineral salt that is mostly calcium phosphate which gives bones it hardness
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hydroxyapetite
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Ossification and Osterogenesis mean?
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process of bone formation
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Are bones capable of growing in thickness throughout life?
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Yes
|
|
Ossification in adults serves mainly for ?
|
bone remodeling and repair
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When bone tissue replaces hyaline cartilage, forming all the bones below the skull except for the clavicle
|
Endochondral ossification
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When bones form from fibrous connective tissue membranes resulting in cranial bones and clavicles
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Intramembraneous ossification
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Steps of Endochondral ossification
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1 osteoblasts secrete osteoid, creating a "bone collar" around the diaphysis of the hyaline cartilage model. 2 Cartilage in the center calcifies and deteriorates, forming cavities, 3 Periosteal bud invades the cavities and spongy bone forms around the remaining fragments of hyaline cartilage4 the diaphysis elongates as the cartilage in the epiphysis continues to lengthen 5 A medullary cavity is formed by osteoclasts within the center of the diaphysis 6 the epiphyses ossify Shortly after birth through the development of secondary ossification centers
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The osteoid must mature for about a week before it can?
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Calcify
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In bone remodeling when the concentrations of calcium and phosphate ions reach a certain level?
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tiny crystals of hydroxyapetite form spontaneously
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This is essential for bone mineralization and is made by osteoblasts
|
Alkaline phosphatase
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The ruffled border of the osteoclast secrets _____ and ____ to break down bone
|
Lysosomal enzymes and hydrochloric acid
|
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This causes calcium levels to rise by stimulating osteoclasts to resorb bone and increases serium calcium weakens bones
|
Para thyroid hormone
|
|
This causes calcium levels to be lower by inhibiting bone resorption and encouraging calcium deposits in bones strengthens bones
|
Calcitonin
|
|
This includes a number of diseases in which the bones are inadequately mineralized
|
Osteomalacia
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|
A fracture where the bone ends retain their normal postion
|
Nondisplaced fracture
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A fracture where the bones are out of alignment
|
Displaced fracture
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A fracture where the bone is broken through
|
Complete fracture
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A fracture where the bone is not broken through
|
Incomplete fracture
|
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A fracture which parallels the long axis
|
Linear fracture
|
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A fracture that is perpendicular to long bone axis
|
Transverse fracture
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A fracture that penetrates the skin
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Compound (open)
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A fracture that does not penetrate the skin
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Simple (closed)
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A fracture when the bone fragments into three or more pieces
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Comminuted fracture
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Bone is crushed
|
compression fracture
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Ragged break occuring when excessive twisting forces are applied to a bone
|
Spiral fracture
|
|
Epiphysis separates from the diaphysis along the epiphyseal plate
|
Epiphyseal fracture
|
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Broken bone portion is pressed inward
|
Depressed fracture
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|
Bone breaks incompletely, only one side of the shaft breaks the other side bends
|
Greenstick fracture
|
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When bone resorption outpaces bone deposits
|
Osteoporosis
|
|
Special type of short bones found in tendons
|
Sesamoid bones, patella and two in foot
|
|
Tiny bones between cranial bones
|
Wormian (sutural) bones
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|
Smooth portion of the frontal bone between the orbits is called?
|
Glabella
|
|
Squamous, Tympanic, mastoid, and petrous regions are all regions of?
|
Temporal bone
|
|
Three types of joints based on binding material
|
Fibrous, cartilaginous, synovial
|
|
Three types of fibrous joints are?
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Sutures, syndesmoses, gomphoses
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|
These only occur between bones of the skull
|
Sutures
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|
In middle age the fibrous tissue ossifies and the skull bone fuses into a
|
synostosis
|
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The distal tibial-fibular joint has a little "give" but functionally is classified as an immovable joint this is an example of?
|
Syndesmoses
|
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A peg-in-socket fibrous joint and example is the tooth
|
Gomphoses
|
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When the articulating bones are united by cartilage and they lack a joint cavity
|
Cartilaginous joints
|
|
Two types of cartilaginous joints are?
|
Synchondroses and symphyses
|
|
A bar or plate of hyaline cartilage unites the bones
|
synchondroses
|
|
the articular surface of the bones are covered with articular hyaline cartliage which is fused to a pad or plate of fibrocartilage
|
symphyses
|
|
Examples include the epiphysial plates connecting the diaphysis and epiphysis in long bones of children and the joint between the costal cartilage of the first rib and the manubrium
|
Synchondrosis
|
|
Samples include the intervertebral joints and the pubic symphsis
|
Symphyses
|
|
When the articulating bones are separated by a fluid-filled joint cavity
|
Synovial joints
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|
All synovial joints are diarthrosis which means?
|
They move in different directions
|
|
five major features of synovial joints
|
articular cartilate, joint (synovial) cavity, articular capsules, synovial fluid, and reinforcing ligaments
|
|
This substance is made by filtration from blood and is viscous
|
Synovial fluid
|
|
When synovial fluid is forced out into the cavity when compression occurs of the cartilage
|
"Weeping lubrication"
|
|
A ligament can only stretch ____of its length before it snaps
|
6%
|
|
Every skeletal muscle of the body is attached to bone or other connective tissue structures at?
|
no less than two points
|
|
When attached to the immovable or less movable bone it is called
|
origin
|
|
When attached to the moveable bone it is called
|
insertion
|
|
A slipping movement of a joint with no axis involved
|
nonaxial movement
|
|
Joint movement in one plane
|
Uniaxial movement
|
|
Joint Movement in two planes
|
Biaxial movement
|
|
joint Movement in all three planes of space
|
Multiaxial movement
|
|
Three general types of movement are?
|
Gliding, angular movement and rotation
|
|
Gliding movements are also known as
|
Translation
|
|
This is the simplest joint movement
|
Gliding
|
|
Found at the intercarpal and intertarsal joints and between the flat articular processes of the vertebrae, some mandibular motions and sacroiliac
|
Gliding
|
|
These movements increase or decrease the angles between bones
|
Angular movements
|
|
Seven types of angular movements?
|
Flexion, extension, dorsiflexion, plantar flexion, abduction, adduction, circumduction
|
|
This decreases the angle of the joint
|
Flexion
|
|
This increases the angle between the articulating bones
|
Extension
|
|
Two specific terms used to describe foot motion
|
Dorsiflexion (lifting the foot) and Plantar flexion (pointing the toes)
|
|
The movement of a limb away from the midline
|
Abduction
|
|
The movement of a limb towards from the midline
|
Adduction
|
|
Moving a limb so that it describes a cone in space
|
circumduction
|
|
The turning of a bone around its own long axis
|
rotation
|
|
Rotating the forearm laterally so the palm faces up, it refers to the movement of the radius around the ulna
|
Supination
|
|
The forearm rotates medially and the palm faces posteriorly
|
pronation
|
|
When your foot points outward it is
|
eversion and inversion to point inward
|
|
The mandible can be
|
Protraction and retraction and or elevation and depression
|
|
The movement of the thumb to touch the fingertips due to the saddle joint between metacarpal1 and the carpals
|
Opposition
|
|
Synovial joints can be classified into six categories, based on the shape of their articular surfaces
|
plane, hinge, pivot, condyloid, saddle and ball and socket joints
|
|
The articular surfaces are essentially flat, allowing for short gliding movements it does not involve rotation around an axis
|
Plane joints
|
|
A cylindrical projection of one bone fits into a trough shaped surgace on another. Motion is on a single plane, to permit flexion and extension only
|
Hinge joints
|
|
The rounded end of one bone protrudes into a sleeve or ring made of another bone and some ligaments
|
pivot joints
|
|
intercarpal and intertarsal joints, joints between the vertebrae
|
plane joints
|
|
Elbow and interphalangeal joint
|
hinge joints
|
|
The atlas and dens of the axis, the proximal radioulnar joint
|
Pivot joints
|
|
Also called ellipsoidal joints, the oval articular surgace of one bone fits into a complementary depression in another. This joint permits all angular motions
|
Condyloid joints
|
|
Radiocarpal and metacarpophalangel (knuckle)
|
condyloid joints
|
|
Each articular surface has both concave and convex areas (shaped like a saddle) resembles condyloid joints
|
Saddle Joints
|
|
carpormetacarpal joint of the thumb
|
Saddle joints
|
|
The spherical or hemispherical head of one bone articulates with the cuplike saucer of the other, allows multiaxial movement
|
Ball and socket joint
|
|
Shoulders and hips
|
Ball and socket joints
|
|
In the knee joint this is attached anteriorly to the tibia and to the medial side of the femur, stops hyperextension of the femur
|
Anterior cruciate ligament ACL
|
|
The shoulder joint is also called
|
The glenohumeral joint
|
|
Inflammation of one or several joints
|
Arthritis
|
|
Age related it begins with broken down cartilage which is softened and pitted and eroded then exposed bone forms bone spurs that restrict movement
|
Osteoarthritis
|
|
Start age 40-50 and is an auto-immune disease, gets a "pannus" in the joint and ankylosis
|
Rheumatoid arthritis
|
|
Uric acid crystals deposit in the joints, often starts in the big toe
|
Gouty arthritis
|
|
The Maxilla (palatine process) and the Palatine bone make up the ?
|
hard palate
|
|
The only bony attachment of appendicular skeleton to Axiel
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Clavical
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The bony attachment of appendicular skeleton to Axiel by the clavical is called?
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Sternal Claviar Articulation
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